Learning Theory (Practice Exams 1-8)

All of the following tend to enhance the effectiveness of punishment as a method for eliminating a target behavior except: Select one: A.administering the punishment on an intermittent schedule B.administering the punishment immediately after the target behavior occurs C. verbally clarifying the target behavior D.giving a "warning" cue just prior to administering the punishment Clear my choice

A. Administering the punishment on an intermittent schedule Punishment is used to decrease the occurrence of undesirable behavior. Punishment is most effective when it is applied immediately following the behavior, when it is applied consistently rather than intermittently, when the relationship between the punishment and the target behavior is verbally clarified, when an individual is warned that it will occur when reinforcement is offered for competing behavior, and when all positive reinforcement for the targeted behavior is withheld.

Which one of the following components of the working memory model integrates auditory, visual, and spatial information and provides a means to allow multiple sources of information to be considered simultaneously? Select one: A.Episodic buffer B.Phonological loop C.Visuospatial sketchpad D.Central executive

A.Episodic buffer The episodic buffer is a temporary multimodal store that combines information from the phonological loop and visuospatial sketchpad subsystems of working memory with information about time to form and maintain an integrated, detailed representation of a given stimulus or event that can then be deposited into long-term memory as necessary. Answer B: Phonological loop is a component of the working memory model that deals with spoken and written material. Answer C: Visuospatial sketchpad is a component of working memory responsible for handling visual and spatial information. Answer D: The central executive is a component that manages the activities of the phonological loop and visuospatial sketchpad. It is, however, of limited capacity and does not have any storage ability of its own.

A parent is concerned about her 6-year-old son's thumb sucking. After reading several articles on behavioral techniques for eliminating self-reinforcing behaviors, she decides to spend an hour a day with her son using a strategy recommended in one of the articles. It involves setting a timer for 5 minutes and, during a one-hour period, giving her son a quarter for each 5-minute period that he does not suck his thumb but instead plays with the toys she has made available for him. The mother is using which of the following strategies? Select one: A.Differential reinforcement B.Time-out C.Overcorrection D.Shaping

A. Differential reinforcement In this situation, the mother is using the behavioral technique of differential reinforcement to eliminate an undesirable behavior. Differential reinforcement involves reducing an undesirable self-reinforcing behavior by providing a reinforcer after each predefined interval of time that the individual does not engage in that behavior but, instead, engages in other (different) behaviors. Answer B: Time-out involves removing the individual from all sources of positive reinforcement for a period of time following an undesirable behavior to eliminate that behavior. Answer C: Overcorrection involves having the individual correct the consequences of an undesirable behavior and/or practice corrective (alternative) behaviors. Answer D: Shaping involves teaching a new behavior by reinforcing successive approximations to that behavior.

Which of the following is true about sensory memory? Select one: A.Information is retained for about 1/2 to 2 seconds B.Without rehearsal, information is retained for only 30 to 60 seconds C.With attention, information is retained for up to three minutes D.With rehearsal, information may be retained indefinitely

A.Information is retained for about 1/2 to 2 seconds Sensory memory holds information from all of the senses for a very brief period of time. Estimates of the duration of sensory memory vary somewhat, but it is generally described as being less than 2 seconds. Answers B, C, & D: are incorrect, because information in sensory memory cannot be deliberately retained through attention, rehearsal, or other techniques.

Fourteen-year-old Kevin Kendall frequently uses swear words when he is with his friends because they respond positively when he does so. However, Kevin never uses those words when he is at home with his family because his parents and siblings become very upset when he uses them. Kevin's differential use of four-letter words in different settings illustrates the concept of: Select one: A.stimulus control. B.partial reinforcement. C.shaping D.overcorrection.

A. Stimulus control A response is brought under stimulus control when the person learns to respond in situations in which reinforcement is likely but not in situations in which no reinforcement (or punishment) is likely. In the situation described in this question, Kevin has learned to swear in some situations but not in others because of the different consequences for doing so in those situations.

Inhibition and disinhibition are two possible effects of ________. Select one: A.vicarious learning B.instrumental learning C.insight learning D.overlearning

A. Vicarious Learning Vicarious learning is derived from indirect sources such as observation, rather than direct, hands-on, instruction. Bandura proposed that vicarious learning has several effects including the acquisition of new responses and the inhibition or disinhibition of an existing response. Answer B: Instrumental learning refers to conditioning in which the correct response is essential for reinforcement. Answer C: Insight learning is a cognitive form of learning involving the mental rearrangement of the elements in a problem to achieve a sudden understanding of the problem and arrive at a solution. Answer D: Overlearning refers to practice that is continued beyond the point the individual knows or performs the task as well as can be expected.

A father puts his son in his room every time the boy hits his sister. To increase the probability that the boy will stop hitting his sister, the father should: Select one: A.give the child 50 cents each time he is nice to his sister B.initially send the boy to his room every time he hits his sister and then send him to his room every three times he hits his sister C.gradually increase the length of time the boy spends in his room after each time he hits his sister D.sometimes send the boy to his room for 10 minutes and other times send him to his room for 20 minutes or 30 minutes after he hits his sister

A. give the child 50 cents each time he is nice to his sister The parent is using negative punishment in order to decrease the probability that the behavior will occur again. Negative punishment is the removal of a stimulus following a behavior in order to decrease that behavior. In this example, the father is utilizing time-out, a type of negative punishment. Punishment, like all forms of behavior therapy used to reduce undesirable behaviors, is most effective when used in conjunction with reinforcement for alternate desirable behaviors. In this case, the 50 cents would represent reinforcement (a stimulus that increases the probability of a behavior) for the alternate desirable behavior of being nice.

Without rehearsal, information is held in short-term memory for a brief period of time. According to interference theory, this is due to which of the following? Select one: A.A limited capacity B.Insufficient consolidation C.Inadequate memory cues D.The decay of memory traces over time

A.A limited capacity With regard to short-term memory, interference refers to the displacement of items in memory by more recently perceived information and is attributable to the limited capacity of short-term memory. Note that this type of interference is sometimes referred to as "interference through displacement." Answer B: With regard to memory, the term consolidation is usually used to describe the process by which short-term memories are converted to long-term memories and is not used to explain why information is held in short-term memory for only a brief period of time. Answer C: Inadequate memory cues have been identified as a cause of the inability to retrieve information from long-term memory. Answer D: Trace decay theory has been used to explain loss of both short- and long-term memories and refers to the graduate fading of memories over time.

Bob, Al, Sally, and Jane all study a list of nonsense syllables for 30 minutes. Afterward, Bob takes a nap, Al goes to a movie, Sally studies arithmetic, and Jane goes grocery shopping. Based on your familiarity with the research on memory, you would predict that, when Bob, Al, Sally, and Jane are asked to recall the list of syllables, ________ will recall the most syllables? Select one: A.Bob B.Al C.Sally D.Jane Feedback

A.Bob In an early evaluation of the trace decay theory of forgetting, Jenkins and Dallenbach (1924) had subjects who had memorized a list of nonsense syllables either sleep or stay awake before being asked to recall the syllables. Those who slept recalled more syllables. The results of the Jenkins and Dallenbach study suggest that Bob, who slept after studying the list of syllables, will exhibit the greatest recall.

A psychologist who views learning as the result of operant conditioning would likely attribute the acquisition of complex behaviors to which of the following? Select one: A.Chaining B.Stimulus control C.Higher-order conditioning D.Stimulus generalization

A.Chaining From the perspective of operant conditioning, new behaviors are acquired as the result of reinforcement. With chaining, each response in the chain of responses required to learn and perform a complex behavior serves as a reinforcement for the previous response in the chain. Answer B: A behavior is said to be under "stimulus control" when it is elicited by the presence of some stimuli but not others. Answer C: Higher-order conditioning is a form of classical conditioning involving the pairing of a second neutral stimulus with a conditioned stimulus so that the second neutral stimulus also elicits the conditioned response. Answer D: Stimulus generalization is occurring when stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus also elicit the conditioned response. It can explain how behaviors can occur in situations outside the context in which they were originally learned.

A rat is trained to press a lever to receive food. During this, the rat is occasionally exposed to a series of brief shocks that are preceded by a tone. As a result, when the rat hears the tone, lever pressing is reduced. This is an example of which of the following? Select one: A.Conditioned suppression B.Attribute conditioning C.Automatic reinforcement D.Long-delay conditioning

A.Conditioned suppression Conditioned suppression is a procedure in which the conditioned stimulus signals that an aversive event is coming. The measure of conditioning is the suppression of ongoing behavior when the conditioned stimulus is presented. Answer B: Attribute conditioning occurs when the attributes or characteristics of one stimulus are transferred to another stimulus. Answer C: Automatic reinforcement refers to behavior that is derived from sensory stimulation that occurs as a result of performing the behavior. Answer D: Long-delay conditioning is a type of classical conditioning in which the onset of the conditioned stimulus precedes that of the unconditioned stimulus by at least several seconds and continues until the unconditioned stimulus is presented.

While training your dog, you pet and speak calmly when he responds anxiously or nervously to a person walking by your front window. This training is to associate a positive response (i.e., petting, speaking calmly) with a stimulus (i.e., a person walking by the window). This would be an example of which of the following? Select one: A.Counterconditioning B.Aversive conditioning C.Dishabituation D.Delayed conditioning

A.Counterconditioning Counterconditioning attempts to replace unpleasant emotional responses to a stimulus with more pleasant, adaptive responses. Answer B: Aversive conditioning is the use of something unpleasant, or a punishment, to stop unwanted behavior. For example, if a dog is learning to walk on a leash alongside his owner, an undesired behavior would be the dog pulling on the leash. The owner may use a shock collar when the dog pulls, eventually allowing the dog to associate pulling on the leash with getting a painful shock and stop pulling. Answer C: Dishabituation is the reappearance of a habituated response to a stimulus following the presentation of another, seemingly irrelevant novel stimulus. Answer D: Delayed conditioning is a procedure in which the onset of the neutral stimulus precedes the onset of the unconditioned stimulus, and the two stimuli overlap. For example, a bell begins to ring and continues to ring until the food is presented.

Getting stuck in a rut, repeating known errors, or using an injured arm or leg out of habit are all examples of which of the following? A.Latent inhibition B.Blocking C.Overshadowing D.Pseudoconditioning

A.Latent inhibition Latent inhibition suggests that it is often easier to learn something new than to unlearn something familiar. Answer B: Blocking refers to the finding that less is learned about the relationship between a stimulus and an outcome if pairings are conducted in the presence of a second stimulus that has previously been established as a reliable predictor of that outcome. Answer C: Overshadowing occurs when two or more stimuli are present, and one stimulus produces a stronger response than the other due to relevance or salience. Answer D: Pseudoconditioning refers to the elicitation of a response by a previously neutral stimulus when it is presented following a series of occurrences of a conditioned stimulus.

Which of the following is associated with the sensation and feeling when someone smiles after seeing someone else smile? Select one: A.Mirror neurons B.Self-modeling C.Imitation D.Observational learning

A.Mirror neurons Mirror neurons are a type of brain cell that responds equally when an individual performs an action and when an individual witnesses someone else perform the same action.

A psychologist tells the parents of an 8-year old to give him a "time-out" each time he torments his little sister. The parents find that, over time, the child needs less and less time in the time-out to calm down. The boy's behavior is being controlled by which of the following? Select one: A.Negative punishment B.Negative reinforcement C.Stimulus control D.Stimulus fading

A.Negative punishment Negative punishment involves taking a stimulus away following a behavior in order to decrease that behavior, which is what occurs in time-out. Time-out involves removing the child from all sources of positive reinforcement for a pre-specified period of time following a behavior in order to reduce that behavior.

Restitution and positive practice are components of which of the following interventions? Select one: A.Overcorrection B.Differential reinforcement C.Negative practice D.Implosive therapy

A.Overcorrection Overcorrection is usually classified as a form of positive punishment and involves applying a penalty following an undesirable behavior in order to reduce or eliminate that behavior. It consists of two phases--restitution and positive practice. Answer B: Differential reinforcement involves reducing an undesirable self-reinforcing behavior by providing a reinforcer after each predefined interval of time that the individual does not engage in that behavior but, instead, engages in other (different) behaviors. Answer C: Negative practice involves requiring the individual to deliberately repeat the undesirable behavior to the point that it becomes aversive to the individual or the individual becomes fatigued. Answer D: Implosive therapy is used to eliminate anxiety and involves exposing the individual to the anxiety-arousing stimulus in imagination for an extended period of time. Images used during implosive therapy are embellished with psychodynamic themes.

If an individual swats at a bee and is stung as a result, thus decreasing future swatting behavior, they are exhibiting which of the following? Select one: A.Positive punishment B.Negative reinforcement C.Negative punishment D.Escape contingency

A.Positive punishment

A researcher conducting a study to investigate the phenomenon known as "stimulus generalization" would most likely do which of the following after establishing a conditioned response in her participants? Select one: A.Present new stimuli that are similar in varying degrees to the CS B.Repeatedly present the CS after a neutral stimulus C.Repeatedly present the CS without the US D.Pair presentation of the CS with a second US

A.Present new stimuli that are similar in varying degrees to the CS. Stimulus generalization occurs when stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus (CS) elicit a response that is similar to the conditioned response (CR). The presentation of new stimuli that are similar, in varying degrees, to the CS would be used to determine the extent of stimulus generalization following classical conditioning.

When using flooding (in vivo exposure) to treat a client's Specific Phobia, which of the following instruments would be most useful for monitoring the client's progress in treatment and determining when to terminate treatment? Select one: A.SUDS B.SCID C.MMSE D.BDI

A.SUDS Flooding involves exposing the client to high anxiety-arousing situations. When using this technique, the client's anxiety level is regularly monitored to determine the progress of the exposure during a single session and over multiple sessions. Only one of the instruments listed in the answers is useful for this purpose. When using SUDS (Subjective Units of Distress Scale), the client rates his/her level of anxiety on a scale ranging from 1 to 100 (or, alternatively, from 1 to 10) at regular intervals during exposure. In general, a single exposure session should be continued until a 50% reduction in anxiety level occurs Answer B: The SCID (Structured Clinical Interview for DSM) is a semi-structured diagnostic interview that is useful for deriving a client's diagnosis. Answer C: The MMSE (Mini Mental State Exam) is a screening test for cognitive impairment in older adults. Answer D: The BDI (Beck Depression Inventory) is useful for assessing and monitoring the severity of depressive symptoms.

Which of the following involves presenting and withdrawing the conditioned stimulus (CS) and unconditioned stimulus (US) at the same time? Select one: A.Simultaneous conditioning B.Backward conditioning C.Trace conditioning D.Delay conditioning

A.Simultaneous conditioning Pavlov found that the order and timing of the presentation of the CS and US were important determinants of the success of classical conditioning, and he distinguished between the following temporal relationships: Delay, trace, simultaneous, and backward conditioning. Simultaneous conditioning is even less effective than trace conditioning and involves presenting and withdrawing the CS and US at the same time. Answer B: Backward conditioning entails presenting the US prior to the CS. Answer C: Trace conditioning entails presenting and terminating the CS prior to presenting the US. Answer D: Delay conditioning involves presenting the CS so that it precedes and overlaps presentation of the US.

You have trained your dog to expect food whenever he hears the ding of a bell. When you ring the bell, your dog runs to the kitchen and sits by his food bowl. After the response is conditioned, you stop presenting the food after ringing the bell. Over time, the response becomes extinguished, and your dog stops responding to the sound. You stop ringing the bell altogether, but a few days later, you try ringing the bell again. Your dog rushes into the room and waits by his bowl. This best describes which of the following? Select one: A.Spontaneous recovery B.Extinction C.Habituation D.Trace conditioning

A.Spontaneous recovery Extinction is the elimination or suppression of a response caused by the discontinuation of reinforcement or the removal of the unconditioned stimulus.Answer C: Habituation is a decrease in responsiveness to a specific stimulus due to repeated experience (there is no recovery of the behavior).Answer D: Trace conditioning is a type of forward conditioning in which the CS is presented and terminated before presenting the US.

Which type of biofeedback is useful for treating migraine headaches, hypertension, Raynaud's disease, and certain types of pain including intermittent claudication associated with diabetes? Select one: A.Thermal B.Respiratory C.Electroencephalograph (EEG) D.Electromyography (EMG)

A.Thermal Thermal biofeedback, also known as psychophysiological feedback, is a type of treatment that uses an individual's body temperature to assess their physical state. Specifically, this type of feedback provides information on blood flow and is a useful treatment for several circulatory disorders. Answer B: Respiratory biofeedback is used as a treatment for asthma and other breathing conditions. Answer C: Electroencephalograph (EEG) biofeedback provides information on brain wave activity and is used to treat insomnia, epilepsy, and other neurological disorders. Answer D: Electromyography (EMG) biofeedback provides feedback for muscle tension and is used to treat tension headaches, bruxism, back and neck pain, and incontinence.

A client says "I don't know where they come from, but these thoughts about swearing and cursing just keep coming back. I just can't seem to get them out of my mind. All I can think about is cursing and swearing." Which of the following techniques would be most useful for alleviating this client's problem? Select one: A.Thought stopping B.Biofeedback C.Behavior rehearsal D.Overcorrection

A.Thought stopping The client is exhibiting obsessions; therefore, thought stopping is the best answer. Although thought stopping is often used to treat obsessions and compulsions, there is some evidence that it is most effective for obsessions, while flooding and other exposure techniques are better for eliminating compulsions. Of the answer choices, this is most appropriate. Answer B: Biofeedback is ordinarily used to control involuntary bodily functions and activities such as blood pressure, muscle tension, and body temperature. Answer C: The technique of behavior rehearsal is not associated with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder. Behavior rehearsal is the practicing of behaviors, responses, and social skills in a therapeutic setting in preparation for use outside of therapy (i.e., "the real world"). Answer D: Overcorrection is used to reduce undesirable overt behaviors.

Which of the following is a technique, in which undesirable behavior is weakened and its occurrence decreases, typically by moving the individual away from the area that is reinforcing the behavior? Select one: A.Time-out B.Negative reinforcement C.Response cost D.Positive punishment

A.Time-out Time-out is a behavior modification technique that is typically considered a form of negative punishment. Time-out involves removing all sources of positive reinforcement for a brief, prespecified period of time following a behavior to decrease the behavior. Answer B: Negative reinforcement involves removing a stimulus after a behavior occurs in order to increase the behavior. Negative reinforcement strengthens, not weakens, the behavior. Answer C: Response cost is another application of negative punishment and is most commonly associated with token economies. It involves removing a specific reinforcer each time the target behavior is performed. Answer D: Positive punishment involves presenting an unfavorable outcome or event following an undesirable behavior to decrease the behavior. For example, positive punishment may be grounding a child after the child throws a tantrum.

A mental health facility establishes a new policy that prohibits the use of all forms of positive punishment to control the behavior of its inpatients. Which of the following techniques would be unacceptable under this policy? Select one: A.Verbal reprimands (e.g., yelling "stop" after an undesirable behavior) B.Response cost (e.g., removing TV privileges after an undesirable behavior) C.Premack Principle (e.g., making TV privileges contingent on the performance of a desirable behavior) D.Time-out (e.g., placing the individual in an empty room for ten minutes after an undesirable behavior)

A.Verbal reprimands (e.g., yelling "stop" after an undesirable behavior) = responding to behavior by applying a stimulus (positive) that is aversive to decrease the frequency of the behavior (punishment)

A mother teaches her son to feed the dog by first showing him how to put the dog food into the dog dish. Once the boy has mastered that task, she teaches him to open a can of dog food and then put it into the dish. Finally, she teaches her son to open the cupboard, take out a can of dog food, open it, and put the dog food in the dog dish. The procedure that the mother has used is best described as: Select one: A.backward chaining B.forward chaining C.stimulus control training D.sequential training

A.backward chaining

As defined by Beck, "schemas" are: Select one: A.cognitive structures. B.logical errors. C.innate predispositions. D.automatic interpretations.

A.cognitive structures.

Creating an acronym involves: Select one: A.forming a word or pronounceable sequence of letters from the first letter of the words included in a list of words B.creating a sentence or rhyme using the first letter of the words included in a list of words C.creating an image that combines the images of two or more words D.chunking items together to make a smaller number of items

A.forming a word or pronounceable sequence of letters from the first letter of the words included in a list of words

As described by Beck, automatic thoughts involve: Select one: A.interpreting experiences in patterned, reflexive ways B.enduring schemas that have been repeatedly reinforced C."shoulds," "musts," and "oughts" D.episodic memories

A.interpreting experiences in patterned, reflexive ways Automatic thoughts are a primary target in Beck's cognitive therapy. As their name implies, automatic thoughts are automatic or reflexive. They also usually have an interpretive or evaluative component (e.g., "this is awful"). Answer B: Although automatic thoughts may be the result of cognitive schemas, Beck does not associate them with repeated reinforcement. Answer C: Shoulds, musts, and oughts are of interest to practitioners of Ellis's Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT). Answer D: Episodic memories consist of information about events that have been personally experienced, and this is not a specified component of Beck's cognitive therapy.

The duration of sensory memory is: Select one: A.milliseconds to seconds. B.several seconds to several minutes. C.days to years. D.essentially infinite.

A.milliseconds to seconds. Sensory memory is the aspect of memory that initially receives incoming signals from the senses. Although the capacity of sensory memory is very large, its duration is very brief. The duration of sensory memory corresponds approximately to the time that a stimulus is initially perceived, which ranges from a fraction of a second to a few seconds

From the perspective of two-factor theory, the avoidance response in a phobic reaction is maintained by: Select one: A.negative reinforcement B.positive reinforcement C.intermittent reinforcement D.vicarious reinforcement

A.negative reinforcement Something undesirable is taken away, reinforcing the behavior

A parent decides to use time-out to reduce her son's misbehavior by having him sit in the corner for ten minutes each time he misbehaves. The boy quickly learns that if he whines while in the corner, his mother shortens the length of the time-out period. The mother ends time-out to cease the boy's whining. In this situation, the mother's willingness to shorten the time-out period is being controlled by: Select one: A.negative reinforcement B.negative punishment C.positive reinforcement D.positive punishment

A.negative reinforcement Negative reinforcement - something negative (whining) is being taken away/stopped when the mother ends the time-out, thus reinforcing the mother to shorten time-outs.

Every time a child in an institutional setting has a tantrum, the only staff member with whom the child has a positive relationship calmly but firmly tells the child to stop his behavior. The child's behavior increases rather than decreases over time as a result of the staff member's behavior. This is an example of: Select one: A.positive reinforcement of the misbehavior. B.negative reinforcement of the misbehavior. C.positive punishment for the misbehavior. D.negative punishment for the misbehavior.

A.positive reinforcement of the misbehavior. Positive reinforcement involves the application of a stimulus following a behavior in order to increase that behavior. Here, the staff member's presence is reinforcing the child's misbehavior. While the staff member's intention is to decrease the boy's behavior, she is actually increasing it. This is apparently because the desirable, reinforcing properties of the staff member's presence and attention are stronger than any aversive effect of what she is saying to him. Often, parents who find that their attempts at punishment fail to decrease a behavior are unaware that the punishment actually contains reinforcing properties, such as attention.

As defined by Bandura, self-efficacy beliefs have four sources. These are: Select one: A.prior accomplishments, observations of others, verbal persuasion, and emotional and physiological states B.external reinforcement, internal (self) reinforcement, vicarious reinforcement, and logical verification C.observation of others, imitation of others, reinforcement by others, and self-reinforcement D.observation, cognitive mediation, rehearsal, and successful performance

A.prior accomplishments, observations of others, verbal persuasion, and emotional and physiological states

When using in vivo exposure with response prevention: Select one: A.the CS is presented repeatedly without the US. B.the US is presented repeatedly without the CS. C.the CS and US are alternately presented. D.the CS and US are presented simultaneously.

A.the CS is presented repeatedly without the US.

The "FI scallop" refers to: Select one: A.the pause followed by accelerated responding that occurs within each fixed interval B.the increase in responding that occurs after reinforcement at the end of each fixed interval C.the gradual pause followed by an essential instantaneous high rate of responding that occurs between each fixed interval D.the pause in responding that signals satiation after exposure to an extended fixed interval schedule

A.the pause followed by accelerated responding that occurs within each fixed interval The term "scallop" is ordinarily applied to the response pattern that is observed when an organism is being reinforced on a fixed interval schedule. When using an FI schedule, the delivery of reinforcement is typically followed first by a pause in responding and then an increasing rate of responding until the next reinforcement is delivered. On a cumulative record, this produces a "scallop."

The underlying premise of Albert Ellis's Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT) is that dysfunctional behaviors are: Select one: A.the result of irrational thoughts and beliefs B.the result of incongruence between self and experience C.the result of "automatic thoughts" D.the result of a lack of "awareness"

A.the result of irrational thoughts and beliefs Ellis's REBT assumes that irrational ways of thinking underlie dysfunctional behaviors. Answer B: This is the underlying premise of Rogers' client-centered therapy. Answer C: Although REBT views irrational thoughts as determiners of dysfunctional behaviors, the notion of "automatic thoughts" is more characteristic of Beck's theory of depression and other forms of maladaptive behavior. Answer D: This is the underlying premise of Perls' Gestalt therapy.

When using second-order conditioning to establish a new conditioned response: Select one: A.the second conditioned response will not be as strong as the first conditioned response B.the second conditioned response will be difficult to establish if the second conditioned stimulus is not similar in nature to the first conditioned stimulus C.the second conditioned response will be more difficult to extinguish than the first conditioned response D.the second conditioned stimulus will produce "experimental neurosis" if it is too similar to the first conditioned stimulus

A.the second conditioned response will not be as strong as the first conditioned response Second-order conditioning is another name for higher-order conditioning that involves two steps: the original conditioning trials followed by trials in which the original conditioned stimulus (CS) is treated as an unconditioned stimulus (US) and paired with a second CS. The further the stimulus is from the original US, the lower in magnitude the conditioned response (CR) will be. In other words, the first CR will be lower in magnitude than the original unconditioned response (UR), and the second CR will, in turn, be lower in magnitude than the first CR. Answer B: The second CS does not have to be similar in nature to the original CS. Answer C: The second CR will be more easily extinguished than the original CR, given that the second CR will be lower in magnitude than the first CR. Answer D: Experimental neurosis refers to subjects' uncharacteristic behaviors that may include extreme restlessness, agitation, and unprovoked aggression, which may occur when subjects have difficulty with stimulus discriminations. Stimulus discrimination occurs during first-order conditioning and typically not a part of second-order conditioning.

A behavioral therapist is using positive reinforcement to increase a desired behavior. After behavior is well-established, the psychologist switches from a continuous schedule of reinforcement to an intermittent one. This technique is referred to as: Select one: A.thinning B.fading C.shaping D.inoculation

A.thinning Thinning is the process of gradually reducing the frequency of reinforcement (e.g., of switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule of reinforcement). Answer B: Fading refers to the gradual removal of prompts, not reinforcements. Answer C: Shaping refers to the reinforcement of successive approximations to the desired behavior. Answer D: Inoculation is not a behavioral term and is a distractor.

In his research, a cognitive psychologist uses paired-associate and serial learning tasks. Apparently, this psychologist is investigating: Select one: A.verbal learning B.selective attention C.procedural memory D.iconic memory

A.verbal learning A paired-associate task requires the individual to respond with one member of a pair when presented with the other member. A serial learning task requires the individual to learn and recall a list of words in a particular order. These tasks are frequently used in the study of verbal learning.

Self-monitoring is used in cognitive-behavioral therapies: Select one: A.to facilitate diagnosis. B.as both an assessment tool and an intervention. C.to foster feelings of self-efficacy. D.to explore the underlying meaning of events.

B. As both an assessment tool and an intervention. Self-monitoring is what it sounds like -- it involves monitoring one's own behavior. Client may record information about the frequency and conditions surrounding their behaviors or they may monitor their self-statements. Self-monitoring has been found useful not only as an assessment technique but also as an intervention because it tends to alter the target behavior in the desired direction.

In classical conditioning, ________ occurs when individuals are unable to form an association between a new neutral stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus due to interference by the neutral stimulus. Select one: A.overshadowing B.blocking C.experimental neurosis D.reciprocal inhibition

B. Blocking Blocking occurs when an association between a conditioned stimulus (CS) and an unconditioned stimulus (US) has been made and, subsequently, the presence of the CS blocks a developing association between a new neutral stimulus and the US. Answer A: Overshadowing occurs when two or more stimuli are present, and one stimulus produces a stronger response than the other because it is more salient. Answer C: Experimental neurosis is an abnormal behavioral condition produced in a laboratory setting. The subject is typically placed in a problem-solving or discernment scenario they cannot solve because it is too difficult or impossible, which can result in erratic or altered behavior. Answer D: Reciprocal inhibition is a technique in behavior therapy that aims to replace an undesired response (e.g., anxiety) with the desired one by counterconditioning.

According to Beck (1976), overgeneralization, personalization, and magnification are examples of which of the following? Select one: A.Cognitive triad B.Cognitive distortions C.Cognitive schema D.Automatic thoughts

B. Cognitive distortions Cognitive distortions are faulty or unhelpful ways of thinking. Overgeneralization, personalization and blaming, magnification, all-or-nothing thinking, and discounting the positive are some examples. Answer A: The cognitive triad was developed by Beck and describes how depressed adults tend to think about the world (i.e., negative views). Specifically, the triad refers to thoughts about self, world, and future. Answer C: Cognitive schema is described in Piaget's theory of cognitive development. Schemas are the building blocks for knowledge acquisition. Answer D: Automatic thoughts are instantaneous, habitual, and nonconscious. Automatic thoughts affect an individual's mood and actions.

The concept of _______ refers to the idea that some stimuli, despite repeated pairings, do not become associated with a specific unconditioned stimulus. Select one: A.prepared learning B.contrapreparedness C.counterconditioning D.overshadowing

B. Contrapreparedness Contrapreparedness is an inability to associate a specific conditioned stimulus and a specific unconditioned stimulus despite repeated conditioning experiences. Answer A: Prepared learning refers to the ability adaptive for evolution, allowing certain associations to be learned more readily than others. Answer C: Counterconditioning is the elimination of a conditioned response when the conditioned stimulus is paired with an opponent unconditioned stimulus. Answer D: Overshadowing, in a compound conditioning situation, refers to the prevention of conditioning to one stimulus due to the presence of a more salient or intense stimulus.

A psychologist investigating short-term memory shows the letter "T" to each research subject for a brief period and, after removing the letter, asks the subject what he or she has seen. The psychologist finds that many subjects report seeing the wrong letter, with the most common error of recall being which of the following letters? Select one: A.L B.D C.S D.F

B. D This is a difficult question that requires you to know that information in short-term memory is believed to be primarily coded acoustically. Studies similar to the one described in this question have found that errors in short-term memory usually involve a confusion of letters that sound alike, thereby supporting the theory that information is stored acoustically in short-term memory. Of the letters listed in the responses, only "D" sounds like "T."

If a dog learns that pressing a button with its nose eliminates a loud noise, which of the following has occurred? Select one: A.Avoidance conditioning B. Escape conditioning C.Higher-order conditioning D.Flooding

B. Escape conditioning Escape conditioning occurs when the subject learns to perform a behavior that terminates an aversive stimulus, pain, or punishment, by escaping the aversive stimulus. Answer A: Avoidance conditioning is the establishment of a behavior that prevents or postpones aversive stimulation. For example, if a buzzer sounds and then a shock is administered to a dog until the dog performs a particular behavior (e.g., sitting), the buzzer is acting as a cue that the aversive stimulus (shock) is going to occur. After several trials, the dog sits as soon as the buzzer sounds, avoiding the shock. Answer C: Higher-order conditioning occurs when the conditioned stimulus of one experiment acts as the unconditioned stimulus of another, for the purpose of conditioning a neutral stimulus. Answer D: Flooding is a type of exposure that involves exposing the subject to the most anxiety-arousing stimuli for an extended period of time.

Food deprivation is a _______. If an individual is hungry, food is reinforcing, but if an individual is satiated, food is less reinforcing. Select one: A.stimulus control B.motivating operation C.unlearned reinforcer D.unlearned aversive stimuli

B. Motivating operation Motivating operations are motivations that encourage or discourage certain behaviors. Their purpose is to enhance or reduce the reinforcement value. Answer A: Stimulus control describes situations in which a behavior is triggered by the presence or absence of some stimulus. Answer C: Unlearned reinforcer is a stimulus that is a reinforcer, though not as a result of pairing with another reinforcer. Examples include food, water, and sex. Answer D: Unlearned aversive stimuli is a stimulus that is aversive though not as the result of pairing with other aversive stimuli. An example is an electric shock.

According to _______________, depression is attributable to deficits in self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement. Select one: A.Bandura's self-efficacy model B.Rehm's self-control theory C.Seligman's learned helplessness model D.Swann's self-verification theory

B. Rehm's self-control theory According to Rehm's self-control theory, individuals with depression selectively attend to negative events and to the immediate consequences of their behavior; make inaccurate internal attributions about their behaviors; and have low rates of self-reinforcement. There are several models of depression, but only one identifies all three of the components listed in the question as the factors underlying this disorder.

A psychologist conducting a study to determine the effectiveness of backward conditioning with human participants will use which of the following procedures? Select one: A.Repeatedly present the CS before the US. B.Repeatedly present the US before the CS. C.Apply an intermittent schedule of reinforcement after a continuous schedule has been used to establish a response. D.Apply a continuous schedule of reinforcement after an intermittent schedule has been used to establish a response.

B. Repeatedly present the US before the CS. When using classical conditioning to establish a conditioned response, the CS is presented prior to the US, and this is referred to as forward conditioning. Backward conditioning is the opposite of forward conditioning and involves presenting the US prior to the CS. Backward conditioning is typically not effective.

Dr. Smith tells his client, Sandy, to smoke cigarettes only at 10:00 a.m., 1:00 p.m., and 8:00 p.m., to smoke only while sitting in particular chairs at home and in the office, and to smoke only a certain brand of cigarettes (one that Sandy does not particularly like). Dr. Smith is using the behavioral technique known as: Select one: A.self-monitoring. B.stimulus control C.overcorrection. D.response cost.

B. Stimulus control A number of operant techniques are used to reduce the frequency and/or strength of a behavior. One of them, stimulus control, involves stimulus discrimination, or learning to respond differently in the presence of different stimuli. When a behavior is under the control of stimuli in this manner, the behavior is said to be under stimulus control. Sandy has been instructed to limit (control) the number and kind of stimuli that are associated with cigarette smoking. By doing so, smoking will become associated with (under the control of) a restricted number of stimuli.

Research on the serial position effect has provided evidence for which of the following? Select one: A.the presence of hemispheric specialization B.the distinction between short- and long-term memory C.the effects of proactive and retroactive interference D.the effects of latent learning

B. The distinction b/w short- and long-term memory The serial position effect refers to the tendency of people to recall words in the beginning and end of a list better than words in the middle of the list when asked to recall the words immediately after reading the list. The ability to recall words from the beginning of the list is referred to as the primacy effect and is attributed to the storage of those words in long-term memory. In contrast, the ability to recall words from the end of the list is referred to as the recency effect and is attributed to the presence of those words in short-term memory.

Which of the following is the gradually decreasing and eventually ceasing the use of a reinforcement schedule? Select one: A.Fading B.Thinning C.Priming D.Shaping

B. Thinning Thinning refers to the process of reducing the proportion of reinforcements. Answer A: Fading is the gradual removal of prompts. More specifically, there is a decrease in the level of assistance needed to complete a task or activity. Answer C: Priming is a technique in which the introduction of one stimulus influences how an individual responds to a subsequent stimulus. Answer D: Shaping is a gradual behavior modification technique, where successive approximations to the desired behaviors are reinforced.

Studies on concurrent schedules of reinforcement have found that an organism's relative frequency of responding to one alternative corresponds to the relative frequency of reinforcement for responses to that alternative. This phenomenon is referred to as: Select one: A.the law of effect B.the matching law C.Rescorla-Wagner theory D.the Premack principle

B. the matching law The matching law states that, when using concurrent schedules of reinforcement, the proportion of responses will match the proportion of reinforcements. The research has supported the "common sense" conclusion that an organism will respond to two different stimuli in proportion to the amount of reinforcement received for those responses. Answer A: The law of effect proposes that when behaviors are followed by "satisfying consequences," they are more likely to occur again. Although this law makes predictions about the effect of positive reinforcement, it does not address differences in frequency of responding due to variance in reinforcement. Therefore, matching law is a better response. Answer C: The Rescorla-Wagner theory predicts that the degree or strength of conditioning depends on how "surprising" (unexpected) the association between the conditioned stimulus (CS) and unconditioned stimulus (US) is: the more surprising the US, the more conditioning will occur. Answer D: The Premack principle is a type of positive reinforcement in which a high-frequency behavior is used as the reinforcer for a low-frequency behavior.

According to Miller (1956), the average number of "chunks" of information that can be retained in short-term memory is: Select one: A.5 +/- 2. B.7 +/- 2. C.9 +/- 2. D.11 +/- 2.

B.7 +/- 2. Short-term memory is very limited in terms of duration and capacity, but the latter can be expanded by "chunking" information into meaningful units. Miller proposed that short-term memory can hold between 5 and 9 units of information and that the ability to hold larger amounts of information is due to chunking information into groups of related items. The range of 7 +/- 2 is between 5 (7-2) and 9 (7+2).

Which of the following determines an individuals' perceptions and behaviors based on the causes individuals give for interpersonal and performance situations? Select one: A.Stress innoculation B.Attribution retraining C.Self-control therapy D.Problem-solving therapy

B.Attribution retraining Attribution retraining focuses on altering the individual's perceptions of the causes of his or her problematic behavior to help clients attribute their failures to external, unstable, and specific factors and successes to internal, stable, and global factors. Answer A: Stress inoculation involves teaching coping skills to manage stress and anxiety. Techniques include training in deep muscle relaxation, cognitive restructuring, breathing exercises, thought stopping, role-playing, and guided self-dialogue. Answer C: Self-control therapy is a brief form of therapy that is usually conducted as group therapy. It involves didactic presentations, instructional exercises to teach concepts and skills, and the application of these skills to the day-to-day lives or participants through homework assignments. This therapy type has been applied to the treatment of depression in children, adults, and geriatric populations. Answer D: Problem-solving therapy is a form of therapy that involves providing patients with tools to identify and solve problems that arise from life stressors to improve the overall quality of life and reduce the negative impact of psychological and physical illness.

Research (e.g., Davidson and Parker, 2001) evaluating the mechanisms that contribute to the effectiveness of EMDR (eye movement desensitization and reprocessing) has generally found that its beneficial effects are attributable to: Select one: A.rapid eye movements B.exposure to the feared stimulus C.a placebo effect D.counterconditioning

B.exposure to the feared stimulus

The belief that distorted schemas develop early in life and leave the individual susceptible to depression or other disorders when faced with stress is most consistent with the views of: Select one: A.Lewinsohn B.Beck C.Seligman D.Rehm

B.Beck Beck's cognitive therapy attributes depression to certain cognitive phenomena including dysfunctional cognitive schemas, automatic thoughts, and cognitive distortions. Use of the term "schema" in the question may have been a good indicator of the correct response. Answer A: Lewinsohn proposed that depression is related to a lack of contingent reinforcement. Answer C: Seligman is associated with the notion of learned helplessness. Answer D: Rehm is associated with the self-control model of depression, which focuses on the processes of self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement.

If a bell begins to ring and continues to ring until food is presented it is an example of which of the following? Select one: A.Positive transfer B.Delayed conditioning C.Narrowing D.Negative contrast

B.Delayed conditioning Delayed conditioning is a procedure in which the conditioned stimulus is presented and remains present for a fixed period (delay) before the unconditioned stimulus is introduced. Answer A: Positive transfer occurs in motor skills learning when the practice of one task improves learning or performance on a similar task. Answer C: Narrowing is a technique of stimulus control that involves gradually reducing the range of situations in which an unwanted behavior is allowed to occur. Answer D: Negative contrast is a type of behavioral contrast in which there is a decrease in responding in the presence of one stimulus due to an increase in the reinforcement conditions for another stimulus.

A child is rewarded for brushing their teeth before bedtime and not rewarded when they do not brush their teeth before bedtime. This is an example of which of the following? Select one: A.Overcorrection B.Differential reinforcement C.Negative practice D.Response cost

B.Differential reinforcement Differential reinforcement works to reinforce a target behavior (brushing teeth) while withholding reinforcement from an unwanted behavior (not brushing teeth). The goal is to replace unwanted behaviors with desirable behaviors. Answer A: Overcorrection involves the repetition of appropriate behavior after the occurrence of unwanted behavior. Answer C: Negative practice involves requiring the individual to deliberately repeat the undesirable behavior to the point that it becomes aversive to the individual or the individual becomes fatigued. Answer D: Response cost involves removing a specific reinforcer each time the target behavior is performed.

Which aspect of long-term memory contains memories of one's personal experiences? Select one: A.Procedural B.Episodic C.Semantic D.Implicit

B.Episodic Episodic (autobiographical) memory consists of memories for personal events (e.g., first date, graduation from college). Long-term memory can be divided into two types - procedural and declarative - and declarative memory can be further divided into semantic and episodic memory. Answer A: Procedural memory contains memories of skilled responses and actions (e.g., riding a bicycle). Answer C: Semantic memory contains memories of general knowledge. Answer D: Implicit memory refers to memories that are recalled without conscious effort.

Which of the following was derived by Martin Fishbein and states that attitudes are developed and modified based on assessments about beliefs and values? A.Attribution theory B.Expectancy-value theory C.Self-efficacy theory D.Self-regulation theory

B.Expectancy-value theory The expectancy-value theory postulates that motivation for a given behavior or action is determined by two factors: 1) expectancy - how probable it is that a wanted outcome is achieved through the behavior or action, and 2) value - how much the individual values the desired outcome. Answer A: Attribution theory proposes that the attributions people make about events and behavior can be classed as either internal or external. Answer C: Self-efficacy theory emphasizes the importance of the individual and the individual's perceptions of his/her capabilities as key determinants of successful outcomes. Answer D: Self-regulation theory refers to a system of conscious personal management that helps an individual control their thoughts, feelings, and actions.

Pavlov found that requiring dogs to make difficult discriminations between stimuli during the course of conditioning trials led to which of the following? Select one: A.Superstitious behavior B.Experimental neurosis C.Overshadowing D.Blocking

B.Experimental neurosis In classical conditioning, stimulus discrimination training reduces stimulus generalization by teaching the subject to respond with a conditioned response (CR) only in the presence of the original conditioned stimulus (CS). When discriminations are difficult, the subject may exhibit experimental neurosis, such as restlessness, aggressiveness, or fear. In one series of studies, Pavlov found that dogs that were conditioned to respond with salivation to a circle but not to respond with salivation to an ellipse subsequently exhibited experimental neurosis when presented with a more circular ellipse. He attributed the experimental neurosis to a conflict between cortical excitation and inhibition. Answer A: Accidental and noncontingent reinforcement can lead to superstitious behavior. When the behavior is reinforced, it increases the likelihood that the behavior will occur again. Answer C: Overshadowing occurs when one stimulus is more salient to the subject than a second stimulus, although both are presented at the same time prior to an unconditioned stimulus (US). Subsequent presentations of the two stimuli together produce a conditioned response (CR,) but when the two stimuli are presented separately, only the stimulus that is more salient to the subject will produce a CR. Answer D: Blocking occurs once an association has been made between a CS and US which prevents future pairing between the US and a second neutral stimulus. Because there is already an association between a CS and a US, the presence of the CS blocks an association being made between a new neutral stimulus and US when the CS and the new neutral stimulus are presented together prior to the US.

During _______ the individual attends to emotionally disturbing material in brief sequential doses while simultaneously focusing on an external stimulus. Select one: A.implosive therapy B.Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) C.prolonged exposure D.flooding

B.Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) EMDR is a treatment that was originally designed to alleviate the distress associated with traumatic memories. This type of therapy technique utilizes sensory input such as eye movements to unblock emotional processes that have been stagnated by distress. Answer A: Implosive therapy is conducted in the imagination and involves presenting the feared stimulus vividly enough to arouse high levels of anxiety. Answer C: Prolonged exposure teaches individuals to gradually approach trauma-related memories, feelings, and situations. Answer D: Flooding involves exposure to the most anxiety-or-fear-arousing stimuli for a prolonged period.

In a classroom, a student yells out an answer and is reprimanded by the teacher every other time. However, when the student raises her hand, the teacher calls on her every six times. Assuming attention is the reinforcer, yelling will occur more often than hand-raising based on which of the following? Select one: A.Ainslie-Rachlin Model B.Matching law C.Trans-situationality D.Delayed gratification paradigm

B.Matching law The matching law suggests that when different schedules of reinforcement are available at the same time for different behaviors, individuals will allocate their behavior according to the relative rates of reinforcement available for each option. Answer A: Ainslie-Rachlin model is a theory of self-control choices that explains why an individual's preferences can shift from a larger, delayed reinforcer to a smaller, more immediate reinforcer as the time of delivery approaches. Answer C: Trans-situationality is the theory that once a stimulus is determined to be a reinforcer in one situation, it will also serve as a reinforcer in other situations. Answer D: The delayed gratification paradigm is the act of resisting an impulse to take an immediately available reward in the hope of obtaining a more valued reward in the future. The ability to delay gratification is essential to self-regulation or self-control.

Escape and avoidance conditioning involve which of the following? Select one: A.Positive reinforcement B.Negative reinforcement C.Positive punishment D.Negative punishment

B.Negative reinforcement Escape and avoidance conditioning both establish a response that allows the individual to elude an aversive stimulus utilizing negative reinforcement. In escape and avoidance conditioning, the individual's behavior increases because it enables him/her to escape or avoid a stimulus (i.e., a stimulus is taken away following the response). Escape conditioning is simply a straightforward application of negative reinforcement, while avoidance conditioning is more complex and involves a combination of negative reinforcement and classical conditioning.

A 2 1/2-year-old whines until his mother picks him up. In this situation, the mother's behavior is being controlled by which of the following? Select one: A.Positive reinforcement B.Negative reinforcement C.Positive punishment D.Negative punishment

B.Negative reinforcement It is important to identify the mother's behavior (picking up her child) as the target behavior in the question, which is controlled by negative reinforcement. In this situation, the mother's "picking-up-her-child" behavior occurs because it is reinforced by the cessation of her child's whining. The mother's behavior increases (reinforcement) because of the stimulus that is removed following the behavior (negative).

The use of shaping to establish a complex behavior depends on which of the following? Select one: A.Latent learning B.Positive reinforcement C.Higher-order conditioning D.Successive discrimination

B.Positive reinforcement

Thermal (temperature) biofeedback would be most effective as a treatment for: Select one: A.hyperventilation. B.Raynaud's disease. C.stuttering. D.TMJ.

B.Raynaud's disease. Thermal (temperature) biofeedback provides feedback on skin temperature, which indicates changes in blood-flow. Raynaud's disease is a disorder of the blood vessels that limits circulation to certain areas of the body (usually the fingers and toes). It is triggered by cold or emotional stress and causes a change in color of the skin with coldness and numbness followed by throbbing, tingling, or stinging pain upon warming or relief of the stress. Thermal biofeedback has been found to be an effective treatment for Raynaud's disease and a number of other disorders including hypertension and migraine headache.

Systematic desensitization was originally designed by Wolpe for eliminating anxiety responses as an application of which of the following? Select one: A.Aversive counterconditioning B.Reciprocal inhibition C.Habituation D.Operant extinction

B.Reciprocal inhibition - Systematic desensitization is used to reduce anxiety and involves pairing anxiety-producing stimuli with relaxation in order to reduce the anxiety. Use of reciprocal inhibition (counterconditioning) to reduce an undesirable behavior is based on the assumption that a response can be eliminated by replacing it with an incompatible response (e.g., replacing anxiety with relaxation).

Although new neurons develop throughout an individual's life, our brains reach maximum size during the early twenties and then begin to decline in volume and blood flow slowly. Noting that there are differences among individuals, some cognitive abilities continue to improve well into older age. Specifically, regarding memory which of the following continues to improve for many older adults? Select one: A.Procedural memory B.Semantic memory C.Episodic memory D.Long-term memory

B.Semantic memory

To establish a behavior that an individual does not naturally emit, you would use which of the following? Select one: A.Intermittent reinforcement B.Shaping C.Response generalization D.Priming

B.Shaping One of the difficulties with operant conditioning is that it is necessary to wait until the organism emits a response so that the consequence of the response (reinforcement or punishment) can be manipulated. To overcome this problem, the desired behavior can be "shaped." Shaping involves successive approximations to the desired behavior. When using shaping, it isn't necessary to wait for the behavior to emitted. Instead, the behavior is gradually developed or formed by reinforcing responses that come closer and closer to it. Answer A: Intermittent reinforcement refers to a schedule of reinforcement in which only some (not all) behaviors are reinforced. Answer C: Response generalization occurs when reinforcement of a target behavior results in an increase in other similar behaviors that were not reinforced. Answer D: Priming is a phenomenon in which the introduction of one stimulus influences how an individual responds to a subsequent stimulus.

As a researcher, you have conditioned a rat to respond to a whistle as a signal of feeding. You then add a flashing light to the whistle to signal food. After a training session, the light is only needed to signal feeding time. Which of the following did you demonstrate? Select one: A.Preparatory-response theory B.Stimulus-substitution theory C.Compensatory-response theory D.Rescola-Wagner theory

B.Stimulus-substitution theory Stimulus-substitution theory posits that after pairing a new stimulus (light) with an existing conditioned stimulus (whistle), it is possible to replace the conditioned stimulus (whistle) with the new stimulus (light) and elicit the same response.

A _________ schedule occurs when a response is reinforced only after a specified number of responses. Select one: A.fixed interval B.fixed ratio C.variable ratio D.variable interval

B.fixed ratio

Various techniques help individuals overcome difficulties in performance and increase memory strength. Mnemonic techniques and spaced repetition are two ways Ebbinghaus proposed to overcome which of the following? Select one: A.Yerkes-Dodson Law B.The Forgetting Curve C.Positive contrast effect D.Misinformation effect

B.The Forgetting Curve According to Ebbinghaus, the Forgetting Curve describes that individuals start losing their memory of learned knowledge over time, in a matter of days or weeks, unless the learned knowledge is consciously reviewed repeatedly. Answer A: The Yerkes-Dodson Law suggests that there is a relationship between performance and arousal. Moreover, performance increases with physiological or mental arousal but only to a point. When the level of arousal or stress becomes too high, performance decreases. Answer C: The positive contrast effect occurs when a shift from low to high reward magnitude produces a greater level of responding than if the reward magnitude had always been high. Answer D: The misinformation effect refers to information received from others about an event that can alter memory to conform to the information received from others.

Which of the following is most useful for explaining the phenomenon known as the "serial position effect"? Select one: A.The levels of processing model of memory B.The multi-store (three-box) model of memory C.The distinction between implicit and explicit memory D.The concept of overlearning

B.The multi-store (three-box) model of memory The serial position effect refers to the finding that people who are asked to recall a list of words immediately after exposure to them tend to recall the words at the beginning and end of the list better than words in the middle of the list. The most widely accepted explanation for the serial position effect is that words in the beginning of the list have been transferred to long-term memory, while those at the end of the list are still in short-term memory. Therefore, the multi-store model, which proposes three distinct memory systems--sensory register, short-term memory, and long-term memory---is most useful for explaining the serial position effect. Answer A: The levels of processing model predicts that memory is maximized then information is encoded semantically. Answer C: Implicit and explicit memory have not been used to explain the serial position effect. Answer D: Overlearning refers to rehearsing or studying past the point of mastery and is not relevant to the serial position effect.

A pigeon is placed in a cage that has two levers. Lever #1 delivers reinforcement on a VI-30-second schedule, while Lever #2 delivers reinforcement on a VI-60-second schedule. What proportion of the pigeon's pecks will be on Lever #1? Select one: A.One-third B.Two-thirds C.One-half D.Three-fourths

B.Two-thirds When using a concurrent VI schedule, each lever or key delivers reinforcement on a different variable interval schedule. In this situation, the animal matches the relative frequency of its pecks on each key to the relative frequency of reinforcement obtained with that key. In the situation described in the question, the pigeon will peck Lever #1 (the VI-30 key) twice as often as Lever #2 (the VI-60 key). Put another way, 2/3 of the pigeon's pecks will be on Lever #1 and 1/3 will be on Lever #2.

Implicit memory is involved in: Select one: A.remembering where you were on your last birthday. B.buttoning your shirt when you get dressed in the morning. C.solving a simple arithmetic problem "in your head." D.studying for the licensing exam.

B.buttoning your shirt when you get dressed in the morning. Implicit memory is memory that does not require conscious effort, while explicit memory requires conscious recollection. Of the memories listed in the responses, buttoning a shirt is most likely to involve implicit memory. In fact, most procedural memories are implicit and some investigators use the terms interchangeably. Answer A: Remembering where you were on your last birthday is an example of episodic memory. Episodic memory consists of information about events that have been personally experienced.Answer C: Solving a math problem in your head is an example of semantic memory. Semantic memory includes general knowledge and stores facts, rules, and concepts.Answer D: Studying for the licensing exam is another example of semantic memory.

Research on Baddeley's (2000) multi-component model of working memory suggests that the ____________ plays an essential role in mental arithmetic and is responsible for accessing and executing computational algorithms and heuristics. Select one: A.sensory register B.central executive C.phonological loop D.visuo-spatial sketchpad

B.central executive A. D. Baddeley's (2000) multi-component model of working memory describes working memory as being comprised of a central executive that controls and regulates three subsystems - the phonological loop, the visuo-spatial sketchpad, and the episodic buffer. The central executive serves a number of supervisory functions including focusing and switching attention, controlling encoding and retrieval strategies, and mentally manipulating information held in the subsystems. For example, while performing mental arithmetic, the central executive is responsible for selecting and executing calculation heuristics. Answer A: Sensory register is not one of the systems of working memory described by Baddeley. Answer C: The phonological loop is responsible for processing and temporarily storing verbally encoded information. It also plays a role in mental arithmetic but, in contrast to the central executive, is responsible for the temporary storage of partial solutions and subvocal rehearsal of running totals. Answer D: The visuo-spatial sketchpad is responsible for processing and temporarily storing visually encoded information.

The best way to keep two sets of six digits in working memory is to: Select one: A.visualize the digits in a string. B.convert the 12 digits to "chunks." C.connect each digit with a visual image. D.repeat the digits first forward and then backward several times.

B.convert the 12 digits to "chunks."

Interoceptive exposure involves: Select one: A.exposure in imagination to objects or situations that evoke anxiety. B.exposure to bodily sensations associated with anxiety reactions. C.prolonged continuous exposure to a feared stimulus in vivo. D.exposure to increased anxiety-provoking stimuli

B.exposure to bodily sensations associated with anxiety reactions. Interoceptive exposure involves exposing the individual to internal bodily sensations (e.g., elevated heart rate, hyperventilation) associated with a panic attack or other anxiety response by having him/her inhale carbon dioxide, spin in a chair, etc. Interoceptive exposure has been found useful for reducing anxiety associated with panic attacks, PTSD, and other anxiety-related disorders. Answer A: Desensitization in imagination involves a therapist instructing clients to imagine they are exposed to feared objects or anxiety-provoking situations. Answer C: Flooding involves in vivo exposure to a feared stimulus for a prolonged period of time. Answer D: Utilizing systematic desensitization, clients may engage in graded (graduated) exposure to a feared stimulus first in imagination. When they have become desensitized to a majority of items on their anxiety hierarchy, they may then move to in vivo desensitization.

A treatment for depression that is based on Rehm's self-control theory is most likely to include: Select one: A.having the client keep a record of automatic thoughts B.having the client keep a record of positive experiences C.helping the client replace irresponsible behaviors with responsible ones D.using functional behavioral analysis to help the client identify the antecedents and consequences associated with maladaptive behaviors

B.having the client keep a record of positive experiences - Rehm's self-control theory is based on the assumption that depression is related to six deficits in self-control behavior: selective monitoring of negative events; selective monitoring of immediate (vs. delayed) consequences of behavior; stringent self-evaluative criteria; inaccurate attributions of responsibility; insufficient self-reward; and excessive self-punishment. According to Rehm, depressed people focus too much on negative events. Treatment attempts to alter this by encouraging clients to recognize the positive events that occur. Answer A: Having the client keep a record of automatic thoughts is more aligned with Beck's version of cognitive therapy. Answer C: Although Rehm believes that depressed people make inaccurate attributions about responsibility, he doesn't talk about "irresponsible behaviors." Answer D: Rehm's approach does not focus on identifying the antecedents and consequences of maladaptive behaviors.

Wolfgang Kohler's research on animal learning and animal cognition led to his conclusion that learning is: Select one: A.biologically-based B.insightful C.the result of trial-and-error D.the result of reinforcement and punishment

B.insightful Kohler is a co-founder of Gestalt psychology, which focuses on perception. He is probably best known for his research on animals, especially Sultan the chimpanzee. Kohler's research revealed that like humans, animals seem to experience an "aha" experience ("insight") while solving problems. Answer A: Albert Ellis believed that irrational beliefs are the results of certain biological tendencies. Answer C: Trial-and-error learning occurs when an individual successively tries various responses in a situation, seemingly at random, until one is successful. Edward Thorndike posited that learning is due to the connections that develop between responses and stimuli as a result of trial-and-error. Answer D: B. F. Skinner described the voluntary enactment of behaviors as a result of reinforcement and punishment.

A potential problem with the Premack Principle is that: Select one: A.it is often difficult to identify an alternative behavior that serves the same function as the target behavior B.it may not be possible to apply the reinforcer immediately following the target behavior C.for some people, secondary reinforcers have little value D.it is difficult to extinguish a behavior without simultaneously reinforcing an alternative one

B.it may not be possible to apply the reinforcer immediately following the target behavior The Premack Principle entails reinforcing a low-frequency behavior with a high-frequency behavior or activity. The high-frequency behavior or activity may not be immediately available, which can reduce the effectiveness of the intervention since positive reinforcement is most effective when the reinforcer can be delivered immediately following the target behavior.

To help a depressed client identify the cognitive errors and distortions that are affecting her interpretation of current life events, a practitioner of Beck's cognitive therapy would: Select one: A.rely primarily on didactic techniques B.make use of Socratic questioning C.determine the purpose of an undesirable behavior and identify a more desirable substitute behavior that serves the same purpose D.utilize modeling, coaching, behavior rehearsal, reinforcement, and homework assignments

B.make use of Socratic questioning A key characteristic of Beck's cognitive therapy is the use of guided discovery, which involves the use of questions. Socratic questioning is an essential component of Beck's approach. It is used to guide clients through the process of identifying the impact of their cognitions on their emotions and behaviors and alternative ways of thinking. Answer A: Although Beck uses didactic methods to explain the theory underlying the cognitive approach, they are not a key characteristic of cognitive therapy. Didactics are not as useful as questioning for helping a client identify his or her cognitive errors and distortions. Answer C: A practitioner would use a functional behavioral analysis to examine the purpose of an undesirable behavior and identify an alternative behavior that serves the same purpose. Answer D: Social skills training (SST) is used to improve communication, assertiveness, and problem-solving. SST incorporates modeling, coaching, behavior rehearsal, reinforcement, and homework assignments.

Whenever a mother yells at her child when he is whining, the boy stops whining for a short period. Over time, the mother notices that she's having to yell at her son more and more often to keep the boy from whining. The boy is controlling his mother's behavior through: Select one: A.positive reinforcement B.negative reinforcement C.positive punishment D.negative punishment

B.negative reinforcement

While treating a client for snake phobia, a therapist handles the snake and then guides the client through a series of steps until she is able to handle the snake herself. This technique is referred to as: Select one: A.symbolic modeling. B.participant modeling. C.in-vivo desensitization D.overcorrection.

B.participant modeling. Studies on observational learning (modeling) have shown that it is most effective when live modeling is combined with having the individual perform the behavior with assistance from the model. This is referred to as participant modeling. Answer A: Symbolic modeling would involve watching a filmed model handling a snake and is not the procedure described in the question. Answer C: In-vivo desensitization would likely involve a gradual handling of the snake. However, it would not necessarily involve handling (modeling) by the therapist. Answer D: Overcorrection is an operant technique used to decrease an undesirable behavior. It involves requiring the individual to correct the consequences of the undesirable behavior and practice alternative desirable behaviors.

________ is a response bias arising from discrimination learning in which directional, but limited, preference for or avoidance of unusual stimuli is displayed. Select one: A.generalization gradient B.peak shift C.excitatory gradient D.inhibitory gradient

B.peak shift Peak shift occurs after discrimination training involving two stimuli along a common dimension (e.g., brightness). The peak of the response gradient is shifted in a direction away from the less favorable stimulus to a point beyond the value of the stimulus associated with reinforcement. Answer A: Generalization gradient graphs the similarity or difference between two stimuli versus the similarity or difference in their elicited responses. Answer C: Excitatory gradient graphs an increased tendency to respond to a stimulus and to other stimuli that resemble it. Answer D: Inhibitory gradient graphs a decreased tendency.

Tolman's research with rats in mazes confirmed that: Select one: A. noncontingent reinforcement can lead to superstitious behavior. B.reinforcement is not necessary for learning to occur. C.observational learning occurs in non-human animals. D.learning is constrained by biological predispositions.

B.reinforcement is not necessary for learning to occur. Tolman's research indicated that learning of a new behavior (but not necessarily performance of that behavior) occurs without reinforcement. Specifically, his studies of rats in mazes demonstrated that rats formed cognitive maps of the maze even without reinforcement.

The aspect of memory that is capable of storing a very large amount of information for a very brief period of time is referred to as ________ memory. Select one: A.short-term B.sensory C.primary D.secondary

B.sensory According to the multistore model of memory, memory has three components -- sensory, short-term, and long-term. Sensory memory contains information collected from all senses but retains that information for a very brief period (probably .5 second).Answer A: Short-term memory has a limited capacity and a limited duration.Answer C: Some authors use the term primary memory as a name for short-term memory.Answer D: The term secondary memory refers to long-term memory which has a very large capacity and a very long duration.

As defined by Aaron Beck, automatic thoughts are: Select one: A.more accessible and less stable than voluntary thoughts. B.spontaneously triggered by a specific circumstance and accompanied by an emotional reaction. C.systematic errors in reasoning that are evident during times of psychological distress. D.always irrational.

B.spontaneously triggered by a specific circumstance and accompanied by an emotional reaction. Automatic thoughts are "surface level cognitions" that intercede between an event and a person's emotional or behavioral reactions to that event. Automatic thoughts spontaneously occur when triggered by a specific circumstance or situation. Answer A: Automatic thoughts are less accessible and more stable than voluntary thoughts. Answer C: This describes cognitive distortions. Answer D: Automatic thoughts may be rational or irrational in the sense that they may be accurate or inaccurate. Treatment focuses on irrational (inaccurate) automatic thoughts.

Secondary reinforcers are: Select one: A.stimuli that increase a behavior through their accidental pairing with that behavior. B.stimuli that gain their reinforcing value through their association with an unconditioned reinforcer. C.high-frequency behaviors that are used to reinforce low-frequency behaviors. D.reinforcers that are removed (rather than applied) following a behavior.

B.stimuli that gain their reinforcing value through their association with an unconditioned reinforcer. Reinforcers are classified as primary or secondary. Primary (unconditioned) reinforcers are inherently reinforcing, while secondary (conditioned) reinforcers acquire their reinforcing value through their association with one or more primary reinforcers. Money is an example of a secondary reinforcer. Answer A: Superstitious behavior occurs due to stimuli that increase a behavior through their accidental pairing with that behavior. Answer C: When using the Premack Principle, a high-frequency behavior is used as a reinforcer for a low-frequency behavior to increase the low-frequency behavior. Answer D: This answer describes negative reinforcement.

In the context of operant conditioning, "fading" refers to: Select one: A.a reduction in positive reinforcement B.the gradual removal of prompts C.extinguishing a previously reinforced response D.eliminating stimulus generalization

B.the gradual removal of prompts

Which of the following refers to the performance of a task in which the meaning of a stimulus depends on the stimuli it is paired with? Select one: A.concept learning B.higher-order conditioning C.configural learning D.incidental learning

C. Configural learning Configural learning refers to responding to two or more stimuli based on their combination rather than on the individual experience of any of those stimuli alone. Answer A: Concept learning refers to learning a task in which one classifies objects by being shown example(s) of the object along with their classes or categories. Then the learner will generalize what they have learned to a similar object. Answer B: Higher-order conditioning refers to a situation in which a previously neutral stimulus is paired with a conditioned stimulus to produce the same conditioned response as the conditioned stimulus. Answer D: Incidental learning is learning that is not premeditated, deliberate, or intentional and that is acquired as a result of some other, possibly unrelated, mental activity.

Identifying alternative behaviors to replace targeted undesirable behaviors is an integral part of which of the following behavioral techniques? Select one: A.Response cost B.Implosive therapy C.Contingency management D.Negative practice

C. Contingency management While some behavioral techniques are designed specifically to either decrease or increase a behavior, others attempt to accomplish both goals. "Contingency" refers to the consequence of a behavior, and contingency management involves identifying and applying punishments for undesirable behaviors and identifying and applying reinforcements for desirable ones. A. Response cost - type of negative punishment B. Implosive therapy is conducted in the imagination and involves presenting the feared stimulus vividly enough to arouse high levels of anxiety (exposure) and implements psychodynamic interpretations. D. Negative practice - technique where individual is required to deliberately repeat the undesirable behavior. It has been found to be an effective treatment for tics.

A third-grade teacher puts a student in the "time-out chair" for 15 minutes when he is disruptive. After 10 minutes in time-out, the boy tells the teacher that he is sorry, that he knows what he did was wrong, and that he won't bother the other children again. The teacher lets him rejoin the other students in the classroom. Three days later, the boy again disturbs the other students and the teacher sends him to time-out for 15 minutes. This time, the boy apologizes and promises he won't misbehave again after only 8 minutes. The teacher again lets the boy rejoin his classmates. In this situation, the boy's expression of remorse is being controlled by which of the following? Select one: A.Positive reinforcement B.Avoidance conditioning C.Escape conditioning D.Negative punishment

C. Escape conditioning Escape conditioning is a type of negative reinforcement in which a behavior occurs because it allows the individual to escape an undesirable stimulus or event. In the situation described in the question, the boy's apology is being controlled by negative reinforcement--it occurs because it causes an undesirable event (the time-out) to be removed.

The parents of a three-year-old boy ask a psychologist to help them reduce their son's frequent temper tantrums. After learning that the parents pay attention to the boy when he has an outburst, the psychologist tells them to consistently ignore him every time a tantrum occurs. Which technique has the psychologist suggested the parents use? Select one: A.Shaping B.Negative reinforcement C.Extinction D.Overcorrection

C. Extinction In operant conditioning, extinction is a procedure in which reinforcement (paying attention to the son's tantrum) is discontinued, ultimately resulting in a decrease in the behavior (tantrums). In the situation described in this question, the child will no longer be reinforced for engaging in temper tantrums; as a result, his tantrums will cease. Answer A: Shaping is a type of positive reinforcement in which successive approximations to the desired response are reinforced. Answer B: Negative reinforcement involves removing or withholding a stimulus following a behavior in order to increase the behavior. Answer D: Overcorrection is a form of positive punishment, which occurs when a behavior decreases because of the application of a stimulus following the behavior. It is used to eliminate an undesirable behavior and establish more appropriate or desirable ones.

Dr. Agape uses a dismantling strategy to identify the "active ingredient" of systematic desensitization. He is most likely to find that which of the following is the critical component? Select one: A.Stimulus control B.Reciprocal inhibition C.Extinction D.Behavior rehearsal

C. Extinction Research using a dismantling strategy involves separating and comparing the various components of a treatment to identify the component(s) most responsible for the treatment's effects. Systematic desensitization was originally developed as an application of reciprocal inhibition. However, studies using the dismantling strategy have found that its effects are due to repeated exposure to the CS without the US (i.e., to classical extinction).

Which of the following explains associative learning in which simultaneous firing of cells leads to pronounced increases in synaptic strength between those cells, and provides a biological basis for the pairing of stimulus and response in classical conditioning? Select one: A. Overexpectation effect B. Reactive inhibition C. Hebbian rule D. Partial reinforcement effect

C. Hebbian rule The Hebbian rule is a learning rule that describes how neuronal activities influence the connection between neurons (i.e., synaptic plasticity). Answer A: The over expectation effect refers to the decrease in the conditioned response that occurs when two separately conditioned stimuli are combined into a compound stimulus for further pairings with the unconditioned stimulus. Answer B: Reactive inhibition is the temporary suppression of behaviors due to the persistence of a drive state after unsuccessful behavior. Answer D: The partial reinforcement effect, also known as intermittent reinforcement, occurs when a response is reinforced intermittently. With this type of reinforcement learned behaviors are acquired slower, but responses are more resistant to extinction.

Which of the following is a key process in development and learning according to Vygotsky's sociocultural theory? Select one: A.Assimilation B.Adaptation C.Culture-specific tools D.Accommodation

C.Culture-specific tools Culture-specific tools are items in the culture that teach children about the expectations of the group. These tools help the child form their view of the world. Examples include books, computers, and traditions. Answer A: Assimilation was defined by Piaget as the cognitive process of fitting new information into existing cognitive schemas, perceptions, and understanding. Answer B: Adaptation is a process that plays an important role in Piaget's theory of cognitive development. It refers to an ability to adjust to changes and new experiences and to accept new information. Answer D: Accommodation was defined by Piaget as the cognitive process of revising existing cognitive schemas, perceptions, and understanding so that new information can be incorporated.

An "extinction burst" occurs when: Select one: A.a primary reinforcer loses its reinforcing value. B.a previously non-reinforced behavior is reinforced. C.reinforcement for a previously reinforced behavior is removed. D.an extinguished behavior is accidentally reinforced.

C. Reinforcement for a previously reinforced behavior is removed. In operant conditioning, extinction occurs when reinforcement for a previously reinforced behavior is removed. The term "extinction burst" refers to the temporary increase in behavior that occurs when reinforcement is removed from a previously reinforced behavior. Answer A: Satiation occurs when a reinforcer has lost its reinforcing value. Answer B: When a behavior that was previously not reinforced begins to be reinforced, it increases the likelihood the subject will exhibit the behavior (following the principles of operant conditioning). This does not describe an extinction burst. Answer D: When an extinguished behavior is accidentally reinforced, the subject may increase the exhibition of behavior as a function of reinforcement (following the principles of operant conditioning). This increase is different from an extinction burst, when the increase in behavior follows the removal of a reinforcer for the previously reinforced behavior.

In the first months of life, infants can locate objects through _______, which involves learning the association between bodily reaction and a particular position in space. Select one: A.avoidance learning B.place learning C.response learning D.latent learning

C. Response learning Response learning refers to performing a specific series of movements or responses (e.g., eye movement, or reach). Answer A: Avoidance learning is the process by which an individual learns a behavior or response to avoid a stressful or unpleasant situation. Answer B: Place learning is the learning of locations or physical positions of goals (e.g., where food can be found). Answer D: Latent learning occurs without any obvious reinforcement of the behavior

A depressed client says she feels worthless and unlikable and every time she tries to do something to make things better, she is faced with barriers put up by her husband, parents, and boss, who don't seem to recognize her efforts. In terms of the third component of Beck's cognitive triad, you would expect the client to also say: Select one: A.other people are "out to get her" B.she had a "lousy childhood" C.she feels that things will never change D.nothing seems to make her feel good

C. She feels that things will never change This person's statements reflect a negative view of the self and the world, which are two of the three elements of Beck's cognitive triad. The third element is a negative view of the future. According to Beck, depressed people feel that failures and disappointments will never stop or change. Answer A: This answer reflects a negative belief about the world. Although it is part of Beck's cognitive triad, the question is asking for a statement that represents the third component of the triad (negative view of the future). Answer B: Beck's cognitive triad of depression does not explicitly include clients' views of their childhood. Clients may have a negative view of themselves that is influenced by life events; however, the client's negative view of self is included in the two components of the question. Answer D: This answer does not reflect a negative view of the self, the world, or the future.

When aversive counterconditioning is being used to eliminate a fetish, the fetish object is the: Select one: A.unconditioned stimulus B.unconditioned response C.conditioned stimulus D.conditioned response

C. conditioned stimulus Aversive counterconditioning is a form of classical conditioning which involves pairing a stimulus associated with the target behavior (a conditioned stimulus, or CS) with a stimulus that naturally evokes an unpleasant response in order to eliminate the target behavior. A fetish is a nonsexual object (e.g., a shoe or glove) that evokes a sexual response. In aversive counterconditioning, the fetish object is the CS and is paired with the unconditioned stimulus (US) until the fetish elicits the same response (e.g., aversion) as the US. Answer A: In terms of classical conditioning, the US is a stimulus that elicits the desired response before conditioning occurs. In aversive counterconditioning, the stimulus that naturally evokes the aversive response serves as the US. In the aversive counterconditioning of a fetish, the US is often electric shock. Answer B: The unconditioned response (UR) is the response that is naturally elicited by the US. Answer D: The response that occurs as a result of the conditioning is the conditioned response (CR). The newly-acquired aversion to the fetish would represent the CR.

A tone, light, buzzer, or any stimulus that precedes a shock becomes which of the following in conditioning training? Select one: A.Motivating operations B.Unlearned aversive stimulus C.Conditioned aversive stimulus D.Unlearned reinforcer

C.Conditioned aversive stimulus A conditioned aversive stimulus is an initially neutral stimulus that becomes aversive after repeated pairing with an unconditioned aversive stimulus. Answer A: Motivating operations are the motivations that encourage or discourage certain behaviors with the purpose to enhance or reduce the reinforcement value. Answer B: An unlearned aversive stimulus is a stimulus that is aversive though not from pairing with other aversive stimuli. Answer D: An unlearned reinforcer is a stimulus that is a reinforcer, though not as a result of pairing with another reinforcer.

Behavioral therapy where individuals are reinforced or rewarded to assist in positive behavioral change is an integral part of which of the following? Select one: A.Cognitive therapy B.Implosive therapy C.Contingency management D.Negative practice

C.Contingency management Contingency management is a behavioral therapy that uses motivational incentives and tangible rewards to help an individual make positive behavioral changes.

Which of the following is likely the best way to memorize pairs of unrelated words? Select one: A.Create an acronym B.Repeat the word pairs over and over again C.Create a visual image that links each word pair D.Use the clustering technique

C.Create a visual image that links each word pair Of the methods listed, forming a visual image that links the two words would be the most useful. This is known as the keyword method and is useful for paired associate tasks. In general, visual imagery is considered the best memorization technique. Answer A: An acronym is a word that is formed using the first letter of each item in a list. For example, the acronym CANOE is used to remember the "Big Five" personality traits (conscientiousness, agreeableness, neuroticism, openness, and extraversion/introversion). The question asks about memorizing unrelated words, so this is not the best answer. Answer B: Maintenance rehearsal involves the repetition of information with little or no processing, and is not an effective memorization strategy. Answer D: Clustering is another name for chunking and is used to reduce a large amount of information to a smaller number of "chunks." It would not be effective for memorizing word pairs.

Subjects in a research study are asked to read the following list of words: pin, sewing, thread, sharp, haystack, injection, point, pain. They are then asked to recall as many words from the list as possible, and many subjects recall the word "needle" even though it is not one of the words in the list. This illustrates which of the following? Select one: A.False memory induction B.Imagination inflation C.Deese-Roediger-McDermott paradigm D.Loftus misinformation effect

C.Deese-Roediger-McDermott paradigm The four phenomena listed as answers to this question have been used to study or explain false memories. The Deese-Roediger-McDermott (DRM) effect refers to the tendency to erroneously recall a word for a word list that contains semantically related words. It has been used to study false memory and identify people who are prone to creating false memories. Answer A: The false memory induction procedure creates false memories by repeatedly asking subjects about events they never experienced. Answer B: Imagination inflation involves creating false memories of an event by asking subjects to imagine the event before asking them to recall if it happened to them. Answer D: The Loftus misinformation effect occurs when the original memory of an event is altered by subsequent exposure to misleading information about that event.

Use of which of the following provided Broadbent (1958) with support for his filter theory of attention? Select one: A.Dismantling strategy B.Stroop test C.Dichotic listening task D.Serial position effect

C.Dichotic listening task Broadbent's (1958) filter theory of attention was the first comprehensive theory of attention and the first of the "bottleneck" theories. It proposes that a filter (i.e., sensory buffer) selects which incoming message will be further processed or attended to on the basis of the physical properties of the message. Most participants in Broadbent's studies reported the information by one ear then the other ear rather than by the chronological order in which they heard the digits. Broadbent concluded that this proved that the physical properties of the message determined if it was attended to or ignored. In other words, in the dichotic listening task studies, the filter allowed the message from one ear to "pass through" before it allowed the message from the other ear to do so, which explained why participants would report the digits heard in one ear first, followed by the digits heard in the other ear. Answer A: The dismantling strategy is used to identify the mechanisms responsible for benefits of a treatment. This strategy involves comparing the effects of the various components of a treatment by administering different components to different groups of participants. Answer B: The Stroop Test assesses the degree to which an examinee can suppress a prepotent (habitual) response in favor of an unusual one and measures cognitive flexibility, selective attention, and response inhibition. Answer D: The serial position effect suggests that when people are asked to recall a list of unrelated words immediately after reading the list, the items in the beginning and end of the list are recalled much better than those in the middle. If there is a delay between exposure to the list and recall, people will most easily remember the words at the beginning of the list.

A client has a debilitating fear of dogs. You, as her therapist, have her begin talking about dogs. After a week, you have her describe what a dog looks like while holding a dog-stuffed animal. This is an example of which of the following? Select one: A.Covert sensitization B.Flooding C.Graduated exposure therapy D.Implosive therapy

C.Graduated exposure therapy Graduated exposure therapy begins with exposure to situations that produce minimal anxiety and then gradually progresses to situations that evoke increasingly more intense anxiety. Answer A: Covert sensitization refers to an aversive stimulus that occurs in the form of a nausea-or-anxiety-producing image paired with an undesirable behavior to change that behavior. Answer B: Flooding involves exposure to the most anxiety-or-fear-arousing stimuli for a prolonged period. Answer D: Implosive therapy is conducted in the imagination and involves presenting the feared stimulus vividly enough to arouse high levels of anxiety.

Reinforcement delivered on a set schedule versus a positive response is known as: Select one: A.Differential reinforcement of incompatible behavior (DRI) B.Differential reinforcement of alternative behavior (DRA) C.Noncontingent reinforcement D.Differential reinforcement of other behavior (DRO)

C.Noncontingent reinforcement Answer A: DRI entails only reinforcing behaviors that are incompatible with the problem behavior while withholding reinforcement for the problem behavior. Specifically, only behaviors that cannot occur simultaneously with the problem behavior are reinforced. Answer B: DRA entails reinforcing a behavior that serves as a viable alternative for the problem behavior but is not necessarily incompatible with the problem behavior. Answer D: DRO entails delivering reinforcement whenever the problem behavior does not occur during a predetermined amount of time.

John Watson produced a phobia in Albert B. by using which of the following procedures? Select one: A.Physically confining the child so that he could not move B.Requiring the child to make difficult stimulus discriminations C.Pairing an aversive US with a neutral CS D.Providing punishment noncontingent on behavior

C.Pairing an aversive US with a neutral CS John Watson applied Pavlov's classical conditioning model to human behavior. In his most famous study, Watson taught Albert B., an 11-month-old child, to fear a white rat. Albert B.'s phobia was created by pairing a US (loud noise) with a CS (white rat) so that the CS alone eventually elicited a startle response.

A first-grade student frequently misbehaves in class. Whenever he does so, his teacher has him stand in the corner for ten minutes. During that time, he often turns around and makes faces at his classmates, and they respond by laughing and talking to him. The boy's misbehavior is being maintained by which of the following? Select one: A.Habituation B.Satiation C.Positive reinforcement D.Negative reinforcement

C.Positive reinforcement

After flinching in response to several presentations of air puffs to the eye, an individual then flinches when a loud tone sounds. This best describes an example of which of the following? Select one: A.Startle response B.Selective sensitization C.Pseudoconditioning D.Stimulus enhancement

C.Pseudoconditioning Pseudoconditioning occurs when an elicited response appears to be a conditioned response but results in sensitization rather than conditioning. Answer A: A startle response is a defensive reaction to a sudden, unexpected stimulus, which involves the automatic tightening of skeletal muscles. Answer B: Selective sensitization refers to an increase in one's reactivity to a potentially fearful stimulus following exposure to an unrelated stressful event. Answer D: Stimulus enhancement refers to directing attention to an object, making it more likely that the observer will approach that object. For example, rats that observed other rats performing a lever-pressing discrimination task had a higher rate of lever-pressing behaviors.

The ability to have a conversation with a friend while attending a party with loud music in the background is which of the following? Select one: A.Sustained attention B.Divided attention C.Effortless attention D.Selective attention

D.Selective attention

James does not like school, so he acts out. His teacher and classmates react to his bad behavior, reinforcing his dislike of school and creating a hostile environment. This is an example of which of the following? Select one: A.Learned helplessness B.Guided participation C.Reciprocal determinism D.Observational learning

C.Reciprocal determinism Reciprocal determinism maintains that the environment influences behavior, behavior influences the environment, and both influence the individual. Answer A: Learned helplessness refers to the tendency to give up any effort to control events in the environment. Answer B: Guided participation (i.e., participant modeling) consists of having the learner observe the model, perform the behavior, and then perform the behavior him/herself with assistance from the model. Answer D: Observational learning is the acquisition of information, skill, or behavior through watching the performance of others, either directly or via media, such as films or videos.

Two rats are conditioned to push a lever to receive a food pellet. During the acquisition of this behavior, both rats are reinforced using a continuous schedule of reinforcement. After response rates peak, one rat begins to receive two food pellets after each lever push, while the other rat receives a single pellet per push. Despite the difference in reinforcement schedules, the response rate for both rats decreases. What is the most likely explanation? Select one: A.Extinction B.Habituation C.Satiation D.Inhibition

C.Satiation Satiation occurs when a reinforcer loses its reinforcing value. For this example, both rats have become satiated because their response rates declined, therefore an additional food pellet will not have a more positive impact than a single food pellet.

Your new client, Jay, age 31, complains that he has had trouble falling asleep at night for a number of years but that it has become a more significant problem since he got married last year because his sleep problems are now keeping his wife awake. You instruct Jay to go to bed only when he feels tired; to get out of bed, go to another room, and engage in a relaxing activity if he does not fall asleep within about 20 minutes after going to bed; to use the bed only for sleep and sexual activity; to get up in the morning at about the same time regardless of how much sleep he has had; to avoid napping. You are using which of the following techniques? Select one: A.Habit reversal B.Premack principle C.Stimulus control D.Overcorrection

C.Stimulus control Stimulus control involves increasing the links between certain cues and behavior in order to increase the frequency of that behavior. The intervention described in this question involves strengthening the bed and bedroom as cues for sleep and weakening them as cues for other activities. It was originally applied to the treatment of sleep problems by Bootzin Answer A: Habit reversal training is a multicomponent behavioral treatment that is used to reduce habitual behaviors that are undesirable and serve no adaptive function (e.g., hair pulling, nail-biting, tics). Answer B: The Premack principle is an application of positive reinforcement and involves reinforcing a low-frequency behavior (e.g., completing homework) with a high-frequency behavior (e.g., playing video games) to increase the low-frequency behavior. Answer D: Overcorrection is used to eliminate an undesirable behavior and involves having the individual correct the consequences of his/her behavior (restitution) and/or practice corrective behaviors (positive practice).

For Kohler and other Gestalt psychologists, learning is the result of which of the following? Select one: A.The development of mental models B.The formation of associations between stimuli and responses C.The perception of relationships among elements of the problem D.Observation and imitation of the behavior of others

C.The perception of relationships among elements of the problem Kohler was one of the founders of Gestalt psychology, which is based on the assumption that "the whole is greater than the sum of its parts." He is probably best known for his work on insight. Kohler described insight as a type of relational thinking - i.e., the sudden understanding of relationships among elements of the problem situation.

When a person with an optimistic attribution style does poorly on an exam in a class he ordinarily does well in, that person will most likely say which of the following? Select one: A.I didn't study hard enough. B.I was unlucky. C.The teacher gave a very hard test this time. D.The teacher always grades on the curve.

C.The teacher gave a very hard test this time. According to Seligman's (1990) theory of learned optimism, the attributions of optimistic people are just the opposite of those made by depressed and other pessimistic people. Of the responses given, this one fits best with Seligman's theory which proposes that optimistic people tend to make external, specific, and unstable (temporary) attributions for negative events. Answer A: This is an internal attribution and is not consistent with Seligman's theory. Answer B: The word "unlucky" may be an internal or external attribution, depending on the person, so it is not the best answer to this question. Answer D: This is a global (rather than specific) attribution.

Which of the following is a type of conditioning that entails presenting and terminating the conditioned stimulus (CS) prior to presenting the unconditioned stimulus (US)? Select one: A.Delay conditioning B.Simultaneous conditioning C.Trace conditioning D.Backward conditioning

C.Trace conditioning

A father wants to increase his son's studying and violin practice and reinforces each behavior whenever it occurs with a token that can be exchanged later for a desired privilege. After a period of time, the father realizes that his son will never become a violin virtuoso and stops reinforcing the boy's violin practice. The father can expect which of the following? Select one: A.Violin practice and studying will both decrease B.Violin practice and studying will both increase C.Violin practice will decrease but studying will increase D.Violin practice will decrease and studying will stay the same

C.Violin practice will decrease but studying will increase In this situation, the father is removing reinforcement from one behavior (the violin playing), while another behavior (studying) continues to be reinforced. Removal of reinforcement from a previously reinforced behavior typically results in an increase in another reinforced behavior. This phenomenon is referred to as "behavioral contrast."

Bandura's social cognitive theory describes the influence of individual experiences, the actions of others, and environmental factors on individual health behaviors. Which of the following is considered a key component of this theory related to behavior change? Select one: A.Cognitive load B.Equilibration C.Scaffolding D.Self-efficacy

D.Self-efficacy Self-efficacy is a key component of social cognitive theory and refers to an individual's belief in his or her ability to execute behaviors necessary to produce specific performance attainments.

Treisman and Gelade's (1980) feature-integration theory (FIT) would be of most interest to a psychologist researching which of the following? Select one: A.Arousal B.Memory consolidation C.Visual attention D.Executive functioning

C.Visual attention Feature-integration theory is a two-stage theory of visual attention that explains how an individual combines pieces of observable information about an object to form a complete perception of the object. Answer A: For research on arousal, a psychologist may be interested in the Yerkes-Dodson Law which suggests that arousal levels can affect an individual's performance abilities. Answer B: For research on memory consolidation, a psychologist may be interested in multiple trace theory which posits that each time some information is presented to an individual, it is neurally encoded in a unique memory trace composed of a combination of its attributes. Answer D: Executive functioning is an umbrella term used to encompass cognitive processes, including planning, working memory, attention, inhibition, self-monitoring, self-regulation, and initiation.

Lewinsohn's (1974) behavioral model attributes depression to: Select one: A.negative self-attributions B.the fundamental attribution bias C.a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement D.problems related to self-evaluation

C.a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement Lewinsohn's (1974) behavioral model is based on operant conditioning and focuses on the consequence of behavior. Lewinsohn described depression as being primarily the result of a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement. Answer A: Abramson et al.'s (1978) reformulated version of the learned helplessness model added attributions for negative events to the original model. According to the reformulated version, people who are depressed tend to blame themselves for negative events, believe that negative events will always happen to them, and think that negativity will affect all aspects of their lives. Answer B: The fundamental attribution bias refers to the tendency to attribute the behavior of others to dispositional factors. Answer D: Rehm's self-control model views depression as being the result of problems related to self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement.

A behaviorist would most likely argue that the use of spanking as a behavioral management technique is not effective because: Select one: A.it leads to physical child abuse B.it fosters a sense of learned helplessness in the child C.changes in behavior aren't likely to persist over time D.changes in behavior won't occur at all

C.changes in behavior aren't likely to persist over time From a behavioral perspective, punishments such as spanking are problematic in that they suppress but do not eliminate the behavior. Over time, punishment alone is not likely to be effective, since it only results in a temporary suppression of behavior. In fact, as soon as the punishment is not present, the behavior is likely to increase.

A _________ is conducted to determine the purpose of an undesirable behavior and identify a more desirable substitute behavior that serves the same purpose. Select one: A.factor analysis B.principal components analysis C.functional behavioral analysis D.multiple regression

C.functional behavioral analysis

Research on the serial position effect suggests that when "cramming" for a test, it is important to: Select one: A.get a good night's sleep before taking the test B.engage in a distracting activity after studying and prior to taking the test C.give extra attention to material studied during the middle of the study session D.give extra attention to material studied at the beginning of the study session

C.give extra attention to material studied during the middle of the study session The serial position effect is the tendency to recall items at the beginning and end of a list better than items in the middle of a list. Enhanced recall of items at the beginning of the list is referred to as the primacy effect, while enhanced recall of items at the end of a list is called the recency effect. If this finding is extended to a study session, it predicts that a student should pay most attention to the information reviewed in the middle of a study session since that is the information that is most likely to be forgotten.

Research evaluating the use of multi-component cognitive-behavioral therapy for rheumatoid arthritis has found that it: Select one: A.improves social functioning but has little or no effect on pain intensity or joint inflammation B.improves comorbid anxiety and depression but has no effect on pain intensity or joint inflammation C.improves psychological functioning and, in some cases, has a beneficial effect on pain intensity and joint inflammation D.reduces pain intensity and joint inflammation but has little or no effect on overall psychological functioning

C.improves psychological functioning and, in some cases, has a beneficial effect on pain intensity and joint inflammation

Tulving has divided memory into three types: procedural, episodic, and semantic. According to Tulving, semantic memory: Select one: A.consists of internal representations of stimulus-response connections B.is more affected by amnesia than procedural and episodic memory C.includes rules for manipulating words and symbols D.is coded temporally

C.includes rules for manipulating words and symbols - Tulving (1972, 1985) and others distinguish between three types of long-term memory: semantic, episodic, and procedural. Semantic memory holds all the information we need to use language, including words and the symbols for them; their meanings; their referents (what they represent); and the rules for manipulating words and symbols such as the rules for English grammar, the rules for adding and multiplying, and chemical formulas. Answer A: This describes procedural memory, which contains learned skills (procedures) and modifiable cognitive operations. Answer B: Of the three types of memory, episodic memory is usually most affected by amnesia. Answer D: Episodic memory holds information about events that have been personally experienced and then they occurred; thus, episodic memory is coded temporally.

For the treatment of hypertension, biofeedback: Select one: A.is generally ineffective. B.is effective only when combined with medication. C.is about equally as effective as relaxation training or self-monitoring of blood pressure. D.is more effective than relaxation training or self-monitoring of blood pressure.

C.is about equally as effective as relaxation training or self-monitoring of blood pressure. The research on biofeedback is far from consistent, but biofeedback does appear to have positive effects for several problems including hypertension. For hypertension, biofeedback seems to be about as effective as relaxation training and self-monitoring.

For retention of information in long-term memory, which of the following seems to be the most critical? Select one: A.Visual encoding B.Repetition C.Time D.Semantic encoding

D.Semantic encoding

Skinner found that __________ can lead to "superstitious" behaviors. Select one: A.higher-order conditioning B.two-factor learning C.noncontingent reinforcement D.noncontingent punishment

C.noncontingent reinforcement Noncontingent reinforcement is the presentation of a reinforcer, independent of the presence of a specific behavior. According to Skinner, unusual behaviors may be the result of accidental, noncontingent reinforcement. He referred to these as superstitious behaviors. Answer A: Higher-order conditioning is a form of classical conditioning involving the pairing of a second neutral stimulus with a conditioned stimulus so that the second neutral stimulus also elicits the conditioned response. Answer B: Two-factor learning is learning that combines both classical and operant conditioning. Stimulus control is an example of two-factor learning because performance of the target behavior is due to operant conditioning, but the presence or absence of the behavior due to discriminative stimuli is a result of classical conditioning. Answer D: Noncontingent reinforcement, not punishment, can lead to superstitious behaviors.

From the perspective of Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy: Select one: A.irrational beliefs are acquired primarily through social learning processes B.irrational beliefs are acquired largely through the process of selective reinforcement C.people are biologically prone to the acquisition of irrational beliefs D.people adopt irrational beliefs as the result of early traumatic events that are still unresolved

C.people are biologically prone to the acquisition of irrational beliefs. This question is asking about one of the lesser-known facts about REBT. Ellis believed that the majority of behavior has a biological basis. With regard to irrational thoughts, he proposed that they are attributable to natural tendencies toward moodiness, negativism, and excitement-seeking.

Prospective memory: Select one: A.is an aspect of working memory. B.contains memories of one's personal experiences. C.refers to "remembering to remember." D.refers to "knowing about knowing."

C.refers to "remembering to remember." Prospective memory refers to the ability to "remember to remember" (e.g., to remember an appointment in the future). Remembering that you have a doctor's appointment on Thursday at 3 p.m. depends on prospective memory. Answer A: Working memory is an aspect of short-term memory, and working memory is responsible for the manipulation and processing of information. Answer B: Episodic memory contains memories of one's personal experiences. Answer D: Metacognition is a term used to describe "knowing about knowing."

Using clicker training is an example of _______ and has been extensively studied in animals. An illustration would include a horse persistently watching, approaching, touching, and even mouthing the clicker before shifting its attention and moving to the location where food is delivered. Select one: A.avoidance conditioning B.instinctive drift C.sign tracking D.noncontingent reinforcement

C.sign tracking Sign tracking, in conditioning, refers to elicited behavior directed towards a stimulus that is reliably paired with a primary reinforcer. Answer A: Avoidance conditioning is the establishment of behavior that prevents or postpones aversive stimulation. Answer B: Instinctive drift is the tendency of learned behavior to gradually return to a more innate behavior. For example, raccoons trained to drop coins into a container will eventually begin to dip the coins into the container, pull them back out, rub them together, and dip them in again. The learned behavior of dropping coins becomes more representative of the innate behavior of food washing. Answer D: Noncontingent reinforcement is the use of positive reinforcement that is not related to the occurrence of a target behavior. It involves delivering reinforcement on a fixed-time schedule independent of whether the individual exhibits the target behavior during the interval.

In _______ treatment, on-the-spot coaching at a feared location occurs to help an individual manage their anxiety. Select one: A.group exposure B.self-directed exposure C.therapist-directed exposure D.interoceptive exposure

C.therapist-directed exposure - In therapist-directed exposure, therapists go with clients to the feared location and provide on-the-spot coaching to help manage levels of anxiety. Therapists encourage clients to experience maximum levels of anxiety. Answer A: In group exposure, self-exposure and practice are combined with group education and discussion of experiences during exposure to feared situations. Answer B: Self-directed exposure is the simplest variation of exposure treatment. After clients make a hierarchy list with their therapist, they move through situations on the hierarchy at their own speed. Answer D: Interoceptive exposure is the practice of strategically including somatic symptoms associated with a threat appraisal in addition to encouraging the client to maintain contact with the feared situation.

For the treatment of migraine headaches: Select one: A.autogenic training is more effective than thermal biofeedback. B.thermal biofeedback is more effective than autogenic training. C.thermal biofeedback plus autogenic training is more effective than either treatment alone. D.thermal biofeedback plus autogenic training is no more effective than either treatment alone.

C.thermal biofeedback plus autogenic training is more effective than either treatment alone.

A researcher interested in retention of information in short-term memory shows participants a list of five letters ("C-S-J-Z-M") and asks them to memorize the list. She then instructs the participants to count backwards by 3's from 99. After six seconds, 12 seconds, and 18 seconds, the researcher asks the participants to recall the list. The reason why participants are instructed to count backwards is: Select one: A.to increase the effects of retroactive interference. B.to deter the "trace decay" process. C.to keep them from rehearsing the list of letters. D.to maximize their concentration.

C.to keep them from rehearsing the list of letters. Having participants count backwards ensures that they do not rehearse the list of letters so that an accurate estimate of the duration of short-term memory can be ascertained. Information is retained in short-term memory for a very short period unless it is rehearsed or repeated. Answer A: Retroactive interference occurs when recently learned material interferes with the recall of previously learned material, and it is most likely to occur when recently and previously learned material are similar. Counting backwards is not similar to memorizing letters, so counting backwards will not increase the effects of retroactive interference. Answer B: Trace decay theory proposes that memories fade over time. Counting backwards wouldn't affect the process of trace decay. Answer D: Having participants count backwards may or may not improve their concentration, so this is not the best answer.

A research participant is given a list of unrelated words to remember. The list is taken away and the participant is engaged in a distracting task for 10 seconds before she is asked to recall the words in any order. The participant's recall will be best for: Select one: A.words that were at the end of the list B.words that were in the middle of the list C.words that were in the beginning of the list D.words that were in the beginning and middle of the list

C.words that were in the beginning of the list This question is asking about the serial position effect. When there is a brief delay between exposure to the list and recall, words at the beginning of the list are recalled best. This is because the recency effect describes our tendency to remember what is towards the end because it is still within our short-term memory, but engaging in our distracter task displaces this, meaning only the primacy effect of the serial position effect is still intact.

Tolman's demonstration of latent learning suggests that: Select one: A.a student studying algebra in September may not learn algebra until he begins to study geometry. B.a student studying algebra will come to a sudden and whole understanding of it. C.a student will not learn algebra unless the proper incentive for learning is provided. D.a student might appear to know little about algebra until he takes an algebra test.

D. A student might appear to know little about algebra until he takes an algebra test. Tolman demonstrated latent learning in his experiments with rats and mazes. Some rats were allowed to freely explore mazes for ten days, but did not display any proficiency in solving the maze until reinforcement was offered for doing so. This phenomenon suggests that reinforcement is more of a factor in the performance of a behavior than the learning of a response. Answer A: This answer choice is a distractor, as Tolman's latent learning distinguishes between learning and performance of a response. Answer B: This answer choice reflects something a Gestalt learning theorist might believe. Answer C: A person who views learning as a function of operant conditioning (e.g., positive reinforcement) might say this.

From the perspective of operant conditioning, which of the following techniques is most useful for combining component responses into a particular sequence? Select one: A.Stimulus generalization B.Response priming C.Shaping D.Chaining

D. Chaining Translating this question into a less awkward statement might have made it easier to answer; e.g., "Which operant technique is used to put together individual responses in a particular sequence?" Chaining is used to combine a sequence of responses in order to end up with a "behavior chain." Chaining is considered by advocates of operant conditioning as the mechanism underlying the acquisition of at least some complex behaviors. Note, people often confuse shaping and chaining. Shaping is a procedure for teaching a new behavior in which closer and closer approximations to the desired behavior are reinforced. However, in shaping, the goal is the end behavior; in chaining, the whole string (chain) of behaviors is important.

For a therapist relying on Beck's cognitive approach to treat a client suffering from an anxiety disorder, the initial cognitive restructuring will most likely focus on: Select one: A. reattribution B. cognitive rehearsal C. thought stopping D. decatastrophizing

D. Decatastrophizing Cognitive therapists use a variety of cognitive strategies, and many of the strategies are the same regardless of the client's disorder. However, some techniques are better suited to certain disorders, especially as initial interventions. Decatastrophizing is particularly useful for people with an anxiety disorder since they tend to overestimate the risk and consequences of perceived danger. Answer A: Reattribution involves attributing responsibility to appropriate parties and is most useful when the client is depressed or guilt-ridden. Answer B: Cognitive rehearsal requires the client to imagine each step involved in an activity or task. Answer C: Thought stopping may be useful but it is usually classified as a behavioral technique (not cognitive restructuring) and would probably not be an initial intervention in treating a client with an anxiety disorder.

The primary goal of self-instructional training (SIT) for children exhibiting hyperactivity and excessive impulsivity is to: Select one: A.eliminate obsessive ruminations B.re-align intention and action C.clarify response contingencies D.insert thought between stimulus and response

D. Insert thought between stimulus and response Self-instructional training (SIT) involves training the individual to guide his/her actions with internally-originated verbal instructions. Hyperactive and impulsive children often respond to events automatically. The goal of SIT is to reduce automatic behaviors by inserting thoughts between an event and the response to that event.

Magnification, arbitrary inference, overgeneralization, and other cognitive distortions: Select one: A.are unique to individuals with depression. B.are unique to individuals with an affective disorder. C.are unique to individuals with an anxiety disorder. D.may be found among depressed individuals and those who are mentally "healthy."

D. May be found among depressed individuals and those who are mentally "healthy." Cognitive distortions are relatively commonplace--not just among those who suffer from depression or other mental illnesses. According to Beck, what distinguishes people with depression from others is the frequency and prevalence of the distortions and the apparent inability to correct them

Dopamine is central to reinforcing the quality of events and is found in which of the following areas of the limbic system that influences behavior reinforcement? Select one: A.Basal ganglia B.Amygdala C.Hippocampus D.Nucleus accumbens

D. Nucleus accumbens The nucleus accumbens is a brain structure in the limbic system that plays a significant role in the influence of reinforcement on behavior where dopamine is central to the reinforcing quality of events. Answer A: The basal ganglia are involved in the storage and retrieval of procedural memories. Answer B: The amygdala has been implicated in fear conditioning and sends projections to the hypothalamus and brainstem nuclei that mediate various fear responses. Answer C: The hippocampus encodes new episodic memories in humans. It also plays a role in the capacity to reduce the associability of conditioned responses.

The effectiveness of the procedure known as time-out is maximized when: Select one: A.the length of the time-out is directly related to the severity of the misbehavior B.the alternative behavior is truly incompatible with the problem behavior C.the time-out is alternated with the technique known as response cost D.the time-out begins with a brief explanation of why it is being applied

D. The time-out begins with a brief explanation of why it is being applied

Baddeley and Hitch's (1974) multi-component model of working memory includes all of the following components except: Select one: A.a phonological loop. B.a visuospatial sketchpad. C.a central executive. D.a semantic-abstract processor.

D. a semantic-abstract processor A semantic-abstract processor was not identified by Baddeley and Hitch as a component of working memory. Working memory is the aspect of short-term memory that is involved in the manipulation and storage of information. Baddeley and Hitch's (1974) multi-component model of working memory describes it as consisting of a central executive and three subsystems: the phonological loop, the visuospatial sketchpad, and the episodic buffer.

A friend asks you how you liked the concert you went to last Saturday night. As you try to recall the concert, you realize that your memory is being affected by other concerts you have attended in the past. In other words, your memory of last Saturday's concert is being affected by: Select one: A.your implicit memory of concerts B.a lack of encoding specificity C.cue-dependent forgetting D.your schema for concerts

D. your schema for concerts A schema is a group or cluster of knowledge about an object or event. Your recollection of last Saturday's concert is being affected by your "cluster of knowledge" regarding concerts. In this situation, your memory of a particular concert is affected by your previous experiences with concerts.

_________ is the process where large pieces of information are divided into smaller units to retain it in short-term memory. Select one: A.Rote rehearsal B.Elaboration C.Imagery D.Chunking

D.Chunking Chunking is the grouping of related items of information to retain to short-term memory. Answer A: Rote rehearsal refers to saying material repeatedly as a method of committing it to mind.Answer B: Elaboration is the process of interpreting or embellishing information to be remembered or of relating it to other material already known and in memory.Answer C: Imagery is the formation of mental pictures to enhance the processing of information into memory.

Which of the following is best conceptualized as a type of aversive counterconditioning? Select one: A.Implosive therapy B.Overcorrection C.Response cost D.Covert sensitization

D.Covert sensitization Covert sensitization is an intervention based on aversive counterconditioning. Aversive counterconditioning is used to eliminate an undesirable behavior that produces a pleasant or positive response (e.g., sexual arousal) by pairing stimuli associated with that behavior with stimuli that produce an unpleasant response. By doing so, the pleasant response is replaced by the unpleasant response and the behavior is reduced or eliminated. When using covert sensitization to eliminate an undesirable behavior, the individual imagines an unpleasant (aversive) consequence while imagining that he/she is engaging in the behavior. Answer A: Implosive therapy is used to eliminate anxiety and involves exposing the individual to the anxiety-arousing stimulus in imagination for an extended period of time. Images used during implosive therapy are embellished with psychodynamic themes. Answer B: Overcorrection is usually classified as a type of punishment and involves having the individual engage in certain behaviors as a penalty for having performed the target behavior - e.g., "fixing" the consequences of the target behavior and/or engaging in alternative desirable behaviors. Answer C: Response cost is a type of negative punishment that involves removing a stimulus (e.g., a privilege) following a behavior whenever it occurs in order to reduce the frequency of that behavior.

A 35-year-old woman asks a psychologist to help her quit drinking. The psychologist suggests she imagine drinking a glass of alcohol and then visualize becoming nauseated by the drink, vomiting on the floor and herself, and becoming embarrassed. Which technique is the psychologist using? Select one: A.Implosive therapy B.Flooding C.In vivo aversion therapy D.Covert sensitization

D.Covert sensitization Covert sensitization occurs when an aversive stimulus in the form of a nausea-or anxiety-producing image (US) is paired with an undesirable behavior (CS) to change that behavior. Covert sensitization is similar to in vivo aversion therapy except that the CS and US are presented in imagination. Answer A: Implosive therapy is based on the assumption that certain events (conditioned stimuli) are consistently avoided to reduce anxiety and that prolonged exposure to those events without the unconditioned stimulus will produce extinction of the anxiety response. Implosive therapy is conducted in imagination and images used are embellished with psychodynamic themes. Answer B: Flooding is a classical conditioning technique that involves exposure to the most anxiety- or fear-arousing stimuli for a prolonged period. Answer C: In vivo aversion therapy is used to treat substance use disorders, paraphilias, and self-injurious behaviors. When using this technique, the target behavior (CS) is paired with an aversive stimulus (US) such as electric shock, noxious odor, or nausea-inducing drug.

Which of the following is most effective for establishing a conditioned response? Select one: A.Backward conditioning B.Simultaneous conditioning C.Trace conditioning D.Delay conditioning

D.Delay conditioning Answer A: Backward conditioning involves presenting the US before the CS and is rarely effective, especially in non-human animals.Answer B: As its name implies, simultaneous conditioning involves presenting the US and CS simultaneously. It is not as effective as trace and delay conditioning.Answer C: Trace conditioning is a type of forward conditioning in which the CS is presented and terminated before presenting the US. It is not as effective as delay conditioning.

A rat is trained to distinguish between different color lights and learns to earn a reward for always pressing the lever under the red light. This is an example of which of the following? Select one: A.Emulation learning B.Stimulus generalization C.Spontaneous recovery D.Discrimination learning

D.Discrimination learning

A university freshman would be best advised to rely primarily on which of the following when studying for his Psychology 101 final exam? Select one: A.Maintenance rehearsal B.Stimulus coding C.Imagery D.Elaborative rehearsal

D.Elaborative rehearsal In this situation, the student will have to memorize and understand fairly complex information. Elaborative rehearsal involves actively analyzing information and relating it to previously stored data. It is the best way to encode information into long-term memory. Answer A: Maintenance rehearsal involves simply repeating information with little or no processing and is less effective than elaborative rehearsal. Answer B: Stimulus coding refers to connecting an image with a part of a word (e.g., the first syllable). It is especially good for paired-associate tasks such as foreign language learning (matching an English word to its foreign-language equivalent). Answer C: Imagery techniques, such as the method of loci and the keyword method, may be useful as memory devices. For a large amount of complex material, elaboration is better.

Which of the following best describes the difference between escape and avoidance conditioning? Select one: A.Escape conditioning is the result of positive reinforcement, while avoidance conditioning is the result of negative reinforcement. B.Escape conditioning is the result of negative reinforcement, while avoidance conditioning is the result of negative punishment. C.Escape and avoidance conditioning are both the result of negative reinforcement, but only escape conditioning combines negative reinforcement with classical conditioning. D.Escape and avoidance conditioning are both the result of negative reinforcement, but only avoidance conditioning combines negative reinforcement with classical conditioning.

D.Escape and avoidance conditioning are both the result of negative reinforcement, but only avoidance conditioning combines negative reinforcement with classical conditioning Escape and avoidance conditioning both result in an increase in behavior because performance of the behavior results in the removal or termination of a stimulus (negative reinforcer). The difference between the two procedures is that avoidance conditioning involves presentation of a cue (positive discriminative stimulus) that signals that a negative reinforcer is about to be applied so that the organism can perform the target behavior prior to the delivery of the negative reinforcer and avoid exposure to it. The connection between the cue and negative reinforcer is the result of classical conditioning. Thus, escape and avoidance conditioning are both the result of negative reinforcement, but only avoidance conditioning combines negative reinforcement with classical conditioning.

Which of the following proposes that an individual chooses where their attention is focused based on the physical qualities of the stimulus in addition to preventing overstimulation of the senses? Select one: A.Trace decay theory B.Multi-component model C.Feature-integration theory D.Filter theory of selective attention

D.Filter theory of selective attention Filter theory of selective attention posits that two sensory stimuli presented at the same time are maintained for a brief period in the sensory register where a filter selects one of the stimuli to pass through a limited sensory channel based on its physical characteristics while the other stimulus is held in a temporary buffer for later processing, and the stimulus that passes through the channel to short-term memory is processed for meaning and comes into conscious awareness. Answer A: Trace decay theory explains that if memories are not reviewed or recalled consistently, they will begin to decay and will ultimately be forgotten. Answer B: The multi-component model separates working memory functionally from long-term memory to account for functionality that goes beyond the mere activation of long-term traces. Answer C: Feature-integration theory is a two-stage theory of attention that suggests once an object has been correctly integrated, it ordinarily continues to be perceived and stored in memory as a singular object.

Which of the following type of memory occurs in the occipital lobe and does not last longer than a half-second after the perception of the object? Select one: A.Procedural memory B.Haptic memory C.Echoic memory D.Iconic memory

D.Iconic memory Iconic memory refers to short-term visual memories that form in the occipital lobe.Answer A: Procedural memory refers to a skilled memory or the memory of a highly practiced behavior.Answer B: Haptic memory is sensory memory for a tactile experience that is stored in the parietal lobe.Answer C: Echoic memory is sensory memory that registers specific to auditory information (i.e., sounds) and is stored in the primary auditory cortex.

Which of the following proposes that responses that produce a satisfying effect in a particular situation become more likely to occur again? Select one: A.Matching law B.Levels-of-processing model C.Yerkes-Dodson law D.Law of effect

D.Law of effect The law of effect states that when behaviors are followed by "satisfying consequences," they are more likely to increase or occur again. Answer A: The matching law suggests that when different schedules of reinforcement are available at the same time for different behaviors, individuals will allocate their behavior according to the relative rates of reinforcement available for each option. Answer B: The levels-of-processing model assumes that memory for information is affected by the depth of processing that information. The model distinguishes between three levels: structural, phonemic, and semantic. The deepest and most effective level is the semantic ("meaning") level. Answer C: The Yerkes-Dodson law predicts that moderate levels of arousal are associated with optimal learning and performance so that the relationship between arousal and learning takes the shape of an inverted "U."

A psychologist determines that, for a 6-year child, Behavior A is more probable than Behavior B. The psychologist tells the parents to make the child's opportunity to engage in Behavior A contingent on Behavior B. The psychologist is using which of the following techniques? Select one: A.Response cost B.Shaping C.Differential reinforcement of other behaviors D.Premack principle

D.Premack principle In this situation, the opportunity to engage in the more frequent behavior is being made contingent on performance of the less frequent behavior in order to increase the less frequent behavior; this describes the Premack Principle. The Premack Principle is a type of positive reinforcement in which the reinforcer is a frequently occurring behavior. For example, if you allow yourself to talk on the phone to friends (or watch TV) only after studying for at least one hour, you are using the Premack Principle to reinforce studying. Answer A: Response cost is an application of negative punishment that is used to eliminate an undesirable behavior by imposing a penalty or fine (i.e., removing a specific stimulus) whenever the undesirable behavior occurs. Answer B: Shaping involves reinforcing successive approximations to the desired behavior (i.e., any behavior leading to the development of the target behavior is rewarded). Answer C: Differential reinforcement of other behaviors (DRO) is an operant technique in which a positive reinforcement is delivered periodically and only in cases for which the participant demonstrates a response other than the target response in order to reduce the frequency of the target response.

Which of the following are inherently desirable and do not depend on experience to acquire their reinforcing value? Select one: A.Secondary reinforcer B.Positive reinforcement C.Negative reinforcement D.Primary reinforcer

D.Primary reinforcer

Which of the following is an example of elaborative rehearsal? Select one: A.Ensuring that the same cues are present when information is encoded and retrieved B.Gradually removing prompts during the learning process C.Practicing a new skill past the point of mastery D.Relating new information to previously acquired information

D.Relating new information to previously acquired information The rehearsal of new information helps ensure that it is transferred from short- to long-term memory. Two types of rehearsal are distinguished: maintenance and elaborative. Elaborative rehearsal is used to describe the process of making new information meaningful in order to enhance its retention and retrieval. Relating new information to previously acquired information is one type of elaborative rehearsal. Answer A: Ensuring that the same cues are present when information is encoded and retrieved describes encoding specificity. Answer B: Gradually removing prompts during the learning process describes fading. Answer C: Practicing a new skill past the point of mastery describes overlearning.

Pavlov produced "experimental neurosis" in experimental dogs by using which of the following procedures? Select one: A.Applying negative reinforcement each time the dogs ate B.Pairing eating with an aversive tone C.Making it impossible for the dogs to escape electrical shock D.Requiring the dogs to make difficult discriminations

D.Requiring the dogs to make difficult discriminations Stimulus discrimination refers to an organism's ability to discriminate between stimuli and thereby respond only to the conditioned stimulus with a conditioned response. While conducting studies on stimulus discrimination, Pavlov discovered that extremely difficult discriminations elicited behaviors characteristic of human neurosis. Experimental neurosis, a phenomenon described by Pavlov, is manifested by restless, aggressive, and fearful responses. Answer A: Negative reinforcement increases the occurrence of the response it follows. Negative reinforcement is an operant conditioning technique and was not used by Pavlov. Answer B: Pairing a response with an aversive stimulus (e.g., alcohol consumption with electric shock) is referred to as aversive counterconditioning and results in a decrease of the response. Answer C: Unavoidable shock was administered to animals by Seligman in his studies on learned helplessness.

In an experiment, a tone and light are repeatedly presented together to a hungry dog. Even though the tone has never been paired with food, the dog salivates when the tone is presented. This is an example of which of the following? Select one: A.Conditioned inhibition B.Temporal conditioning C.Higher-order conditioning D.Sensory preconditioning

D.Sensory preconditioning Sensory preconditioning involves initially pairing two neutral stimuli (i.e., A and B) and subsequently pairing A with an unconditioned stimulus. If B eventually elicits a response, then sensory preconditioning has occurred. Answer A: Conditioned inhibition is an internal state that has been behaviorally learned and prevents an individual from responding to stimuli that would normally elicit a response. This type of inhibition can be conditioned through the use of punishers (e.g., electric shock) or lack of reinforcers. Answer B: Temporal conditioning is a procedure where an unconditioned stimulus is presented at regular intervals but in the absence of an accompanying conditioned stimulus. Answer C: Higher-order conditioning is a procedure where a conditioned stimulus (CS) of one experiment acts as the unconditioned stimulus (US) of another to condition a neutral stimulus (NS).

Which of the following is an example of a variable ratio schedule of reinforcement? Select one: A."Surprise" quizzes B. Piecework C.Bi-weekly paychecks D.Slot machines

D.Slot machines -When a variable ratio reinforcement schedule is being used, reinforcement is delivered after a variable number of responses. Slot machines reinforce players after a variable number of responses. Answer A: "Surprise" quizzes provide opportunities for reinforcement on a variable interval schedule. Answer B: Piecework presents a fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement since workers are paid after completing a specified number of "pieces." Answer C: A bi-weekly pay schedule represents a fixed interval schedule of reinforcement.

One way a clinician explores a client's thoughts is by asking focused, open-ended questions to help expose and unravel deeply held values and beliefs. This technique is best described as which of the following? Select one: A.Thought stopping B.Cognitive restructuring C.Role play D.Socratic method

D.Socratic method The Socratic method is a critical technique used in cognitive behavioral therapy. The focus is on modifying thinking to facilitate emotional and behavioral change. Answer A: Thought stopping is a technique that aims to disrupt negative thinking patterns and redirect thoughts towards something that relieves distress. Answer B: Cognitive restructuring is a cognitive therapy technique that helps individuals identify, challenge, and alter stress-inducing thought patterns and beliefs. Answer C: Role play is an educational tool that is used to visualize and practice different ways of handling situations.

Which of the following is based on the notion that initiation of one item stored in memory travels through associated links to stimulate another item? Select one: A.Response deprivation theory B.Response-outcome expectation C.Sutherland-Mackintosh attentional theory D.Spreading activation theory

D.Spreading activation theory Spreading activation theory is the view that semantic memory is organized in terms of associations between concepts and properties of concepts. Answer A: The response deprivation theory is the idea that when a contingency restricts access to an activity, it causes that activity to become a reinforcement. Answer B: Response-outcome expectation is the belief that a particular response leads to a specific consequence or outcome. Answer C: The Sutherland-Makintosh attentional theory is the theory that attention to the relevant dimension is strengthened in the first stage, and association of a particular response to the relevant stimulus occurs in the second stage of discrimination learning.

If an unconditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented just prior to a conditioned stimulus in order to replace an undesirable response with a more desirable one, which of the following will most likely occur? Select one: A.The target response will eventually be eliminated. B.The target response will be suppressed (but not eliminated). C.The target response will paradoxically increase. D.The target behavior will not change in frequency.

D.The target behavior will not change in frequency. A careful reading of this question reveals that it is describing "backward conditioning." Backward conditioning rarely works; therefore, the target behavior will not change in frequency. For classical conditioning to be effective, the conditioned stimulus must be presented before the unconditioned stimulus.

Sam gets a sticker each time he clears his plate from the table after a meal. Once he has 10 stickers his parents let him play a game on the iPad he is not normally allowed to play. This is an example of which of the following? Select one: A.Negative punishment B.Positive punishment C.Function-based intervention D.Token economy

D.Token economy A token economy is a system where targeted behaviors are reinforced with tokens (secondary reinforcers) and later exchanged for rewards (primary reinforcers). Answer A: Negative punishment involves taking something good or desirable away to reduce the occurrence of a particular behavior. For example, a teenager is grounded for a week after staying out an hour past curfew. Answer B: Positive punishment refers to presenting an unfavorable outcome following an undesirable behavior. An example is speeding through a school zone and receiving a ticket from a police officer as a result. Answer C: Function-based interventions are behavior change strategies where the goal is to decrease or eliminate an undesirable behavior while increasing positive behavior.

Which of the following intermittent schedules of reinforcement produces the highest rate of responding and the greatest resistance to extinction? Select one: A.Fixed interval B.Fixed ratio C.Variable interval D.Variable ratio

D.Variable ratio Knowing the schedule of reinforcement of slot machines may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. When using a variable ratio schedule, a reinforcer is provided after a variable number of responses. Of the four intermittent schedules, it is associated with the highest rate of responding and the greatest resistance to extinction once the reinforcer is no longer provided. Answer A: When using a fixed interval schedule, reinforcement is delivered after a fixed period of time regardless of the number of responses made. Answer B: When using a fixed ratio schedule, a reinforcer is delivered each time the subject makes a specific number of responses. Answer C: With a variable interval schedule, the interval of time between delivery of reinforcers varies in an unpredictable manner from interval to interval.

Which of the following is considered a cornerstone of Bandura's social-cognitive theory? Select one: A.Cognitive load B.Equilibration C.Scaffolding D.Vicarious learning

D.Vicarious learning Bandura proposed that human behavior is influenced by vicarious learning - i.e., by watching another person engage in that behavior. Answer A: Cognitive load is a key concept in cognitive theories that address the amount of information that can be held in short-term memory before information is lost. Answer B: Equilibration is a central concept in Piaget's constructivism and refers to the drive to achieve an optimal state of balance between one's cognitive structures and the demands of the environment. Answer C: Scaffolding is associated with Vygotsky's sociocultural theory and refers to the assistance given to a learner by a parent, teacher, or another person within the learner's zone of proximal development.

As defined by Aaron Beck, _____________ involves drawing a specific conclusion about an experience in the absence of supporting evidence for that conclusion. Select one: A.selective abstraction B.emotional reasoning C.personalization D.arbitrary inference

D.arbitrary inference All four answer choices describe cognitive distortions, which are targets of practitioners of Beck's cognitive therapy. Arbitrary inference occurs when a person draws a conclusion about an event or experience without there being corroborating evidence and/or when there is contradictory evidence. Answer A: Selective abstraction involves attending to details while ignoring the total context. Answer B: Emotional reasoning occurs when a person believes things are a certain way because that person feels they are that way. Answer C: Personalization occurs when a person erroneously attributes external events to him/herself.

The three overlapping stages of Meichenbaum and Jaremko's (1982) stress inoculation training are: Select one: A.formulation, problem focus, and termination B.self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement. C.cognitive modeling, overt instruction, and covert instruction. D.conceptualization, skills acquisition, and application.

D.conceptualization, skills acquisition, and application. Stress inoculation training was designed to help people cope more effectively with stress by increasing their coping skills. Unfortunately, the names given to the three stages vary somewhat in the literature, so you need to be flexible when looking for the correct answer to a question on this technique. The first stage of stress inoculation training is ordinarily referred to as the conceptualization, education, or cognitive phase; the second stage as the skills application or training phase or the skills acquisition and rehearsal phase; and the third phase as the application or application and follow-through phase. Answer B: These are the three targets of Rehm's self-control therapy. Answer C: These are steps in Meichenbaum and Goodman's self-instructional training.

A therapy client says, "I feel useless and incompetent and, therefore, I must be a worthless person." From the perspective of cognitive therapy, this is an example of: Select one: A.all-or-none thinking B.overgeneralization C.personalization D.emotional reasoning

D.emotional reasoning In this situation, the client is using her emotions as evidence for the way things really are. The logic underlying emotional reasoning is "I feel, therefore I am." Answer A: All-or-nothing thinking is the tendency to evaluate performance or personal qualities in terms of extremist, black-and-white categories. Answer B: Overgeneralization refers to arbitrarily drawing the conclusion that a single negative event will happen over and over again. Answer C: Personalization involves erroneously attributing external events to oneself.

The gradual decline in the intensity, frequency, or duration of a response to the repeated presentation of the same punishment or other stimulus is referred to as: Select one: A.satiation. B.inhibition. C.fading. D.habituation.

D.habituation. This question describes a situation in which an individual is no longer responding to a punishment or other stimulus because of repeated exposure to it. This is the definition of habituation. Answer A: Satiation occurs when a reinforcer has lost its reinforcing value. Answer B: Inhibition, in conditioning, is the active blocking or delay of a response to a stimulus. Answer C: Fading refers to the gradual removal of a prompt. A prompt is provided before the target behavior as a cue to facilitate the acquisition of the behavior.

When using the technique known as "covert sensitization," the client: Select one: A.is consistently reinforced for engaging in behaviors other than the target (undesirable) behavior during a prespecified period of time. B.imagines a person other than him/herself engaging in a variety of alternative (desirable) behaviors. C.repeatedly engages in the target (undesirable) behavior while reinforcement is consistently withheld. D.imagines he/she is engaging in the target (undesirable) behavior and then imagines an aversive consequence for doing so.

D.imagines he/she is engaging in the target (undesirable) behavior and then imagines an aversive consequence for doing so. Covert sensitization is a type of aversion therapy that uses imagery. Covert sensitization uses counterconditioning in imagination (versus in vivo) in order to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior.

Physical guidance is sometimes necessary when using ____________ but must be used with caution because it can have negative consequences (e.g., can elicit aggressive or avoidance behaviors). Select one: A.aversive counterconditioning B.negative practice C.response cost D.overcorrection

D.overcorrection Physical guidance involves manually guiding the individual through the desired movements. Physical guidance may be a necessary component of overcorrection in order to ensure that the individual engages in the positive practice that is part of this intervention. Answer A: Aversive counterconditioning utilizes components of classical conditioning and is not used in overcorrection, which is a form of operant conditioning (positive punishment). When using aversive counterconditioning, the maladaptive behavior (CS) is paired with a stimulus (US) that naturally evokes pain or other unpleasant response. As a result, the maladaptive behavior and stimuli related to it are avoided because they elicit an undesirable response (CR). Answer B: Negative practice involves requiring the individual to deliberately repeat the undesirable behavior to the point that it becomes aversive to the individual or the individual becomes fatigued. Answer C: Response cost involves removing a specific reinforcer each time the target behavior is performed.

Ebbinghaus was one of the first investigators to systematically study memory. In his studies, Ebbinghaus used himself as a subject and memorized lists of nonsense syllables. Results of his research indicated that: Select one: A.syllables in the middle of a list are better remembered than those at the beginning and end of the list B.when memorizing syllables, new learning tends to interfere with previous learning C.overlearning improves memory for syllables up to a point but thereafter has no effect D.rote learning of syllables tends to lead to rapid forgetting

D.rote learning of syllables tends to lead to rapid forgetting Ebbinghaus memorized syllables using rote learning (verbatim learning through repetition) and found that rote learning of nonsense syllables leads to rapid forgetting. Ebbinghaus was interested in assessing the effects of time on memory and, based on the results of his studies, constructed a "curve of forgetting," which shows that 50% of memorized syllables are forgotten within less than one hour.

The ________ is an indirect measure of sympathetic autonomic activity that is associated with both emotion and attention. Select one: A.taste-aversion learning B.conditioned suppression C.eyeblink conditioning D.skin-conductance response

D.skin-conductance response The amplitude of skin-conductance responses is related to the level of arousal elicited by visual stimuli with either positive or negative emotional valence.

Elaborative rehearsal is most useful for: Select one: A.encoding information in sensory memory B.holding information in working memory for an extended period of time C.transferring information from sensory memory to short-term memory D.transferring information from short-term memory to long-term memory

D.transferring information from short-term memory to long-term memory. Elaborative rehearsal refers to making new information more meaningful by associating it with previously acquired information. The research has confirmed that elaborative rehearsal is an effective way for ensuring that material is transferred from short-term memory to long-term memory

Biologically-based phobias are to socially-based phobias as: Select one: A.secondary reinforcers are to primary reinforcers B.response generalization is to stimulus generalization C.stimulus discrimination is to stimulus generalization D.unconditioned stimuli are to conditioned stimuli

D.unconditioned stimuli are to conditioned stimuli Biologically-based phobias are generally viewed as unconditioned responses, while socially-based phobias are considered to be conditioned (learned) responses. Of the responses given, this one is best because it parallels the nature of the relationship between biologically- and socially-based phobias.