Kinesiology Final Exam

T/F: A shear load is an external force that tends to pull ends apart.

False

T/F: Diet and activity levels have little effect on bone health of children.

False

T/F: Distance is a measure along a straight line of how far a body moves from start to finish. Displacement is the overall measure of how far the body moves from start to finish.

False

T/F: Eccentric muscle contractions are referred to as muscle actions instead of a contraction since the muscle is shortening as opposed to lengthening.

False

T/F: Fusiform muscle fiber arrangement results in a circular pattern.

False

T/F: In rapid running movements in which moving inertia is high, an individual has to raise the body's center of gravity to maintain balance when stopping or changing direction.

False

T/F: It is not possible for a muscle to cause more than one action in an associated joint.

False

T/F: Mass is the effect of gravity on the amount of matter in a body.

False

T/F: The glenohumeral joint is the most stable joint in the body.

False

T/F: The insertion of a muscle is usually more proximal and remains fixed.

False

T/F: The scapula is distally located to the hand.

False

T/F: The skeletal system is divided into 2 subsystems, the central skeletal system and the peripheral skeletal system.

False

T/F: While flexing the elbow, the biceps brachii is the antagonist while the triceps brachii is the agonist.

False

Match the muscle with the appropriate shape for fiber arrangement. Options: Bipennate; Multipennate; Radiate; Fusiform; Unipennate Gastrocnemeus - ____________________ Gluteus Maximus - _____________________ Triceps Brachii - ________________________ Brachialis - _______________________________ Biceps Femoris - ________________________

Gastrocnemeus - Bipennate Gluteus Maximus - Radiate Triceps Brachii - Multipennate Brachialis - Fusiform Biceps Femoris - Unipennate

Number the bones from most proximal (1) to most distal (5). Tibia ____ Patella ____ Metatarsal ___ Femur ____ Talus ____

Tibia: 3 Patella: 2 Metatarsal: 5 Femur: 1 Talus: 4

T/F: A bending movement that results in a decrease of the angle of of a joint by bringing bones together is referred to as flexion.

True

T/F: A football player in a four-point stance has more balance than the same football player in a three-point stance.

True

T/F: A resistance arm is defined as the distance between an axis and the point of resistance application.

True

T/F: Concentric muscle actions are commonly referred to as causing motion and eccentric actions are responsible for controlling the motion.

True

T/F: In general, joints built for stability are less mobile and joints built for mobility are less stable.

True

T/F: Isotonic contractions are classified as concentric or eccentric on the basis of whether shortening or lengthening of the muscle occurs.

True

T/F: Joint movement may occur without any muscle contraction.

True

T/F: Muscles are the main internal source of force that produces or changes movement of a body segment or an entire body.

True

T/F: People who chose a sedentary lifestyle or who are bedridden are likely to lost bone mass and strength.

True

T/F: Running barefoot or in minimalist shoes forces a change in running gait that results in the runner's landing forefoot first instead of heel first, reducing the initial impact force.

True

T/F: The first (most superior) vertebrae of the thoracic region of the spine would be referred to as T1.

True

T/F: The process by which muscles contract is referred to as the "sliding filament theory."

True

T/F: The term "action" refers to a specific movement of a joint that occurs as a result of a concentric muscle contraction.

True

T/F: The two major types of fiber arrangements are parallel and pennate.

True

T/F: When a muscle is suddenly stretched, resulting in an eccentric contraction that is followed by a concentric contraction of the same muscle, the total force generated in the concentric contraction is greater than that of an isolated concentric contraction.

True

T/F: When assessing posture from a frontal view, bilateral structures such as the iliac crests and acromion processes should be at the same horizontal level.

True

T/F: While extending the knee, points further from the axis must move at a higher linear velocity in order to maintain the same angular velocity as points closer to the axis of rotation.

True

T/F: the coordinated movement of the glenohumeral joint and the scapula is referred to as scapulohumeral rhythm.

True

Scapulohumeral rhythm is best described by which of the following? a. after the first 30˚ of abduction, every 2˚ further humeral abduction is accompanied by 1˚ of scapular rotation. b. after the first 60˚ of abduction, every 2˚ of further humeral abduction is accompanied by 1˚ of scapular rotation. c. after the first 30˚ of adduction, every 2˚ of further humeral adduction is accompanied by 1˚ of scapular rotation d. every 2˚of humeral abduction is accompanied by 1˚ of scapular rotation e. after the first 30˚ of abduction, every 1˚ of further humeral abduction is accompanied by 2˚ of scapular rotation.

a. after the first 30˚ of abduction, every 2˚ further humeral abduction is accompanied by 1˚ of scapular rotation.

Which of the following could be done to reduce the amount of force needed to move a lever? a. all of the answers are correct b. apply the force farther from the axis c. decrease the amount of resistance d. move the resistance closer to the axis

a. all of the answers are correct

Joints with limited movement are functionally classified as __________. a. amphiarthroses b. synovial c. synarthroses d. cartilaginous e. diarthroses

a. amphiarthroses

The study of the structure of organisms is termed _____. a. anatomy b. histology c. embryology d. physiology e. cytology

a. anatomy

A soccer player sees that an opponent is about to collide with her. To maintain balance, she would use which of the following types of postural control? a. anticipatory b. perturbative c. reactive d. adaptive e. static

a. anticipatory

Which of the following is always true for walking? a. at least one foot is always in contact with the ground b. movement speed is always slower than running c. movement velocity is slow d. the flight phase is minimal e. only one foot is in contact with the ground at all times

a. at least one foot is always in contact with the ground

What type of joint is indicated by the arrow? a. ball and socket b. hinge c. condyloid d. gliding

a. ball and socket

Which of the following is both an elbow flexor and a glenohumeral flexor? a. biceps brachii b. brachialis c. teres minor d. brachioradialis e. anterior deltoid

a. biceps brachii

A structure that occurs on both sides of the body is referred to as: a. bilateral b. inferolateral c. ipsilateral d. unilateral

a. bilateral

The area of study that applies mechanical principles to biological organisms or systems is called? a. biomechanics b. anatomy c. anthropometrics d. physiology e. ergonomics

a. biomechanics

Movements occurring across gravity (i.e., parallel to the ground) always involve ____ muscle action. a. concentric b. isokinetic c. isotonic d. eccentric e. isometric

a. concentric

What is the name given to a bone with low porosity (5-10%)? a. cortical bone b. spongy bone c. epiphyseal bone d. cancellous bone e. trabecular bone

a. cortical bone

Given the explosive nature of kicking, so-called ____ injuries can happen when muscles, such as the ____, act ____ to slow down a rapidly extending joint such as the knee. a. deceleration; hamstrings; eccentrically b. acceleration; quadriceps; concentrically c. acceleration; hamstrings; eccentrically d. deceleration; quadriceps; eccentrically e. deceleration; hamstrings; concentrically

a. deceleration; hamstrings; eccentrically

In situation where a body's mass remains constant, increasing the velocity even by a small percentage can produce large increases in a. energy b. torque c. force d. power

a. energy

Ability of a muscle to respond to a stimulus is termed a. excitability b. stereotypicality c. elasticity d. contractility e. extensibility

a. excitability

Which two muscle properties are illustrated when a muscle is stretched and then allowed to return to its original length? a. extensibility and elasticity b. contractility and extensibility c. excitability and contractility d. excitability and elasticity e. elasticity and contractility

a. extensibility and elasticity

The ____ joint is a ____ joint whose ____ structure allows it the greatest mobility of any joint in the body. a. glenohumeral; triplanar; ball-and-socket b. glenohumeral; triplanar; double condyloid c. hip; triplanar; ball-and-socket d. glenohumeral; biplanar; ball-and-socket e. hip; biplanar; double condyloid

a. glenohumeral; triplanar; ball-and-socket

____ is found on the articular surfaces of most joints. a. hyaline cartilage b. elastic cartilage c. lymphatic tissue d. fibrocartilage e. aponeurosis

a. hyaline cartilage

In which type of muscle contraction is there no observable change in joint angle or muscle length? a. isometric b. concentric c. isotonic d. eccentric

a. isometric

What term describes the resistance to a change in a body's state of angular motion? a. moment of inertia b. inertia c. mass d. momentum e. impulse

a. moment of inertia

Having more than the minimally necessary number of muscles available at a given joint is referred to as a. muscle redundancy b. coactivation c. muscle excess d. muscle replication e. neutralization

a. muscle redundancy

The cooperative action of several muscles working together is called a. muscle synergy b. agonistic action c. co-contraction d. neutralization e. coactivation

a. muscle synergy

Heat production, protection of underlying structures, and postural maintenance are among the functions of the ____ system. a. muscular b. respiratory c. lymphatic d. integumentary e. endocrine

a. muscular

____ is a useful way to determine muscle action and is done through using the sense of touch to feel or examine a muscle as it contracts. a. palpation b. percussion c. auscultation d. inspection

a. palpation

During the first year of development, infants respond to environmental cues in what is termed a. perception-action coupling b. enviromotor coupling c. excitation-contraction coupling d. visual-motor coupling e. troponin-tropomyosin coupling

a. perception-action coupling

The study of the function of body parts and systems is called _____. a. physiology b. embryology c. histology d. anatomy e. cytology

a. physiology

Which of the following exemplifies a second-class lever in the human body? a. plantar flexion of the ankle to raise the body on the toes b. when the iliopsoas is used to flex the thigh at the hip c. the biceps brachii d. when the hamstrings contract to flex the leg at the knee in a standing position

a. plantar flexion of the ankle to raise the body on the toes

Poor sitting posture, usually characterized by a slouched position, results in ____ pelvic tilt, ____ stretching and weakening of the posterior annulus fibrosis, and ____ intervertebral disc pressure. a. posterior; increased; increased b. anterior; increased; increased c. posterior; decreased; increased d. anterior; increased; decreased e. posterior; increased; decreased

a. posterior; increased; increased

The rate of work performed is measured by ____ and is reported in units of ____. a. power; watts b. torque; joules c. power; joules d. energy; joules e. energy; watts

a. power; watts

Identify the bones that are pictured. a. radius and ulna b. clavicle and sternum c. tibia and fibula d. humerus and scapula

a. radius and ulna

After 90˚ of hip abduction, hip internal rotation now occurs in which plane? a. sagittal b. transverse c. frontal d. coronal e. horizontal

a. sagittal

After 90˚ of hip flexion (from anatomical position), ankle plantar flexion now occurs in which plane? a. sagittal b. horizontal c. transverse d. coronal e. frontal

a. sagittal

Relative to anatomical position, flexion and extension occur in which plane? a. sagittal b. horizontal c. frontal d. transverse e. coronal

a. sagittal

What term is used to describe an abnormal frontal plane curvature of the spine? a. scoliosis b. lordosis c. lateral flexion d. hyperextension e. kyphosis

a. scoliosis

Based on its shape, the patella is classified as a ________ bone. a. sesamoid b. long c. flat d. irregular e. short

a. sesamoid

A person on a suddenly moving platform would use which of the following strategies as a last resort to maintain postural control? a. stepping strategy b. hopping strategy c. knee strategy d. hip strategy e. ankle strategy

a. stepping strategy

Which of the following is NOT a member of the rotator cuff muscle group? a. teres major b. infraspinatus c. supraspinatus d. subscapularis e. teres minor

a. teres major

Which of the following is the correct definition of kinesiology? a. the study of the principles of anatomy, physiology, and mechanics in relation to human movement b. the study of muscles as they are involved in the science of movement c. the study of the application of mechanical physics to human motion d. the study of the human musculoskeletal and musculotendinous systems

a. the study of the principles of anatomy, physiology, and mechanics in relation to human movement

The term screw-home mechanism refers to a. tibiofemoral rotation in the final few degrees of knee extension b. subtalar rotation in the final few degrees of dorsiflexion c. tibiofemoral rotation when the knee is fully flexed d. tibiofibial rotation in the final few degrees of knee extension e. femoral-pelvic rotation in the final few degrees of hip extension

a. tibiofemoral rotation in the final few degrees of knee extension

A temporal analysis measures which aspect of gait? a. timing b. acceleration c. ground reaction forces d. velocity e. foot position

a. timing

The primary elbow extensor is the a. triceps brachii b. biceps brachii c. coracobrachialis d. teres major e. brachialis

a. triceps brachii

Which of the following is not a term used to classify the pennate type of muscle fiber arrangement? a. tripennate b. bipennate c. unipennate d. multipennate

a. tripennate

Which of the following is true with respect to walking? a. two steps are equal to one stride b. the swing phase begins with initial contact c. the duration of the swing is greater than the duration of the stance d. contralateral refers to the same side e. one step is equal to two strides

a. two steps are equal to one stride

Muscle hypertrophy resulting from resistance training is an example of which of the following anatomical concepts? a. adaptability b. connectivity c. variability d. asymmetry e. complexity

adaptability

In fast running (i.e., sprinting) the stance-swing ratio is a. 40:60 b. 20:80 c. 60:40 d. 80:20 e. 50:50

b. 20:80

The atlantoaxial joint refers to the joint between __________________. a. L1 and L2 vertebrae b. C1 and C2 vertebrae c. T1 and T2 vertebrae d. S1 and S2 vertebrae

b. C1 and C2 vertebrae

Ligament _____. a. resist compressive forces b. are sometimes referred to as passive joint stabilizers c. are sometimes referred to as active joint stabilizers d. connect skeletal muscle to bone e. have a strictly parallel collagen fiber orientation

b. are sometimes referred to as passive joint stabilizers

Which of the following term is defined as the area within the outline of all contact points with the ground? a. stability map b. base of support c. base of pressure d. center of gravity e. contact area

b. base of support

The _____ is the point at which all of the body's mass and weight is equally balanced or equally distributed in all directions. a. balance point b. center of gravity c. point of equilibrium d. axis

b. center of gravity

Simultaneous action of agonist and antagonist muscles is called a. motor programming b. coactivation c. neutralization d. muscle synergy e. muscle redundancy

b. coactivation

Internally rotating the glenohumeral joint from anatomical position requires ____ action of the _____. a. eccentric; anterior deltoid b. concentric; subscapularis c. eccentric; posterior deltoid d. concentric; infraspinatus

b. concentric; subscapularis

____ is a term used to describe things on the opposite side of the body. a. ventral b. contralateral c. bilateral d. transverse e. ipsilateral

b. contralateral

Identify the pictured bone. a. fibula b. femur c. humerus d. tibia

b. femur

Mechanical work is calculated as the product of which two measures? a. power and time b. force and displacement c. acceleration and distance d. force and velocity e. acceleration and force

b. force and displacement

The frontal plane divides the body into _________. a. right and left halves b. front and back halves c. top and bottom halves d. medial and lateral halves

b. front and back halves

Force plates directly measure a. joint torques b. ground reaction forces c. frictional forces d. tensile forces

b. ground reaction forces

Which term is used to describe the extracellular component of tissue that is the primary determinant of whether a connective tissue is solid, liquid, or somewhere in between? a. intercellular substance b. ground substance c. interstitial fluid d. calcium phosphate e. collagen

b. ground substance

The defining difference between walking and running is that running a. has a period of double support b. has a period of nonsupport c. is asymmetrical d. has a longer stance period than walking e. is faster than walking

b. has a period of nonsupport

The stretch-shortening cycle is characterized by a. lower forces during isometric muscle action than during eccentric actions b. higher forces when eccentric muscle action is immediately followed by concentric action c. lower forces during high velocity muscle actions than during slow muscle actions d. higher forces when concentric muscle action is immediately followed by eccentric action e. higher force during eccentric muscle actions than during concentric actions

b. higher forces when eccentric muscle action is immediately followed by concentric action

From birth to about 25 years of age, skeletal bone mass ____; this is because ____ activity exceeds ____ activity. a. decreases; osteoclast; osteoblast b. increases; osteoblast; osteoclast c. decreases; osteoblast; osteoclast d. increases; osteoclast; osteoblast e. increases; osteocyte; osteoclast

b. increases; osteoblast; osteoclast

Which of the following is an example of a transverse plane movement? a. abduction to the left transverse tarsal joint b. internal rotation of the right shoulder c. plantar flexion of the ankle d. extension of the left toes

b. internal rotation of the right shoulder

In throwing, as the throw transitions from the cocking phase to the acceleration phase, which muscles are active at the glenohumeral joint in reversing from eccentric to concentric action? a. extensors b. internal rotators c. flexors d. abductors e. external rotators

b. internal rotators

Which of the following is the most common form of simple machine found in the human body? a. none of the answers are correct b. levers c. wheels/axles d. pulleys

b. levers

The formula 1/2 * m * v2 defines a. total mechanical energy b. linear kinetic energy c. strain energy d. angular kinetic energy e. gravitational potential energy

b. linear kinetic energy

Which of the following is NOT a cause of movement inefficiency? a. extraneous movements b. minimal center of gravity excursions c. jerky movements d. muscle coactivation e. isometric muscle actions

b. minimal center of gravity excursions

Which of the following terms describes things related to a muscle, nerve, or brain center involved in producing or controlling movements? a. synapse b. motor c. engine d. skill e. neural

b. motor

Which of the following describes the acquisition of a motor skill? a. motor behavior b. motor learning c. motor development d. motor control e. cognitive learning

b. motor learning

Which of the following is a contractile protein? a. titin b. myosin c. myomesin d. troponin e. tropomyosin

b. myosin

Which of the following terms refers to a tissue's ability to adapt to environmental stimuli and events? a. resiliency b. plasticity c. elasticity d. atrophy e. hypertrophy

b. plasticity

In normal standing, the line of gravity passes ____ to the cervical spine and creates a ____ gravitational moment (torque). a. superior; extensor b. posterior; extensor c. anterior; extensor d. anterior; flexor e. posterior; flexor

b. posterior; extensor

The hammer throw (a field event in track and field) is an example of which type of throw? a. push b. pull c. underarm d. ballistic e. overarm

b. pull

A lifter performing a squat lift primarily uses a. hamstring muscles ot control knee flexion b. quadriceps muscles to produce knee extension c. the erector spinae to extend the spine d. the gluteus maximus to produce knee extension e. iliopsoas to control hip flexion

b. quadriceps muscles to produce knee extension

Which of the following is NOT one of the phases in a standing vertical jump? a. flight b. recovery c. propulsive d. landing e. preparatory

b. recovery

In concentric action, which of the following is biarticular knee extensor? a. vastus intermedius b. rectus femoris c. vastus medialis d. biceps femoris e. vastus lateralis

b. rectus femoris

Relative to anatomical position, flexion and extension occur in which plane? a. coronal b. sagittal c. horizontal d. transverse e. frontal

b. sagittal

The pectoral girdle consists of which two bones? a. scapula and humerus b. scapula and clavicle c. clavicle and sternum d. sternum and scapula e. humerus and clavicle

b. scapula and clavicle

So-called minimalist footwear is characterized by a. heel-strike cushioning and substantial protection b. some degree of protection and limited cushioning c. substantial cushioning and protection d. substantial cushioning and minimal protection e. limited cushioning and maximal protection

b. some degree of protection and limited cushioning

Most striking movements are explosive and, as such, often involve a ____ in which ____ muscle action is followed by ____ action of the same muscles. a. stretch-shortening cycle; isometric; eccentric b. stretch-shortening cycle; eccentric; concentric c. excitation-contraction cycle; concentric; eccentric d. excitation-contraction cycle; eccentric; concentric e. stretch-shortening cycle; concentric; eccentric

b. stretch-shortening cycle; eccentric; concentric

Suture joints in the skull are functionally classified as ____________. a. interosseous b. synarthroses c. fibrous d. amphiarthroses e. diarthroses

b. synarthroses

Joints in the human body are predominantly of which class of lever? a. first b. third c. second d. fifth e. fourth

b. third

Which movement form is most associated with gait? a. crawling b. walking c. jumping d. running e. hopping

b. walking

One of the most common throwing-related injuries at the elbow is medial epicondylitis. Which muscle group is most commonly implicated in this injury? a. elbow extensors b. wrist flexors c. glenohumeral flexors d. elbow flexors e. wrist extensors

b. wrist flexors

If a 400 N weight is lifting .5 m, what is the amount of work performed? a. 100 lbs b. 200 N c. 200 J d. 800 J

c. 200 J

The skeletal system consists of ____ bones and is divided into the axial skeleton, which includes the ____, and the appendicular skeleton, which includes the ____. a. 205; skull; thoracic cage b. 600; skull; humerus c. 206; skull; femur d. 206; tibia; spinal column e. 600; fibula; skull

c. 206; skull; femur

Trendelenburg gait is characterized by weakness or paralysis of the hip a. rotators b. extensors c. abductors d. adductors e. flexors

c. abductors

Lowering the arm to the side or the thigh back to the anatomical position is an example of ________. a. abduction b. extension c. adduction d. circumduction

c. adduction

Older adults with relatively weak hip and knee extensors most likely would adopt which of the following lifting strategies? a. knee-dominant b. ankle-dominant c. back-dominant d. mixed e. hip-dominant

c. back-dominant

Postural control is synonymous with a. nilotic stance b. sway c. balance d. perturbation e. posture

c. balance

Moving from a fully flexed (bent forward) spine back to an upright standing position requires _____ action of the ____. a. eccentric; rectus abdominis b. eccentric; erector spinae c. concentric; erector spinae d. concentric; rectus abdominis

c. concentric; erector spinae

Horizontal adduction of the arm from a 90˚ abducted position to a 90˚ flexed position requires ____ action of the ____. a. concentric; teres minor b. eccentric; anterior deltoid c. concentric; pectoralis major d. eccentric; posterior deltoi

c. concentric; pectoralis major

Movement coordination is defined as a. multijoint dysfunction b. maintenance of postural balance c. cooperative functioning of body parts to achieve a desired movement outcome d. functional mobility e. simultaneous activity in all muscles involved in a movement

c. cooperative functioning of body parts to achieve a desired movement outcome

What term is used to describe the movement of the ankle that results in the top of the foot moving toward the anterior tibia in the sagittal plane? a. flexion b. plantar flexion c. dorsiflexion d. extension

c. dorsiflexion

In which type of muscle action does the muscle actively lengthen? a. concentric b. isometric c. eccentric d. isotonic e. isokinetic

c. eccentric

The trapezius lower fibers are involved concentrically in all of the following actions except: a. adduction b. depression c. elevation d. upward rotation

c. elevation

When a person propels herself into the air from one foot and lands on the same foot, she is said to be a. running b. prancing c. hopping d. leaping e. jumping

c. hopping

The stance phase is initiated with what event? a. swing b. takeoff c. initial contact d. ground reaction e. toe-off

c. initial contact

Which of the following is not a characteristic of all synovial joints? a. articular cartilage b. joint capsule c. interosseous membrane d. synovial membrane

c. interosseous membrane

A person lifting a dumbbell is most accurately said to be performing what type of exercise? a. eccentric b. isotonic c. isoinertial d. isometric e. isokinetic

c. isoinertial

The quadriceps muscle group, the patellofemoral joint, and the tendon group connecting these elements are collectively known as the a. screw home mechanism b. Osgood Schlatter mechanism c. knee extensor mechanism d. knee lever system e. knee extensor triad

c. knee extensor mechanism

Stability of the hip joint is enhanced by the presence of its ________________. a. labrum, a U-shaped ring of fibrocartilage around the rim of the pelvic fossa b. labrum, a U-shape ring of hyaline cartilage around the rim of the glenoid fossa c. labrum, a U-shaped ring of fibrocartilage around the rim of the acetabulum d. meniscus, a U-shaped ring of hyaline cartilage around the rim of the acetabulum e. meniscus, C-shaped ring of elastic cartilage around the rim of the acetabulum

c. labrum, a U-shaped ring of fibrocartilage around the rim of the acetabulum

In comparison to younger runners, running gait in older persons is characterized by which of the following? a. more flexion during swing b. greater ground reaction froces c. less knee flexion during swing d. longer stride lengths e. faster speeds

c. less knee flexion during swing

Which of the following terms is used to describe the act of moving from one place to another? a. translation b. walking c. locomotion d. running e. gait

c. locomotion

In electromyography, a standard control record normally is made at the beginning of an experimental session in the form of a MVC. MVC stands for a. maximum volume contraction b. minimum voluntary contraction c. maximum voluntary contraction d. minimum volume coactivation e. maximum voluntary coactivation

c. maximum voluntary contraction

Which of the following is not a characteristic after which muscles are named? a. size b. location c. nerve d. shape

c. nerve

The back of the skull is ____ to the chest. a. anterosuperior b. posteroinferior c. posterosuperior d. anteroinferior e. contralateral

c. posterosuperior

With the forearm in anatomical position, rotation of the _____ over a relatively fixed ____ is termed ____. a. radius; humerus; pronation b. ulna; radius; pronation c. radius; lna; pronation d. ulna; radius; supination e. radius; ulna; supination

c. radius; ulna; pronation

What name is given to resorption and replacement of existing bone? a. restructuring b. osteoadaptation c. remodeling d. modeling e. osseoblastation

c. remodeling

Elbow extension takes place in the ______ plane. a. frontal b. longitudinal c. sagittal d. transverse

c. sagittal

Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic tissue types? a. muscle b. epithelial c. skeletal d. connective e. nervous

c. skeletal

Which of the following is NOT one of the five factors contributing to stability or mobility? a. height of the center of gravity b. size of the base of support c. stress-strain ratio d. body mass

c. stress-strain ratio

The shoulder girdle movements primarily involve all of the following muscles except: a. ther serratus anterior muscle b. the trapezius muscle c. the pectoralis major muscle d. the rhomboid major and minor muscles

c. the pectoralis major muscle

Which of the following statements is true about the rhomboid muscles? a. they are innervated by the anterior scapular nerve (C5) b. they originate on the spinous processes of the seventh cervical and the first four thoracic vertebrae c. their concentric actions include adduction and downward rotation d. they insert on the lateral border of the scapula below the spine

c. their concentric actions include adduction and downward rotation

The primary elbow extensor is the ___________. a. teres major b. biceps brachii c. triceps brachii d. coracobrachialis e. brachialis

c. triceps brachii

In using the muscle control formula, if the effect of the external force is in the same direction as the actual movement, what is the next thing to determine? a. is the external force gravity? b. how many muscles are involved? c. what is the speed of the movement? d. what is the acceleration of the movement? e. what is the direction of the movement?

c. what is the speed of the movement?

The atlantoaxial joint refers to the joint between a. S1 and S2 vertebrae b. L1 and L2 vertebrae c. T1 and T2 vertebrae d. C1 and C2 vertebrae

d. C1 and C2 vertebrae

Two adjacent vertebrae and the intervening intervertebral disc form _______________. a. a nucleus pulposus b. an intervertebral sandwich c. a zygapophysis d. a motion segment e. an annulus fibrosus

d. a motion segment

Early in the neurochemical sequence of muscle stimulation and contraction, synaptic vesicles release ____ into the synaptic cleft in a process known as exocytosis. a. sodium b. potassium c. calcium d. acetylcholine

d. acetylcholine

In the context of shoulder girdle movements, which of the following terms refers to the movement of the scapula medially toward the spinal column, as in pinching the shoulder blades together? a. abduction b. depression c. elevation d. adduction

d. adduction

Slowly ascending from a squat position to anatomical position requires ____ action of the ____. a. eccentric; rectus femoris b. eccentric; biceps femoris c. concentric; tibialis anterior d. concentric; gluteus maximus

d. concentric; gluteus maximus

Quickly moving the hip from a 90˚ flexed position back to anatomical position requires ____ action of the ____. a. concentric; hip flexors b. eccentric; hip extensors c. eccentric; hip flexors d. concentric; hip extensors

d. concentric; hip extensors

In which type of muscle action does the muscle actively lengthen? a. isometric b. concentric c. isokinetic d. eccentric e. isotonic

d. eccentric

The ability of muscle to respond to a stimulus is termed ________________. a. stereotypicality b. extensibility c. elasticity d. excitability e. contractility

d. excitability

In the human body when the triceps applies a force to the olecranon in extending the non-supported forearm at the elbow, it exemplifies: a. second-class levers b. none of the answers are correct c. third-class levers d. first-class levers

d. first-class levers

Identify the joint. a. acromioclavicular joint b. humeroulnar joint c. tibiofemoral joint d. glenohumeral joint

d. glenohumeral joint

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of type I muscle fibers? a. low myosin ATPase activity b. high mitochondrial density c. high myoglobin content d. high glycogen content e. small fiber diameter

d. high glycogen content

Which of the following bony landmarks is located on the posterior surface of the scapula? a. glenoid fossa b. posterior fossa c. subscapular fossa d. infraspinatus fossa

d. infraspinatus fossa

The standard unit of measure for mass is ________. a. pound b. newton c. pascal d. kilogram e. meter/second2

d. kilogram

Which position is most likely to produce the most amount of forces on the spine? a. sitting in a chair b. standing c. lying supine d. leaning forward while holding a weight

d. leaning forward while holding a weight

Linear momentum is ________ times _________. a. mass; angular velocity b. angular velocity; moment of inertia c. mass; acceleration d. linear velocity; mass e. moment of inertia; linear velocity

d. linear velocity; mass

Which anatomical term describes something that is toward the midline of the body or structure? a. distal b. inferior c. lateral d. medial e. caudal

d. medial

Which of the following structures provides active support for synovial joints? a. labrum b. meniscus c. ligament d. muscles and tendons e. joint capsule

d. muscles and tendons

The most common type of arthritis is a. autoimmune arthritis b. biochemical arthritis c. rheumatoid arthritis d. osteoarthritis e. gout

d. osteoarthritis

A disease of bone in which the bone exhibits excessive porosity, loss of bone mineral mass, and changed in bone structure that increase the risk of fractures is known as ____. a. vitamin d deficiency b. osteopenia c. amenorrhea d. osteoporosis

d. osteoporosis

A disease of bone in which the bone exhibits excessive porosity, loss of bone mineral mass, and changed in bone structure that increase the risk of fractures is known as ________________. a. vitamin d deficiency b. ostepenia c. amenorrhea d. osteoporosis

d. osteoporosis

The greatest amount of bone a person has during his or her lifetime is the individual's ________. a. maximal bone velocity b. osteopenia c. peak bone density d. peak bone mass e. ultimate ossification

d. peak bone mass

Lying on the stomach, or face down position is referred to as __________. a. hook lying b. fetal c. supine d. prone

d. prone

During the propulsive phase of a vertical jump, there is rapid ____ sequencing of maximum angular velocity at the hip, knee, and ankle joints. a. superior-to-inferior b. inferior-to-superior c. distal-to-proximal d. proximal-to-distal e. anterior-to-posterior

d. proximal-to-distal

In mechanical terms, mass is the _______________. a. measure of moment of inertia b. weight of an object c. force of gravity d. quantity of matter comprising a body e. inverse of density

d. quantity of matter comprising a body

A hiker trips on a tree root in a hiking trail. To regain balance, the hiker uses which of the following types of postural control? a. adaptive b. static c. anticipatory d. reactive e. perturbative

d. reactive

Generally, ____ refers to a lying posture. Specifically, lying facedown is termed _____, while lying face up is called ____. a. supine; prone; recumbent b. supine; recumbent; prone c. recumbent; suping; prone d. recumbent; prone; supine e. prone; recumbent; suping

d. recumbent; prone; supine

What name is given to resorption and replacement of existing bone? a. modeling b. osteoadaptation c. osseoblastation d. remodeling e. restructuring

d. remodeling

The pectoral girdle consists of which two bones? a. scapula and humerus b. sternum and scapula c. humerus and clavicle d. scapula and clavicle e. clavicle and sternum

d. scapula and clavicle

Force = mass * acceleration in a statement of Newton's __________ law of motion. a. linear b. gravitational c. third d. second e. first

d. second

Which of the following muscles is both a knee flexor and a hip extensor? a. rectus femoris b. tensor fascia latae c. gluteus maximus d. semitendinosus e. gastrocnemius

d. semitendinosus

The deltoid and trapezius muscles are named according to their __________. a. location b. size c. fiber direction d. shape e. action

d. shape

Which of the following applications necessarily involves the levator scapulae muscle concentrically? a. stabilizing the sternoclavicular joint b. carrying objects on the tip of the shoulders c. preventing scapula winging d. shrugging the shoulders

d. shrugging the shoulders

Which of the following bony landmarks is located on the anterior surface of the scapula? a. supraspinous fossa b. infraspinous fossa c. glenoid fossa d. subscapular fossa

d. subscapular fossa

The cervical, thoracic, and lumbar regions of the spine contain ____, _____, and ____, vertebrae, respectively. a. 5; 12; 7 b. 12; 7; 5 c. 7; 5; 12 d. 5; 7; 12 e. 7; 12; 5

e. 7; 12; 5

Movement of a segment away from the body's midline is termed ____ and occurs (from anatomical position) in the ____ plane. a. abduction; transverse b. adduction; transverse c. abduction; sagittal d. adduction; frontal e. abduction; frontal

e. abduction; frontal

To balance the gravitational torque created on an arm abducted 90˚, the glenohumeral ____ muscles must create an equal and opposite ____. a. flexor; countertorque b. adductor; force c. adductor; countertorque d. abductor; force e. abductor; countertorque

e. abductor; countertorque

Which of the following is NOT a primary function of the skeletal system? a. structural support b. movement c. protection d. hematopoiesis e. communication

e. communication

The spine's normal curvatures help the body accept ____ loads. a. shear b. torsional c. depressive d. tensile e. compressive

e. compressive

A bundle of muscle fibers is termed a ___________. a. sarcomere b. perimysium c. whole muscle d. sarcolemma e. fascicle

e. fascicle

Producing minimal work for a given amount of metabolic energy is characteristic of a. high efficiency b. high economy c. low economy d. low coordination e. low efficiency

e. low efficiency

Which of the following describes movement changes across the life span, from infancy until death? a. motor control b. motor behavior c. cognitive development d. motor learning e. motor development

e. motor development

Control of postural sway is maintained by a. ground reaction forces b. air resistance c. vestibular action d. gravity e. muscle action

e. muscle action

Which of the following is a contractile protein? a. titin b. troponin c. tropomyosin d. myomesin e. myosin

e. myosin

What term describes the thumb's ability to work with the other four fingers to perform grasping movements? a. adduction b. protraction c. retraction d. abduction e. opposition

e. opposition

Henneman's size principle refers to the a. situation in which larger motor units are recruited prior to smaller motor units b. fact that type I fibers can generate more force than type IIx fibers c. orderly progression of recruitment from the least aerobic to most aerobic muscle fibers d. orderly progression of recruitment from type IIx to type IIa to type I muscle fibers e. orderly progression of recruitment from the most aerobic to least aerobic muscle fibers

e. orderly progression of recruitment from the most aerobic to least aerobic muscle fibers

The two minerals most commonly found in bone are a. iron and phosphorus b. phosphorus and iron c. calcium and iron d. calcium and zinc e. phosphorus and calcium

e. phosphorus and calcium

________ is the position of the body and the relative arrangement of body parts for a specific activity. a. balance b. sway c. seady state d. static e. posture

e. posture

In concentric action, which of the following is a biarticular knee extensor? a. biceps femoris b. vastus medialis c. vastus intermedius d. vastus lateralis e. rectus femoris

e. rectus femoris

The primary role of osteoclast cells is to ____. a. form lacunae b. stimulate osteoprogenitor cells c. develop into osteocytes d. produce osteoid e. resorb bone

e. resorb bone

Which type of lift is being used by a person lifting an object from the floor by forward flexing the spine with minimal knee flexion? a. dead lift b. erector spinae lift c. squat lift d. anterior lift e. stoop lift

e. stoop lift

A walking gait cycle is a. two consecutive steps b. the sequential occurrence of a stance and flight phase for a single limb c. the period from ipsilateral toe-off to contralateral heel strike d. two consecutive strides e. the sequential occurrence of a stance and swing phase for a single limb

e. the sequential occurrence of a stance and swing phase for a single limb

In landing from a vertical jump, which of the following sutures is NOT involved in absorbing the forces at impact? a. plantar calcaneonavicular ligament b. spring ligament c. longitudinal arch d. transverse arch e. tibiofibular interosseous membrane

e. tibiofibular interosseous membrane

Which of the following is calculated as force x moment arm? a. momentum b. pressure c. circumduction d. lever arm e. torque

e. torque

Which of the following anatomical planes divides the body into superior and inferior parts? a. coronal b. median c. sagittal d. frontal e. transverse

e. transverse

Which of the following is the correct formula for walking speed? a. velocity = cadence x step rate b. velocity = stride length x cadence c. velocity = stride length x step rate d. velocity = step length x stride rate e. velocity = step length x cadence

e. velocity = step length x cadence

Sensory receptors in the ears provide ____ information used to maintain balance. a. ocular b. proprioceptive c. tactile d. mechanical e. vestibular

e. vestibular

T/F: The pectoralis minor muscle can perform adduction, downward rotation, or depression when contracting concentrically

false

T/F: The origin of the pectoralis major muscle is the anterior surfaces of the third to fifth ribs

true

T/F: The serratus anterior muscle when contracting concentrically performs abduction in a transverse plane of motion

true