Lewis- Chapter 67

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What causes gut bacteria to move into circulation in patients with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)? 1 Toxic effects of medicines 2 Effect of inflammatory mediators 3 Decreased gastrointestinal motility 4 Decreased perfusion of gut mucosa

4 Decreased perfusion in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract leads to a breakdown of the normally protective mucosal barrier, which causes the bacterial movement from the GI tract into circulation. In order to control these bacteria, antibiotics are administered. Antibiotics are nephrotoxic medicines that can cause acute kidney injury. The breakdown of the mucosal barrier is the direct effect of hypoperfusion rather than the inflammatory mediators. In critical illnesses, GI motility is often decreased causing abdominal distension and paralytic ileus. Test-Taking Tip: Make certain that the answer you select is reasonable and obtainable under ordinary circumstances and that the action can be carried out in the given situation. Text Reference - p. 1649

A patient is diagnosed with multiple organ dysfunction syndrome. While aggressive treatment is continued, the nurse suspects infection. What is the most appropriate action that the nurse should perform? 1 Discontinue the aggressive treatment. 2 Reduce oxygen delivery to the patient. 3 Wait for laboratory reports to confirm the suspicion. 4 Obtain a prescription for broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy.

4 If an infection is suspected, broad-spectrum antibiotics should be started immediately to limit the infection. Aggressive treatment for infection control should be carried out in parallel. These patients are usually hypoxemic. Therefore, oxygen should be administered strictly as prescribed. Cultures can be sent, and based on the reports, specific antibiotics can be added. Test-Taking Tip: Identify option components as correct or incorrect. This may help you identify a wrong answer. Example: If you are being asked to identify a diet that is specific to a certain condition, your knowledge about that condition would help you choose the correct response (e.g., cholecystectomy = low-fat, high-protein, low-calorie diet). Text Reference - p. 1650

What type of medication does the nurse anticipate being prescribed by the health care provider to manage confusion, disorientation, and delirium in a patient with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? 1 Vasopressors 2 Loop diuretics 3 Proton pump inhibitors 4 Calcium channel blockers

4 Impaired perfusion of the brain may cause confusion, disorientation, and delirium in the patient. The health care provider is likely to prescribe calcium channel blockers to a patient exhibiting confusion, disorientation, and delirium to reduce cerebral vasospasm and improve perfusion of the brain. Vasopressors may be prescribed to combat cardiovascular dysfunction. Loop diuretics are prescribed if there is renal dysfunction. Proton pump inhibitors are prescribed to manage gastrointestinal symptoms. Text Reference - p. 1651

Following coronary artery bypass graft surgery a patient has postoperative bleeding that requires returning to surgery to repair the leak. During surgery, the patient has a myocardial infarction (MI). After restoring the patient's body temperature to normal, which patient assessment is the most important for planning nursing care? 1 Cardiac index (CI) 5 L/min/m2 2 Central venous pressure (CVP) 8 mm Hg 3 Mean arterial pressure (MAP) 86 mm Hg 4 Pulmonary artery pressure (PAP) 28/14 mm Hg

4 Pulmonary hypertension as indicated by an elevated PAP indicates impaired forward flow of blood because of left ventricular dysfunction or hypoxemia. Both can be caused by the MI. The CI, CVP, and MAP readings are normal. Text Reference - p. 1639

What is the clinical manifestation of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) on the respiratory system? 1 Pulmonary edema 2 Pulmonary fibrosis 3 Pulmonary embolism 4 Pulmonary hypertension

4 Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) affect the respiratory system and lead to pulmonary hypertension. Pulmonary edema is caused by fluid accumulation in the air spaces. Pulmonary fibrosis is a respiratory disorder caused by scars in the lung tissues or inhalation of airborne toxins. A pulmonary embolism is caused by blood clots or blockage in the pulmonary arteries. Text Reference - p. 1651

A massive gastrointestinal bleed has resulted in hypovolemic shock in an older patient. What is a priority nursing diagnosis? 1 Acute pain 2 Impaired tissue integrity 3 Decreased cardiac output 4 Ineffective tissue perfusion

4 The many deleterious effects of shock are all related to inadequate perfusion and oxygenation of every body system. Ineffective tissue perfusion supersedes acute pain, impaired tissue integrity, and decreased cardiac output, because circulation is a priority. Acute pain may occur, but is not a priority at this time. Tissue integrity is not impaired. Text Reference - p. 1633

What is the goal in the care of a systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) patient whose bilirubin level is 3 mg/dL? 1 Patient will be free of stress ulcers. 2 Patient will not feel abdominal distension. 3 Patient will maintain intraabdominal pressures. 4 Patient will maintain adequate tissue perfusion.

4 The nurse will plan to maintain adequate tissue perfusion for a systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) patient with bilirubin level of 3 mg/dL. An elevation of the bilirubin indicates impaired liver function. Stress ulcer prophylaxis is routine and would have been initiated before SIRS occurred. Abdominal distention and increased intraabdominal pressures are associated with impaired liver function. Monitoring these conditions is essential but is of a lower priority than maintaining tissue perfusion. Text Reference - p. 1651

What laboratory finding correlates with a medical diagnosis of cardiogenic shock? 1 Decreased liver enzymes 2 Increased white blood cells 3 Decreased red blood cells, hemoglobin, and hematocrit 4 Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels

4 The renal hypoperfusion that accompanies cardiogenic shock results in increased BUN and creatinine levels. Impaired perfusion of the liver results in increased liver enzymes, whereas white blood cell levels typically do not increase in cardiogenic shock. Red blood cell indices are typically normal because of relative hypovolemia. Test-Taking Tip: Bring to your test prep with a positive attitude about yourself, your nursing knowledge, and your test-taking abilities. A positive attitude is achieved through self-confidence gained by effective study. This means (a) answering questions (assessment), (b) organizing study time (planning), (c) reading and further study (implementation), and (d) answering questions (evaluation). Text Reference - p. 1633

Which sign of neurologic dysfunction is commonly seen in both systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? 1 Increased heart rate 2 Increased liver enzymes 3 Difficulty breathing 4 Confusion, agitation, and lethargy

4 The sign of neurologic dysfunction commonly seen in systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) is change in mental status, which may cause the patient to become confused, agitated, and lethargic. The patient's heart rate increases due to changes in the cardiovascular system. The patient's liver enzymes increase due to dysfunction in the hepatic system and finally the dysfunction results in hepatic encephalopathy. The patient's dyspnea is caused by changes in the respiratory system by inflammatory mediators. Test-Taking Tip: Identify option components as correct or incorrect. This may help you identify a wrong answer. Text Reference - p. 1649

The nurse reviews the plan of care for a patient with multisystem organ dysfunction syndrome. What is the most desirable outcome for the patient? 1 The patient will be free of signs and symptoms of sepsis 2 The patient will maintain a balanced fluid intake and output 3 The patient will experience enhanced overall well-being and mental rest 4 The patient will demonstrate improved perfusion and oxygenation of organs

4 The underlying pathophysiology of multisystem organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) is a lack of perfusion to organs, resulting in tissue and/or organ hypoxia. Interventions to improve perfusion with fluids or medications improve patient outcomes. The outcomes listed in the other answer options are appropriate and desirable for the patient with MODS, but they are secondary to improved perfusion and oxygenation. Text Reference - p. 1647

If the patient in shock is to receive 1000 mL of normal saline in two hours, at what rate should the infusion pump be set? Fill in the blank. ___mL/hour

500 For the 1000 mL of normal saline to be infused in two hours, the infusion pump should be set at 500 mL per hour (1000 mL divided by two hours). Test-Taking Tip: When taking the NCLEX exam, an on-screen calculator will be available for you to determine your response, which you will then type in the provided space. Text Reference - p. 1641

Appropriate treatment modalities for the mgmt. of carcinogenic shock include (select all) A) dobutamine to increase myocardial contractility B) Vasopressors to increase systemic vascular resistance C) circulatory assist devices such as an intraaortic balloon pump D) corticosteroids to stabilize the cell wall in the infarcted myocardium E) Trendelenburg positioning to facilitate venous return and increase preload

A) dobutamine to increase myocardial contractility C) circulatory assist devices such as an intraaortic balloon pump

The health care provider prescribes these actions for a patient who has possible septic shock with a BP of 70/42 mm Hg and oxygen saturation of 90%. In which order will the nurse implement the actions? Put a comma and space between each answer choice (a, b, c, d, etc.) ____________________ a. Obtain blood and urine cultures. b. Give vancomycin (Vancocin) 1 g IV. c. Infuse vasopressin (Pitressin) 0.01 units/min. d. Administer normal saline 1000 mL over 30 minutes. e. Titrate oxygen administration to keep O2 saturation >95%.

ANS: E, D, C, A, B The initial action for this hypotensive and hypoxemic patient should be to improve the oxygen saturation, followed by infusion of IV fluids and vasopressors to improve perfusion. Cultures should be obtained before administration of antibiotics.

Norepinephrine (Levophed) has been prescribed for a patient who was admitted with dehydration and hypotension. Which patient information indicates that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before administration of the norepinephrine? a. The patient's central venous pressure is 3 mm Hg. b. The patient is receiving low dose dopamine (Intropin). c. The patient is in sinus tachycardia at 100 to 110 beats/min. d. The patient has had no urine output since being admitted.

ANS: A Adequate fluid administration is essential before administration of vasopressors to patients with hypovolemic shock. The patient's low central venous pressure indicates a need for more volume replacement. The other patient data are not contraindications to norepinephrine administration. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1733-1735 | 1736 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Norepinephrine (Levophed) has been prescribed for a patient who was admitted with dehydration and hypotension. Which patient data indicate that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before starting the norepinephrine? a. The patient's central venous pressure is 3 mm Hg. b. The patient is in sinus tachycardia at 120 beats/min. c. The patient is receiving low dose dopamine (Intropin). d. The patient has had no urine output since being admitted.

A patient with septic shock has a BP of 70/46 mm Hg, pulse 136, respirations 32, temperature 104° F, and blood glucose 246 mg/dL. Which of these prescribed interventions will the nurse implement first? a. Give normal saline IV at 500 mL/hr. b. Infuse drotrecogin- (Xigris) 24 mcg/kg. c. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL. d. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep mean arterial pressure (MAP) at 65 to 70 mm Hg.

ANS: A Because of the low systemic vascular resistance (SVR) associated with septic shock, fluid resuscitation is the initial therapy. The other actions also are appropriate and should be initiated quickly as well. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1735-1737 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient with septic shock has a BP of 70/46 mm Hg, pulse 136, respirations 32, temperature 104° F, and blood glucose 246 mg/dL. Which intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse implement first? a. Give normal saline IV at 500 mL/hr. b. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally. c. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL. d. Start norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic blood pressure >90 mm Hg.

ANS: A Because of the low systemic vascular resistance (SVR) associated with septic shock, fluid resuscitation is the initial therapy. The other actions also are appropriate, and should be initiated quickly as well.

A patient with septic shock has a urine output of 20 mL/hr for the past 3 hours. The pulse rate is 120 and the central venous pressure and pulmonary artery wedge pressure are low. Which of these orders by the health care provider will the nurse question? a. Give furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV. b. Increase normal saline infusion to 150 mL/hr. c. Administer hydrocortisone (SoluCortef) 100 mg IV. d. Prepare to give drotrecogin alpha (Xigris) 24 mcg/kg/hr.

ANS: A Furosemide will lower the filling pressures and renal perfusion further for the patient with septic shock. The other orders are appropriate. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1724-1726 | 1731 | 1733 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A 78-kg patient with septic shock has a urine output of 30 mL/hr for the past 3 hours. The pulse rate is 120/minute and the central venous pressure and pulmonary artery wedge pressure are low. Which order by the health care provider will the nurse question? a. Give PRN furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV. b. Increase normal saline infusion to 250 mL/hr. c. Administer hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) 100 mg IV. d. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic BP >90 mm Hg.

ANS: A Furosemide will lower the filling pressures and renal perfusion further for the patient with septic shock. The other orders are appropriate.

The patient with neurogenic shock is receiving a phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) infusion through a left forearm IV. Which assessment information obtained by the nurse indicates a need for immediate action? a. The patient's IV infusion site is cool and pale. b. The patient has warm, dry skin on the extremities. c. The patient has an apical pulse rate of 58 beats/min. d. The patient's urine output has been 28 mL over the last hour.

ANS: A The coldness and pallor at the infusion site suggest extravasation of the phenylephrine. The nurse should discontinue the IV and, if possible, infuse the medication into a central line. An apical pulse of 58 is typical for neurogenic shock but does not indicate an immediate need for nursing intervention. A 28 mL urinary output over 1 hour would require the nurse to monitor the output over the next hour, but an immediate change in therapy is not indicated. Warm, dry skin is consistent with early neurogenic shock, but it does not indicate a need for a change in therapy or immediate action. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1733-1734 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which information obtained by the nurse when caring for a patient who has cardiogenic shock indicates that the patient may be developing multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? a. The patient's serum creatinine level is elevated. b. The patient complains of intermittent chest pressure. c. The patient has crackles throughout both lung fields. d. The patient's extremities are cool and pulses are weak.

ANS: A The elevated serum creatinine level indicates that the patient has renal failure as well as heart failure. The crackles, chest pressure, and cool extremities are all consistent with the patient's diagnosis of cardiogenic shock. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1740-1741 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which data collected by the nurse caring for a patient who has cardiogenic shock indicate that the patient may be developing multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? a. The patient's serum creatinine level is elevated. b. The patient complains of intermittent chest pressure. c. The patient's extremities are cool and pulses are weak. d. The patient has bilateral crackles throughout lung fields.

A patient is treated in the emergency department (ED) for shock of unknown etiology. The first action by the nurse should be to a. administer oxygen. b. attach a cardiac monitor. c. obtain the blood pressure. d. check the level of consciousness.

ANS: A The initial actions of the nurse are focused on the ABCs—airway, breathing, circulation—and administration of oxygen should be done first. The other actions should be accomplished as rapidly as possible after oxygen administration. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1729-1731 | 1732 | 1733 | 1736-1737 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient with shock of unknown etiology whose hemodynamic monitoring indicates BP 92/54, pulse 64, and an elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressure has the following collaborative interventions prescribed. Which intervention will the nurse question? a. Infuse normal saline at 250 mL/hr. b. Keep head of bed elevated to 30 degrees. c. Give nitroprusside (Nipride) unless systolic BP <90 mm Hg. d. Administer dobutamine (Dobutrex) to keep systolic BP >90 mm Hg.

ANS: A The patient's elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressure indicates volume excess. A normal saline infusion at 250 mL/hr will exacerbate this. The other actions are appropriate for the patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1719 | 1721-1722 | 1735 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A nurse is caring for a patient with shock of unknown etiology whose hemodynamic monitoring indicates BP 92/54, pulse 64, and an elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressure. Which collaborative intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse question? a. Infuse normal saline at 250 mL/hr. b. Keep head of bed elevated to 30 degrees. c. Hold nitroprusside (Nipride) if systolic BP <90 mm Hg. d. Titrate dobutamine (Dobutrex) to keep systolic BP >90 mm Hg.

ANS: A The patient's elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressure indicates volume excess. A saline infusion at 250 mL/hr will exacerbate the volume excess. The other actions are appropriate for the patient.

A patient with neurogenic shock has just arrived in the emergency department after a diving accident. He has a cervical collar in place. Which of the following actions should the nurse take (select all that apply)? a. Prepare to administer atropine IV. b. Obtain baseline body temperature. c. Prepare for intubation and mechanical ventilation. d. Administer large volumes of lactated Ringer's solution. e. Administer high-flow oxygen (100%) by non-rebreather mask.

ANS: A, B, C, E All of the actions are appropriate except to give large volumes of lactated Ringer's solution. The patient with neurogenic shock usually has a normal blood volume, and it is important not to volume overload the patient. In addition, lactated Ringer's solution is used cautiously in all shock situations because the failing liver cannot convert lactate to bicarbonate. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1736-1737 OBJ: Special Questions: Alternate Item Format TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which of these findings is the best indicator that the fluid resuscitation for a patient with hypovolemic shock has been successful? a. Hemoglobin is within normal limits. b. Urine output is 60 mL over the last hour. c. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is normal. d. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 65 mm Hg.

ANS: B Assessment of end organ perfusion, such as an adequate urine output, is the best indicator that fluid resuscitation has been successful. The hemoglobin level, PAWP, and MAP are useful in determining the effects of fluid administration, but they are not as useful as data indicating good organ perfusion. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1733-1735 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which finding is the best indicator that the fluid resuscitation for a patient with hypovolemic shock has been effective? a. Hemoglobin is within normal limits. b. Urine output is 60 mL over the last hour. c. Central venous pressure (CVP) is normal. d. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 72 mm Hg.

ANS: B Assessment of end organ perfusion, such as an adequate urine output, is the best indicator that fluid resuscitation has been successful. The hemoglobin level, CVP, and MAP are useful in determining the effects of fluid administration, but they are not as useful as data indicating good organ perfusion.

Which information about a patient who is receiving vasopressin (Pitressin) to treat septic shock is most important for the nurse to communicate to the heath care provider? a. The patient's heart rate is 108 beats/min. b. The patient is complaining of chest pain. c. The patient's peripheral pulses are weak. d. The patient's urine output is 15 mL/hr.

ANS: B Because vasopressin is a potent vasoconstrictor, it may decrease coronary artery perfusion. The other information is consistent with the patient's diagnosis and should be reported to the health care provider but does not indicate a need for a change in therapy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1735-1736 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The following therapies are prescribed by the health care provider for a patient who has respiratory distress and syncope after a bee sting. Which will the nurse administer first? a. normal saline infusion b. epinephrine (Adrenalin) c. dexamethasone (Decadron) d. diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

ANS: B Epinephrine rapidly causes peripheral vasoconstriction, dilates the bronchi, and blocks the effects of histamine and reverses the vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, and histamine release that cause the symptoms of anaphylaxis. The other interventions also are appropriate but would not be the first ones administered. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1736-1737 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

When caring for a patient who has septic shock, which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. BP 92/56 mm Hg b. Skin cool and clammy c. Apical pulse 118 beats/min d. Arterial oxygen saturation 91%

ANS: B Since patients in the early stage of septic shock have warm and dry skin, the patient's cool and clammy skin indicates that shock is progressing. The other information also will be reported, but does not indicate deterioration of the patient's status. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1723 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has cardiogenic shock? a. Check temperature every 2 hours. b. Monitor breath sounds frequently. c. Maintain patient in supine position. d. Assess skin for flushing and itching.

ANS: B Since pulmonary congestion and dyspnea are characteristics of cardiogenic shock, the nurse should assess the breath sounds frequently. The head of the bed is usually elevated to decrease dyspnea in patients with cardiogenic shock. Elevated temperature and flushing or itching of the skin are not typical of cardiogenic shock.

A patient with cardiogenic shock has the following vital signs: BP 86/50, pulse 126, respirations 30. The PAWP is increased and cardiac output is low. The nurse will anticipate a. infusion of 5% human albumin. b. administration of furosemide (Lasix) IV. c. titration of an epinephrine (Adrenalin) drip. d. administration of hydrocortisone (SoluCortef).

ANS: B The PAWP indicates that the patient's preload is elevated and furosemide is indicated to reduce the preload and improve cardiac output. Epinephrine would further increase heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand. Normal saline infusion would increase the PAWP further. Hydrocortisone might be used for septic or anaphylactic shock. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1735 | 1736 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient with cardiogenic shock has the following vital signs: BP 102/50, pulse 128, respirations 28. The pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is increased and cardiac output is low. The nurse will anticipate an order for which medication? a. 5% human albumin b. Furosemide (Lasix) IV c. Epinephrine (Adrenalin) drip d. Hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef)

ANS: B The PAWP indicates that the patient's preload is elevated, and furosemide is indicated to reduce the preload and improve cardiac output. Epinephrine would further increase heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand. 5% human albumin would also increase the PAWP. Hydrocortisone might be considered for septic or anaphylactic shock.

When the nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving a nitroprusside (Nipride) infusion to treat cardiogenic shock, which finding indicates that the medication is effective? a. No heart murmur is audible. b. Skin is warm, pink, and dry. c. Troponin level is decreased. d. Blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg.

ANS: B Warm, pink, and dry skin indicates that perfusion to tissues is improved. Since nitroprusside is a vasodilator, the blood pressure may be low even if the medication is effective. Absence of a heart murmur and a decrease in troponin level are not indicators of improvement in shock. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1721 | 1723 | 1733-1735 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

After receiving 2 L of normal saline, the central venous pressure for a patient who has septic shock is 10 mm Hg, but the blood pressure is still 82/40 mm Hg. The nurse will anticipate an order for a. nitroglycerine (Tridil). b. norepinephrine (Levophed). c. sodium nitroprusside (Nipride). d. methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol).

ANS: B When fluid resuscitation is unsuccessful, vasopressor drugs are administered to increase the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and blood pressure, and improve tissue perfusion. Nitroglycerin would decrease the preload and further drop cardiac output and BP. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) is considered if blood pressure does not respond first to fluids and vasopressors. Nitroprusside is an arterial vasodilator and would further decrease SVR.

The emergency department (ED) receives notification that a patient who has just been in an automobile accident is being transported to your facility with anticipated arrival in 1 minute. In preparation for the patient's arrival, the nurse will obtain a. 500 mL of 5% albumin. b. lactated Ringer's solution. c. two 14-gauge IV catheters. d. dopamine (Intropin) infusion.

ANS: C A patient with multiple trauma may require fluid resuscitation to prevent or treat hypovolemic shock, so the nurse will anticipate the need for 2 large bore IV lines to administer normal saline. Lactated Ringer's solution should be used cautiously and will not be ordered until the patient has been assessed for possible liver abnormalities. Although colloids may sometimes be used for volume expansion, crystalloids should be used as the initial therapy for fluid resuscitation. Vasopressor infusion is not used as the initial therapy for hypovolemic shock. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1731 | 1732 | 1733 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The emergency department (ED) nurse receives report that a patient involved in a motor vehicle crash is being transported to the facility with an estimated arrival in 1 minute. In preparation for the patient's arrival, the nurse will obtain a. hypothermia blanket. b. lactated Ringer's solution. c. two 14-gauge IV catheters. d. dopamine (Intropin) infusion.

A patient with massive trauma and possible spinal cord injury is admitted to the emergency department (ED). Which finding by the nurse will help confirm a diagnosis of neurogenic shock? a. Cool, clammy skin b. Inspiratory crackles c. Apical heart rate 48 beats/min d. Temperature 101.2° F (38.4° C)

ANS: C Neurogenic shock is characterized by hypotension and bradycardia. The other findings would be more consistent with other types of shock. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: 1721-1722 | 1723 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A 19-year-old patient with massive trauma and possible spinal cord injury is admitted to the emergency department (ED). Which assessment finding by the nurse will help confirm a diagnosis of neurogenic shock? a. Inspiratory crackles. b. Cool, clammy extremities. c. Apical heart rate 45 beats/min. d. Temperature 101.2° F (38.4° C).

ANS: C Neurogenic shock is characterized by hypotension and bradycardia. The other findings would be more consistent with other types of shock

An older patient with cardiogenic shock is cool and clammy and hemodynamic monitoring indicates a high systemic vascular resistance (SVR). Which intervention should the nurse anticipate doing next? a. Increase the rate for the dopamine (Intropin) infusion. b. Decrease the rate for the nitroglycerin (Tridil) infusion. c. Increase the rate for the sodium nitroprusside (Nipride) infusion. d. Decrease the rate for the 5% dextrose in normal saline (D5/.9 NS) infusion.

ANS: C Nitroprusside is an arterial vasodilator and will decrease the SVR and afterload, which will improve cardiac output. Changes in the D5/.9 NS and nitroglycerin infusions will not directly decrease SVR. Increasing the dopamine will tend to increase SVR.

When the charge nurse is evaluating the skills of a new RN, which action by the new RN indicates a need for more education in the care of patients with shock? a. Placing the pulse oximeter on the ear for a patient with septic shock b. Keeping the head of the bed flat for a patient with hypovolemic shock c. Decreasing the room temperature to 68° F for a patient with neurogenic shock d. Increasing the nitroprusside (Nipride) infusion rate for a patient with a high SVR

ANS: C Patients with neurogenic shock may have poikilothermia. The room temperature should be kept warm to avoid hypothermia. The other actions by the new RN are appropriate. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1721-1722 | 1724 OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

To evaluate the effectiveness of the omeprazole (Prilosec) being administered to a patient with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), which assessment will the nurse make? a. Auscultate bowel sounds. b. Ask the patient about nausea. c. Monitor stools for occult blood. d. Check for abdominal distention.

ANS: C Proton pump inhibitors are given to decrease the risk for stress ulcers in critically ill patients. The other assessments also will be done, but these will not help in determining the effectiveness of the omeprazole administration. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1735-1737 | 1742-1743 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has cardiogenic shock? a. Avoid elevating head of bed. b. Check temperature every 2 hours. c. Monitor breath sounds frequently. d. Assess skin for flushing and itching.

ANS: C Since pulmonary congestion and dyspnea are characteristics of cardiogenic shock, the nurse should assess the breath sounds frequently. The head of the bed is usually elevated to decrease dyspnea. Elevated temperature and flushing or itching of the skin are not typical of cardiogenic shock. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1721 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving a nitroprusside (Nipride) infusion to treat cardiogenic shock. Which finding indicates that the medication is effective? a. No new heart murmurs b. Decreased troponin level c. Warm, pink, and dry skin d. Blood pressure 92/40 mm Hg

ANS: C Warm, pink, and dry skin indicates that perfusion to tissues is improved. Since nitroprusside is a vasodilator, the blood pressure may be low even if the medication is effective. Absence of a heart murmur and a decrease in troponin level are not indicators of improvement in shock.

After receiving 1000 mL of normal saline, the central venous pressure for a patient who has septic shock is 10 mm Hg, but the blood pressure is still 82/40 mm Hg. The nurse will anticipate the administration of a. nitroglycerine (Tridil). b. drotrecogin alpha (Xigris). c. norepinephrine (Levophed). d. sodium nitroprusside (Nipride).

ANS: C When fluid resuscitation is unsuccessful, vasopressor drugs are administered to increase the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and improve tissue perfusion. Nitroglycerin would decrease the preload and further drop cardiac output and BP. Drotrecogin alpha may decrease inappropriate inflammation and help prevent systemic inflammatory response syndrome, but it will not directly improve blood pressure. Nitroprusside is an arterial vasodilator and would further decrease SVR. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1731 | 1733-1735 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which assessment is most important for the nurse to make in order to evaluate whether treatment of a patient with anaphylactic shock has been effective? a. Pulse rate b. Orientation c. Blood pressure d. Oxygen saturation

ANS: D Because the airway edema that is associated with anaphylaxis can affect airway and breathing, the oxygen saturation is the most critical assessment. Improvements in the other assessments also will be expected with effective treatment of anaphylactic shock. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1724-1725 | 1732 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which assessment information is most important for the nurse to obtain to evaluate whether treatment of a patient with anaphylactic shock has been effective? a. Heart rate b. Orientation c. Blood pressure d. Oxygen saturation

A patient with cardiogenic shock is cool and clammy and hemodynamic monitoring indicates a high systemic vascular resistance (SVR). Which action will the nurse anticipate taking? a. Increase the rate for the prescribed dopamine (Intropin) infusion. b. Decrease the rate for the prescribed nitroglycerin (Tridil) infusion. c. Decrease the rate for the prescribed 5% dextrose in water (D5W) infusion. d. Increase the rate for the prescribed sodium nitroprusside (Nipride) infusion.

ANS: D Nitroprusside is an arterial vasodilator and will decrease the SVR and afterload, which will improve cardiac output. Changes in the D5W and nitroglycerin infusions will not directly increase SVR. Increasing the dopamine will tend to increase SVR. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1733-1734 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

To evaluate the effectiveness of the pantoprazole (Protonix) ordered for a patient with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), which assessment will the nurse perform? a. Auscultate bowel sounds. b. Palpate for abdominal pain. c. Ask the patient about nausea. d. Check stools for occult blood.

ANS: D Proton pump inhibitors are given to decrease the risk for stress ulcers in critically ill patients. The other assessments also will be done, but these will not help in determining the effectiveness of the pantoprazole administration.

During change-of-shift report, the nurse learns that a patient has been admitted with dehydration and hypotension after having vomiting and diarrhea for 3 days. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Decreased bowel sounds b. Apical pulse 110 beats/min c. Pale, cool, and dry extremities d. New onset of confusion and agitation

ANS: D The changes in mental status are indicative that the patient is in the progressive stage of shock and that rapid intervention is needed to prevent further deterioration. The other information is consistent with compensatory shock. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1728-1729 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient who has been involved in a motor vehicle crash is admitted to the emergency department (ED) with cool, clammy skin; tachycardia; and hypotension. Which of these prescribed interventions should the nurse implement first? a. Place the patient on continuous cardiac monitor. b. Draw blood to type and crossmatch for transfusions. c. Insert two 14-gauge IV catheters in antecubital space. d. Administer oxygen at 100% per non-rebreather mask

ANS: D The first priority in the initial management of shock is maintenance of the airway and ventilation. Cardiac monitoring, insertion of IV catheters, and obtaining blood for transfusions also should be rapidly accomplished, but only after actions to maximize oxygen delivery have been implemented. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1732 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation

Which type of shock causes an absence of bowel sounds? 1 Cardiogenic shock 2 Neurogenic shock 3 Hypovolemic shock 4 Anaphylactic shock

Absence of bowel sounds is associated with hypovolemic shock. Decreased bowel sounds are seen with cardiogenic shock. Bowel dysfunction is associated with neurogenic shock. Abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting are seen with anaphylactic shock. Test-Taking Tip: Identifying content and what is being asked about that content is critical to your choosing the correct response. Be alert for words in the stem of the item that are the same or similar in nature to those in one or two of the options. Text Reference - p. 1635

A 78 yo man has confusion and Temp of 104 F. He is a diabetic with purulent drainage from his right great toe. His assessment findings are BP 84/80, HR 110, RR 42 and shallow, CO 8L/min, and PAWP 4 mmHg. The pts sxs are most likely indicative of A) sepsis B) Septic shock C) Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome D) Systemic inflammatory response syndrome

B) Septic shock

The most accurate assessment parameters for the nurse to use to determine adequate tissue perfusion in the pt. with MODS are A) BP, HR, RR B) LS, BP, temp C) pulse pressure, LOC, and papillary response D) LOC, urine output, and skin color and temp

D) LOC, urine output, and skin color and temp

A pt. has a spinal cord injury at T4. VS include a falling BP with bradycardia. The nurse recognizes that the pt. is experiencing A) a relative hypervolemia B) an absolute Hypovolemia C) Neurogenic shock from low blood flow D) Neurogenic shock from massive vasodilation

D) Neurogenic shock from massive vasodilation

The nurse is caring for a patient who is experiencing cardiogenic shock as a result of myocardial infarction. Which nursing assessment finding is most concerning? 1 PaO2 60 mm Hg 2 Blood pressure 100/56 mm Hg 3 Urine output 260 mL in eight hours 4 Heart rate 96 beats/minute

1 A PaO2 of 60 is below the normal 80 to 100 mm Hg. The patient experiencing cardiogenic shock will exhibit hypotension and tachycardia, and therefore a blood pressure of 100/56 mm Hg and heart rate of 96 would not apply. A urine output of 260 cc/8 hrs is borderline but not reportable without a continued trending pattern. Text Reference - p. 1633

What therapy is provided to a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? 1 Mechanical ventilation 2 Oxygen via a Venturi mask 3 Oxygen via a non-rebreather mask 4 Small volume nebulizer treatments

1 A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) would be intubated and receive mechanical ventilation. Small volume nebulizer treatments would open airways; however, this intervention will not sufficiently treat ARDS. Oxygen via a Venturi mask or a non-rebreather mask would be insufficient to promote oxygenation and perfusion. Text Reference - p. 1651

What occurs when the inflammatory response is activated in a patient with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)? 1 Release of mediators 2 Decrease in metabolism 3 Damage of the mesothelium 4 Decrease in vascular permeability

1 A release of mediators occurs when the inflammatory response is activated. Other changes that occur include an increase in metabolism or hypermetabolism, direct damage to the endothelium, and an increase in vascular permeability. Text Reference - p. 1649

How is systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) different from multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? Correct1 Shock leads to SIRS, and SIRS causes MODS. 2 MODS is reversible, and SIRS has irreversible changes. Incorrect3 SIRS is caused by shock, and MODS is caused by perfusion deficits. 4 Homeostasis fails before SIRS, and homeostasis is maintained in MODS.

1 Any type of shock triggers the systemic inflammatory response. Generalized inflammation in organs remote from the initial shock is systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS). Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) results from SIRS. Both SIRS and MODS are reversible in the early stages. SIRS is caused by some kind of injury to the body such as sepsis, ischemia, infarction, and injury; SIRS can lead to MODS if not treated. In SIRS, a type of shock triggers a systemic inflammatory response, after which the body's homeostasis fails. In MODS, homeostasis fails and medical intervention is needed. Test-Taking Tip: Identify option components as correct or incorrect. This may help you identify a wrong answer. Text Reference - p. 1649

The intensive care unit nurse is caring for a patient who is ventilated mechanically. To prevent sepsis in this patient, which nursing intervention does the nurse include in the plan of care? 1 Provide oral care every two to four hours. 2 Turn patient from side to side every eight hours. 3 Position patient in a supine position every two hours. 4 Use clean gloves when suctioning the endotracheal tube.

1 Providing oral care every two to four hours is correct, because research has found that the oral flora of critically ill patients are predominately gram-negative organisms that can potentially cause ventilator-associated pneumonia. Oral care will help reduce the organisms. Turning the patient from side to side every eight hours is incorrect, because patients need to be turned at least every two hours to prevent accumulation of mucus, which could lead to pneumonia. Positioning the patient in a supine position is incorrect, because patients should have the head of the bed elevated during mechanical ventilation. The nurse should use sterile gloves when conducting endotracheal suctioning of the patient. Test-Taking Tip: Never leave a question unanswered. Even if answering is no more than an educated guess on your part, go ahead and mark an answer. You might be right, but if you leave it blank, you will certainly be wrong and lose precious points. Text Reference - p. 1648

The nurse reviews the medical record of a patient with pneumonia and notes that the patient has hypotension, hypothermia, leukocytosis, and hypoxemia. What should the nurse infer from these findings? 1 The patient has septic shock. 2 The patient has neurogenic shock. 3 The patient has cardiogenic shock. 4 The patient has hypovolemic shock.

1 Septic shock is most commonly found in the patient having gram-negative bacterial infections, such as pneumonia. Because it is characterized by hypertension, hypothermia, leukocytosis, and hypoxemia in patients with infections, the nurse concludes that the patient has septic shock. Neurogenic shock is most commonly seen in the patient who has an injury. Cardiogenic shock is caused by cardiovascular disorders, such as a myocardial infarction and cardiomyopathy. Hypovolemic shock is caused by hemorrhage or trauma. Test-Taking Tip: Multiple-choice questions can be challenging, because students think that they will recognize the right answer when they see it or that the right answer will somehow stand out from the other choices. This is a dangerous misconception. The more carefully the question is constructed, the more each of the choices will seem like the correct response. Text Reference - p. 1637

The primary health care provider prescribes antibiotics and vasopressors for a patient. Which type of shock does the nurse expect to be treating? 1 Septic shock 2 Cardiogenic shock 3 Neurogenic shock 4 Anaphylactic shock

1 Septic shock occurs in response to infection. Therefore, antibiotics are prescribed for a patient with septic shock. Cardiogenic shock occurs when systolic or diastolic function of the heart is impaired. Sympathomimetic drugs are used for the treatment of cardiogenic shock. Injury to the spinal cord at the fifth thoracic vertebra or above causes neurogenic shock. Vasconstricting medications are prescribed to prevent vasodilation for a patient in septic shock. Anaphylactic shock is a life-threatening allergic reaction to a sensitizing substance. Antihistamines, bronchodilators, and corticosteroids are used in the treatment of anaphylactic shock. Test-Taking Tip: Do not worry if you select the same numbered answer repeatedly, because there usually is no pattern to the answers. Text Reference - p. 1645

A patient is showing signs of anaphylactic shock from an insect sting. Which primary health care provider's prescription does the nurse implement first? 1 Epinephrine 1:1000, 0.5 mg subcutaneous (SQ) 2 Normal saline intravenous (IV) to run at 150 mL/hr 3 Diphenhydramine 50 mg IV 4 Oxygen via nasal cannula at 3 L

1 The patient in anaphylaxis experiences bronchial spasm and constriction. The administration of epinephrine is necessary to reverse this process and facilitate an open airway. Although administering normal saline, diphenhydramine, and oxygen are appropriate, they must be done after an airway has been established. Text Reference - p. 1646

When examining a patient with cardiogenic shock, which signs of peripheral hypoperfusion does the nurse expect? Select all that apply. 1 Cyanosis 2 Cold skin 3 Weak pulse 4 Bradycardia 5 Hypertension

1, 2, 3 Cyanosis, cold skin, and a weak pulse are the signs of peripheral hypoperfusion in cardiogenic shock. Bradycardia and hypertension are not seen in cardiogenic shock; instead, tachycardia and low blood pressure are noted. Text Reference - p. 1633

Which types of shock may cause reduced urinary output in a patient? Select all that apply. 1 Septic shock 2 Hypovolemic shock 3 Obstructive shock 4 Neurogenic shock 5 Anaphylactic shock 6 Cardiogenic shock.

1, 2, 3, 6 Decreased urine output is a clinical manifestation of septic, hypovolemic, obstructive and cardiogenic shock. Neurogenic shock is associated with bladder dysfunction. Anaphylactic shock is associated with urinary incontinence. Test-Taking Tip: Make certain that the answer you select is reasonable and obtainable under ordinary circumstances and that the action can be carried out in the given situation. Text Reference - p. 1635

The health care provider prescribes a dose of dobutamine for a patient in cardiogenic shock due to myocardial infarction. What appropriate actions should the nurse perform for safely administering the medication? Select all that apply. 1 Monitor heart rate and blood pressure. 2 Stop infusion if tachydysrhythmias develop. 3 Always administer with sodium bicarbonate. 4 Administer through a central line. 5 Use a glass bottle for infusion.

1, 2, 4 Doubutamine is a sympathomimetic medication. When used in therapy with dobutamine, the patient's heart rate and blood pressure should be continuously monitored, as they may worsen hypotension, requiring the addition of a vasopressor. The infusion should be stopped if tachydysrhythmias develop. The administration through a central line is recommended, because infiltration leads to tissue sloughing. The drug should not be administered with sodium bicarbonate, because it can get deactivated. Because dobutamine is not adsorbed in plastic containers, it is not necessary to administer the drug in glass bottles. Test-Taking Tip: Key words or phrases in the stem of the question such as first, primary, early, or best are important. Similarly, words such as only, always, never, and all in the alternatives are frequently evidence of a wrong response. As in life, no real absolutes exist in nursing; however, every rule has its exceptions, so answer with care. Text Reference - p. 1643

When examining a patient with septic shock, what symptoms would the nurse expect to find? Select all that apply. 1 Paralytic ileus 2 Gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding 3 Pulsus paradoxus 4 Distended jugular vein 5 Decreased urinary output

1, 2, 5 Patients suffering from septic shock may experience decreased tissue perfusion, which may result in a paralytic ileus, GI bleeding, and decreased urinary output. Pulsus paradoxus and jugular vein distension are found in obstructive shock and are mainly the result of compromised hemodynamics. Text Reference - p. 1637

A nurse caring for a patient with multiple organ dysfunction syndrome understands that the patient may be at increased risk of bleeding. What nursing interventions should the nurse perform to manage this patient? Select all that apply. 1 Observe bleeding sites. 2 Decrease fluid intake. 3 Provide enteral feedings. 4 Administer platelets and clotting factors. 5 Minimize traumatic interventions.

1, 4, 5 The patient with multiple organ dysfunction syndrome is at a risk of bleeding due to increased bleeding time, thrombocytopenia, and dysfunctional clotting process. The nursing interventions should be aimed at preventing potential bleeding and replacing factors being lost. The patient should be observed for frank or occult bleeding from potential sites. The factors like platelets and clotting factors should be replaced if deficient. Traumatic interventions such as intramuscular injections or multiple venipunctures should be avoided. Decreasing the fluid intake and providing enteral feedings will not help in minimizing hematologic complications. Text Reference - p. 1650

A patient presents to the emergency department (ED) in a state of shock. On assessment, the nurse finds that the patient is cyanotic and has crackles on auscultation of the lungs. As which type of shock will the nurse classify this? 1 Neurogenic shock 2 Cardiogenic shock 3 Hypovolemic shock 4 Anaphylactic shock

2 A patient with cardiogenic shock shows peripheral hypoperfusion presenting as cyanosis and has crackles on auscultation of the lungs due to pulmonary congestion. In neurogenic shock, the patient demonstrates symptoms related to the injury such as hypotension and bradycardia. The patient in hypovolemic shock may experience tachycardia as a late sign. In anaphylactic shock, the patient may experience wheezing and stridor. Text Reference - p. 1633

What is a manifestation of the irreversible stage of shock? 1 Delirium 2 Areflexia 3 Restlessness 4 Alterations in the level of consciousness

2 Areflexia or loss of reflexes is a manifestation of the irreversible stage of shock. The progressive state of shock is associated with delirium. Restlessness and altered levels of consciousness indicate that the patient is in the compensatory stage of shock. Test-Taking Tip: Identifying content and what is being asked about that content is critical to your choosing the correct response. Be alert for words in the stem of the item that are the same or similar in nature to those in one or two of the options. Text Reference - p. 1639

A patient in shock is receiving 0.9 % NaCl (normal saline solution-NSS). Which nursing intervention is appropriate for this patient? 1 Monitor the patient's vital signs 2 Monitor for the signs of circulatory overload 3 Monitor for signs of hypernatremia in the patient 4 Monitor for allergic reactions and acute renal failure

2 Circulatory overload occurs due to fluid overload. Continuous infusion of 0.9% NaCl increases the fluid volume in the body and may cause circulatory overload. The patient's vital signs must be checked during transfusion of blood or blood products because they could cause an infection or an allergic reaction. Hypernatremia occurs when the patient is on 1.8%, 3%, and 5% NaCl infusions. Infusion of dextran-40 has a tendency to precipitate allergic reactions and acute renal failure. Test-Taking Tip: Do not worry if you select the same numbered answer repeatedly, because there usually is no pattern to the answers. Text Reference - p. 1642

When caring for a critically ill patient who is being mechanically ventilated, the nurse will astutely monitor for which clinical manifestation of multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? 1 Increased serum albumin 2 Decreased respiratory compliance 3 Increased gastrointestinal (GI) motility 4 Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio

2 Clinical manifestations of MODS include symptoms of respiratory distress, signs and symptoms of decreased renal perfusion, decreased serum albumin and prealbumin, decreased GI motility, acute neurologic changes, myocardial dysfunction, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and changes in glucose metabolism. Serum albumin is not increased, GI motility decreases in MODS, and the BUN/Creatinine ratio likely will increase. Text Reference - p. 1649

Which drug helps manage renal manifestations in a patient with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? 1 Sucralfate 2 Furosemide 3 Omeprazole 4 Acetaminophen

2 Furosemide is a loop diuretic that helps to manage renal manifestations in a patient with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). Sucrafate is administered for prophylaxis against stress ulcers, which are gastrointestinal manifestations of SIRS and MODS. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that has the same action. Acetaminophen is an antipyretic drug given as an acute intervention to manage fevers in patients who are in shock. Text Reference - p. 1651

Which type of shock is associated with hyperglycemia, presence of pulmonary infiltrates in chest x-ray and increased levels of blood urea nitrogen (BUN)? 1 Septic 2 Cardiogenic 3 Obstructive 4 Hypovolemic

2 Increased blood levels of glucose, nitrogen, cardiac markers and presence of pulmonary infiltrates are seen in cardiogenic shock. Increased blood levels of lactate, glucose, and positive blood cultures are signs of septic shock. Manifestations of obstructive shock are specific to the area or organ of obstruction. Electrolyte imbalances and decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit are seen in hypovolemic shock. Test-Taking Tip: Identify option components as correct or incorrect. This may help you identify a wrong answer. Text Reference - p. 1635

Which type of shock is associated with bradycardia? 1 Septic shock 2 Neurogenic shock 3 Hypovolemic shock 4 Anaphylactic shock

2 Neurogenic shock is associated with bradycardia. Myocardial dysfunction and changes in body temperature are signs of septic shock. Reduction in preload, capillary refill and stroke volume are clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock. Chest pain is seen in anaphylactic shock. Test-Taking Tip: Make certain that the answer you select is reasonable and obtainable under ordinary circumstances and that the action can be carried out in the given situation. Text Reference - p. 1635

Which type of shock can be treated by minimizing spinal cord trauma with stabilization? 1 Septic shock 2 Neurogenic shock 3 Anaphylactic shock 4 Hypovolemic shock

2 Neurogenic shock is caused by severe injury to the spinal cord and results in loss of sympathetic stimulation of blood vessels. Apart from administering vasoconstrictor agents, minimizing the spinal cord trauma with stabilization is a supporting therapy for neurogenic shock. Septic shock occurs in response to a systemic infection. Obtaining the cultures before starting antibiotics is appropriate care for septic shock. A life-threatening allergic reaction to a sensitizing substance causes anaphylactic shock. Avoiding exposure to allergens is supportive therapy for anaphylactic shock. Excessive loss of intravascular fluid causes hypovolemic shock. Besides restoring fluid volume, correcting the cause of fluid loss is supportive therapy. Test-Taking Tip: If the question asks for an immediate action or response, all of the answers may be correct, so base your selection on identified priorities for action. Text Reference - p. 1645

Which cardiovascular change is commonly found in patients with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)? 1 Decrease in heart rate 2 Decrease in capillary refill 3 Decrease in central venous pressure 4 Decrease in pulmonary artery wedge pressure

2 Patients with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) have decreased capillary refill. Other cardiovascular changes include increases rather than decreases in heart rate, central venous pressure, and pulmonary artery wedge pressure. Test-Taking Tip: Multiple-choice questions can be challenging, because students think that they will recognize the right answer when they see it or that the right answer will somehow stand out from the other choices. This is a dangerous misconception. The more carefully the question is constructed, the more each of the choices will seem like the correct response. Text Reference - p. 1649

Which system of the body is often the first to show signs of dysfunction in systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? 1 Neurologic system 2 Respiratory system 3 Cardiovascular system 4 Gastrointestinal system

2 Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) occur due to a systemic inflammatory response. Inflammatory mediators have a direct effect on the pulmonary vasculature. Thus, the respiratory system is often the first system to show signs of dysfunction. Signs of nervous system dysfunction, such as mental changes, can be early signs of SIRS and MODS. However, the nervous system is not the first system to show signs of SIRS and MODS. When the respiratory system is affected, ventilation-perfusion mismatch becomes worse. Tissue oxygen demands increase, leading to cardiovascular changes. Hence, cardiovascular changes occur after changes in the respiratory system. In the early stages of SIRS and MODS, there is shunting away of blood from the gastrointestinal tract, making it vulnerable to ischemic injury. However, such changes show signs of dysfunction later than does the respiratory system. Text Reference - p. 1649

A patient admitted to the hospital after a motor vehicle accident (MVA) is in hypovolemic shock. On examination, the nurse finds that the patient is becoming anxious, and the urine output is decreasing. What appropriate action should the nurse perform? 1 Prepare for administering blood products. 2 Begin crystalloid fluid replacement. 3 Start fluids only if deterioration occurs. 4 Wait for the patient to compensate naturally.

2 When the volume of blood loss is less than 30 percent, crystalloid fluid replacements are performed to reverse tissue dysfunction. Blood products are administered when the blood volume loss is more than 30 percent. The nurse should not wait for deterioration to occur to start the fluid replacement therapy. This is because the body can typically compensate naturally for a blood volume loss up to 15 percent. Test-Taking Tip: Be alert for grammatical inconsistencies. If the response is intended to complete the stem (an incomplete sentence) but makes no grammatical sense to you, it might be a distractor rather than the correct response. Question writers typically try to eliminate these inconsistencies. Text Reference - p. 1633

A nurse is examining a patient with anaphylactic shock due to an insect bite. What types of skin manifestations would the nurse expect to find? Select all that apply. 1 Pallor 2 Pruritus 3 Flushing 4 Urticaria 5 Cold, clammy skin

2, 3, 4 Insect bites may cause allergic reactions and anaphylactic shock. The skin manifestations may include pruritus, flushing, and urticaria caused by massive vasodilation, release of vasoactive mediators, and an increase in capillary permeability. Pallor and cold, clammy skin changes are usually seen in cardiogenic, hypovolemic, and obstructive shock caused by decreased circulatory volume and tissue perfusion. Text Reference - p. 1636

While planning the management of oxygen delivery in a patient with shock, what appropriate measures should the nurse undertake? Select all that apply. 1 Encourage the patient to move around to increase lung expansion. 2 Space activities that increase oxygen consumption. 3 Monitor continuously by using a central venous catheter. 4 Space activities that decrease oxygen consumption. 5 Administer supplemental oxygen as prescribed.

2, 3, 5 To optimize oxygen supply and ventilation in a patient suffering from shock, the activities that increase oxygen consumption should be evenly spaced. Mixed venous oxygen saturation should be monitored through a central venous catheter. The patient should not exert energy by excessive moving around because it increases oxygen demand. Text Reference - p. 1641

When managing a patient with shock, which appropriate actions should the nurse take as part of nutritional therapy? Select all that apply. 1 Plan enteral feeding to meet at least 50 percent of calorie requirements. 2 Start enteral nutrition within the first 24 hours. 3 Wait until the patient recovers to start with enteral nutrition. 4 Start a slow continuous drip of small amounts of enteral feedings. 5 Start parenteral nutrition if enteral feedings are contraindicated.

2, 4, 5 Enteral nutrition should ideally begin within the first 24 hours. It is important because it enhances the perfusion of the (gastrointestinal) GI tract and helps to maintain the integrity of the gastrointestinal mucosa. Enteral feeding should be started with a slow continuous drip of small amounts of enteral feedings. If enteral feedings are contraindicated, parenteral feedings can be started. Enteral feeding should be planned to meet at least 80 percent of the total calorie requirements, but if it is not feasible, parenteral feeding should be started. Nutritional therapy should start as early as possible. The nurse should not wait for the patient to recover before starting nutritional therapy. Text Reference - p. 1644

When examining a patient in the progressive stage of shock, which factors related to the gastrointestinal (GI) system should the nurse consider? Select all that apply. 1 Increased motility and peristalsis 2 Increased likelihood of GI ulcers 3 Increased ability to absorb nutrients 4 Increased risk of GI bleeding 5 Increased risk of bacterial migration from the GI tract to the bloodstream.

2, 4, 5 In the progressive stage of shock, the GI system gets affected by prolonged decreased tissue perfusion. As the blood supply to the GI tract is decreased, the normally protective mucosal barrier becomes ischemic. This ischemia predisposes the patient to ulcers and GI bleeding. It also increases the risk of bacterial migration from the GI tract to the blood. The decreased perfusion to the GI tract also results in a decreased ability to absorb nutrients, decreased motility, and slowed peristalsis. Text Reference - p. 1639

Which medication would the nurse administer to treat renal complications associated with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)? 1 Antacids 2 Sucralfate 3 Furosemide 4 Omeprazole

3 A SIRS-affected (systemic inflammatory response syndrome) patient is administered a loop diuretic such as furosemide to address renal complications related to hypoperfusion and a decreased glomerular filtration rate. Antacids, sucralfate, and omeprazole act as a stress ulcer prophylaxis for the gastrointestinal system. Text Reference - p. 1651

The nurse assesses a patient with multisystem organ dysfunction syndrome. What assessment finding is most indicative of deterioration? 1 Arterial PO2 of 95% 2 Pulse rate of 108 beats/minute 3 Total urine output of 120 mL over the past eight hours 4 Auscultation of fine bilateral crackles and a moist cough

3 A decrease in urine output to less than 30 mL/hr in an adult is an early indication of hypoperfusion to the kidneys, as well as other vital organs. This may or may not be accompanied by changes in vital signs. An arterial PO2 of 95%, a pulse rate of 108 beats/minute, and auscultation of crackles and a moist cough may also be indications of early deterioration but are not as specific as a low urinary output in identifying deterioration. Text Reference - p. 1649

A patient is brought to the emergency department (ED) after multiple bee stings. On assessment, the nurse finds that the patient has edema on the lips and tongue as well as chest pain, dizziness, wheezing, and stridor. What type of shock should the nurse document this as? 1 Septic shock 2 Neurogenic shock 3 Anaphylactic shock 4 Obstructive shock

3 Anaphylactic shock is an acute, life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction to a sensitizing substance that, in this case, is insect venom. The reaction quickly causes massive vasodilation, release of vasoactive mediators, and an increase in capillary permeability. As capillary permeability increases, fluid leaks from the vascular space into the interstitial space. The consequences of these pathophysiologic processes include edema on the lips and tongue, chest pain, wheezing, and stridor. Sepsis is a systemic inflammatory response to a documented or suspected infection. Neurogenic shock is a hemodynamic phenomenon that can occur within 30 minutes of a spinal cord injury at the fifth thoracic (T5) vertebra or above. Obstructive shock develops when a physical obstruction to blood flow occurs with decreased cardiac output. Text Reference - p. 1636

Why is there a loss of lean body mass in patients with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and multiorgan dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? 1 Hypoglycemia occurs. 2 Glucose is converted to glycogen. 3 Fatty acids are mobilized for fuel. 4 Glucose is converted to amino acids.

3 Both SIRS and MODS trigger a hypermetabolism response leading to mobilization of fatty acids for fuel. Such a catabolic state leads to loss of lean body mass. Because catecholamines and glucocorticoids are released, hyperglycemia occurs, not hypoglycemia. Hyperglycemia also occurs, because glycogen stores are converted into glucose. Once glycogen is depleted, amino acids are converted into glucose and there is a reduction in protein stores. Text Reference - p. 1649

The nurse recalls that cardiogenic shock is differentiated from other forms of shock because the patient with cardiogenic shock typically experiences: 1 Hypotension 2 Dysrhythmias 3 Volume excess 4 Volume depletion

3 In cardiogenic shock the heart fails as a pump. This usually results in fluid retention and poor perfusion of organs, including the kidneys, which adds to the fluid volume excess. As cardiogenic shock progresses, hypotension will develop, but it is not the cause of cardiogenic shock. Dysrhythmias may or may not be present with cardiogenic shock. Volume depletion is not generally seen with cardiogenic shock. It is, however, seen more with hypovolemic or distributive forms of shock. Text Reference - p. 1633

What causes dysrhythmias in patients with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? 1 Metabolic acidosis resulting in increase in lactate levels 2 Increased capillary permeability in the cardiovascular system 3 Hypokalemia due to activities of aldosterone and catecholamines 4 Aldosterone-mediated sodium and water reabsorption in kidneys

3 In systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS), there are hormonal and metabolic changes and fluid shifts, including the release of aldosterone and catecholamines. Aldosterone increases urinary potassium loss and catecholamines cause potassium to move into the cell, resulting in hypokalemia, which causes dysrhythmias. Dysrhythmias are not associated with an increased lactate level caused by metabolic acidosis. Increased capillary permeability causes tachycardia rather than dysrhythmias. The increase in sodium reabsorption raises the serum osmolality and stimulates the release of the antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Increased sodium is not related to the development of dysrhythmias. Text Reference - p. 1649

Which medical emergency is caused by the failure of two or more organ systems? 1 Crush syndrome 2 Toxic shock syndrome 3 Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) 4 Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)

3 Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome is caused by the failure of two or more organ systems in an acutely ill patient. A crushing injury to the skeletal muscle causes crush syndrome, which is characterized by shock and renal failure. Bacterial toxins cause toxic shock syndrome, which is characterized by high fever, hypotension and malaise. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) is a systemic inflammatory response caused by infection, ischemia, infarction and injury. Test-Taking Tip: Identifying content and what is being asked about that content is critical to your choosing the correct response. Be alert for words in the stem of the item that are the same or similar in nature to those in one or two of the options. Text Reference - p. 1649

The nurse is caring for a patient who developed cardiogenic shock. Which medical diagnosis does the nurse suspect? 1 Urosepsis 2 Hemorrhage 3 Myocardial infarction 4 Tension pneumothorax

3 Myocardial infarction may produce necrotic areas of cardiac tissue that lead to impaired contractility and decreased cardiac output. This may lead to a cardiogenic shock state. Hemorrhage may lead to a hypovolemic shock state, tension pneumothorax may lead to an obstructive shock state, and urosepsis may lead to a septic shock state. Text Reference - p. 1633

A patient experiences a myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse closely monitors the patient for complications and recognizes that hypotension is a warning sign of: 1 A secondary MI 2 Pulmonary edema 3 Cardiogenic shock 4 Fatal dysrhythmias

3 One of the initial cardinal signs of cardiogenic shock after a myocardial infarction (MI) is a slow, steady drop in blood pressure. Hypotension after an MI may be an indirect sign of a secondary MI or a fatal dysrhythmia. Depending on the origin of pulmonary edema, patients may experience hypotension or hypertension. Text Reference - p. 1633

A patient's localized infection has progressed to the point where septic shock now is suspected. What medication is an appropriate treatment modality for this patient? 1 Insulin infusion 2 Intravenous (IV) administration of epinephrine 3 Aggressive IV crystalloid fluid resuscitation 4 Administration of nitrates and β-adrenergic blockers

3 Patients in septic shock require large amounts of crystalloid fluid replacement. Epinephrine is indicated in anaphylactic shock, and insulin infusion is not normally necessary in the treatment of septic shock (but can be). Nitrates and β-adrenergic blockers are used most often in the treatment of patients in cardiogenic shock. Text Reference - p. 1636

A patient in neurogenic shock is receiving phenylephrine. Which nursing actions are appropriate when caring for this patient? 1 Monitoring for signs of dyspnea and pulmonary edema 2 Monitoring for signs of hypokalemia and hyperglycemia 3 Monitoring for signs of reflex bradycardia and restlessness 4 Monitoring for signs of hypothyroidism and Addison's disease

3 Phenylephrine is α-adrenergic agonist and may cause bradycardia and restlessness due to central nervous system stimulation. β-adrenergic agonists such as epinephrine cause dyspnea and pulmonary edema. Phenylephrine does not increase the elimination of potassium levels or blood glucose levels. Therefore, the patient does not have risk of hypokalemia and hyperglycemia. Phenylephrine does not impair thyroid and adrenal gland functioning. Therefore, the nurse will not monitor for the signs of hypothyroidism and Addison's disease. Test-Taking Tip: Identify option components as correct or incorrect. This may help you identify a wrong answer. Text Reference - p. 1643

A patient is admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of obstructive shock. What could be the possible causes of this type of shock? Select all that apply. 1 Hypersensitivity to antibiotics 2 Spinal cord injury 3 Cardiac tamponade 4 Tension pneumothorax 5 Superior vena cava syndrome

3, 4, 5 Obstructive shock develops when a physical obstruction to blood flow occurs resulting in decreased cardiac output. This can be caused by restricted diastolic filling of the right ventricle from compression caused by cardiac tamponade, tension pneumothorax, or superior vena cava syndrome. Hypersensitivity to antibiotics may cause anaphylactic shock. Spinal cord injury may lead to neurogenic shock. Text Reference - p. 1637

The nurse is administering oxygen therapy to a patient in septic shock. What are the possible factors that directly affect oxygen delivery in the patient and should be monitored? Select all that apply. 1 Urine output 2 White blood cells 3 Cardiac output 4 Available hemoglobin 5 Arterial oxygen saturation

3, 4, 5 Oxygen delivery depends on cardiac output, available hemoglobin, and arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2). The amount of blood that the heart pumps to the body may decide the amount of oxygen delivered to the tissues. Hemoglobin, the protein content in red blood cells, is responsible for carrying oxygen molecules. Low hemoglobin means a low oxygen supply to the tissues. Arterial oxygen saturation indicates the total oxygen carried by the blood in the arteries and implies the level of tissue oxygenation. The urine output and white blood cells are also important parameters to be monitored in a patient who suffers from a shock. However, these do not impact the oxygen delivery directly. Text Reference - p. 1641

Which laboratory finding in a patient with multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) suggests prerenal manifestations of renal dysfunction? 1 Urine Na+ is 22 mEq/L. 2 Urine specific gravity is 1.010. 3 Urine osmolality is decreased. 4 Urine specific gravity is increased.

4 An increase in urine specific gravity suggests prerenal manifestations in patients with MODS. This occurs due to renal hypoperfusion. A urine Na+ level above 20 mEq/L is a sign of intrarenal manifestations in MODS. It occurs due to acute tubular necrosis. Other intrarenal manifestations of MODS are urine specific gravity of around 1.010 and a decrease of the urine osmolality.

During change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a patient has been admitted with dehydration and hypotension after having vomiting and diarrhea for 4 days. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. New onset of confusion b. Heart rate 112 beats/minute c. Decreased bowel sounds d. Pale, cool, and dry extremities

ANS: A The changes in mental status are indicative that the patient is in the progressive stage of shock and that rapid intervention is needed to prevent further deterioration. The other information is consistent with compensatory shock

A patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) for shock of unknown etiology. The first action by the nurse should be to a. administer oxygen. b. obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). c. obtain the blood pressure. d. check the level of consciousness.

ANS: A The initial actions of the nurse are focused on the ABCs—airway, breathing, and circulation—and administration of oxygen should be done first. The other actions should be accomplished as rapidly as possible after oxygen administration.

Which preventive actions by the nurse will help limit the development of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) in patients admitted to the hospital (select all that apply)? a. Use aseptic technique when caring for invasive lines or devices. b. Ambulate postoperative patients as soon as possible after surgery. c. Remove indwelling urinary catheters as soon as possible after surgery. d. Advocate for parenteral nutrition for patients who cannot take oral feedings. e. Administer prescribed antibiotics within 1 hour for patients with possible sepsis.

ANS: A, B, C, E Because sepsis is the most frequent etiology for SIRS, measures to avoid infection such as removing indwelling urinary catheters as soon as possible, use of aseptic technique, and early ambulation should be included in the plan of care. Adequate nutrition is important in preventing SIRS. Enteral, rather than parenteral, nutrition is preferred when patients are unable to take oral feedings because enteral nutrition helps maintain the integrity of the intestine, thus decreasing infection risk. Antibiotics should be administered within 1 hour after being prescribed to decrease the risk of sepsis progressing to SIRS.

A patient with suspected neurogenic shock after a diving accident has arrived in the emergency department. A cervical collar is in place. Which actions should the nurse take (select all that apply)? a. Prepare to administer atropine IV. b. Obtain baseline body temperature. c. Infuse large volumes of lactated Ringer's solution. d. Provide high-flow oxygen (100%) by non-rebreather mask. e. Prepare for emergent intubation and mechanical ventilation.

ANS: A, B, D, E All of the actions are appropriate except to give large volumes of lactated Ringer's solution. The patient with neurogenic shock usually has a normal blood volume, and it is important not to volume overload the patient. In addition, lactated Ringer's solution is used cautiously in all shock situations because the failing liver cannot convert lactate to bicarbonate.

After change-of-shift report in the progressive care unit, who should the nurse care for first? a. Patient who had an inferior myocardial infarction 2 days ago and has crackles in the lung bases b. Patient with suspected urosepsis who has new orders for urine and blood cultures and antibiotics c. Patient who had a T5 spinal cord injury 1 week ago and currently has a heart rate of 54 beats/minute d. Patient admitted with anaphylaxis 3 hours ago who now has clear lung sounds and a blood pressure of 108/58 mm Hg

ANS: B Antibiotics should be administered within the first hour for patients who have sepsis or suspected sepsis in order to prevent progression to systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and septic shock. The data on the other patients indicate that they are more stable. Crackles heard only at the lung bases do not require immediate intervention in a patient who has had a myocardial infarction. Mild bradycardia does not usually require atropine in patients who have a spinal cord injury. The findings for the patient admitted with anaphylaxis indicate resolution of bronchospasm and hypotension.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has septic shock. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Blood pressure (BP) 92/56 mm Hg b. Skin cool and clammy c. Oxygen saturation 92% d. Heart rate 118 beats/minute

ANS: B Because patients in the early stage of septic shock have warm and dry skin, the patient's cool and clammy skin indicates that shock is progressing. The other information will also be reported, but does not indicate deterioration of the patient's status.

The following interventions are ordered by the health care provider for a patient who has respiratory distress and syncope after eating strawberries. Which will the nurse complete first? a. Start a normal saline infusion. b. Give epinephrine (Adrenalin). c. Start continuous ECG monitoring. d. Give diphenhydramine (Benadryl).

Which finding about a patient who is receiving vasopressin (Pitressin) to treat septic shock is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient's urine output is 18 mL/hr. b. The patient's heart rate is 110 beats/minute. c. The patient is complaining of chest pain. d. The patient's peripheral pulses are weak.

ANS: C Because vasopressin is a potent vasoconstrictor, it may decrease coronary artery perfusion. The other information is consistent with the patient's diagnosis and should be reported to the health care provider but does not indicate a need for a change in therapy.

The patient with neurogenic shock is receiving a phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) infusion through a right forearm IV. Which assessment finding obtained by the nurse indicates a need for immediate action? a. The patient's heart rate is 58 beats/minute. b. The patient's extremities are warm and dry. c. The patient's IV infusion site is cool and pale. d. The patient's urine output is 28 mL over the last hour.

ANS: C The coldness and pallor at the infusion site suggest extravasation of the phenylephrine. The nurse should discontinue the IV and, if possible, infuse the medication into a central line. An apical pulse of 58 is typical for neurogenic shock but does not indicate an immediate need for nursing intervention. A 28-mL urinary output over 1 hour would require the nurse to monitor the output over the next hour, but an immediate change in therapy is not indicated. Warm, dry skin is consistent with early neurogenic shock, but it does not indicate a need for a change in therapy or immediate action.

A patient who has been involved in a motor vehicle crash arrives in the emergency department (ED) with cool, clammy skin; tachycardia; and hypotension. Which intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse implement first? a. Insert two large-bore IV catheters. b. Initiate continuous electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring. c. Provide oxygen at 100% per non-rebreather mask. d. Draw blood to type and crossmatch for transfusions.

ANS: C The first priority in the initial management of shock is maintenance of the airway and ventilation. ECG monitoring, insertion of IV catheters, and obtaining blood for transfusions should also be rapidly accomplished but only after actions to maximize oxygen delivery have been implemented.

When the nurse educator is evaluating the skills of a new registered nurse (RN) caring for patients experiencing shock, which action by the new RN indicates a need for more education? a. Placing the pulse oximeter on the ear for a patient with septic shock b. Keeping the head of the bed flat for a patient with hypovolemic shock c. Increasing the nitroprusside (Nipride) infusion rate for a patient with a high SVR d. Maintaining the room temperature at 66° to 68° F for a patient with neurogenic shock

ANS: D Patients with neurogenic shock may have poikilothermia. The room temperature should be kept warm to avoid hypothermia. The other actions by the new RN are appropriate.

What is the correct order of the pathophysiologic steps involved in systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)? 1. Activation of coagulation cascade 2. Release of mediators 3. Increase in vascular permeability 4. Leakage of mediators and proteins into interstitial space 5. Digestion of foreign debris by white blood cells

Correct 1. Release of mediators Correct 2. Increase in vascular permeability Correct 3. Leakage of mediators and proteins into interstitial space Correct 4. Digestion of foreign debris by white blood cells Correct 5. Activation of coagulation cascade Release of mediators occurs in a patient with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) when the inflammatory response is activated. This release increases the vascular permeability. As a result, mediators and proteins leak out of the blood vessels into the interstitial space. White blood cells digest the foreign debris and the coagulation cascade is activated. Text Reference - p. 1649

Lewis- Chapter 67

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