ISTQB Foundation Level- Sample Exam Questions
An e-commerce website is offering discounts according to the price of the customer purchases. If the purchases are <$100, the customer will get a 5% discount of total price. If the purchases are > or equal to $100 but < $1000, the discount will be 10%. If the purchases are $1000 or more, the discount will be 20%. Which of the following purchase values will achieve the MOST boundary coverage (where purchases are approximated to the nearest dollar)? A. 0, 1, 99, 100, 1000, 10001 B. 0, 100, 1000 C
A. 0, 1, 99, 100, 1000, 10001
Which statement about the relationship between statement coverage and decision coverage is true? A. 100% decision coverage also guarantees 100% statement coverage B. 100% statement coverage also guarantees 100% decision coverage C. 50% decision coverage also guarantees 50% statement coverage D. Decision coverage can never reach 100%
A. 100% decision coverage also guarantees 100% statement coverage
Match the following work products with the right description 1. Test suite 2. Test case 3. Test script 4. Test charter a. A set of test scripts to be executed in a specific test run b. A set of instructions for the execution of a test c. Contains expected results d. Documentation of test activities in session-based exploratory testing A. 1a, 2c, 3b, 4d B. 1d, 2b, 3a, 4c C. 1a, 2c, 3d, 4a D. 1d, 2c, 3b, 4a
A. 1a, 2c, 3b, 4d
A developer wants you to help him measure the statement coverage of the test he designed, given that the total lines of code is 129, the comments lines are 36 and his test executes 80 lines. What is the statement coverage for the test? A. 86% B. 80% C. 93% D. 45%
A. 86%
Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions with the different categories of test techniques? 1. Coverage is measured based on a selected structure of the test object 2. The processing within the test object is checked 3. Tests are based on defects' likelihood and their distribution 4. Deviations from the requirements are checked 5. User stories are used as test basis *Black: Black-box *White: White-box *Exp: Experience-based A. Black: 4, 5 White: 1, 2 Exp: 3 B. Black: 3 White: 1,
A. Black: 4, 5 White: 1, 2 Exp: 3
Which of the following can affect and be part of the (initial) test planning? A. Budget limitations B. Test log C. Failure rate D. Use cases
A. Budget limitations
Which one of the following is the characteristic of a metrics-based approach for test estimation? A. Budget which was used by a previous similar test project B. Overall experience collected in interviews with test managers C. Estimation of effort for test automation agreed in the test team D. Average of calculations collected from business experts
A. Budget which was used by a previous similar test project
Which of the following activities is part of 'test implementation' in the test process? A. Building the test environment B. Recording the IDs and versions of the test item(s) or test object, test tool(s), and test ware C. Reporting defects based on the failures observed D. Identifying necessary test data to support test conditions and test cases
A. Building the test environment
Which of the following should not be a trigger for maintenance testing? A. Decision to test the maintainability of the software B. Decision to test the system after migration to a new operating platform C. Decision to test if archived data is possible to be retrieved D. Decision to test after hot fixes
A. Decision to test the maintainability of the software
Which of the following is not included in a test summary report? A. Defining pass/fail criteria and objectives of testing B. Deviations from the test approach C. Measurements of actual progress against exit criteria D. Evaluation of the quality of the test object
A. Defining pass/fail criteria and objectives of testing
Which of the following is the best definition of an incremental development model? A. Defining requirements, designing software, and testing are done in phases where in each phase a piece of the system is added B. A phase in the development process should begin when the previous phase is complete C. Testing is viewed as a separate phase which takes place after development has been completed D. Testing is added to development as an increment
A. Defining requirements, designing software, and testing are done in phases where in each phase a piece of the system is added
Which of the following can be assessed by test metrics? A. Effectiveness of the test activities with respect to the objectives B. The test team efficiency C. The test manager's capability of planning and managing the test process D. The collaboration between test team and development team
A. Effectiveness of the test activities with respect to the objectives
Which of the following statements correctly describes a role of impact analysis in maintenance testing? A. Impact analysis is used when deciding if a fix to a maintained system is worthwhile B. Impact analysis is used to identify how data should be migrated into the maintained system C. Impact analysis is used to decide which hot fixes are of the most value to the user D. Impact analysis is used to determine the effectiveness of new maintenance test cases
A. Impact analysis is used when deciding if a fix to a maintained system is worthwhile
At the end of the current scrum sprint, the manager asks the UI designers to hold a review meeting in order to quickly solve the minor design problems. What is the review type being used in this case? A. Informal review B. Walkthrough C. Technical inspection D. Inspection
A. Informal review
Given the testing being performed has the following attributes: - Based on interface specifications - Focused on finding failures in communication - The test approach uses both functional and structural test types Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed? A. Integration testing B. Acceptance testing C. System testing D. Component testing
A. Integration testing
Which of the following correctly matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review? A. Manager: decides on the execution of reviews B. Review leader: ensures effective running of review meetings C. Scribe: Fixes defects in the work product under review D. Moderator: Monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness
A. Manager: decides on the execution of reviews
Which of the following is a potential risk of test execution tools? A. Neglecting the version control of test work products B. Losing some testing information, such as test progress metrics C. Some difficulty of test repeatability D. Imposing additional efforts for environment set up/tear down tasks
A. Neglecting the version control of test work products
Which of the following metrics would be most useful to monitor during test execution? A. Percentage of executed test cases B. Average number of testers involved in test execution C. Coverage of requirements by source code D. Percentage of test cases already created and reviewed
A. Percentage of executed test cases
Which of the following test strategies BEST suits exploratory testing? A. Reactive B. Model-based C. Methodical D. Regression-averse
A. Reactive
Which of the following lists contains only typical exit criteria from testing? A. Reliability measures, test coverage, schedule and status about fixing defects and remaining risks B. Reliability measures, test coverage, degree of tester's independence, and product completeness C. Reliability measures, test coverage, test cost, availability of test environment, time to market, and product completeness D. Time to market, remaining defects, tester qualification, availability of testable use case
A. Reliability measures, test coverage, schedule and status about fixing defects and remaining risks
Which of the following tasks should be done by a test manager? A. Share testing perspectives with other project activities, such as integration planning B. Review and contribute to test plans C. Design, set up, and verify test environment(s), often coordinating with system administration and network management D. Review tests developed by others
A. Share testing perspectives with other project activities, such as integration planning
Which of the following statements about static testing is MOST true? A. Static testing is a cheap way to detect and remove defects B. Static testing makes dynamic testing less challenging C. Static testing makes it possible to find run-time problems early in the lifecycle D. When testing safety-critical systems, static testing has less value because dynamic testing finds the defects better
A. Static testing is a cheap way to detect and remove defects
Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are derived from a use case? A. Test cases are created to exercise defined basic, exceptional, and error behaviors performed by the system under test in collaboration with actors B. Test cases are derived by identifying the components included in the use case and creating integration tests that exercise the interactions of these components C. Test cases are generated by analyzing the interactions of the actors with the system to e
A. Test cases are created to exercise defined basic, exceptional, and error behaviors performed by the system under test in collaboration with actors
Which of the following statements describes the most common situation for a failure discovered during testing or in production? A. The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialog box B. The wrong version of a compiled source code file was included in the build C. The computation algorithm used the wrong input variables D. The developer misinterpreted the requirement for the algorithm
A. The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialog box
Which of the following is a typical objective of testing? A. To find defects and failures B. To validate the project plan works as required C. Ensuring complete testing D. Comparing actual results with expected results
A. To find defects and failures
Which of the following test objects can not be covered by white-box testing? A. Use cases B. Workflows C. Architecture D. Code
A. Use cases
Match the following test activities with tasks: a. Test design b. Test implementation c. Test execution d. Test completion 1. Entering change requests for open defect reports 2. Identifying test data to support the test cases 3. Prioritizing test procedures and creating test data 4. Analyzing discrepancies to determine their cause A. a2, b3, c4, d1 B. a2, b1, c3, d4 C. a3, b2, c4, d1 D. a3, b2, c1, d4
A. a2, b3, c4, d1
A CV generator web application offers 3 types of CVs: for internships, for fresh graduates, and for other employees. All the CVs can be generated either in one color scheme, two colors, or black and white. A previous tester worked on the project and designed the following test cases. How many test cases should you add to cover all the output categories TC 1: Internship/one color TC 2: Internship/black and white TC 3: Internship/two colors A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
B. 2
Which of the following is the definition of the term test case? A. Subset of the value domain of a variable within a component or system in which all values are expected to be treated the same based on the specification B. A set of preconditions, inputs, actions, expected results, and postconditions, developed based on test conditions C. Work products produced during the test process for use in planning, designing, executing, evaluating, and reporting on testing D. A source to determine an exp
B. A set of preconditions, inputs, actions, expected results, and postconditions, developed based on test conditions
Which of the following describes a test condition? A. A distinguishing characteristic of a component or system B. A testable aspect of a component or system identified as a basis for testing C. The degree to which a software product provides functions which meet state and implied needs when the software is used under specified conditions D. Test cases designed to execute combinations of conditions and actions resulting from them
B. A testable aspect of a component or system identified as a basis for testing
Which of the following qualities is MORE likely to be found in a tester's mindset rather than a developer's? A. A tester's mindset tends to grow and mature as the tester gains experience B. Ability to see what might go wrong C. Good communication with team members D. Attention to detail
B. Ability to see what might go wrong
Which of the following provides the BEST description of exploratory testing? A. A testing practice in which an in-depth investigation of the background of the test object is used to identify potential weaknesses that are examined by test cases B. An approach to testing whereby the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item, and the results of previous tests C. An approach to test design in which test activities are planned as uninterrupt
B. An approach to testing whereby the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item, and the results of previous tests
Which of the following cases have 100% statement coverage that achieves 100% decision coverage? A. An if statement that has an inner if statement B. An if-else statement C. An if statement that has no explicit false statement D. An if-else if statement
B. An if-else statement
Which of the following can NOT be considered a valid entry criterion? A. Availability of testable requirements B. Availability of test schedule C. Availability of necessary test tools D. Availability of test environment
B. Availability of test schedule
Which of the following tests is NOT a black-box test technique? A. State transition testing B. Decision testing C. Use Case testing D. Decision table testing
B. Decision testing
Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between testing and debugging? A. Testing identifies the source of defects; debugging analyzes the defects & proposes prevention activities B. Dynamic testing shows failures causes by defects; debugging eliminates the defects, which are the sources of failures C. Testing does not remove faults; but debugging removes defects that cause the faults D. Dynamic testing prevents the causes of failures; debugging removes the failure
B. Dynamic testing shows failures causes by defects; debugging eliminates the defects, which are the sources of failures
Which of the following is the description of statement coverage? A. It is a metric, which is the percentage of test cases that have been executed B. It is a metric, which is the percentage of statements in the source code that have been executed C. It is a metric, which is the number of statements in the source code that have been executed by test cases that are passed D. It is a metric, that gives a true/false confirmation if all statements are covered or not
B. It is a metric, which is the percentage of statements in the source code that have been executed
Which of the following BEST describes how value is added by maintaining traceability between the test basis and test artifacts? A. Maintenance testing can be fully automated based on changes to the initial requirements B. It is possible to determine if a new test case has increased coverage of the requirements C. Test managers can identify which testers found the highest severity defects D. Areas that may be impacted by side-effects of a change can be targeted by confirmation testing
B. It is possible to determine if a new test case has increased coverage of the requirements
A software encounters database latency issues, which causes the developers to make a decision to upgrade to a more efficient database. What will be the most needed testing after this upgrade? A. Security testing B. Maintenance testing C. Confirmation testing D. System testing
B. Maintenance testing
Which of the following tests is strongly related to static testing? A. Component testing B. Security testing C. Usability testing D. Performance testing
B. Security testing
Which of the following descriptions of statement coverage is CORRECT? A. Statement coverage is a measure of the number of lines of source code exercised by tests B. Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements in the source code exercised by tests C. Statement coverage is a measure of the percentage of lines of source code (without comments) exercised by tests D. Statement coverage is a measure of the number of executable statements in the source code exercised b
B. Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements in the source code exercised by tests
In what way can testing be part of Quality Assurance? A. It ensures that requirements are detailed enough B. Testing reduces the risk of poor software quality C. It ensures that standards in the organization are followed D. It measures the quality of software in terms of number of executed test cases
B. Testing reduces the risk of poor software quality
While testing a certain project your testing team found a great number of bugs. After submitting the defect reports, the test manager modifies some parts of the test plan. What can be the MOST LIKELY modified part in the test plan? A. The applied testing approach B. The schedule of the confirmation test cycle C. The resources required to perform test activities D. The used metrics for test monitoring and control
B. The schedule of the confirmation test cycle
The website of a certain university shows very low grades for all undergrads, which leads to anger among the students. Testing the website found that the shown grades are just the final exams and didn't include other assignments from the year, as the developers weren't familiar with e-learning projects or the exact calculation of overall grade. Which of the following is the effect, defect, and root cause of this issue? A. The wrong grades is the effect, the other assignment grades is the defec
B. The student anger is the effect, the wrong grades is the defect, and root cause is the developer didn't know correct calculation
Which of the following statements best describes how tasks are divided between the test manager and the tester? A. The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and sets the tools usage guidelines B. The test manager plans, coordinates and controls the testing activities, while the tester automates the tests C. The test manager plans, monitors, and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests and decides
B. The test manager plans, coordinates and controls the testing activities, while the tester automates the tests
What does the term 'test object' refer to? A. The reason or purpose of testing B. The work product to be tested C. A model describing test ware that is used for testing a component or a system under test D. A collection of stubs and drivers needed to execute a test suite
B. The work product to be tested
Which of the following statements is a valid objective for testing? A. The test should start as late as possible so that the developers have enough time to create a good product B. To validate whether the test object works as expected by the users and other stakeholders C. To prove that all possible defects are identified D. To prove that any remaining defects will not cause any failures
B. To validate whether the test object works as expected by the users and other stakeholders
Test plan: 1. The acceptance test for the whole system is executed as an experience-based test 2. The control algorithms on the server are checked against standard of the energy saving regulation 3. The functional test of the thermostat is performed as risk-based testing 4. The security tests of data/communication via the internet are executed together with external security experts What 4 common types of test strategies/approaches did the test manager implement in the test plan? A. method
B. analytical, standard-compliant, consultative, and reactive
An e-commerce website is offering discounts according to the price of the customer purchases. If the purchases are <$100, the customer will get a 5% discount of total price. If the purchases are > or equal to $100 but < $1000, the discount will be 10%. If the purchases are $1000 or more, the discount will be 20%. How many valid and invalid equivalence partitions? A. 4 valid partitions, 2 invalid B. 3 valid partitions, 2 invalid C. 3 valid partitions, 1 invalid D. 4 valid partitions, 1 invalid
C. 3 valid partitions, 1 invalid
A tester is conducting usability tests on the main user workflow of a system. Which type of test is she performing? A. A functional test during the integration test level B. A non-functional test during the component test level C. A non-functional test during the acceptance test level D. A functional test during the acceptance test level
C. A non-functional test during the acceptance test level
Which of the following is a defect rather than a root cause in a fitness tracker? A. Because the author of the requirements was unfamiliar with the domain of fitness training, he wrongly assumed that users wanted heartbeat in beats/hour B. The tester of the smartphone interface had not been trained in state transition testing, so they missed a major defect C. An incorrect configuration variable implemented for the GPS function could cause location problems during daylight saving times D. Beca
C. An incorrect configuration variable implemented for the GPS function could cause location problems during daylight saving times
Which of the following statements is true about the test estimation techniques? A. Burndown charts and planning poker are metrics-based, while defect removal models and wideband delphi are expert-based B. Burndown charts and wideband delphi are metrics-based, while defect removal models and planning poker are expert-based C. Burndown charts and defect removal models are metrics-based, while planning poker and wideband delphi are expert-based D. Defect removal models and wideband delphi are metr
C. Burndown charts and defect removal models are metrics-based techniques, while planning poker and wideband delphi are expert-based techniques
A programmer asks you for the MOST suitable testing technique he shall use for testing a project that has different outputs according to the user selection? A. Checklist-based testing B. Decision table testing C. Decision testing D. State testing
C. Decision testing
Which activities are carried out within the planning of a formal review? A. Collection of metrics for the evaluation of the effectiveness of the review B. Answer any questions the participants may have C. Definition and verification of fulfillment of entry criteria for the review D. Evaluation of the review findings against the exit criteria
C. Definition and verification of fulfillment of entry criteria for the review
You are engaged in a team developing an application. Just one day before releasing the alpha version, you have to test it to ensure its robustness and that it has no major defects. Which of the following techniques will BEST help you? A. Use case testing B. Decision testing C. Error guessing D. Decision table testing
C. Error guessing
Which of the following BEST describes the concept behind error guessing? A. Error guessing requires you to imagine you are the user of the test object and guess mistakes the user could make interacting with it B. Error guessing involves using your personal experience of development and the mistakes you made as a developer C. Error guessing involves using your knowledge and experience of defects found in the past and typical mistakes made by developers D. Error guessing requires you to rapidly duplicate the development task to identify the sort of mistake a developer might make
C. Error guessing involves using your knowledge and experience of defects found in the past and typical mistakes made by developers
You have contributed to a crowd testing session of a new video streaming software, where the project's stakeholders provide you with nothing except the software itself and have asked you and the other testers to give them your feedback. What is the MOST appropriate testing technique to be used here? A. Black-box test techniques B. White-box test techniques C. Experience-based techniques D. Functional testing
C. Experience-based techniques
What is checklist-based testing? A. Technique in which tests are derived based on the tester's knowledge of past faults, or general knowledge of failures B. A test technique based on an analysis of the specification of a component or system C. Experience-based test technique whereby the experienced tester uses a list of items to be noted, checked, or remembered, or a set of rules or criteria against which a product must be verified D. Approach to testing where the testers dynamically design an
C. Experience-based test technique whereby the experienced tester uses a list of items to be noted, checked, or remembered, or a set of rules or criteria against which a product must be verified
Which of the review types below is the BEST option to choose when the review must follow a formal process based on rules and checklists? A. Informal Review B. Technical Review C. Inspection D. Walkthrough
C. Inspection
Which of the following statements about test types and test levels is correct? A. Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at system and acceptance test levels, while white-box is restricted to component and integration testing B. Functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box is restricted to component testing C. It is possible to perform functional, non-functional, and white-box testing at any test level D. Functional and non-functional testing can be
C. It is possible to perform functional, non-functional, and white-box testing at any test level
Which of the following defects can ONLY be found by static testing? A. Security vulnerabilities B. Performance issues C. Poor reusability of components D. Poor system usability
C. Poor reusability of components
Mr. Test has been testing software applications on mobile devices for a period of 5 years. Over several months, Mr. Test did not modify the existing automated test cases and did not create any new test cases. This leads to fewer and fewer defects being found by executing the tests. What principle of testing did Mr. Test not observe? A. Testing depends on the environment B. Exhaustive testing is not possible C. Repeating of the same tests will not find new defects D. Defects cluster together
C. Repeating of the same tests will not find new defects Beware of the Pesticide Paradox
Which of the following test tools is mostly suitable for developers rather than testers? A. Requirement management tools B. Configuration management tools C. Static analysis tools D. Performance testing tools
C. Static analysis tools
Which of the following can be considered as the most important feature of the V-model? A. Delivering the final product in a relatively short time B. Creating experimental increments to get early feedback C. Supporting the early testing principle D. Building the software in a series of cycles, often of a fixed duration
C. Supporting the early testing principle
Which of the following tools is most helpful for maintaining traceability to test objects? A. Specialized testing tools B. Test design and implementation tools C. Test management tools D. Test execution and logging tools
C. Test management tools
Which of the following statements is NOT true about test planning? A. Test planning is a continuous activity and is performed throughout the product's lifecycle B. Test planning can be adjusted according to the changing risks recognized by the feedback from test activities C. Test planning should start from the very early stage of the product until it is finally released D. Test plan can include more details when more information becomes available as the project progresses
C. Test planning should start from the very early stage of the product until it is finally released
Which of the following is an example of a failure in a car cruise control system? A. The developer of the system forgot to rename the variables after a cut-and-paste operation B. Unnecessary code that sounds an alarm when reversing was included in the system C. The system stops maintaining a set speed when the radio volume is increased or decreased D. The design specification for the system wrongly states speeds
C. The system stops maintaining a set speed when the radio volume is increased or decreased
A newly launched alarm application is found to ring at the wrong times compared to what the user set. When the tester reviewed it he found the alarm time is always adjusted to the UTC time zone, no matter what the user's time zone is. When communicating with the developer, he realized there is a wrong line of code forcing the app to override the user time zone and use UTC. Which of the following is considered the failure, defect, and error? A. The wrong code is the defect, using the UTC is th
C. The wrong code is the error, using the UTC is the defect, and ringing at wrong times is the failure
How can white-box testing be applied during acceptance testing? A. To check if large volumes of data can be transferred between integrated systems B. To check if all code statements and code decision paths have been executed C. To check if all work process flows have been covered D. To cover all web page navigation
C. To check if all work process flows have been covered
For which of the following situations is exploratory testing suitable? A. When time pressure requires speeding up the execution of tests already specified B. When the system is developed incrementally and no test charter is available C. When testers are available who have enough knowledge of similar applications and technologies D. When an advanced knowledge of the system already exists and evidence is to be provided that it should be tested intensively
C. When testers are available who have enough knowledge of similar applications and technologies
Match the following test activities with their corresponding work products. Test activities: 1. Test analysis 2. Test design 3. Test implementation 4. Test execution Work products: a. Documentation of the status of individual test cases or test procedures b. Defined and prioritized test conditions c. Identification of infrastructure and tools d. Test suites A. 1b, 2c, 3d, 4a B. 1c, 2b, 3d, 4a C. 1a, 2c, 3d, 4b D. 1b, 2d, 3c, 4a
D. 1b, 2d, 3c, 4a
A pharmacy has different discount subscription programs for its clients: Primary is 30% Secondary is 20% Tertiary is 10% Due to Covid-19, an additional 10% discount is included for medical personnel. What is the minimum number of test cases to cover all the possible discount values? A. 16 B. 12 C. 8 D. 7
D. 7
Which of the following options is categorized as a black-box test technique? A. A technique based on analysis of the architecture B. A technique checking that the test object is working according to the detailed design C. A technique based on the knowledge of past faults, or general knowledge of failures D. A technique based on formal requirements
D. A technique based on formal requirements
A new paid software is released after ensuring it is covered by thorough test cases for the functional and non-functional requirements and all the found defects are fixed. However, most of the user's didn't switch to it because they already have a free alternative. Which testing principle is applied here? A. Exhaustive testing is impossible B. Testing is context dependent C. Testing shows the presence of defects, not their absence D. Absence of errors is a fallacy
D. Absence of errors is a fallacy
Which of the following statements on the use of checklists in a formal review is correct? A. As part of the review planning, the reviewers create the checklists needed for the review B. As part of the issue communication, the reviewers fill in the checklists provided for the review C. As part of the review meeting, the reviewers create defect reports based on the checklists provided for the review D. As part of the review initiation, the reviewers receive the checklists needed for the review
D. As part of the review initiation, the reviewers receive the checklists needed for the review
Which of the following options are roles in a formal review? A. Developer, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Tester B. Author, Moderator, Manager, Reviewer, Developer C. Author, Manager, Review leader, Reviewer, Designer D. Author, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Scribe
D. Author, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Scribe
Which of the following can be a valid test objective? A. Ensuring that the software is free of bugs B. Fixing all the found defects C. Identifying false positive and false negative findings D. Building confidence in the level of quality of the test object
D. Building confidence in the level of quality of the test object
Which of the following activities is part of the fixing and reporting main activity in the review process? A. Evaluating the review findings against the exit criteria to make a review decision B. Communicating identified potential defects C. Estimating effort and timeframe D. Communicating defects to the appropriate person or team
D. Communicating defects to the appropriate person or team
Which of the following descriptions of decision coverage is CORRECT? A. Decision coverage is a measure of the percentage of possible paths through the source code exercised by tests B. Decision coverage is a measure of the percentage of business flows through the component exercised by tests C. Decision coverage is a measure of the 'if' statements in the code that are exercised with both the true and false outcomes D. Decision coverage is a measure of the proportion of decision outcomes in the
D. Decision coverage is a measure of the proportion of decision outcomes in the source code exercised by tests
As a result of risk analysis, more testing is being directed to those areas of the system under test where initial testing found more defects than average. Which of the following testing principles is being applied? A. Beware of the pesticide paradox B. Testing is context dependent C. Absence-of-errors is a fallacy D. Defects cluster together
D. Defects cluster together
Which of the following activities is part of the main activity 'Test Analysis' in the test process? A. Identifying any required infrastructure and tools B. Creating test suites from test scripts C. Analyzing lessons learned for process improvement D. Evaluating the test basis for testability
D. Evaluating the test basis for testability
Which of the following is most likely to be a benefit of test execution tools? A. It is easy to create regression tests B. It is easy to maintain version control of test assets C. It is easy to design tests for security testing D. It is easy to run regression tests
D. It is easy to run regression tests
In a review meeting for reviewing software design, you are asked (as a tester) to come up with the draft integration test cases that cover the system interfaces. What is the review technique applied? A. Scenario and dry runs B. Ad hoc C. Role-based D. Perspective-based
D. Perspective-based
Which of the following statements correctly reflects the value of static testing? A. By introducing reviews, we have found that both the quality of specifications and the time required for development and testing have increased B. Using static testing means we have better control and cheaper defect management due to the ease of detecting defects later in the life cycle C. Now that we require the use of static analysis, missed requirements have decreased and communication between testers and de
D. Since we started using static analysis, we find coding defects that might not have been found by performing only dynamic testing
A company decided to add an independent test team to carry out the testing process. After some time, the project manager noticed that test team reports great number of trivial bugs that shouldn't be missed by the development team. Which of the following statements BEST explains what leads to this situation? A. This is one of the benefits of independent testing, where independent testers are likely to recognize different kinds of failures compared to developers B. This is one of the drawbacks of
D. This is one of the drawbacks of independent testing, where developers may lose a sense of responsibility for quality
Which of the following statements regarding relationships between software development activities and test activities in the software development life cycle? 1. Each development activity should have a corresponding testing activity 2. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents become available 3. The design and implementation of tests should start during the corresponding development activity 4. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the software development l
D. True: 1, 4/ False: 2, 3
Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independent testing? A. The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team, ensuring everyone is aware that quality is the test team's overall responsibility B. If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict deadlines C. An independent test team can work totally separately from developers, need not be distracted with changing project requirements, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system D. When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be use
D. When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer
