ITNW-1345 Final Exam Practice

What is NOT a valid file format that can be used to save individual logs? a. .txt b. .evtx c. .doc d. .xml

.doc

What is the IP address that is assigned to the network loopback interface? a. 127.0.0.1 b. 1.1.1.1 c. 224.0.0.255 d. 192.168.1.1

127.0.0.1

How many partitions can exist on a GPT disk in Windows Server 2016? a. 128 b. 64 c. 26 d. 32

128

Without the aid of APICs or special Intel features, what is the maximum number of IRQ lines available to a system? a. 15 b. 8 c. 21 d. 32

15

You are on the 172.16.99.0 network with a subnet mask of 255.255.254.0. What is NOT a valid host IP address on this network? a. 172.16.100.255 b. 172.16.99.1 c. 172.16.100.0 d. 172.16.99.255

172.16.100.255

What is the minimum amount of RAM required in order to support Windows Server 2016 with a GUI desktop? a. 4 GB b. 1 GB c. 512 MB d. 2 GB

2 GB

What is the default cache duration for a DFS namespace folder? a. 25 minutes b. 1 hour c. 30 minutes d. 6 minutes

30 minutes

What is the maximum number of supported central processor sockets for Windows Server 2016 Standard Edition? a. 8 b. 64 c. 16 d. 32

64

When does a page fault occur on a running system? a. A page fault occurs whenever memory pages encounter an error and cannot be utilized. b. A page fault occurs when an attempt to page information from memory to the paging file is unsuccessful. c. A page fault occurs when a program is unable to access a paged file. d. A page fault occurs whenever memory pages are called by a program or process from the paging file on disk.

A page fault occurs whenever memory pages are called by a program or process from the paging file on disk

When viewing logs in the Event Viewer, what symbol is used to indicate that log is an error log entry? a. A red circle with a white X in the middle b. A yellow triangle with a black exclamation point in the middle c. A red circle with a white exclamation point in the middle. d. A blue circle with a white exclamation point in the middle

A red circle with a white exclamation point in the middle.

What is the ideal use case for a RAID-0 array? a. A volume that requires error correction and data parity usage. b. An multi-disk array that requires checksum usage to verify data integrity. c. A critical data store that must remain online even after disk failure. d. A volume that is used for temporary storage of data that is copied from another volume.

A volume that is used for temporary storage of data that is copied from another volume.

What Windows Server 2016 role installs the Identity Management for UNIX service? a. Network Controller Services b. Active Directory Certificate Services c. Active Directory Domain Services d. Host Guardian Services

Active Directory Domain Services

What statement regarding ownership of a file or folder is NOT accurate? a. The account that first creates the file / folder has ownership until transferred. b. The owner of the folder can modify all permissions on the folder. c. An administrator does not have the ability to take ownership of a file / folder unless granted permission to do so. d. Ownership of individual files and folders can be transferred by anyone with the Take Ownership permission.

An administrator does not have the ability to take ownership of a file / folder unless granted permission to do so.

What statement regarding the implementation of RAID on Windows Server 2016 is NOT accurate? a. RAID level 5 requires more memory than RAID level 1. b. RAID level 1 requires a minimum of two hard disks. c. Boot and system files can be placed on RAID level 5, but not on RAID level 1. d. RAID level 5 has much faster read access than RAID level 1.

Boot and system files can be placed on RAID level 5, but not on RAID level 1.

The act of spooling a print job helps free up what resource on the print server? a. Paged memory space b. Active memory utilization c. CPU utilization d. Hard drive storage

CPU utilization

What feature is designed to foil malware, such as computer viruses, Trojan horses, and worms, by preventing programs from using system memory space? a. Protected Memory Blocking b. System Memory Guard c. Data Memory Protection d. Data Execution Prevention

Data Execution Prevention

After experiencing several issues with an Active Directory domain controller, you have decided to perform a restore operation on Active Directory. What Advanced Boot Option should be used to perform the restoration? a. Safe Mode with Networking b. Directory Services Repair Mode c. Active Directory Emergency Maintenance Mode d. Directory Restoration Mode

Directory Services Repair Mode

In order to perform a non-authoritative restore, you must restart the domain controller in what mode? a. Directory Services Restore Mode b. Safe mode c. Safe mode with command prompt d. Directory Services Recovery Mode

Directory Services Restore Mode

What command should be used to flush the DNS cache information on a Windows Server 2016 install with DNS role? a. net sh flush dns b. dns /flush c. ipconfig /flushdns d. Dnscmd /ClearCache

Dnscmd /ClearCache

A colleague of yours is setting up backups for Windows Server 2012 servers on your network. However, because he is new to Windows Server 2012, he encounters an issue. Your colleague wants to schedule backups to the server's drive containing the C:\ partition. When he selects the "Show All Available Disks" button in the Backup Schedule Wizard, the drive containing C:\ is not listed. What is most likely the issue? a. The drive containing C:\ is offline b. The colleague is not yet a member of the trained monkeys team c. Drives that contain system files cannot be used for scheduled backups d. The colleague doesn't have the right permission set to backup to the C:\ drive e. Lack of space available on C:\

Drives that contain system files cannot be used for scheduled backups

What password security option ensures that a user must choose new passwords when a password change is required? a. Minimum password age b. Enforce password history c. Passwords must meet complexity requirements d. Maximum password age

Enforce password history

Why should event auditing policies be used sparingly? a. Event auditing can provide an attacker with valuable information regarding the structure of a network's security policies. b. Event auditing can fill the Security event log and consume considerable resources. c. Event auditing can trigger access warning messages for users. d. Event auditing can affect the access control list security for protected objects.

Event auditing can fill the Security event log and consume considerable resources.

What statement regarding the ability to filter events is not accurate? a. Events can be filtered based on level. b. Events can be filtered based on logged time. c. Events can be filtered by IP address for network events. d. Events can be filtered based on the user associated with the event.

Events can be filtered by IP address for network events.

What key should be pressed as soon as the computer boots in order to enter Safe Mode? a. Del b. F5 c. F8 d. ESC

F8

What is NOT one of the four main categories that are monitored by Resource Monitor? a. CPU b. Memory c. Disk d. Firewall

Firewall

What feature provided at the Windows Server 2012 domain functional level creates a secure channel or tunnel between a client seeking authentication for a computer service and the server providing secure access keys for secure communications? a. Tunneled Authentication Security (TAS) b. Flexible Authentication Secure Tunneling (FAST) c. Secure Tunneling Authentication Protocol (STAP) d. Kerberos Hardening Policy (KHP)

Flexible Authentication Secure Tunneling (FAST)

Which GPOs are applied last? a. GPOs linked to the Domain b. Local policies c. GPOs linked to OUs d. GPOs linked to Sites

GPOs linked to OUs

Under what msconfig tab can you change the default system startup type? a. Tools b. General c. Startup d. Boot

General

What Registry root key has information about the current hardware profile? a. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG b. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT c. HKEY_USERS d. HKEY_CURRENT_USER

HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG

What statement regarding the use of the Windows Server 2016 Essentials edition is accurate? a. Essentials can join a pre-existing domain and function as a domain controller in the domain. b. Essentials is limited to a maximum of 50 users and 25 devices. c. Hyper-V is not included in Server 2016 Essentials. d. Server 2016 is limited to a maximum of 64 CPU sockets.

Hyper-V is not included in Server 2016 Essentials.

If no domain or workgroup is configured during installation of Windows Server 2016, where is the computer placed? a. In a workgroup that is randomly generated. b. In a workgroup called "Workgroup" c. In a domain called "example.com" d. In a workgroup called "Contoso"

In a workgroup called "Workgroup"

When using the MBR method of partitioning, where is the MBR located? a. It is distributed across the disk. b. In the last sector and track of the hard disk. c. It is stored in NVRAM on the hard drive. d. In the first sector and track of the hard disk.

In the first sector and track of the hard disk.

What is the primary disadvantage of using compressed files and folders? a. Increased disk space usage b. Increased backup times c. Increased CPU utilization d. Increased RAM utilization

Increased CPU utilization

What is NOT one of the advantages that can be provided by Windows Server 2016 when implementing the server-based network model? a. Software applications can be stored and shared from a central location. b. Printers can be shared with other computers on the network. c. Increased security due to shared resources and central management. d. Increased network management ability through workgroups.

Increased network management ability through workgroups.

What does the "Print spooled documents first" option do? a. It ensures that printed pages do not intermix between different jobs. b. It enables jobs that have completed spooling to be printed, no matter what their priority. c. It enables jobs that have completed spooling to be printed, after accounting for priority. d. It enables jobs that have completed spooling to be printed, but only when using printer pools.

It enables jobs that have completed spooling to be printed, no matter what their priority.

What does the Internet Information Services (IIS) role do? a. It enables the server to act as a web server. b. It enables the server to function as a DNS server. c. It provides domain connected clients with routing information. d. It enables the use of the Secure Copy protocol

It enables the server to act as a web server.

By default on Windows Server 2016, what is the processor scheduling set to prioritize? a. It is set to prioritize system monitoring services. b. It is set to prioritize background services. c. It is set to prioritize user tasks. d. It is set to prioritize programs.

It is set to prioritize background services.

What does the Processor Queue Length counter measure? a. It measures the number of execution threads waiting for access to a CPU. b. It measures the number of jobs the processor is waiting to handle due to contention for other resources. c. It measures the number of processes actively running across the system. d. It measures the number of instructions being processed at any given moment by the CPU.

It measures the number of execution threads waiting for access to a CPU.

You have several UNIX and Linux computers in your network and need to ensure that they can use shared printers through Windows Server 2016. What role service should you install in Print and Document Services to accomplish this? a. LPD service b. WinPrint for UNIX c. UNIX Print Services d. Samba Shared Printers

LPD service

What protocol can be used by a switch to automatically team NICs into a single logical connection? a. Link Aggregation Control Protocol b. Multilink Control Protocol c. Channelized Link Teaming Protocol d. NIC Bonding Protocol

Link Aggregation Control Protocol

In what order are GPOs applied? a. Site - Local - Domain - Organizational Unit b. Local - Site - Organizational Unit - Domain c. Local - Site - Domain - Organizational Unit d. Domain - Local - Site - Organizational Unit

Local - Site - Domain - Organizational Unit

Which of the following actions will NOT update group policy? a. Running gpupdate b. Locking your computer and then logging back in c. Restarting your computer d. Logging off and logging back in

Locking your computer and then logging back in

What DNS resource record type is used to provide the SMTP servers that can accept mail for the domain? a. SRV record b. AAAA record c. MX record d. A record

MX record

What information is NOT in a DNS stub zone? a. A record for authoritative name servers b. SOA record c. MX record for administrative tracking d. NS records

MX record for administrative tracking

What is NOT an example of a network management system or software application that can use SNMP to monitor a system? a. WebNMS b. Multi Router Traffic Grapher c. Microsoft Message Agent d. Nagios

Microsoft Message Agent

What Active Directory Domain Services role feature can be used to replace passwords with a two-step authentication process that combines verifying a device is enrolled in the domain and that the device has a personal identification number? a. ADS TwoAuth b. LDAP Identity Management c. LDAP TwoStep d. Microsoft Passport

Microsoft Passport

What is NOT a true statement to keep in mind when designing an OU structure? a. Creation of OUs involves more processing resources because each request through an OU requires CPU time. b. Nested OUs should be used sparingly to maintain simplified administration. c. Active directory works more efficiently when OUs are set up horizontally. d. Microsoft recommends nesting OUs at least four levels deep.

Microsoft recommends nesting OUs at least four levels deep.

How are changes made within Active Directory maintained on different domain controllers? a. Multimaster replication is used to replicate changes to other DCs. b. The primary domain controller on the network must be notified of the changes, after which other secondary DCs will pull changes from the master. c. The domain controllers must manually sync their configurations. d. The configurations will copy to each domain controller one at a time.

Multimaster replication is used to replicate changes to other DCs.

What is the native file system utilized by Windows Server 2016? a. ReFS b. FAT32 c. NTFS d. ext3

NTFS

What statement regarding NTFS features is NOT accurate? a. NTFS does not maintain an index of files. b. NTFS supports the POSIX standard. c. NTFS supports the use of file compression. d. NTFS is a journaling file system.

NTFS does not maintain an index of files.

What would be the reason to utilize the Windows NT LAN Manager version 2 (NTLMv2) over Kerberos? a. NTLMv2 provides a performance benefit over Kerberos. b. NTLMv2 provides advanced encryption through AES. c. NTLMv2 provides compatibility with all versions of Windows, including legacy systems. d. NTLMv2 can be used in conjunction with Read-Only Domain Controllers.

NTLMv2 provides compatibility with all versions of Windows, including legacy systems.

You are attempting to use Remote Desktop from a Windows Vista computer to a Windows Server 2016 install, but are unable to do so. You have verified that other computers running newer versions of the Windows operating system on the same network are able to remote desktop to the server. What is most likely the issue? a. The Vista computer is not capable of using IPSec communication with Remote Desktop. b. Network Level Authentication is turned on in Remote Desktop settings. c. The server has a firewall entry that prohibits older versions of Windows from using Remote Desktop with the server. d. The Windows Vista Remote Desktop client must be updated.

Network Level Authentication is turned on in Remote Desktop settings

Which defragmentation mode compacts the database to close up gaps that deleted objects have created in the database? a. Offline defragmentation b. Full defragmentation c. Online defragmentation d. Partial defragmentation

Offline defragmentation

In the Windows Backup window, what information is covered by a backup including "system state" data? a. Operating system and boot files, and extra components such as roles and features installed. b. The Boot and Recovery volumes. c. Operating system and boot files only. d. Operating system only.

Operating system and boot files, and extra components such as roles and features installed.

You are investigating strange traffic on your network and wish to resolve an IP address to a DNS name. What resource record is used to do the reverse lookup? a. A record b. NS record c. AAAA record d. PTR record

PTR record

What separator page file is used to print a Printer Control Language (PCL) separator page on a printer that handles PCL and PostScript? a. Sysprtj.sep b. Pclscript.sep c. Pcl.sep d. Pscript.sep

Pcl.sep

What tool is used to centralize local and shared printer control in one place, providing advanced management control? a. Printer Control Facility b. Devices and Printers Utility c. Print Server Tool d. Print Management tool

Print Management tool

When using Windows Server 2016 Device Specific Module (DSM), what configuration model allows you to cycle through functional paths in order? a. Round Robin b. Dynamic Least Queue Depth c. Failback d. Weighted Path

Round Robin

What type of DNS resource record is used to identify a server that is authoritative for a zone? a. NS record b. MX record c. PTR record d. SOA record

SOA record

What client can be used on UNIX and Linux systems to access SMB based shares? a. Microsoft SMB Client for UNIX b. WinShare c. Samba d. SMBd

Samba

You have four GPOs linked to your domain. Here is a list of the Link Order: 1. Security Policy GPO 2. Default Domain Policy 3. Disable Control Panel GPO 4. Mapped Drives GPO Which GPO will be applied LAST a. Mapped Drives GPO b. Security Policy GPO c. Disable Control Panel GPO d. Default Domain Policy

Security Policy GPO

What is NOT one of the vital services provided by secondary DNS servers? a. Security is improved by preventing access to primary DNS servers. b. Congestion is reduced by secondary servers that are strategically placed to reduce load. c. Secondary DNS servers ensure a copy of the primary server's data exists. d. Secondary servers enable load balancing among primary DNS server and its secondaries.

Security is improved by preventing access to primary DNS servers.

By default, Windows file sharing utilizes what protocol? a. Microsoft File Sharing (MFS) b. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) c. Network File System (NFS) d. Server Message Block (SMB)

Server Message Block (SMB)

What does the Location area show on a GPO? a. Specifies the order in which GPOs are applied b. Specifies who has which permissions to the GPO c. Specifies the area of the domain the GPO applies to d. Specifies who the GPO applies to

Specifies the area of the domain the GPO applies to

What does the Security Filtering area do on a GPO? a. Specifies the area of the domain the GPO applies to b. Specifies the order in which GPOs are applied c. Specifies who has which permissions to the GPO d. Specifies who the GPO applies to

Specifies who the GPO applies to

What option should you use on a printer's Advanced properties page if pages are intermixing from printouts? a. Keep printed documents b. Start printing after last page is spooled c. Print spooled documents first d. Hold mismatched documents

Start printing after last page is spooled

What Windows Server 2016 feature implements software defined storage and is intended to make storage more versatile by making it easier to add storage, access storage, and use new storage capabilities? a. Software Storage Management b. StorageApp c. Windows Dynamic Storage d. Storage Spaces Direct

Storage Spaces Direct

What process represents the Windows kernel and system process on a running Windows 2016 Server installation? a. lsass.exe b. System c. NtKrnl d. kernel.exe

System

What statement regarding the use of system and user environment variables is accurate? a. User environment variables are always set first. b. System environment variables can be applied on a per user basis. c. System environment variables are always set first. d. User environment variables apply to any user signed in to the computer.

System environment variables are always set first.

What printer data type utilizes the ANSI standard to represent characters, numbers, and symbols? a. TEXT b. RAW (FF Auto) c. NT EMF d. RAW

TEXT

After deleting an account, what happens to the associated GUID? a. The GUID will be recycled and reused by another newly created user or object. b. The GUID remains in the domain database information to provide restoration options. c. The GUID will be permanently deleted and never re-used. d. The GUID will be reused, but only by another account using the same name

The GUID will be permanently deleted and never re-used.

After configuring SNMP traps for a system, you discover that traps are not being sent out. What is most likely the issue? a. The SNMP Trap service has not been started. b. The SNMP account password is incorrect. c. The management system is not set up to receive traps. d. The management system has the wrong community configured.

The SNMP Trap service has not been started.

What statement regarding the use of TCP and UDP is accurate? a. TCP utilizes a smaller frame with less header information than UDP. b. The TCP protocol is a connection-oriented communication because it ensures delivery of data. c. UDP is typically used when reliability of the communication is critical. d. UDP uses a constantly adjusting window size to account for existing network traffic.

The TCP protocol is a connection-oriented communication because it ensures delivery of data.

On Windows, what enables SNMP applications to access SNMP data? a. The SNMP network manager b. The SNMP network agent c. The Windows Network Services Software Development Kit d. The Windows Management Instrumentation Software Development Kit

The Windows Management Instrumentation Software Development Kit

When using dynamic disks, what is the volume that contains the \Windows folder called? a. The essential volume b. The logical volume c. The system volume d. The boot volume

The boot volume

What statement regarding the use of print job priorities is accurate? a. Print jobs are assigned a priority of 50 by default. b. Print jobs are assigned a priority of 99 by default. c. A print job with a priority of 1 is considered a high priority job. d. A print job with a priority of 99 is considered a high priority job.

The correct answer is: A print job with a priority of 99 is considered a high priority job.

Your computer has added a dynamically learned MAC address to the local ARP cache. Before the ARP cache timeout has expired, your computer reuses the same ARP cache entry. How long before the entry expires? a. The entry will be entered into the ARP cache as a static entry. b. The entry will expire once the remainder of the 2 minute expiry period is up. c. The entry will remain for 10 minutes after the last usage. d. The entry will expire immediately after the last usage, regardless of the standard time out interval.

The entry will remain for 10 minutes after the last usage.

What happens if an encrypted file on an NTFS partition is moved to a FAT or FAT32 partition? a. The file transfer does not occur, because FAT cannot store encrypted files. b. The file is moved, but is only visible to Windows systems that can see EFS files. c. The file is decrypted and placed onto the FAT volume. d. The file encryption is maintained on the new location.

The file is decrypted and placed onto the FAT volume.

What happens when a folder with NTFS permissions is copied to shared folder on a FAT volume? a. The folder loses all permissions associated. b. The folder is set to read-only until the user performing the move changes the attribute. c. The folder inherits the share permissions, and maintains NTFS permissions. d. The folder inherits the share permissions, but loses the NTFS permissions.

The folder inherits the share permissions, but loses the NTFS permissions.

What statement regarding functional domain functional levels is accurate? a. The functional level does not affect the features available for use on the domain. b. The functional levels are not OS specific, and any Windows Server OS can be configured to run at newer functional levels. c. The functional level at both the domain and forest level should be set to the lowest version of Windows Server used. d. Unlike forest functional levels, you can revert back to earlier domain functional levels.

The functional level at both the domain and forest level should be set to the lowest version of Windows Server used.

After a print file is generated by an application, what is the next step in printing to a network printer? a. The print file is formatted with control codes to implement special graphics, font, and color characteristics. b. The remote print provider uses four processes to receive and process the print file: router, print provider, print processor, and print monitor. c. The print file is spooled on the remote print server. d. The graphics device interface (GDI) integrates information about the print file with information received from the printer driver.

The graphics device interface (GDI) integrates information about the print file with information received from the printer driver.

What statement regarding support of Plug and Play is not accurate? a. The kernel requires a special flag to enable PnP. b. The PnP feature must be enabled in the BIOS. c. Most devices universally support Plug and Play. d. The feature must be built into the device.

The kernel requires a special flag to enable PnP.

Why do newer versions of the Windows client operating systems reduce the TCO for a network running Windows Server 2016? a. The older Windows operating systems require security software in order to be secured on the network. b. The latest Windows operating systems are not as expensive to purchase licenses for as older workstations. c. The older Windows operating systems are no longer supported by Windows Server 2016, and often require third party management plugins to be added to Server 2016. d. The latest Windows operating systems provide more automated installation, configuration, desktop, and management policy features compatible with Server 2016.

The latest Windows operating systems provide more automated installation, configuration, desktop, and management policy features compatible with Server 2016.

What is a user who has "List folder contents" permissions allowed to do? a. They can read, add, delete, execute, and modify files, but cannot delete subfolders and their file contents, change permissions, or take ownership. b. They can traverse folders, view file contents, view attributes and permissions, and execute files. c. They can view file contents, view folder attributes and permissions, traverse folders, but cannot execute files. d. They can list files in the folder or switch to a subfolder, view folder attributes and permissions, and execute files, but cannot view file contents.

They can list files in the folder or switch to a subfolder, view folder attributes and permissions, and execute files, but cannot view file contents.

A folder target in a DFS namespace is in what format? a. Universal Naming Convention (UNC) format b. File Hierarchical format c. User@Domain/location format d. B-Tree Organized format

Universal Naming Convention (UNC) format

What open standard supplements Microsoft's Plug and Play and is used in all types of systems and enables connectivity through networks and network protocols? a. Universal Plug and Play (UPnP) b. Universal Compatibility Layer (UCL) c. Hardware EasyConnect d. Universal Plug and Use

Universal Plug and Play (UPnP)

What format does Windows Server Backup save backup files? a. BAK b. VXD c. VHD d. BKF

VHD

What is NOT one of the tasks that can be performed using the Device Manager? a. Virtual devices can be installed. b. Devices can be uninstalled. c. Hardware can be verified as installed and working properly. d. Device drivers can be updated.

Virtual devices can be installed.

You want to enable the Active Directory Recycle Bin. What is the minimal domain functional level your domain has to be at to do this? a. Windows Server 2012 b. Windows Server 2008 R2 c. Windows Server 2008 d. Windows Server 2003

Windows Server 2008 R2

What is the minimum forest functional level should you use if you wish to make use of the protected users security group? a. Windows Server 2016 b. Windows Server 2012 R2 c. Windows Server 2008 R2 d. Windows Server 2008

Windows Server 2012 R2

Where can the most up-to-date list of compatible hardware available for Windows Server 2016 be found? a. Windows Server Catalog website b. Microsoft Hardware Compatibility List c. Windows Hardware Check App d. Various hardware vendor web pages

Windows Server Catalog website

You are attempting to create a new universal group but find that the radio button in the Create New Object - Group dialog box is deactivated. What is the issue? a. You are operating in a domain with a Windows 2000 domain functional level. b. You are not creating the group on the global catalog server. c. You are trying to create a universal group in an OU without the permission to do so. d. You are attempting to create a universal group within another universal group.

You are operating in a domain with a Windows 2000 domain functional level.

What is not a valid requirement for joining a computer to an Active Directory domain? a. You must have an authorized user account in the domain. b. One domain controller and a DNS server that can resolve the domain name must be online. c. You must have Internet connectivity and be capable of reaching microsoft.com d. You will need a DNS name for the domain to be joined.

You must have Internet connectivity and be capable of reaching microsoft.com

What is NOT one of the three power plans already created by default on Windows Server 2016? a. power saver b. balanced c. adaptive d. high performance

adaptive

What command provides the account using it with a new encryption key, meaning that previous keys associated with other accounts are no longer valid? a. key-regen /f b. cipher /r c. cipher /k d. crypto-rekey /a

cipher /k

What flag used in conjunction with cipher will invoke the recovery agent key so that a server administrator can set up a recovery policy? a. cipher /n b. cipher /e c. cipher /r d. cipher /u

cipher /r

What kind of group is used for e-mail or telephone lists, to provide quick, mass distribution of information? a. domain local groups b. distribution groups c. universal groups d. global groups

distribution groups

What are the two basic attributes in NTFS that are still compatible with FAT? a. hidden and compression b. read-only and hidden c. read-only and compression d. hidden and encrypted

read-only and hidden

What command can you type to perform a system state backup? a. wbadmin start systemstatebackup b. wbadmin begin systemstatebackup c. wbadmin start statebackup d. wbadmin start sysstatebackup

wbadmin start systemstatebackup