itn 260 Module 04 Endpoint and Application Development Security
Luka has been asked by his supervisor to monitor the dark web for any IOCs concerning their organization. The next week, Luca reports back that he was unable to find anything due to how looking for information on the dark web is different from using the regular web. Which of the following is not different about looking for information on the dark web? a. Dark web search engines are identical to regular search engines. b. The naming structure is different on the dark web. c. Dark web merchants open and close their sites without warning. d. It is necessary to use Tor or IP2.
a. Dark web search engines are identical to regular search engines.
What type of analysis is heuristic monitoring based on? a. Dynamic analysis b. Input analysis c. Static analysis d. Code analysis
a. Dynamic analysis
Which of the following is FALSE about a quarantine process? a. It holds a suspicious application until the user gives approval. b. It can send a URL to the document that is on a restricted computer. c. It is most often used with email attachments. d. It can send a sanitized version of the attachment.
a. It holds a suspicious application until the user gives approval.
Which privacy protection uses four colors to indicate the expected sharing limitations that are to be applied by recipients of the information? a. TLP b. CISA c. PCII d. FOIA
a. TLP
Oskar has been receiving emails about critical threat intelligence information from a public information sharing center. His team leader has asked him to look into how the process can be automated so that the information can feed directly into their technology security. What technology will Oskar recommend? a. Linefeed Access b. Automated Indicator Sharing (AIS) c. Lightwire JSON Control d. Bidirectional Security Protocol (BSP)
b. Automated Indicator Sharing (AIS)
Which boot security mode sends information on the boot process to a remote server? a. Trusted Boot b. Measured Boot c. Secure Boot d. UEFI Native Mode
b. Measured Boot
Which of the following is NOT a limitation of a threat map? a. Because threat maps show anonymized data it is impossible to know the identity of the attackers or the victims. b. They can be difficult to visualize. c. Threat actors usually mask their real locations so what is displayed on a threat map is incorrect. d. Many maps claim that they show data in real time, but most are simply a playback of previous attacks.
b. They can be difficult to visualize.
An IOC occurs when what metric exceeds its normal bounds? a. IRR b. EXR c. KRI d. LRG
c. KRI
Which of the following is NOT an important OS security configuration? a. Disabling default accounts b. Disabling unnecessary services c. Restricting patch management d. Employing least functionality
c. Restricting patch management
Which model uses a sequential design process? a. Agile model b. Rigid model c. Waterfall model d. Secure model
c. Waterfall model
Which of these is a list of preapproved applications? a. Greenlist b. Redlist c. Whitelist d. Blacklist
c. Whitelist
What are the two limitations of private information sharing centers? a. Government approval and cost b. Bandwidth and CPU c. Timing of reports and remote access d. Access to data and participation
d. Access to data and participation
Which of the following tries to detect and stop an attack? a. RDE b. SOMA c. HIDS d. HIPS
d. HIPS
What is the advantage of a secure cookie? a. It is analyzed by AV before it is transmitted. b. It only exists in RAM and is deleted once the web browser is closed. c. It cannot be stored on the local computer without the user's express permission. d. It is sent to the server over HTTPS
d. It is sent to the server over HTTPS
What does Windows 10 Tamper Protection do? a. Compresses and locks the registry b. Prevents any updates to the registry until the user approves the update. c. Creates a secure backup copy of the registry d. Limits access to the registry
d. Limits access to the registry
What are the two concerns about using public information sharing centers? a. Cost and availability b. Security and privacy c. Regulatory approval and sharing d. Privacy and speed
d. Privacy and speed
Which stage conducts a test that will verify the code functions as intended? a. Testing stage b. Production stage c. Development stage d. Staging stage
d. Staging stage
Which of the following is not an improvement of UEFI over BIOS? a. Networking functionality in UEFI b. Access larger hard drives c. Stronger boot security d. Support of USB 3.0
d. Support of USB 3.0
Which of the following is an application protocol for exchanging cyberthreat intelligence over HTTPS? a. AIP-TAR b. TCP-Over-Secure (ToP) c. STIX d. TAXII
d. TAXII
Which of the following is NOT an advantage to an automated patch update service? a. Administrators can approve or decline updates for client systems, force updates to install by a specific date, and obtain reports on what updates each computer needs. b. Specific types of updates that the organization does not test, such as hotfixes, can be automatically installed whenever they become available. c. Downloading patches from a local server instead of using the vendor's online update service can save bandwidth and time because each computer does not have to connect to an external server. d. Users can disable or circumvent updates just as they can if their computer is configured to use the vendor's online update service.
d. Users can disable or circumvent updates just as they can if their computer is configured to use the vendor's online update service.