Laboratory Operations MLT Practice

The majority of laboratory errors occur during the preanalytic phase of testing. Which of the following would be a preanalytic error related to laboratory testing? A). Failing to calibrate an instrument prior to patient testing. B). Wrong test ordered. C). Physician not called with the critical test result. D). Fax of patient report sent to the wrong number.

Wrong test ordered.

Convert 800 microliters to milliliters. A). 0.08 mL B). 0.80 mL C). 8.0 mL D). 80 mL

0.80 mL

How would you CORRECTLY prepare 100 mL of 0.9% isotonic saline (NaCl: GMW = 58.45)? A). 0.9 grams in 100 mL distilled water B). 9.0 grams in 100 mL distilled water C). 0.526 grams in 100 mL distilled water D). 5.84 grams in 100 mL distilled water

0.9 grams in 100 mL distilled water

The volume of urine recommended for centrifugation for a microscopic examination is: A). 1-3 mL B). 10-15 mL C). 15-20 mL D). Volume is not important

10-15 mL

With most light microscopes, what is the total magnification if using the objective lens that is closest to the specimen along with the ocular lens? A). 100X B). 200X C). 400X D). 1000X

1000X

In what portion of the amplification curve (logarithmic plot) should the threshold be set for a real-time PCR? A). At the baseline B). At the plateau C). Within the log-linear phase D). At the last cycle

Within the log-linear phase

Which of the following organisms is best visualized by use of a darkfield microscope? A).Poxviridae B). Entamoeba C). Streptococcus D). Borrelia

Borrelia

Which of the following steps comes after writing goals in the instructional planning sequence? A). Writing objectives B). Conducting lectures or laboratory exercises C). Evaluating student performance D). Planning instructional activities

Writing objectives

How many microns are equivalent to one ocular micrometer at 40X given the following information? Stage micrometer: 0.4 Ocular micrometer: 53 A). 5 B). 0.50 C). 7.5 D). 0.75

7.5 (0.4 X 1000/53)

The laboratorian performs a dilution using 100 microliters of patient sample to 400 microliters of diluent. The result now reads 369 U/L. How should the laboratorian report this patient's ALT result? A). 369 U/L B). 1476 U/L C). 1845 U/L D). 738 U/L

1845 U/L

How many grams of sodium hydroxide are required to prepare a 200 ml solution of a 10% (weight per volume) solution? (Atomic weights: Na = 23; 0 = 16; H = 1) A). 4g B). 10g C). 20g D). 40g

20g

How many standard deviations (SD) above and below the mean is accepted as being an appropriate control limit range on a control chart utilizing the Westgard rules: A). 1SD B). 2SD C). 3SD D). 4SD

3SD

The weight of NaCl present in 650 ml of a 0.85% NaCl solution is: A). 0.55 grams B). 2.76 grams C). 5.53 grams D). 27.62 grams

5.53 grams (650/100 X 0.85)

As defined by a Gaussian distribution curve, what percentage of values would be expected to fall within two standard deviations of the mean? A). 75% B). 85% C). 95% D). 99.7%

95%

The product produced in amplification is termed: A). Codon B). Nucleic acid C). Amplicon D). Translation

Amplicon

Which of the following identifies a major mechanism of electricity-induced injury? A). Electrical energy causing indirect tissue damage B). Conversion of electrical energy into thermal energy causing minimum tissue destruction C). Burns that do not cause tissue or nerve damage D). Direct trauma resulting from falls or violent muscle spasms

Direct trauma resulting from falls or violent muscle spasms

What is the CORRECT blood-to-anticoagulant ratio in blue top (sodium citrate) tubes used for coagulation tests? A). 4:1 B). 5:1 C). 9:1 D). 10:1

9:1

A well designed rating scale should have: A). A space for "not observed" B). An "all or none" format C). Non-observable behaviors listed D). More than thirty items listed

A space for "not observed"

Which of the following is/are considered an accrediting agency(ies) for quality and safety in the blood industry? A). FDA B). CMS C). AABB D). ASCP

AABB

What is the best type of fire extinguisher to use with wood or paper fires? A). CO2 B). Halon C). ABC D). Water-soda

ABC

Which of the following analytes would be increased due to delay in centrifugation? A). Bicarbonate B). Folate C). Ionized Calcium D). ALT

ALT

Which nitrogenous base would bind with thymine in forming double-stranded DNA? A). Adenine B). Cytosine C). Uracil D). Guanine

Adenine

Which of the following components are part of an effective Tuberculosis (TB) infection control program? A). Aerosol precautions B). Airborne precautions C). Contact precautions D). Reverse isolation precautions

Airborne precautions

All of the following are factors that will affect migration in gel electrophoresis, EXCEPT? A). Gel concentration (size of gel pores) B). Size of particle C). Voltage used D). Amount of light present

Amount of light present

Which of these policies should be followed when conducting an employee's performance evaluation? A). The employee's performance should not only be compared to an established performance standard but also to the performance of other employees. B). The supervisor should not limit the employee's evaluation to an established performance standard but should also consider comments made by fellow workers about the employee. C). An employee's performance should be compared only to an established performance standard, job description, and reward system-not to the performance of other employees or hear-say. D). The employee's performance should be compared to only the performance of other employees and hear-say.

An employee's performance should be compared only to an established performance standard, job description, and reward system-not to the performance of other employees or hear-say.

Error rates in the laboratory are estimated at what rate? A). Between 1:10 and 1:100 results. B). Between 1:32 and 1:1260 results. C). Between 1:164 to 1:8300 results. D). Between 1:250 to 1:11500 results.

Between 1:164 to 1:8300 results.

Which of the following analytes would be decreased due to delay in centrifugation? A). ALT B). Creatinine C). AST D). Bicarbonate

Bicarbonate

Which is the most commonly reported organism in cases of laboratory-acquired bacterial infection? A). Francisella tularensis B). Brucella species C). Burkholderia species D). Yersinia pestis

Brucella species

What organism produced outside a bioterrorism event causes glanders disease? A). Burkholderia mallei B). Francisella tularensis C). Yersinia pestis D). Variola virus

Burkholderia mallei

Which one of the following statements regarding factors that affect the mobility or rate of migration in electrophoresis is NOT correct? A). Charged particles migrate toward the same charged electrode. B). The velocity of migration is controlled by the net charge of the particle. C). The velocity of migration is controlled by the strength of the electric field. D). The velocity of migration is controlled by the electrophoretic temperature.

Charged particles migrate toward the same charged electrode.

All of the following agencies directly regulate clinical laboratories, EXCEPT: A). Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services B). Chemical Safety Board C). College of American Pathologists D). Joint Commission

Chemical Safety Board

According to the National Fire Prevention Association (NFPA), electrical fires are classified as: A). Class A B). Class B C). Class C D). Class D

Class C

The three base nucleotide sequence that provides the information necessary to identify an amino acid is termed a? A). Codon B). Genome C). Probe D). Oligonucleotide

Codon

All of the following are learning domains that must be considered in a medical laboratory science program, EXCEPT? A). Cognitive Domain B). Affective Domain C). Psychomotor Domain D). Comprehension Domain

Comprehension Domain

All outpatient tests are reimbursed according to a group of code numbers which are called: A). Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA '88 ) codes B). Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes C). Health Care Financing Administration (HCFA) codes D). Center for Disease Control (CDC) codes

Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes

What is defined as the ability of the test to detect a given disease or condition? A). Positive predictive value B). Negative predictive value C). Diagnostic sensitivity D). Diagnostic specificity

Diagnostic sensitivity

The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) developed a standard hazard identification system. What best describes this system? A). Diamond-shaped, color-coded symbol B). Triangle-shaped, color-coded symbol C). Circle-shaped, color-coded symbol D). Universal definitions and symbols

Diamond-shaped, color-coded symbol

Thin-layer chromatography is particularly useful as a tool in the identification of: A). Steroids B). Enzymes C). Drugs D). Hormones

Drugs

What is the basis for many types of analyses used in the clinical laboratory, such as potentiometry, amperometry, coulometry, and polarography? A). Chemiluminescence B). Electrochemistry C). Chromatography D). Spectrophotometry

Electrochemistry

Which one of the following is an immunochemical electrophoresis that uses antisera and quantitates an unknown antigen? A). Southern blotting B). Immunofixation electrophoresis C). Two-dimensional electrophoresis D). Electroimmunoassay electrophoresis

Electroimmunoassay electrophoresis

Which of the following is the MOST commonly used anticoagulant in the routine hematology laboratory? A). Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) B). Sodium citrate C). Lithium heparin D). Potassium oxalate

Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)

The accuracy of an immunoassay is its ability to discriminate between results that are true positive and results that are true negative. Two parameters of test accuracy are specificity and sensitivity. Which of these statements apply to an immunoassay with low sensitivity? A). Accurately identifies the presence of disease B). Has many false-negative results C). Has few false-negative results D). Accurately detects the absence of disease

Has many false-negative results

Which of the following is used to analyze risk and highlight aspects of a process that should be targeted for improvement? A). Voice of customers (VOC) B). Quality control plan (QCP) C). Supplier, inputs, process, outputs, and customer (SIPOC) diagram D). Failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA)

Failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA)

A routine serum protein electrophoresis with normal proteins results in _____ zones or bands. A). Five B). Six C). Ten D). Twelve

Five

All of the following are examples of amplification methods, EXCEPT: A). Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) B). Nucleic acid sequence-based amplification (NASBA) C). Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) D). Transcription mediated amplification (TMA)

Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)

Which of the following analytes would be decreased due to delay in centrifugation? A). Potassium B). Creatinine C). Glucose D). AST

Glucose

All of the following are required for N95 mask use EXCEPT? A). Men must shave their facial hair for a tight fight B). Be fit-tested C). Have a tuberculin skin test D). Receive medical clearance

Have a tuberculin skin test

When operating a centrifuge, what happens if the centrifugation time is reduced and the speed increased? A). The potential breakage of collection tube is highly increased. B). There is increased chance of exposure to biohazardous agents. C). Mechanical damage to the centrifuge may occur. D). Hemolysis of red cells can occur.

Hemolysis of red cells can occur.

All of the following are true about hybridization in PCR procedures, EXCEPT? A). Hybridization is the process of single strands of nucleic acid bonding together to form double strands B). Hybridization cannot happen between a strand of DNA and a strand of RNA C). Hybridization can also be called annealing D). Complementary bases link together with hydrogen bonds

Hybridization cannot happen between a strand of DNA and a strand of RNA

The laboratory compliance plan states that an employee can be disciplined for violating laws and compliance policies up to and including: A). Verbal warning B). Written notice C). Disciplinary probation D). Immediate termination

Immediate termination

Classic automated blood cell counters are based on which of the following technologies? A). Laser scatter B). Radiofrequency C). Impedance principle D). Unifluidics

Impedance principle

Which of the following errors could most likely occur in the preanalytical phase? A). Incorrectly collected sample B). The wrong test method used C). Incorrectly performed instrument calibration D). Inaccurately handled critical test value

Incorrectly collected sample

Spectrophotometric absorbance is related to % transmittance in what way: A). Inversely and arithmetically B). Inversely and logarithmically C). Directly and arithmetically D). Directly and logarithmically

Inversely and logarithmically

The migration rate of proteins on cellulose acetate is primarily the result of: A). Molecular content of the protein B). Ionic charge on the proteins C). Concentration of the proteins D). Type of proteins

Ionic charge on the proteins

In clinical genetics, the major consequence of chromosomal deletion: A). Is the loss of specific genes that are localized to the deleted chromosomal segment. B). No change in the copy numbers of genes found in these deleted chromosomal locations. C). Is the exclusion of large-scale chromosomal deletion. D). Is the inability to differentiate a chromosomal deletion from a nucleotide sequence abnormality.

Is the loss of specific genes that are localized to the deleted chromosomal segment.

A quality control program is to be set up for the following tests: Phenylalanine deaminase (PAD) Indole production Voges-Proskauer (V-P) Which pair of stock culture organisms would be most suitable to verify the performance of these three tests? A). Proteus vulgaris, Escherichia coli B). Klebsiella pneumoniae, P. vulgaris C). E. coli, Enterobacter aerogenes D). E. aerogenes, K. pneumoniae

Klebsiella pneumoniae, P. vulgaris

What is the primary target of HBV? A). Heart B). Liver C). Lungs D). Brain

Liver

Which of these processes would be characteristic of "Lean" laboratory production? A). Hold routine specimens in the specimen processing area until all phlebotomists have completed their morning rounds. B). Process and deliver patient samples to the testing areas in batches. C). Load patient samples onto automated analyzers as the samples arrive to the work area. D). Techs constantly leaving their workstation to locate regularly used supplies for their bench.

Load patient samples onto automated analyzers as the samples arrive to the work area.

Blood samples for complete blood counts are collected on morning rounds and stored in a rack in the phlebotomist's basket. When the phlebotomist delivers the samples to your work station, the cells and plasma in the samples have separated. One of the samples has lipemic plasma. Which of the following parameters may be affected by the lipemia? A). RDW B). MCV C). MCHC D). None of the parameters would be affected

MCHC

What information can you find on the label affixed to the primary container of a hazardous chemical? A). Date of discovery B). Physical description of contents C). Emergency personnel contact information D). Manufacturer's name and contact information

Manufacturer's name and contact information

In the DMAIC (Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control) process improvement, which of the following would belong to the measure step? A). Create charter B). Map and analyze current process C). Select potential root causes D). Document process changes

Map and analyze current process

If a laboratory 's control range (using a 99.7% confidence interval) for a given assay is 20.0 to 50.0, what would its mean and one standard deviation be: A). Mean = 35.0 SD = 15.0 B). Mean = 35.0 SD = 10.0 C). Mean = 40.0 SD = 7.5 D). Mean = 35.0 SD = 5.0

Mean = 35.0 SD = 5.0

Which of the following instruments measures light scatter by particles? A). Coulometer B). Nephelometer C). Osmometer D). Spectrophotometer

Nephelometer

Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay techniques (EMIT) differ from all other types of enzyme immunoassays in that: A). Lysozyme is the only enzyme used to label the hapten molecule B). No separation of bound and free antigen is required C). Inhibition of the enzyme label is accomplished with polyethylene glycol D). Antibody absorption to polystyrene tubes precludes competition to labeled and free antigen

No separation of bound and free antigen is required

Which of the following are violations of Board rules? A). Not being convicted of filing false reports in another state. B). Not protecting PHI (protected health information) C). Smoking or using tobacco products D). Reporting a colleague's incompetence to perform lab duties.

Not protecting PHI (protected health information)

A phlebotomist enters a blood draw room to perform a routine venipuncture procedure. The phlebotomist notices a vein that appears to be a good choice for venipuncture and inserts a needle. There is no blood return; therefore, the phlebotomist has to perform a second venipuncture in the opposite arm. All of the following information would have been obtained by the phlebotomist from palpation of the vein EXCEPT: A). The size of the vein. B). The health or resiliency of the vein. C). Observation of hematoma formation. D). The direction and depth of the vein.

Observation of hematoma formation.

Which of the following describes the Westgard multi-rule R4S? A). Four consecutive control data points are within ±1s B). Four consecutive control data points are outside ± 2s C). One data point is +2SD and a consecutive data point is -2SD D). Two consecutive data points fall outside the mean four times

One data point is +2SD and a consecutive data point is -2SD

For blood gas analyzers, all of the following technologies are utilized for the measurement of pH EXCEPT: A). Ion-selective electrodes. B). Macroelectrochemical sensors. C). Optical sensors. D). Microelectrodes.

Optical sensors.

Which of the following would be the BEST data source to identify opportunities to improve timeliness? A). Complaints from physicians B). Incident reports C). Outliers in turnaround time studies D). Surveys of patient satisfaction

Outliers in turnaround time studies

Which analyte shows no difference between capillary and venous values? A). Glucose B). Phosphorus C). Bilirubin D). Calcium

Phosphorus

In 1983, Kary Mullis visualized the idea of amplifying DNA while working on a new mutation detection method. What is this process that he later discovered utilizing this idea? A). Karyotyping B). Western blot C). Polymerase chain reaction D). High-performance liquid chromatography

Polymerase chain reaction

Which of the following analytes would be increased due to delay in centrifugation? A). Glucose B). Ionized Calcium C). Potassium D). Bicarbonate

Potassium

Westgard multi-rule assessments are DIRECTLY applied to evaluate what? A). Quality control results B). Patient sample results C). Standard deviations D). Quality assurance systems

Quality control results

Within a run, one control is above +2 SD and the other below - 2 SD units from the mean. What do these results indicate? A). R4S rule is violated due to random error. B). 22S rule is violated due to random error. C). R4S rule is violated due to systematic error. D). 22S rule is violated due to systematic error.

R4S rule is violated due to random error.

All of the following are considered a hazard when working with compressed gases in the laboratory, EXCEPT? A). Fire B). Explosion C). Radiotoxicity D). Mechanical injuries

Radiotoxicity

Precision is a measure of: A). Method accuracy B). Random variability C). Method reliability D). Biological variability

Random variability

What is the first thing you would do before you handle or open a chemical container: A). Ask your supervisor for help B). Read the SDS C). Read the label D). Call the manufacturer

Read the label

When operating a centrifuge, what happens if the centrifugation time is reduced and the speed increased? A). Mechanical damage to the centrifuge may occur. B). Residual separator gel particles may be present in the serum. C). There is an increased chance of exposure to biohazardous agents. D). The potential breakage of the collection tube is highly increased.

Residual separator gel particles may be present in the serum.

Mercury covered by a layer of mercurous chloride in contact with saturated potassium chloride solution is a description of which of the following types of electrodes? A). Standard hydrogen B). Saturated Calomel C). Redox D). Silver/Silver chloride

Saturated Calomel

What type of graph is needed in a real-time PCR in order to perform absolute quantification? A). Standard curve B). Amplification curve C). Melt curve D). Quantification curve

Standard curve

Which of the following must be included as part of a PCR in order to quantify unknown samples? A). Positive Control B). Negative Control C). Internal Control D). Standards

Standards

What are the two general categories of nucleic acid amplification (NAA) techniques? A). Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and branched chain DNA (bDNA) B). Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) and strand displacement amplification (SDA) C). Target amplification and signal amplification D). PCR and reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR)

Target amplification and signal amplification

Which statement about densitometric patterns for the five-zone protein electrophoresis is correct? A). The albumin band is the last peak and the smallest. B). The gamma band is the last peak and the largest. C). The gamma band is the first peak and the largest. D). The albumin band is the first peak and the largest.

The albumin band is the first peak and the largest.

Which integral member of the laboratory team plays a vital role in minimizing pre-analytical variability associated with the clinical laboratory testing process? A). The pathologist B). The phlebotomist C). The medical technologist D). The laboratory assistant

The phlebotomist

What two components must be true in order to call a positive sample using real-time PCR and melt curve analysis? A). The sample must cross the threshold and peak within the target temperature range B). The sample must be below the threshold and peak within the target temperature range C). The sample must cross the threshold and peak at any temperature with the assay D). The sample must cross the threshold and show maximum fluorescence within the target temperature range

The sample must cross the threshold and peak within the target temperature range

What is the MOST important consideration before using a space heater in a health care facility? A). The space heater does not have exposed elements. B). The heating elements in the space heater do not exceed 212°F. C). The space heater is approved for use and inspected by the facilities management department. D). The space heater can be plugged directly into an outlet without the use of an extension cord.

The space heater is approved for use and inspected by the facilities management department.

Some real-time PCR instruments have the ability to perform melting curve analysis. What is the melting temperature (Tm) for primers? A). The temperature at which DNA denatures into two strands and is dependent on the nucleotide composition of the molecule. B). The temperature at which DNA denatures into four strands and is dependent on the nucleotide composition of the molecule. C). The temperature at which RNA denatures into two strands and is independent on the nucleotide composition of the molecule. D). The temperature at which RNA denatures into multiple amino acids strands and is dependent on the nucleotide composition of the molecule.

The temperature at which DNA denatures into two strands and is dependent on the nucleotide composition of the molecule.

Which of the following chromatography systems is characterized by a stationary phase of silica gel on a piece of glass and a mobile phase of liquid? A). Thin-layer B). Partition C). Ion-exchange D). Gas-liquid

Thin-layer

In which section of the safety data sheet (SDS) would you find information about whether a specific chemical is a carcinogen? A). Physical hazards section B). Toxocological information section C). Composition/information on ingredients section D). General contents section

Toxocological information section

Which of the following use target amplification methodologies? A). Transcription mediated amplification (TMA) B). Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) C). Northern Blot D). Branched chain DNA (bDNA)

Transcription mediated amplification (TMA)

Which of the following represents a diagram of a spectrophotometer? A). hollow cathode - cuvette - monochromator - detector - readout B). cuvette - light source - monochromator - detector - readout C). monochromator - light source - cuvette - detector - readout D). light source - monochromator - cuvette - detector - readout

light source - monochromator - cuvette - detector - readout

Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding the use of extension cords in a health care facility? A). An extension cord should only be used in an emergency situation. B). The extension cord should be tested for physical integrity, polarity, and continuity of grounding before it is used. C). An extension cord used in a healthcare facility can be either a two-prong or three-prong cord. D). An extension cord must contain a ground wire.

An extension cord used in a healthcare facility can be either a two-prong or three-prong cord.

According to CLIA '88, which of the following laboratory personnel is responsible for ensuring the employment of qualified, competent testing personnel within a moderate to high complexity testing environment? A). General supervisor B). Laboratory Director C). Laboratory Manager D). Technical Supervisor

Laboratory Director

Which of the following will cause an acidic urine pH? A). Hyperventilation B). Meat-filled diet C). Vegetarian diet D). Old urine specimen

Meat-filled diet

All of the terms below are a measure of central tendency, EXCEPT: A). Mean B). Molarity C). Median D). Mode

Molarity

An electrode has a silver/silver chloride anode and a platinum wire cathode. It is suspended in KCl solution and separated from the blood to be analyzed by a selectively permeable membrane. Such an electrode is used to measure which of the following? A). PH B). PCO2 C). PO2 D). HCO3

PO2

When two consecutive controls are greater than ± 2 SD units from the mean, what should you do first? A). Recalibrate, then repeat controls followed by patient specimen results if QC is acceptable. B). Repeat the controls before taking any corrective action. C). Shut down the equipment and call service. D). Prepare fresh standard.

Recalibrate, then repeat controls followed by patient specimen results if QC is acceptable.

Which of the following descriptions best describes the term absolute value as it would relate to leukocyte differential counts. A). Relative % of each cell type B). Relative % of each cell type divided by total white count C). Relative % of each cell type multiplied by total white count D). Specific number of each cell type divided by total white count

Relative % of each cell type divided by total white count

You are analyzing a PCR run and see that one of your samples is a high positive but the internal control failed. What should you do? A). Result the sample as negative B). Result the sample as indeterminate C). Result the sample as positive D). Repeat the sample

Result the sample as positive

All of the following statements about blood cultures are correct, EXCEPT: A). The volume of blood collected is important. Short draws will reduce the likelihood of successfully growing out bacteria. B). If two separate sets of blood cultures are requested, do not draw them both from the same site at the same time. C). Be sure to allow the iodine prep to dry on the patient's skin prior to performing the blood culture. D). Since latex gloves are sterile, you may use your gloved finger without further preparation to feel the vein on a prepped arm before making the stick.

Since latex gloves are sterile, you may use your gloved finger without further preparation to feel the vein on a prepped arm before making the stick.

A slow, progressive drift of values away from the mean is called a: A). Shift B). Dispersion C). Trend D). Variance

Trend

A laboratory manager wants to evaluate the timeliness of patient services in order to prevent medical errors caused by a delay in treatment. Measuring the turnaround time for which of these analytes would provide the most timely and valuable information? A). Routine glucose tests performed on patients admitted to the medical floors. B). Lipid panels performed by the outpatient clinic. C). Troponin tests from the emergency department. D). Urine creatinine clearance testing conducted on patients seen in the diabetes clinic.

Troponin tests from the emergency department.

Nephelometry is based on the principle of: A). Turbidity resulting from specific antigen-coated latex particles agglutinated by the corresponding antibody B). Agglutination resulting from the physical attachment of antibody molecules to antigens on an erythrocyte membrane C). Agglutination of host antibody to antigenic determinants on a bacterial agent D). Precipitation of immune-related proteins in agarose gel

Turbidity resulting from specific antigen-coated latex particles agglutinated by corresponding antibody

According to OSHA regulations, which is the following is an unacceptable practice related to electrical safety? A). Use of an adapter to increase the number of available outlets in a laboratory area. B). Firmly securing electric equipment to the surface on which it is mounted. C). Install electric equipment with ventilating openings so that walls or other obstructions do not prevent circulation of air through the equipment. D). Parts of electric equipment that normally produce arcs, sparks, flames, or molten metal must be separated and isolated from all combustible material.

Use of an adapter to increase the number of available outlets in a laboratory area.

What is the role of a sentinel laboratory within the Laboratory Response Network (LRN)? A). Performs tests to detect and confirm or "rule-in" the presence of a threat agent B). Use standardized testing protocols to rule-out critical biological agents or refer them to one of the LRN reference laboratories for identification C). Act as the highest level in the LRN to handle highly infectious agents and have the ability to identify specific agent strains D). Development of new diagnostic tests for identification of potential bioterror agents

Use standardized testing protocols to rule-out critical biological agents or refer them to one of the LRN reference laboratories for identification

To prevent an infection at the puncture site, the skin should be cleansed at the start of a venipuncture. What answer below best describes this procedure? A). Using an alcohol wipe, vigorously scrub up and down on the puncture site and then insert the needle before the alcohol dries. B). Using an alcohol wipe, vigorously scrub up and down on the puncture site and then wipe the site dry with gauze. C). Using an alcohol wipe, clean the site using back-and-forth friction. Allow the site to air dry. D). Using an alcohol wipe, start at the puncture site and move outward in concentric circles; then wipe the area dry with gauze.

Using an alcohol wipe, clean the site using back-and-forth friction. Allow the site to air dry.

Which of the following can lower the amount of current needed to cause electricity-induced injury? A). Ground wires B). Wet skin C). More carbon dioxide in the air D). Dry skin

Wet skin

Which one of the following statements about heelstick is incorrect? A). Do not milk the heel excessively as this may cause hemolysis. B). Do not apply an adhesive bandage to a neonate's heel. C). You may collect blood from any part of the heel. D). Wipe away the first drop of blood obtained to eliminate tissue contamination.

You may collect blood from any part of the heel.

Semi-automated and automated urine chemical reagent strip readers: A). Increase the sensitivity of the urine dipsticks B). Increase the specificity of the urine dipsticks C). Remove subjectivity allowing for better reproducibility D). Guarantee the sensitivity and specificity of urine dipsticks

Remove subjectivity allowing for better reproducibility

Which of the following barriers are recommended in microbiology laboratories where manipulation of biosafety level 3 agents (e.g., Mycobacterium tuberculosis) is performed? A). Manual closing single-door access B). Positive airflow that moves air out of the laboratory C). Filtered and recirculated air can enter other lab areas D). Self-closing double-door access

Self-closing double-door access

For laboratories with a PPMPs (provider-performed microscopy procedures) CLIA certificate, which of the following would be approved? A). WBC differential B). Basic chemistry panel C). Semen analysis D). Gram stain

Semen analysis

All of the following are types of quality and process improvement tools, EXCEPT: A). Six Sigma B). Lean C). Sentinel events D). Root-cause analysis

Sentinel events