licensure practice questions

A PT completes a balance assessment on a pt recently admitted to a SNF. The PT concludes the pt is able to maintain their balance w/o support in standing, however, can't maintain balance during weight shifting or w/ any form of external perturbation. What would be the MOST appropriate balance grade? a. normal b. good c. fair d. poor

C. fair

A PT working in a high school has an athlete come to the treatment room complaining of headache, fever, and painful neck. The PT puts the patient in supine and flexes the hip to 90 degrees. When the PT attempts to ext knee, pt complains of significant pain. Which finding is MOST consistent w/ scenario? a. + Kernig's sign b. - Kernig's sign c. + Brudzinski's sign d. - Brudzinski's sign

a. + Kernig's sign The test described is Kernig's and a + test is due to inflammation of the meninges, used when meningitis is suspected

A PT determines the pulse pressure for a pt with CHF. Which of the following BP measurements would represent the HIGHEST pulse pressure? a. 130/60 b. 145/100 c. 120/75 d. 140/115

a. 130/60 Pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures and is a measure of arterial stiffness. Normal is 30 to 50

The medical record indicated a pt has a 15 degree ext lag. Which goni reading would be MOST consistent with this entry? a. 15-100 AROM, 0-100 PROM b. 15-100 PROM, 0-100 AROM c. 15-120 PROM, 15-135 AROM d. 15-135 AROM, 15-135 PROM

a. 15-100 AROM, 0-100 PROM PROM needs to be 15 degrees greater than AROM to show ext lag

An 8 month old with suspected motor delay has a z-score of -1 on a norm-referenced test of gross motor ability with a normal distribution. Based on the data, what % of the sample did he child score better than? a. 16% b. 68% c. 84% d. 95%

a. 16% This z-score is 1 standard deviation below the mean

A PT attempts to determine the appropriate back height of a w/c for a pt that is able to propel the w/c independently but has poor trunk control. The PT records the distance from the seat of the chair to the floor of the axilla as 20 inches. What is the MOST appropriate back height for the pt given the poor trunk control? a. 17 inches b. 16 inches c. 15 inches d. 14 inches

a. 17 inches A standard w/c has a back height from 16-16.5 inches. The extra height provides the extra support necessary, without compromising the ability to propel the chair.

A pt 2 wks s/p ACLR is referred to PT for neuromuscular re-edu using e-stim. The PT has the pt perform quad sets using the machine at home. What is the MOST beneficial frequency to promote muscular re-ed? a. 2x/day b. 3x/wk c. 1x/wk d. 1x every 2 wks

a. 2x/day This is most appropriate for the desired effect

A pt with suspected pulmonary embolism is referred for additional diagnostic testing. Which of the following pts would be at the GREATEST risk for developing this medical condition? a. 35 y/o F on bed rest, obese, on oral contraceptives b. 45 y/o M, 2 wks post tibial fx requiring internal fixation c. 70 y/o F, 3 wks post closed reduction of colles' fx d. 50 y/o M, 3 wks post malleolar fx in walking boot

a. 35 y/o F on bed rest, obese, on oral contraceptives Risk factors include obesity, prolonged immobilization, and taking oral contraceptives

A PT examines a pt who reports lateral elbow pain that the PT suspects is due to epicondylitis. Which of the following pt profiles would be MOST expected based on the dx? a. 42 y/o w/ unilateral symptoms b. 50 y/o w/ B symptoms c. 64 y/o w/ U symptoms d. 73 y/o w/ B symptoms

a. 42 y/o w/ U symptoms This pt description is most appropriate

A PT presents an inservice on the risk factors associated with developing osteoporosis. Which of the following pts would be the MOST at risk for developing osteoporosis? a. 67 y/o F with malabsorption syndrome b. 70 y/o F with metabolic alkalosis c. 68 y/o M with fibromyalgia d. 72 y/o M with cauda equina

a. 67 y/o F with malabsorption syndrome The age and gender would increase their risk, along with the syndrome which would reduce the absorption of Ca and vitamin D

A pt with a T2 complete SCI sustained ina climbing accident receives PT. According the the ASIA impairment scale, which degree of impairment would be MOST consistent with the pt's dx? a. A b. B c. B d. D

a. A A= complete, B= incomplete with sensation below injury, C= incomplete with motor preserved below injury with more than half at 3/5 mm grade, D= incomplete with motor preserved below injury with most mm greater than 3/5 mm grade

A PT performs an exam on a pt dx w/ piriformis syndrome. The pt reports experiencing pain in the low back and buttock region for the last 3 wks. Which motions should the PT expect to be weak and painful during muscle testing based on a pt's dx? a. ABD and ER of the hip b. ADD and ER of the hip c. flex and IR of the hip d. ext and IR of the hip

a. ABD and ER of the hip This is true due to the action of the piriformis muscle

A pt w/ a complete SCI has the use of wrist ext on his R arm and elbow ext on his L arm. Sensory info is intact the the C5 dermatome on both sides. What would be the MOST appropriate neurological level of injury assigned to this pt's SCI? a. C5 b. C6 c. C7 d. C8

a. C5 This is due to the sensation at the C5 level

A PT evaluates a pt using the modified ashworth scale and documents a rating of 3. Which of the following conditions would MOST likely result in a pt exhibiting a rating of 3 on this scale? a. CP b. down syndrome c. duchenne muscular dystrophy d. guillain-bare

a. CP Spasticity is commonly associated with CP

A PT treats a 16 y/p soccer player in an outpatient clinic. The pt presents with diffuse lateral ankle pain that increase with running and climbing stairs. Ober's test is positive. Which dx is MOST likely based on this presentation? a. IT band syndrome b. prepatellar bursitis c. patellar tendonitis d. PCL tear

a. IT band syndrome This is common in long distance runners or activities that require repetitive knee flex and ext

A PT examines a 16 y/o soccer player in an outpatient clinic. The pt presents with reports of diffuse lateral knee pain that increases with squatting and climbing stairs. Ober's test is positive. Which dx is MOST likely based on the presentation? a. IT band syndrome b. prepatellar bursitis c. lateral meniscus tear d. LCL tear

a. IT band syndrome ober's test evaluates the flexibility of the IT band and TFL this syndrome is repetitive stress injury observed in long distance runners or soccer players

A PT treats a pt who has multiple myeloma. Which of the following systems should the PT expect to be targeted once symptoms begin? a. MSK b. cardiovascular c. integumentary d. neuro

a. MSK meyl- means muscle

A pt is evaulated in PT 1 wk after lateral ankle reconstruction. Which of the following WB limitations would be MOST appropriate for this pt? a. NWB bilateral axillary crutches b. PWB with single axillary crutch c. WBAT with bilateral axillary crutches d. WBAT with single axillary crutch

a. NWB bilateral axillary crutches Pt will most likely be in hard cast and NWB for a short time, bilateral crutches would maintain this WB status

A PT inspects a burn obtained as a result of iontophoresis. The PT described the burn as an alkaline reaction. Which of the following factors would MOST likely cause this reaction? a. Na hydroxide forming under cathode b. HCl acid forming under anode c. size of cathode being lager than anode d. increase amount of space between electrodes

a. Na hydroxide forming under cathode ways to decrease likelihood of burn are increase size of cathode relative to anode, decreasing current density, increasing space between electrodes

A PT treats a pt with a tibial plateau fx that is PWB. During the session, the PT asks the PTA to instruct the pt in ascending and descending stairs using B canes. Assuming the pt falls during the session, who would be MOST liable? a. PT b. PTA c. pt d. referring physician

a. PT B canes don't allow for partial WB, delegation of instruction was inappropriate

A pt demonstrates diminished problem solving abilities and difficulty finding words at times. Also, they can only speak in a low voice unless they are trying to yell and appear to have a flattened affect. What condition is MOST consistent with the presentation? a. Parkinson's b. depression c. MS d. dementia

a. Parkinson's These are all characteristics of this disease

A pt with cardiac arrhythmias has been prescribed beta-blockers. What is the MOST effective way to monitor the pt's activity tolerance? a. RPE b. VAS c. palpation of radial artery d. assessment of telemetry strip

a. RPE It is the preferred method for exercise prescription for a pt taking beta-blockers

A pt that required mechanical ventilator for 2 wks following a near drowning incident is cleared to gradually decrease use of the device. Which measured cardiopulmonary value would indicate a sign of distress during the weaning process? a. RR 38 breaths per min b. tidal volume 350 mL c. pulse oximetry at 91% d. HR change 10 beats per minute over baseline

a. RR 38 breaths per minute Cardinal distress sign of the weaning process

A pt who recently underwent diagnostic testing was prescribed Tegretol (carbamazepine) by their physician. Which diagnostic tool would MOST likely have resulted in prescribing of this medication? a. electroencephalography b. lumbar puncture c. cerebral angiography d. echocardiography

a. a. electroencephalography Tegretol is an antiepileptic to treat seizure, and EEG records electrical activity of the brain and could recognize seizure activity

A pt who sustained a TBI in a skiing accident is admitted to an ARU. The glasgow coma scale is administered as part of the admission process. Which of the following would be assigned the highest score in the best motor response category? a. abnormal flexion in response to painful stimulus b. extension in response to a painful stimulus c. eye opening in response to painful stimulus d. inappropriate words expressed in response to a painful stimulus

a. abnormal flexion in response to painful stimulus Decorticate response would be scored as 3

A pt w/ myositis ossificans in their quads is referred to PT for iontophoresis treatments. The Pt wants to reduce the calcification that has formed in the muscle. Which medication would be MOST useful? a. acetic acid b. lidocaine c. magnesium sulfate d. zinc oxide

a. acetic acid This is a negative polarity and helps with calcific deposits

A pt w/ B transfemoral amputations presents to PT for w/c mobility training on an inclined surface. What modification is the MOST appropriate to reduce the risk of the w/c becoming unstable during ramp ascending? a. addition of post anti-tippers to w/c b. addition of ant anti-tippers to w/c c. recline the w/c 10 degrees post d. tilt w/c posteriorly by changing front caster alignment

a. addition of post anti-tippers to w/c

A 68 y/o pt is seen by a PT after being dx with primary OA. The associated articular changes are MOST likely attributed to which factor? a. age related changes b. trauma from previous injury c. congenital bony abnormalities d. underlying inflammatory processes

a. age related changes Primary OA is when there is no clinical or medical hx present to cause the condition

A recent entry in a medical record indicates a pt exhibits dysdiadochokinesia. Based on the pt's deficit, which activity would be the MOST difficult for the pt? a. alternate supination/pronation of the forearm b. perform a standing squat c. catch a ball d. walk along a straight line

a. alternate supination/pronation of the forearm Dysdiadochokinesia is common with cerebellar lesion

A pt presents with difficulty comprehending language, impaired problem solving, and agitation. The family reports the pt has become progressively more forgetful and agitated over the past several years. There is no evidence of infection or change in medication. Which of the following conditions is MOST consistent with this? a. alzheimer's b. delirium c. mild cognitive impairment d. normal age related cognitive impairment

a. alzheimer's Symptoms include loss of orientation, word finding difficulties, depression, poor judgement, agitation, rigidity, bradykinesia, shuffling gait, and impaired ability to perform self care tasks

A PT works on gait training w/ an athlete who has a severe contusion on his R quad. Which gait deviation would MOST likely be observed? a. antalgic gait w/ decreased stride length on L b. antalgic gait w/ decreased stride length on R c. vaulting gait w/ decreased stride length on L d. vaulting gait w/ decreased stride length on R

a. antalgic gait w/ decreased stride length on L A contusion usually causes limping and decrease stance time on that side which would decrease contralateral stride length

A pt sustains a deep laceration on the ant surface of the forearm. The PT attempts to stop the bleeding by applying pressure over the wound but is unsuccessful. What is the MOST appropriate PT action? a. apply pressure to brachial artery b. apply pressure to femoral artery c. apply pressure to radial artery d. apply pressure to ulnar artery

a. apply pressure to brachial artery this is proximal so the appropriate place to stop bleeding

A PT treats a pt with chronic venous insufficiency in their R LE. The pt has an ABI of 0.88 in the affected extremity. Which of the following decisions regarding compression is the PT MOST likely to make? a. apply short stretch bandages during the day b. apply short stretch bandages during the night c. apply long stretch bandages during the day d. avoid compression therapy at this time as it's contraindicated

a. apply short stretch bandages during the day This has a high working pressure and assists the calf muscle to move blood toward the heart

A PT treats a pt following R TKA in their home. The pt's bedroom is on the seconds floor and the staircase has a handrail. Which functional task would likely be the FIRST to occur during the rehab process? a. ascend with handrail and reciprocal pattern b. ascend w/o handrail using reciprocal pattern c. descend with handrail and reciprocal pattern d. descend w/o handrail and reciprocal pattern

a. ascend with handrail and reciprocal pattern ascending requires less quad strength than descending, handrail should always be used

A PT works on a paced breathing w/ a pt who has a restrictive lung disease. Which of the following conditions is LEAST likely to be contributing to the pt's dysfunction? a. asthma b. pulmonary edema c. C6 SCI d. ankylosing spondylitis

a. asthma This is an obstructive disease, the other options are restrictive diseases

A PT identifies that an infant is unable to roll from prone to supine. Which of the following reflexes would MOST interfere with the infant's ability to roll? a. asymmetrical tonic neck reflex b. moro reflex c. positive support reflex d. symmetrical tonic neck reflex

a. asymmetrical tonic neck reflex Turn head to one side, UE of the face side will extend, the UE of the skull side will flex, this affects rolling

A PT examines a pt dx w/ cerebellar degeneration. Which of the following findings should the PT LEAST expect to be associated with this condition? a. athetosis b. dysmetria c. nystagmus d. dysdiadochokinesia

a. athetosis This is extraneous involuntary movements, slow movement, rotary movement. This would occur due to damage of the basal ganglia. The others are common with cerebellar damage.

A PT prepares to apply a sterile dressing to a wound after debridement. The PT begins the process by drying the wound using a towel. The PT applies medication to the wound using a gauze pad and then applies a series of dressings that are secured using a bandage. The application of which step would NOT warrant the use of sterile technique? a. bandage b. dressing c. medication d. towel

a. bandage Since the bandage does not come in direct contact with the area surrounding the wound, sterile technique is not required.

A pt dx with epilepsy has a history of generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Which class of pharmacological agents would MOST likely be prescribed to treat this type of seizure? a. barbiturates b. anticholinergics c. cholinergic stimulants d. beta adrenergic agonists

a. barbiturates These function to decrease neuronal activity in the brain by increasing the inhibitory effects of GABA

A PT reads in the medical record that a pt sustained a grade 1 cystocele. Which organ is MOST associated with this condition? a. bladder b. uterus c. rectum d. small bowel

a. bladder cyst- is prefix associated with bladder

The treatment plan for a pt who has hemiplegia is based on the theory of reinforcing normal movement through key points of control and avoiding all reflex movement patterns and associated reactions. This theory MOST closely resembles which of the following treatment approaches? a. bobath b. kabat c. rood d. brunnstrom

a. bobath Often called NDT, this emphasizes normal movements

A pt 2 days following c-section delivery complains of incisional pain with coughing and sneezing. Which is the MOST appropriate initial PT intervention? a. brace the incision with a pillow when coughing or sneezing b. contract the pelvic floor c. perform friction massage around the incision d. initiate postural awareness activities

a. brace the incision with a pillow when coughing or sneezing This helps healing tissues by limiting the abdominal pressure with these activities. This will provide relief and improve pt confidence

A pt sustains a deep laceration on the ant surface of the forearm. The PT attempts to stop the bleeding by applying direct pressure over the wound, but is unsuccessful. The MOST appropriate action is for the PT to attempt to apply compression over the pressure point of which of the following arteries? a. brachial b. femoral c. radial d. ulnar

a. brachial Since the brachial artery is proximal to the forearm, this may control bleeding.

A PT works with a pt with an obstructive lung disease characterized by permanent widening and distortion of medium sized airways. The pt presents with cough, lots of purulent sputum, hemoptysis, and recurrent pulmonary infx. These S/S are MOST characteristic of which condition? a. bronchiectasis b. idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis c. pulmonary edema d. emphysema

a. bronchiectasis This disease is caused by destruction of muscular and elastic components of the bronchial walls.

A PT reviews the medical record of a pt who sustained an SCI. A note recently entered by the physician indicates that the pt contracted a respiratory infection. Which type of SCI would be the MOST susceptible to this condition? a. complete C4 tetra b. cauda equina c. brown-sequard d. post cord syndrome

a. complete C4 tetra They will have reduced ventilatory capacity due to muscle paralysis. They will have limited ability to clear secretions, impaired chest mobility, and alveolar hypoventilation

A PT reviews the medical record of a pt who sustained a SCI. A note recently entered be the physician indicated that the pt contracted a respiratory infection. Which type of SCI would be the MOST susceptive to this condition? a. complete C4 tetraplegia b. cauda equina c. brown-sequard d. posterior cord

a. complete C4 tetraplegia This pt would have reduced ventilatory capacity due to muscle paralysis, this would make clearing secretions difficult, impair chest mobility, and alveolar hypoventilation

A PT prepares to treat a pt using ice massage. Which finding would be considered contraindication for the proposed intervention? a. compromised circulant b. acute trauma c. edema d. spasticity

a. compromised circulant This is a problem due to the inability to respond to sensory changes

A PT examines a pt with a limited SLR of 40 degrees due to inadequate HS length. Which proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation technique would be the MOST appropriate to increase the pt's HS length? a. contract-relax b. rhythmic initiation c. rhythmic stabilization d. rhythmic rotation

a. contract-relax This technique is used to improve ROM

A PT reviews the medical record of a pt rehabing from a stroke. The pt exhibits paralysis and numbness on the side of the body contralateral to the vascular accident. Which descending pathway is MOST likely damaged based on the pt's presentation? a. corticospinal tract b. vestibulospinal tract c. tectospinal tract d. rubrospinal tract

a. corticospinal tract This tract deals with fine motor control of the distal limbs

A pt w/ hip joint pain is referred to PT for WB strengthening exercises. The physician's referral notes that recent bone density testing revealed osteopenia. Which of the following comorbidities would MOST likely be a part of their medical hx? a. cushing's syndrome b. guillain-barre c. spinal stenosis d. complex regional pain syndrome

a. cushing's syndrome This syndrome is due to high levels of cortisol which changes bone reformation

A PT completes a respiratory assessment on a pt in an acute care hospital. Ther exam reveals a decrease in the intensity of lung sounds during auscultation. Which of the following would MOST likely result in this finding? a. decrease in lung tissue density due to emphysema b. increase in lung tissue density due to emphysema c. decrease in lung tissue density due to pneumonia d. increase in lung tissue density due to pneumonia

a. decrease in lung tissue density due to emphysema Increase in tissue density increases sound transmission, decrease in tissue density decreases sound transmission

The medical record indicates that a pt being treated for a low back strain is taking Lasix for heart failure mgmt. During ambulation, the pt complains of lightheadedness, fatigue, and weakness. The PT measures the pt's vital signs and identifies an irregular pulse. What is the MOST likely explanation? a. dehydration b. angina c. hypernatremia d. renal failure

a. dehydration Lasix is a diuretic to reduce preload on the heart, making dehydration a common side effect which causes symptoms as described

A PT works with a 47 y/o male dx with MS. After about 20 min of a 30 min PT session focusing on mobility and ADL's, the pt reports feeling extremely fatigued. The PT takes vital signs and they are in normal limits. What is the MOST appropriate PT action? a. discontinue treatment plan b. modify intensity of session c. complete formal reassessment of pt d. contact referring MD to discuss the pt's condition

a. discontinue treatment plan overexertion should be avoided to not exacerbate symptoms

A PT works with a pt with C7 tetraplegia on transferring from a manual w/c to a mat table with a sliding board. According to the head-hips relationship, which direction should the pt move their head to initiate the transfer? a. down and away from the mat b. up and towards the mat c. down and towards the mat d. up and away from the mat

a. down and away from the mat

A pt dx w/ patellofemoral syndrome reports significant pain when descending stairs. Which scenario is MOST likely responsible for the pt's reported pain? a. eccentric activity of the quads b. concentric activity of the quads c. eccentric activity of the hamstrings d. concentric activity of the hamstrings

a. eccentric activity of the quads This can elevate pressure of the patellofemoral joint increasing pain

A pt being treated for shoulder impingement complains of muscle soreness in the triceps muscles for 2 days after a PT session. Which of the following exercises would MOST likely have resulted in the complaint? a. eccentric bench press with dumbbells b. concentric bench press with dumbbells c. concentric pectoral fly with resistance bands d. eccentric pectoral fly with resistance bands

a. eccentric bench press with dumbbells This part of the exercises eccentrically works the triceps

A PT observes that a pt w/ chronic venous insufficiency is wearing stockings with 20 mm Hg of pressure despite being prescribed stockings with 40 mm Hg or pressure. Which clinical finding would be MOST anticipated? a. edema b. loss of sensation in the feet c. angina pectoris d. hyporeflexia

a. edema

A pt dx with peripheral vascular disease begins a supervised treadmill exercise program intended to reduce claudication symptoms. After 2 minutes, the pt reports the onset of claudication symptoms rated as 3/10. What is the PT's MOST appropriate response? a. encourage the pt to continue until symptoms increase b. reduce the speed and grade of treadmill until symptoms resolve c. allow the pt to rest, resuming once symptoms subside d. discontinue treadmill and use alternative mode of exercise

a. encourage pt to continue until symptoms increase Symptoms can increase to a moderate severity until a rest break is given

A pt underwent lateral ankle reconstruction 3 wks ago secondary to chronic ankle instability. The surgeon uses the peroneus brevis as a graft to replace the torn ligament. Which of the following would be LEAST appropriate based on the pt's post-op timeframe? a. end range stretching into INV and EV b. calf stretching w/ belt c. toe curls on a towel d. active ankle PF

a. end range stretching into INV and EV This would place too much stress on the repaired tissues

A PT treats a pt dx with lateral epicondylitis. The pt exhibits pain which limits resisted testing and tenderness with soft tissue palpation that is consistent with the dx. Which muscle is MOST likely to exhibit the findings? a. extensor carpi radialis brevis b. flexor carpi radialis c. flexor carpi ulnaris d. brachioradialis

a. extensor carpi radialis brevis This is the only muscle that muscle that originates from the lateral epicondyle, it inserts base of 3rd metacarpal, most commonly affected muscle

A PT examines a child with spastic quadriplegia CP in the school setting. Based on this dx, which muscle is MOST likely to be shortened? a. flexor digitorum profundus b. triceps c. glute min d. tibialis ant

a. flexor digitorum profundus With this dx, the wrist and finger flexors show increased spasticity

A PT notes the tendency of a pt to become dizzy and lightheaded with any position change after starting a new medication. Which of the following would MOST likely produce the described effect? a. furosemide (Lasix) b. clopidogrel (Plavix c. warfarin (Coumadin) d. simvastatin (Zocor)

a. furosemide (Lasix) This is a diuretic which would decrease the blood volume leading to orthostatic hypotension

A PT works with a pt in the post-partum unit of acute care hospital. The pt has a pubic symphysis separation. Which of the following interventions would be MOST appropriate prior to D/C? a. gait training with AD b. abdominal strengthening exercises c. lumbar stabilization exercises d. progressive resistance exercises

a. gait training with AD People with this will have pain with gait and WB activities. A belt is also used to provide external support usually

A pt complains of pain surrounding a small incision in her abdomen. The incision was created following insertion of a feeding device earlier in the day. What was the MOST likely device used? a. gastric tube b. hickman catheter c. jejunostomy tube d. nasogastric tube

a. gastric tube This is inserted into the abdomen and can be used for long term feeding if someone has difficulty swallowing or at risk of aspiration

A PT assesses the posture of a pt from a lateral view using a plumb line. Which structural condition would be the MOST likely to cause to plumb line to fall further ant to the knee joint compared to normal postural alignment? a. genu recurvatum b. genu valgum c. genu varum d. patella baja

a. genu recurvatum This is knee hyperextension, this would move the knees more posterior and cause the plumb line to fall more anterior, normally plumb line falls slightly anterior to knee joint

A PT employed in an acute care hospital attempts to identify the current status of a pt following TBI. Which objective info in the chart would suggest the MOST severe injury? a. glasgow coma scale, 4 b. GCS, 14 c. levels of cognitive functioning scale, level IV d. LCFS, level VIII

a. glasgow coma scale, 4 This scale tests eye opening, verbal and motor responses of a pt initially after injury. A score of 8 or less means severe injury. The Rancho Los Amigos LCFS is used to assess cognitive function as they emerge from a coma

A PT employed in an acute care hospital attempts to identify the current stauts of a pt following TBI. Which objective information would suggest the MOST severe brain injury? a. glasgow coma scale, score 4 b. GCS, score 14 c. levels of cognitive functioning, level IV d. LCF, level VIII

a. glasgow coma scale, score 4 <8 = severe brain injury on this scale 13-15 = mild brain injury on this scale

A PT treats a pt with limited shoulder ROM. The PT thinks the ROM limitation is due to pain and not a tissue restriction. Which graded oscillation techniques would be the MOST appropriate for this pt? a. grade I, II b. grade II, III c. grade III, IV d. grade IV, V

a. grade I, II These are used to treat pain by stimulating mechanoreceptors

A PT educates a pt status post transfemoral amputation on the importance of frequent skin checks. Which is the MOST appropriate resource for the pt to utilize when inspecting the post aspect of the residual limb? a. hand mirror b. video camera c. caregiver d. prosthetist

a. hand mirror

A PT prepares a pt status post CVA with global aphasia for D/C from rehab hospital. The pt will be returning home with her husband and daughter. What is the MOST appropriate form of edu to facilitate a safe D/C? a. hands on training with pt and family b. video pt performing transfers and ADLs c. written instructions on ADLs and functional tasks d. meet with family to discuss pt status and abilities

a. hands on training with pt and family This will help assess competence of the family

A PT analyzes the gait of a child w/ spastic diplegia CP in the school setting. Based on this dx, which muscle group is MOST likely to be shortened? a. hip ADD b. knee ext c. hip ABD d. ankle DF

a. hip ADD The combo of hip flex, ADD and IR produces a scissoring pattern. This pattern is primarily due to spasticity.

After observing a pt rehabing from a LE injury on a stationary bike, a PT elects to rasie the seat height. Which LE motion would this modification MOST promote? a. hip ext, knee ext b. hip flex, knee ext c. hip ext, knee flex d. hip flex, knee flex

a. hip ext, knee ext

A PT evaluates a peds pt using the Modified Ashworth Scale. Which condition would LEAST benefit from the use of this tool? a. hypotonia b. hyperreflexia c. spasticity d. rigidity

a. hypotonia Modified Ashworth assess increased muscle tone

A pt is gait training with a patella tendon-bearing transtibial prosthesis. Upon inspection of the residual limb, the PT notes slight redness over the proximal patella tendon and inf border of the patella and distal ant residual limb. What is the MOST appropriate PT action? a. increase sock ply b. decrease sock ply c. continue gait training with frequent reassessment d. discontinue gait training until prosthetic modifications are made

a. increase sock ply These signs are associated with residual limb sitting too low in the socket, increasing the ply will help with positioning

A PT attempts to slow the progression of scoliosis and maintain respiratory function in a child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy by having the pt stand and ambulate with the spine in a slightly extended position. Which of the following results from maintaining the spine in slight extension? a. increased WB through the facet joints b. increased WB through the SI joint c. increased WB through the anterior vertebral body d. increased WB through the transverse process

a. increased WB through the facet joints This would also minimize the propensity of truncal rotation and lateral flexion

A PT asks a pt several questions prior to administering cervical mechanical traction. During the questioning, the pt indicates they are wearing dentures and that the dentures are securely in place. What is the MOST appropriate PT action? a. initiate traction using normal treatment parameters with the dentures in place b. initiate traction using normal treatment parameters with the dentures removed c. initiate traction using 50% normal force with dentures in place d. avoid using traction since the intervention is contraindicated for this pt

a. initiate traction using normal treatment parameters with the dentures in place If the dentures are removed, the alignment of the TMJ may be altered

A 7 month old infant is able to initiate rolling from supine to prone when playing on a level surface. Which scenario would MOST likely be associated with this developmental milestone? a. integration of the tonic labyrinthine reflex b. persistence of the asymmetrical tonic neck reflex c. integration of the rooting reflex d. persistence of the Galant reflex

a. integration of the tonic labyrinthine reflex This reflex is stimulated through the labyrinth in the inner ear. When in supine the body and extremities are extended, in prone, the body and extremities are flexed. If not integrated this affects rolling, propping on elbows, balance in sitting, and attain upright from supine

A PT participates in a research study examining the optimal frequency for performing a LE strengthening exercise. The study uses a sample on convenience drawn from a high school. What is the PRIMARY shortcoming of this type of sample? a. lack of generalizability of results b. expensive to obtain subjects c. inability to obtain informed consent d. requires additional time and resources

a. lack of generalizability of results It is difficult to tell if the subjects are typical of the target population

A PT treats a pt admitted to an acute care hospital with CHF. Which medication would MOST likely be prescribed for this pt? a. lanoxin (digoxin) b. coumadin (warfarin) c. zocor (simvastatin) d. nitrosat (nitroglycerin)

a. lanoxin (digoxin) this is a positive ionotropic agent that increases the force of myocardial contraction, slows HR, decreases conduction velocity through AV node

A pt with chronic LE edema is being seen by a PT for recommendations on compression therapy. The pt reports that they are very sedentary, only walking short distances in the home a few times per day. Which form of compression would be the MOST beneficial for reducing the pt's edema? a. long stretch bandages b. short stretch bandages c. antiembolism stockings d. low stretch bandages

a. long stretch bandages This has high levels of extensibility that provide greatest pressure when the pt is at rest

A pt with chronic LE edema is being seen by a PT for recommendations on compression therapy. The pt reports that they are very sedentary, only walking short distances in the home a few times/day. Which form of compression therapy would be the MOST beneficial for reducing their edema? a. long stretch bandages b. short stretch bandages c. antiembolism stockings d. low stretch bandages

a. long stretch bandages this offers high resting pressure with is appropriate for this pt since they are sedentary

A PT is considering the use of e-stim on a chronic wound. Which of the following sets of parameters is MOST appropriate? a. monophasic, direct current b. biphasic, direct current c. monophasic, alternating current d. biphasic, alternating current

a. monophasic, direct current HVPC uses this type to heal chronic wounds. This produces a polarity effect in tissues. Direct current is a constant flow of electrons from anode to cathode

A PT treats a pt w/ hypoparathyroidism. Which of the following symptoms would MOST likely be associated with the pt's medical condition? a. muscle cramps b. weight loss c. heat intolerance d. moon-shaped face

a. muscle cramps This is common with lower Ca levels, tetany is common in the hands and feet for pt's w/ this dx

A PT treats a pt with the visual deficit strabismus. Which mgmt strategy would be the MOST effective for this particular deficit? a. oculomotor and binocular exercises using a prism b. convergence exercises to decrease diplopia c. use of headlamp to improve visual localization d. scanning training to facilitate compensation

a. oculomotor and binocular exercises using a prism Strabismus is a misalignment of the eyes due to visual axes not being parallel, can be constant or intermittent. This can produce double vision or suppress vision. The oculomotor and binocular exercises can help restore 2 eyed vision

A PT performs ligamentous testing on the knee of a pt that sustained a grade 1 sprain of the MCL 2 days ago in a soccer game. Which finding would be MOST probable when performing a valgus stress test? a. pain with no discernible laxity when compared to contralateral limb b. pain with discernible laxity when compared to contralateral limb c. no pain with discernible laxity when compared to contralateral limb d. no pain with no discernible laxity when compared to contralateral limb

a. pain with no discernible laxity when compared to contralateral limb since injury is acute, pain will be likely, grade 1 sprain will have little damage to the ligament

A pt demonstrates diminished problem solving abilities and difficulty finding words at times. And they can only speak in a low voice unless trying to "yell" and appear to have a flattened affect. What condition is MOST consistent with the presentation? a. parkinson's b. depression c. MS d. dementia

a. parkinson's flat affect and low voice are indicators of this disease

A PT treats a moderately obese pt in an acute care hospital. The chart review revealed atherosclerosis, DM, and hypertension. The pt presents with an ABI value of 0.55. The pt complains of pain with walking that is relieved with rest. Which of the following medical conditions would be MOST consistent with the pt's clinical presentation? a. peripheral vascular disease b. coronary artery disease c. CHF d. cor pulmonale

a. peripheral vascular disease The pt's ABI indicates moderate peripheral vascular disease and claudication which can affect functional activities.

A PT treats a pt dx with alzheimer's. Which of the following would be recommended as a primary intervention for this population? a. physical activity b. stretching c. coordination training d. pulmonary therapy

a. physical activity This can help with memory and decrease the effects of alzheimer's like restlessness and wandering

A pt complains of an insidious onset of heel pain that is most painful when initially WB after periods of inactivity. The pt demonstrates decreased DF and tenderness over the medial calcaneal tubercle. What is the pt's MOST likely dx? a. plantar fasciitis b. achilles tendonopathy c. tarsal tunnel syndrome d. calcaneal stress fx

a. plantar fasciitis This typically has an insidious onset with pain originating at heel. Symptoms are exaggerated w/ initial WB after period of rest and decreased w/ activity. Decreased DF, pain w/ palpation, and antalgic gait are also common findings.

A PT considers an AFO for a pt who has difficulty with toe clearance during ambulation due to L DF weakness. Which objective finding would make a post leaf spring orthosis an inappropriate orthotic selection? a. poor PF strength b. mild spasticity c. good knee stability and strength d. R leg 1 cm longer

a. poor PF strength This orthosis resists PF while assisting DF. A pt must have adequate strength to overcome this. A solid AFO would be more appropriate for this pt

A PT works on transfer training w/ a pt who is currently taking a diuretic medication. Which side effect is MOST likely to occur during the session? a. postural hypotension b. bleeding c. sedation d. headache

a. postural hypotension This is a common side effect associated with the use of diuretics due to reduction in blood volume.

A pt demonstrates difficulty ambulating due to B knee pain. The pt reports the onset of pain was sudden and seemed to occur after a recent episode of the flu. X-ray reveals evidence of Ca deposits in the knee joints. Which medical condition is MOST consistent with the pt's clinical presentation? a. pseudogout b. gout c. polymyalgia rheumatica d. systemic lupus erythematosus

a. pseudogout Inflammatory condition which has Ca deposits in the articular and periarticular structures, common in the knees, insidious onset

A PT administers strength testing after observing a pt exhibit a posterior turnk lean during gait. Which testing procedure would be the MOST anticipated based on the observed finding? a. pt in prone, downward pressure applied to post surface of distal thigh b. pt in S/L, downward pressure applied to lateral ankle of top leg c. pt in prone, PT passively brings the pt's heel toward their butt d. pt in prone with knees flexed to 90, PT medially rotates hip

a. pt in prone, downward pressure applied to post surface of distal thigh Post trunk lean is due to weak glute max occurs between heel strike and foot flat

A PT administers strength testing after observing a pt exhibit a post trunk lean during gait. Which testing procedure would be MOST anticipated based on the finding? a. pt in prone, pressure down on post surface of distal thigh b. pt in S/L, pressure down on lateral ankle of top leg c. pt in prone, PT passively brings pt's heel toward buttocks d. pt in prone w/ knees flexed to 90, PT IR the hip

a. pt in prone, pressure down on post surface of distal thigh This gait deviation is caused by a weak glute max, this is how this muscle is tested

A PT interviews a pt referred to PT with a dx of chronic bronchitis. What finding obtained during the interview is MOST closely associated with the pt's dx? a. pt is a smoker b. pt has sedentary lifestyle c. pt has numerous allergies d. pt has severe scoliosis

a. pt is a smoker

A pt's respiratory exchange ratio is measured as 1.1 during graded exercise test including expired gases. What does this indicate about the pt's current status? a. pt is approaching their max aerobic capacity b. pt no longer able to meat metabolic need for O2 via anaerobic metabolism c. pt is able to meet metabolic need for O2 via aerobic metabolism d. pt is able to meet metabolic need for CO2 via anaerobic metabolism

a. pt is approaching their max aerobic capacity RER= VCO2/VO2 usually 0.8 at rest, can exceed 1 during exercise 1.1 means nearing exhaustion

A PT completes documentation after administering US treatment. Which of the following treatment parameters would be the LEAST important to document? a. pt position b. treatment time c. intensity d. duty cycle

a. pt position

A PT clinic discusses methods to ensure the privacy of pt's health information. Which action would be acceptable according to HIPPA? a. pt's identifier info is not removed from documentation sent to insurance company b. PT discusses the pt's POC with receptionist c. PT speaks to employer about pt's ability to return to work d. PT leaves pt's medical chart on desk at end of workday

a. pt's identifier info is not removed from documentation sent to insurance company pt's health info must be de-identified if shared unless when coordinating care or to insurance

A PT clinic discusses methods to ensure the privacy of pt's health information. Which of the following actions would be acceptable according to HIPPA? a. pt's identifier info is not removed from documentation to the insurance company b. PT discusses the pt's POC with the receptionist c. PT speaks to an employer about the pt's ability to return to work d. PT leaves the pt's medical chart on their desk at the end of the day

a. pt's identifier info is not removed from documentation to the insurance company A pt's health information must be de-identified if it is going to be shared for coordinating treatment of for payment

Which of the following techniques would be the MOST beneficial when treating a 6 y/o child with Down syndrome based on anticipated tonal abnormalities? a. quick stretch b. deep pressure c. prolonged icing d. neutral warmth

a. quick stretch Quick stretch help activate mm spindles to enhance muscular contraction

A PT monitors and adult pt's BP using the brachial artery, though they must use a pediatric BP cuff since that is all that is available. What effect would this have on the pt's BP measurement? a. reading will be higher than actual b. reading will be lower than actual c. reading will be accurate if PT deflates cuff at 3 mm Hg/sec d. reading will be accurate if PT deflates cuff at 1 mm Hg/sec

a. reading will be higher than actual

A PT is treating a pt with adhesive capsulitis in an outpatient setting. The pt has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and is currently treated with Prevacid. Which position would potentially be the MOST problematic for the pt when performing UE exercises? a. recumbent on a mat, R S/L b. standing c. sitting hip and knees flexed to 90 d. standing w/o support on foam

a. recumbent on a mat, R S/L Avoid recumbent, R S/L, and tight clothing

A PT attempts to offer advice to a pt recently dx with de Quervain's tenosynovitis in their R thumb. Which recommendation would likely be the MOST beneficial? a. reduce cell phone use b. lower height of computer keyboard c. wear gloves when exposed to cold d. increase iron intake

a. reduce cell phone use This dx is inflammation of the tendons and synovium of the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis, onset due to repeated ABD and ext, reducing cell phone use would give these muscles a break

A pt rehabing from a stroke is currently in the cognitive stage of learning. Which of the following strategies would be the MOST appropriate to initiate instruction for weight shifting activities? a. repeat same task and provide feedback after each rep b. vary the task to help maintain the pt's attention and motivation c. use a variable feedback schedule to allow the pt to self-correct during the task d. use an open environment in which the pt can observe others performing the same task

a. repeat same task and provide feedback after each rep This is needed b/c the pt required high concentration of conscious processing of info

A pt rehabing from a stroke is currently in the cognitive stage of learning. Which of the following strategies would be the MOST appropriate to initiate instruction for weight shifting activities? a. repeat same task and provide feedback after each repetition b. vary the task to help maintain the pt's attention and motivation c. use a variable feedback schedule to allow the pt to self-correct during the task d. use an open environment in which the pt can observe others performing the same task

a. repeat same task and provide feedback after each repetition This is appropriate for the cognitive stage of learning

A pt rehabing from an UE injury performs a lat pull-down. The PT specifically instructs the pt to pull the bar down behind their head. Which of the following muscles are emphasized with this method? a. rhomboids and middle trap b. biceps brachii and pec major c. teres minor and middle trap d. pec major and rhomboids

a. rhomboids and middle trap These both ADD the scapula which is required to pull the lat head behind the bar

A pt post stroke presents with significant impairments in kinesthesia during sensory testing of the involved extremities. Based on the finding, which of the following proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation techniques would be the MOST appropriate intervention? a. rhythmic iniation b. alternating isometics c. rhythmic stabilization d. hold-relax

a. rhythmic initiation Kinesthesia = ability to identify direction and extent of movement of joint or body part. Rhythmic initiation is used to assist in initiating movement patterns to help with learning pattern and rate of movement. "let me move you" to "help me move you" to "move against the resistance"

A PT treats a pt that has been dx with a restrictive lung disease. Which of the following conditions could be considered an extrapulmonary cause for a restrictive lung disease? a. scoliosis b. sarcoidosis c. TB d. chronic bronchitis

a. scoliosis Restrictive lung disease are ones that result in a reduction in lung volume and chest wall compliance. Scoliosis could result in pulmonary insufficiency, pain, and impaired lung capacity

A 10 y/o child w/ spina bifida has recurring headaches, fever, and a decreased activity level. What should the PT suspect? a. shunt dysfunction b. flu c. latex allergy d. seizures

a. shunt dysfunction The physician should be contacted immediately, this is an emergency

A PT examines a pt post sx. The pt has DM, but no ther PMH. Which of the following situations would MOST warrant immediate medical attention? a. signs confusion and lethargy b. SBP increase of 20 mm Hg c. lack of significant clinical findings following exam d. discovery of significant PMH unknown to MD

a. signs confusion and lethargy this is S/S of hypoglycemia, must be treated immediately

A PT examines a pt post surgery. The pt has DM, however, has no other PMH. Which of the following situations would MOST warrant immediate medical attention? a. signs of confusion and lethargy b. systolic BP increase of 20 mm Hg c. lack of significant clinical findings following exam d. discovery of significant PMH unknown to the physician

a. signs of confusion and lethargy This would be signs of hypoglycemia which needs to be treated immediately

A PT participates in a research study examining the optimal frequency for performing a LE strengthening exercises. The PT is worried the results may not be generalizable since non-probability sampling was used. Which of the following is considered a type of non-probability sampling? a. snowball sampling b. simple random sampling c. systematic sampling d. cluster sampling

a. snowball sampling Probability sampling= random selection, everybody has a chance to be chosen Non-probability sampling= not random selection This type of sampling where current participants to name other potential participants

A PT inspects a burn obtained as a result of iontophoresis. The PT describes the burn as an alkaline reaction. Which of the following factors would MOST likely be the cause of this type of adverse reaction? a. sodium hydroxide under the cathode b. hydrochloric acid under the anode c. the size of the cathode larger than the anode d. an increase in the amount of space between the electrodes

a. sodium hydroxide under the cathode

A PT instructs a pt in an exercise designed to increase pelvic floor awareness and strength. The exercise requires the pt to tighten the pelvic floor isometrically as if to stop the flow of urine. What is the MOST appropriate initial position for this exercise? a. supine b. sitting c. tall kneeling d. standing

a. supine Supine and S/L are typical gravity eliminated positions to initiate strengthening

What is the MOST appropriate initial position to utilize when instructing a female pt in an exercise to tighten the pelvic floor isometrically as if attempting to stop flow of urine? a. supine b. sitting c. tall kneeling d. standing

a. supine supine and S/L are gravity eliminated positions to begin strengthening program of pelvic floor

A pt is evaluated in a PT 3 wks after lateral ankle reconstruction. Which of the following exercises for the LE would be MOST appropriate as part of the pt's HEP after the 1st session? a. supine SLR b. ankle INV/EV with a resistance band c. standing calf raises with UE support d. SLS with eyes open

a. supine SLR Protocols are usually limited in the first weeks after sx, this exercise would be appropriate

A PT working in home health treats a pt following TKA. Which position would be the MOST important for the pt to avoid when resting during the day? a. supine with pillow under operative knee b. supine with towel roll along lateral aspect of femur c. supine with pillow under calf of operative knee d. seated with involved leg elevated and extended at knee

a. supine with pillow under operative knee this increases risk for flexion contracture

A PT attempts to assess the motor component of the axillary nerve by conducting a MMT. Which of the following muscles would be the MOST appropriate to utilize? a. teres minor b. teres major c. subscapularis d. supraspinatus

a. teres minor This muscle is innervated by the axillary nerve (C5,C6)

A pt presents with marked weakness during resisted testing of R shoulder ext and IR. Which of the following nerve lesions would MOST likely produce the described impairments? a. thoracodorsal nerve b. suprascapular nerve c. spinal accessory nerve d. axillary nerve

a. thoracodorsal nerve This originates in the post cord of the brachial plexus and innervates the lat dorsi muscle which performs shoulder ext and IR

A pt presents with a limitation of end range knee extension. Which of the following joint mobilization techniques would BEST isolate end range extension? a. unicondylar ant glide of proximal medial tibia b. unicondylar post glide of proximal medial tibia c. unicondylar ant glide of proximal lateral tibai d. unicondylar post glide of proximal lateral tibia

a. unicondylar ant glide of proximal medial tibia Femur is convex, tibia is concave Screw home mechanism - terminal knee ext tibia ER, knee flex tibia IR

A pt who sustained a patella fx in a MVA is fitted for a knee immobilizer to maintain the knee in extension. Which gait deviation would be the MOST likely when using this type of splint? a. vaulting on the unaffected side b. antalgic gait c. increased PF on the affected side d. trendelenburg gait

a. vaulting on the unaffected side Vaulting = heel elevation during stance phase on contralateral limb, hip and knee ext. This is done to clear the ground since the knee can't flex

A pt who sustained a patella fx in an MVA has a knee immobilizer. Which gait deviation would be the MOST likely when using this splint? a. vaulting on unaffected side b. antalgic gait c. increased PF on affected side d. trendelenburg

a. vaulting on unaffected side This would raise the pelvis to clear the ipsilateral limb during swing phase

A PT treats a pt status post CVA. The PT plans activities tht focus on hand eye coordination, recognition of position in space, and general spatial relationships. What are the likely impairments the pt is experiencing? a. visual perceptual deficits due to R hemisphere damage b. behavioral and intellectual deficits due to R hemisphere damage c. speech and language deficits due to L hemisphere damage d. temporal ordering deficits due to L hemisphere damage

a. visual perceptual deficits due to R hemisphere damage These deficits could include hand eye coordination, spatial relationships, position in space, form constancy, and body image disturbances

A PT prepares to complete MMT of the opponens pollicis. Where should the PT apply resistance? a. volar surface distal end 1st metacarpal b. dorsal surface proximal phalanx 1st digit c. volar surface distal phalanx 1st digit d. volar surface trapezium and trapezoid

a. volar surface distal end 1st metacarpal originates flexor retinaculum, tubercle of trapezium inserts radial side first metacarpal bone

A pt post Colles' fx has moderate edema in their fingers and the dorsum of their hand and reports pain during AROM. Which of the following measurements is the MOST appropriate to accurately quantify the pt's edema? a. volumetric b. circumferential c. girth d. anthropometric

a. volumetric

A pt post Colles' fx has moderate edema in their fingers and the dorsum of their hand and reports pain during AROM. Which of the following measurements is the MOST appropriate to accurately quantify the pt's edema? a. volumetric b. circumferential c. girth d. antrhopometic

a. volumetric This is the most accurate for edema measurement

An elderly pt who has moderate OA of the knee has been referred to PT for an exercise program. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate activity to help maintain healthy articular cartilage? a. walking b. plyometrics c. jogging on treadmill d. lunges

a. walking Moderate pain free exercise on a regular basis is the most desirable activity for a pt with OA

A PT observes a pt ambulating with a transfemoral prosthesis with a quadrilateral socket. What type of gait deviation is MOST commonly observed with this socket? a. wide BOD with gait b. excessive knee flex during stance phase on prosthetic side c. knee instability at heel strike on prosthetic side d. vaulting on non-prosthetic side

a. wide BOD during ambulation Quadrilateral socket puts the femur in ABD, allows for primary WB through the flat posterior shelf, A-P dimension more narrow than M-L dimension. Wide BOS and trendelenburg on prosthetic side.

A PT determines that a pt's abnormal gait pattern is characterizes as ataxic. Which of the following BEST describes the gait pattern? a. wide BOS with exaggerated movements b. legs crossing the midline c. small shuffling steps and festinating d. high stepping with foot slap

a. wide BOS with exaggerated movements

A PT observing a pt's gait pattern classifies it as ataxic. Which of the following BEST describes this gait pattern? a. wide BOS with exaggerated movements b. legs crossing midline c. small shuffling steps and festinating d. high stepping with foot slap

a. wide BOS with exaggerated movements

A pt is required to wear a thumb spica splint following traumatic fx of 1st metacarpal. Which movements would the pt have the MOST difficulty performing while wearing the splint? a. wrist flexion b. forearm pronation c. ext of digits 2-5 d. elbow flexion

a. wrist flexion This splint covers the radial side of the forearm, hand, and thumb. This can treat gamekeeper's thumb, scaphoid fx, 1st metacarpal fx, de Quervain's tenosynovitis, and others

A PT measures passive forearm supination and concludes that the result are within normal limits. Which measurement would be classified within normal limits? a. 0-60 b. 0-80 c. 0-100 d. 0-120

b. 0-80 degrees This is true for supination and pronation

A PT uses Craig's test to determine the amount of femoral anteversion. Which measurement would indicate a normal amount of anteversion? a. 5 IR b. 10 IR c. 5 ER d. 10 ER

b. 10 IR normal anteversion is between 8-15 degrees

A PT examines the wound of a pt w/ DM. The wound is located on the plantar surface of the foot under the head of the 1st metatarsal and appears non-infected. When asked to flex the great toe, the PT observes a tendon gliding in the wound bed. Which grade of the Wagner Ulcer Grade Classification Scale BEST described this wound? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

b. 2 This ulcer grade is deep with penetration through the subcutaneous tissue, potentially exposing bone, tendon, ligament, or joint capsule.

A PT directs a PTA to measure the seat depth for a pt as part of the assessment for appropriate fit of a w/c. How many inches should the PT subtract from the standard measure taken for w/c depth? a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6

b. 2 We want 2 inches of space between the front edge of the seat and the popliteal space

A PT uses the BMI scale to assess a pt's body composition. Which of the following values would be MOST representative of a healthy adult? a. 17 kg/m2 b. 22 kg/m2 c. 28 kg/m2 d. 37 kg/m2

b. 22 kg/m2 18.5-24.9 is normal

A high school athlete attends an inservice on flexibility training. What is the minimal flexibility training schedule the PT should recommend. a. 1 day/wk b. 3 days/wk c. 5 days/wk d. 7 days/wk

b. 3 days/wk Flexibility should be performed minimally

A PT assesses a pt with suspected U hearing loss using the Rine test. With the tuning fork on the pt's skull, the pt reports that the sound disappears after 15 seconds. Assuming the sense of hearing is normal, how long should the pt hear the sound when the tuning fork is later placed next to the ear? a. 15 seconds b. 30 seconds c. 45 seconds d. 60 seconds

b. 30 seconds This testing sites are mastoid process, then moved 1-2 cm away from the auditory canal The normal ratio of air conduction to bone conduction is 2:1

A pt in the hospital following sx sets the target indicator on an incentive spirometer. Which individual would MOST likely have the highest target value when using the device? a. 35 y/o F, 66 inches tall, post transmyocardial revascularization b. 45 y/o M, 72 inches tall, post TKA c. 55 y/o 64 inches tall, post cardiac valve replacement d. 55 y/o M, 70 inches tall, post CABG

b. 45 y/o M, 72 inches tall, post TKA Because he is male and the tallest

A PT determines that a pt rehabing from ankle surgery has consistent difficulty with functional activities that emphasize the frontal plane. Which of the following would be the MOST difficult for the pt? a. ant lunge b. 6" lateral step down c. 6" post step up d. 8" post step down

b. 6" lateral step down This would require hip ABD and ADD, which is in the frontal plane

A PT treats a pt with medial epicondylitis. Which of the following positions should the PT use to place the pt's humeroulnar joint in the loose packed position? a. full ext b. 70 flex, 10 supination c. 70 flex, 35 supination d. full ext, full supination

b. 70 flex, 10 supination

A young, healthy, adult is breathing at tidal volume. What % of the tidal volume reaches the respiratory units and is available for gas exchange? a. 55% b. 70% c. 85% d. 100%

b. 70% 150 mL of the 500 mL is in the airways, 350 mL is available for gas exchange

A PT checks the temperature of the hot pack machine after many pts reported the heat being strong. Which of the following temps would be acceptable? a. 64 C, 147 F b. 71 C, 160 F c. 83 C, 181 F d. 94 C, 201 F

b. 71 C, 160 F

A PT measures passive forearm pronation and concludes the results are within normal limits. Which measurement would be classified as normal. a. 60 degrees b. 80 c. 100 d. 120

b. 80 degrees

A PT examines a pt in an outpatient clinic following a concussion. When assessing the pt's ability to perform visual smooth pursuit movements, the PT identifies the pt has difficulty following objects upward. Which cranial nerve would MOST likely be affected? a. CN2 b. CN3 c. CN4 d. CN5

b. CN3 This innervates the muscle that moves the eye upward, downward, and medial

A PT examines a pt in an outpatient clinic following concussion. When assessing the pt's ability to perform visual smooth pursuit movement, the PT identifies the pt has difficulty following objects upward. Which cranial nerve would MOST likely be affected based on identified impairment? a. CN2 b. CN3 c. CN4 d. CN6

b. CN3 oculomotor nerve innervates eye mm that move the eye up, down, and medial

A female pt w/ osteopenia is placed on HRT by her physician. HRT places the pt at GREATEST risk for which of the following? a. aneurysm b. DVT c. vertebral compression fx d. colon cancer

b. DVT risks of HRT include pulmonary embolus, stroke, DVT, gallbladder disease, increase in breast cancer

A PT begins an aerobic exercise program for a pt who is extremely deconditioned due to sedentary lifestyle. Which of the following responses to exercise should the PT MOST anticipate based on this pt's severe deconditioning? a. HR will increase more slowly b. HR will increase more rapidly c. SBP will increase more slowly d. SBP will increase more rapidly

b. HR will increase more rapidly

A PT perform an upper limb tension test with median nerve bias on a pt in the supine position who has periodic R UE pain and paresthesia. After taking the pt through the sequence, the pt reports minimal symptoms. Which of the following movements is the MOST appropriate sensitizer to use? a. R lateral flexion of the C spine b. L lateral flexion of the C spine c. R rotation of the C spine d. L rotation of the C spine

b. L lateral flexion of the C spine A sensitizer is used if symptoms are minimal when first performed, this increases the tension of the dura and nerve, L lateral flexion would increase the tension the most

A PT treats a pt w/ cardiac pathology. The pt explains that there are times they wake up at night w/ feelings of suffocation, relieved by sitting of standing for 20-30 min. This is MOST likely associated w/ which condition? a. MI b. L sided HF c. R sided HF d. tetraology of fallot

b. L sided HF Clinical presentation includes paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea which can increase interstitial edema

A PT states a pt w/ a SCI should be able to ambulate at home using KAFOs and forearm crutches. The pt's quad strength is currently 3/5. What level of SCI is MOST likely based on the PT's prediction? a. L1 b. L3 c. L5 d. S1

b. L3 This pt would have partial innervation of gracilis, iliopsoas, QL, rectus femoris and sartorius

A PT program designs a study that uses performance on SAT as predictor of GPA in PT school. The result identifies that the correlation between variables is r= 0.87. Which statement is MOST accurate? a. high GPA is caused by high SAT score b. PT students with high SAT scores tend to have higher GPA c. no relationship between variables d. inverse relationship between variables

b. PT students with high SAT scores tend to have higher GPA r is pearson product and is measured from -1 to +1, closer to 1 means stronger relationship, (-) = inverse relationship, (+) = direct relationship

While observing a pt ambulating, a PT notes that the pt's gait has the following characteristics: narrow BOS, short bilateral step length, decreased trunk rotation. Which dx would MOST likely be associated with described gait pattern? a. CVA b. Parkinson's c. post-polio d. MS

b. Parkinson's These pts have decreased stride length and velocity, and festination later on

A PT treats a pt following THA. Which finding is the BEST indicator that the pt is at minimal risk of acquiring a DVT? a. ability to perform ankle pumps and mm sets b. ability to ambulate on frequent schedule c. ability to achieve full hip ROM within allowable d. ability to utilize pneumatic compression devices and elastic stockings

b. ability to ambulate on frequent schedule walking requires mm pumping to promote venous return which decreases DVT

A PT examines a pt with an acute burn to the L shoulder and axilla area due to spilling boiling water. What is the MOST appropriate splint for this pt? a. shoulder sling b. airplane splint c. c-bar splint d. hemi-arm sling

b. airplane splint This splint holds the arm in ABD and 90 degrees elbow flexion, this can help reduce contractures which tend to be toward ADD and IR of the shoulder

A pt begins to demonstrate S/S consistent with an emergent medical condition during a PT session. Which emergent condition would make assessing the patency of a pt's airway critical? a. angina pectoris b. anaphylaxis c. autonomic dysreflexia d. stroke

b. anaphylaxis Need to assess the airway for resuscitation

A pt suffers a laceration injury to their forearm while exercising in the therapy gym. The PT is having trouble stopping the flow of blood from the wound. Which of the following actions should be the LAST resort when treating the laceration? a. apply direct pressure over wound b. apply tourniquet proximal to site of injury c. elevate the arm above level of heart d. apply pressure to the brachial artery

b. apply tourniquet proximal to site of injury This may create tissue damage and is then only used in cases of severe bleeding.

A PT walks w/ a pt in an inpatient cardiac rehab unit. The pt describes a sensation of LE cramping and sensory changes. The pain subsides following a brief rest period. The PT hypothesized that the pt's symptoms are consistent w/ pain from claudication. Which of the following tests would be MOST appropriate to confirm the hypothesis? a. venous doppler US b. arterial doppler US c. clinical electromyography d. ECG

b. arterial doppler US Provides info about the blood flow in the arteries. This is most appropriate b/c claudication is consistent w/ arterial insufficiency.

If the PT elects to quantitatively measure the anteroposterior translation at the knee, which of the following instruments would provide the MOST accurate measurement? a. goniometer b. arthrometer c. tape measure d. dynamometer

b. arthrometer this measures the ant translation of tibia on femur, this is most accurate measure of determining ACL instability

A PT prepared to auscultate the lungs as part of an exam. Which of the following breath sounds should the PT MOST expect to hear when auscultating over the larger airways in the center of the ant chest at the 2nd and 3rd intercostal spaces in a healthy lung? a. vesicular b. bronchial c. rhonchi d. tracheal

b. bronchial These sounds are tubular, hollow-sounding, louder than vesicular breath sounds and are heard over the bronchi

During a gait analysis on a pt rehabing from a LE injury, the PT measures the number of steps taken by the pt in a 30 second period. The PT has measured which of the following gait parameters? a. acceleration b. cadence c. velocity d. speed

b. cadence

A PT instructs a pt post fx of L hip in gait training activities. The pt is WBAT and uses a large base quad cane. Which of the following techniques would be the MOST appropriate? a. cane on L w/ longer legs positioned away b. cane on R w/ longer legs positioned away c. cane on L w/ longer legs positioned toward d. cane on R w/ longer legs positioned toward

b. cane on R w/ longer legs positioned away This will allow for proper weight distribution, longer legs away will prevent tripping

A PT treats a pt who has an entrance wound on the top of their head that exits on the anterior thigh due to power line contact at work. Which of the following complications should the PT be MOST alert for given the type of injury they sustained? a. hypervolemia b. cardiac arrhythmias c. pulmonary fibrosis d. heterotopic ossification

b. cardiac arrhythmias These are common with electrical burns, also concerning due to the entrance and exit wounds

A pt with a genetically inherited neuro disorder reports weakness in their hands and feet with normal strength elsewhere. The pt experiences difficulty with grasping objects and has a steppage gait pattern. This presentation is MOST consistent with which of the following medical conditions? a. guilain barre b. charcot marie tooth c. post polio d. huntington's

b. charcot marie tooth This disease has motor and sensory neuropathy, progressive muscle wasting, and diminished DTR. It initially affects the DF and evertors causing foot drop and a compensatory steppage gait pattern. When it progresses it affects the hand intrinsics making grasping difficult

A PT recognizes the signs of an airway obstruction for a pt who is 8 months pregnant. The pt is choking and unable to independently clear the airway, though they are responsive. What is the MOST appropriate PT action to help clear the airway? a. abdominal thrusts b. chest thrusts c. rescue breaths d. finger sweeps

b. chest thrusts These are appropriate to protect the fetus.

A PT reviews the medical record of a pt dx w/ a lower motor neuron disorder. Which finding would be LEAST likely based on the presented information? a. diminished DTR b. clonus c. hypotonia d. fasciculations

b. clonus This is an UMN sign

A pt rehabing from multi-trauma injuries sustained in a MVA is not a candidate for pt controlled analgesia. Which finding may have been MOST relevant when making this determination? a. surgical contraindications b. cognitive impairments c. functional limitations d. GI distress

b. cognitive impairments An understanding of their pain and the analgesia controlled button is necessary for this

During a pt interview, a PT discovers a pt is 2 wks post vertebroplasty. This procedure was MOST likely performed following which conditions? a. disk herniation b. compression fx c. spinal instability d. spondylolysis

b. compression fx This procedure is usually performed to stabilize the fx and common in pts with osteoporosis

A PT orders a w/c equipped with elevating leg rests for a pt rehabing from a SCI. What would be a possible benefit of the leg rests? a. decrease the turning radius of w/c b. decrease in LE edema c. decrease in total w/c weight d. decrease risk of skin breakdown

b. decrease in LE edema

An 82 y/o pt reports fatigue when ambulating to and from their home mailbox. Which of the following factors would MOST likely contribute to the pt's reported difficulty? a. increased diastolic BP b. decreased cardiac output c. decreased cardiac afterload d. increased arterial patency

b. decreased cardiac output As age increases, cardiac output decreases, which decreases exercise tolerance due to decreased perfusion to the peripheral tissues. Decreased cardiac output associated with exertional fatigue

A PT observes the gait of a pt with weakness in their LE following a lengthy inpatient hospitalization. Which gait description would be MOST likely? a. decreased step length unilaterally b. decreased step length bilaterally c. increased step length unilaterally d. increased step length bilaterally

b. decreased step length bilaterally This would provide more stable gait and seen in pts with generalized weakness following long periods of immobility

A PT treats a pt that is 7 months pregnant. The PT positions the pt in hooklying and asks the pt to raise their head from the plinth. The PT notes a bulge in the central abdominal area. Which medical condition is MOST consistent with the described scenario? a. De Quervain's b. diastasis recti c. TOS d. piriformis syndrome

b. diastasis recti This is a separation of the recuts abdominis along the linea alba more than 2 fingers with separation. Focused abdominal activities and rotational exercises should be avoided

A PT is treating a 5 y/o child with a dx of CP involving both of her LEs. Which of the following terms BEST describes this type of CP? a. monoplegic b. diplegic c. hemiplegic d. quadriplegic

b. diplegic

A PT employed in a rehab hospital examines a pt that exhibits several S/S of anemia. Which question would be the MOST useful to gather additional info related to anemia? a. does it hurt to take a deep breath b. do you experience heart palpitations or SOB at rest or with mild exertion c. do you frequently experience dizziness, headaches, or blurred vision d. are you susceptible to bruising

b. do you experience heart palpitations or SOB at rest or with mild exertion The described list are symptoms of anemia

A pt is referred to PT w/ a dx of lateral epicondylitis. During the exam, the PT attempts to elicit the pt's pain by placing the affected tissues on max stretch. Which combo of motions would MOST likely achieve the desired effect? a. elbow ext, forearm supination, wrist ext b. elbow ext, forearm pronation, wrist flex c. elbow flex, forearm pronation, wrist ext d. elbow flex, forearm supination, wrist flex

b. elbow ext, forearm supination, wrist flex

A PT makes a w/c recommendation for a pt referred to PT after a 6 wk hospital stay. The pt presents w/ B venous insufficiency ulcers on distal LE's. What would be the MOST desirable w/c component? a. standard B legrests w/ heel loops b. elevating B legrests w/ calf pads c. ultralight w/c frame d. hemi w/c frame

b. elevating B legrests w/ calf pads elevation would assist with the pain associated with venous insufficiency ulcers

A PT uses a manual assisted cough technique on a pt who has a mild-thoracic SCI. When using this technique w/ the pt in supine, which of the following locations is the MOST appropriate for placement of the PT's hand? a. manubrium b. epigastric c. xiphoid d. umbilical

b. epigastric Applying manual pressure inward and upward over this area can assist the pt to cough and promote airway clearance.

A PT instructs a pt s/p abdominal sx how to use an incentive spirometer in order to prevent the occurrence of pulmonary complications. What is the MINIMUM frequency for the pt to sue the spirometer when they are awake? a. every 5-10 minutes b. every 1-2 hours c. 2x/day d. 1x/day

b. every 1-2 hours The recommended frequency is 5-10 breaths every hour while awake

A 3 y/o throws frequent temper tantrums usually to gain attention. The PT recognizes this and refuses to acknowledge the action. What term is BEST used to describe this type of behavior therapy? a. aversive conditioning b. extinction c. operant conditioning d. rational emotive imagery

b. extinction This is withholding reinforcement to decrease the future probability of that behavior

A PT assesses a pt with a TBI using the Glasgow coma scale. If the PT documents the eye opening score as a 3 (E3), which of the following responses was observed during this portion of the assessment? a. spontaneous eye opening b. eyes open in response to speech c. eyes open in response to pain d. eyes do not open

b. eyes open in response to speech

A PT evals a pt who is 6 months pregnant and reports R knee pain. The PT would like to refer the pt for imaging before starting treatment but is concerned for radiation exposure to the fetus. Which of the following imaging would have the GREATEST risk of radiation exposure? a. bone scan b. fluoroscopy c. MRI d. US

b. fluoroscopy This imaging involves contrast dye injection and a continuous x-ray beam for visualizing movement and this causes the most radiation exposure

A pt reports to a PT that they completely tore a ligament of their ankle. Which injury classification is MOST accurate based on the pt's subjective statement? a. grade 1 sprain b. grade 3 sprain c. grade 1 strain d. grade 3 strain

b. grade 3 sprain Ligaments are sprained, muscles are strained, complete tear is grade 3; painless and very unstable

The PT department sponsors a community education program on diabetes mellitus. Which of the following characteristics is NOT typical of type 1 diabetes a. age of onset less than 25 years b. gradual onset c. controlled through insulin and diet d. islet cell antibodies present at onset

b. gradual onset DM type 1 has an abrupt onset

The PT department sponsors a community edu program on DM. Which of the following characteristic is NOT typical of type 1 DM? a. age of onset <25 yrs age b. gradual onset c. controlled through insulin and diet d. islet cell antibodies present at onset

b. gradual onset type 1 DM has abrupt onset

A PT observes a wound that is red, slightly shiny, and mildly moist. What is the PT MOST likely observing? a. slough b. granulation tissue c. necrotic tissue d. exposed tendon

b. granulation tissue

A PT uses a special test administered in prone to determine that a pt possesses increased femoral anteversion. Which structure would MOST likely be palpated during this test? a. ASIS b. greater trochanter c. innominate d. pubic tubercle

b. greater trochanter Craig's test measures anteversion and you ER/IR the hip while palpating the greater trochanter until it is parallel to the table

A PT reviews the medical record of a 22 y/o athlete rehabing from an ACL reconstruction. Which piece of data would serve as a barrier to the pt returning to high demand competitive athletics. a. 0-135 degrees knee ROM b. hamstring/quad strength ratio of 50% c. quadriceps strength of 90% of contralateral limb d. negative pivot shift test

b. hamstring/quad strength ratio of 50% The ratio should be >70% prior to returning.

A PT prepares to conduct a gait assessment on a pt recently referred to PT. Which variable would be MOST influential when attempting to estimate the pt's stride length? a. coordination b. height c. strength d. weight

b. height This is the primary determinant when estimating stride length

When selecting an assistive device for a pt with a LE injury, which of the following pt characteristics should be LEAST critical for the PT to consider? a. cognitive ability b. height and weight c. UE and LE strength d. level of coordination

b. height and weight The other choices are integral to selecting an AD

A PT observing a pt's gait identifies toeing out during stance. This finding would MOST likely be associated with tightness of which of the following muscle groups? a. ankle DF b. hip ER c. hip IR d. knee ext

b. hip ER This is mostly caused by excessive femoral retroversion or tightness of the hip ER's

Which assessment tool is unique for pt's with parkinson's disease? a. rivermead mobility index b. hoehn and yahr scale c. tardieu scale d. DASH outcome measure

b. hoehn and yahr scale this scale stages the functional disability of pt, has 5 stages

A PT attempts to transfer a dependent pt from a w/c to a bed. The PT is concerned about the size of the pt but is unable to secure another staff member to assist with the transfer. Which type of transfer would allow to PT to move the pt with the GREATEST ease? a. dependent standing pivot b. hydraulic lift c. sliding board d. assisted standing pivot

b. hydraulic lift

A PT treats a pt with a R transfemoral prosthesis. During gait training the PT notes a medial heel whip on the R. What is the MOST likely cause of this deviation? a. weak musculature that allows the prosthesis to rotate around the femur b. improper donning the socket into an externally rotated position c. an excessively firm heel cushion d. medial orientation of the prosthetic foot

b. improper donning the socket into an externally rotated position

A PT peforms strength testing on a high school foot ball team as a preseason assessment. The majority of the players are between the ages of 14 and 16 years. Which age related phenomenon would NOT be characteristic of this period of development. a. increase in muscle mass b. increase in # muscle fibers c. increase in muscle fiber size d. increase in muscle strength

b. increase in # muscle fibers The number of muscle fibers is determined prior to birth, the other characteristics would occur

What is the MOST likely rationale for a PT to instruct the parents of a child with down syndrome to avoid having the child perform forward rolls? a. increase risk of hydrocephalus b. increase risk of SCI c. increase risk of TBI d. increase risk of developmental delay

b. increase risk of SCI this could dislocate the atlantoaxial joint, these kids should also avoid contact sports, gymnastics, diving

A PT treats a pt rehabing form a LE injury with a cryotherapuetic agent. Which finding is MOST accurate when using this type of intervention? a. increased spasticity b. increased pain threshold c. increased NCV d. increased metabolic rate

b. increased pain threshold This happens by reducing the sensation of pain

A PT treats a pt rehabing from a LE injury with a cryotherapeutic agent. Which finding is MOST accurate when using this? a. increased spasticity b. increased pain threshold c. increased NCV d. increased metabolic rate

b. increased pain threshold this is due to decreased NCV, or mm spasm and counter-irritation via gate control theory

A pt w/ a transtibial prosthesis using a shuttle lock suspension complains of pain in the residual limb during gait. Upon inspection, it is noted that the pt has a small blister at the distal end of the residual limb. What factor is MOST likely contributing? a. shuttle lock failing to engage b. inf translation of liner on residual limb c. prosthetic socket fitting too tight d. ankle component set into excessive DF

b. inf translation of liner on residual limb This is called milking or pistoning

A PT examines normative values for lung volumes prior to performing pulmonary function testing on a pt. Which of the following lung volumes would typically have the greatest volume? a. tidal volume b. inspiratory reserve volume c. expiratory reserve volume d. residual volume

b. inspiratory reserve volume TV is amount during quiet breathing (500-600), IRV is the max air that can be inspired (1900-3000), ERV is the max amount that can be expired (800-1200), RV is the gas in lungs after exhale (1000-1200)

A pt returns to PT after completing medical testing using doppler US. Which medical condition would MOST likely necessitate this type of imaging? a. peripheral neuropathy b. intermittent claudication c. cardiac arrhythmias d. bursitis

b. intermittent claudication Painful cramping or aching of the LE's during activity. Associated with impaired blood flow in the LE's and decreased perfusion to the LE muscles. Doppler US can be used in a pt w/ intermittent claudication to determine extent of impaired blood flow

A PT notes a decrease in PROM in a pt's shoulder compared to their other shoulder. Which of the following would provide the PT with the MOST valuable info to determine the cause of this discrepancy? a. MMT b. joint mobility c. sensory testing d. AROM

b. joint mobility If the joint is hypomobile that could describe the discrepancy

A PT observes that a pt has a limitation in PF ROM on the L during ambulation. This mobility restriction would be MOST apparent during which phase of gait? a. terminal swing b. loading response c. initial contact d. midstance

b. loading response This phase would require the most amount of PF

A PT utilizes compression bandaging with a goal of edema reduction for a pt w/ stage 1 lymphedema. Which of the following types of pressure would be the MOST appropriate choice for bandaging based on the dx? a. low resting pressure low working pressure b. low resting pressure high working pressure c. high resting pressure low working pressure d. high resting pressure high working pressure

b. low resting pressure high working pressure Stage 1 is reversible Short stretch bandages are used for lymphedema, this pressure rate is used for early stages for edema reduction goal

A PT uses compression bandages w/ the goal of edema reduction for a pt w/ stage 1 lymphedema. Which of the following types of pressure would be MOST appropriate? a. low resting pressure, low working pressure b. low resting pressure, high working pressure c. high resting pressure, low working pressure d. high resting pressure, high working pressure

b. low resting pressure, high working pressure Short stretch bandages are used for early stages of lymphedema

A PT uses a manual w/c during a session with a pt who has C5 tetra. Which of the following w/c would be the MOST appropriate based on their injury level? a. manual w/c sip and puff controls b. manual w/c handrim projections c. manual w/c friction surface handrims d. manual w/c standard handrims

b. manual w/c handrim projections handrim projections are angels and have friction surfaces this is good for training not primary mobility

A PT uses a manual w/c w/ a pt who has C5 tetraplegia. Which of the following w/c would be the MOST appropriate based on their injury? a. manual w/c w/ sip and cuff controls b. manual w/c w/ handrim projections c. manual w/c w/ friction surface handrims d. manual w/c w/ standard handrims

b. manual w/c w/ handrim projections This would be best and are projected at 30 degrees, this chair might not be primary mode of mobility due to limited UE muscle innervation

A PT performs resisted isometric testing on a pt. The pt reports feeling pain during the test, strength is normal. Which of the following conclusions regarding this test is the MOST likely? a. severe lesion like a fracture b. minor lesion of muscle or tendon c. complete rupture of muscle or tendon d. intermittent claudication

b. minor lesion of muscle or tendon Minor lesion = strong and painful

A pt recovering from pneumonia is prescribed a pharmacological agent administered with a nebulizer. Which pharmacological agent was MOST likely used? a. calcium channel blocker agents b. mucolytic agents c. nitrate agents d. sedative hypnotic agents

b. mucolytic agents These decrease viscosity of secretions

A PT working in an acute care hospital treats a pt with transmission-based precautions. The PT treats the pt in their room and is able to leave the door open during treatment. The PT is required to wear a mask only once they are within 3 ft of the pt. This scenario would be MOST appropriate when treating a pt dx with what? a. MRSA b. mumps c. impetigo d. measles

b. mumps Droplet precautions

A pt is unable to take in an adequate supply of nutrients by mouth. As a result, the pt's physician orders the implementation of tube feeding. What type of tube is MOST commonly used for short term feeding? a. endobronchial b. nasogastric c. endotracheal d. tracheostomy

b. nasogastric This is inserted through the nostril and extends to the stomach

A PT treats a pt using a vacuum-assisted closure device. Which of the following BEST describes the mechanism used by this type of device to promote wound healing? a. positive pressure in the wound bed b. negative pressure in the wound bed c. atmospheric pressure in the wound bed d. alternating pressure in the wound bed

b. negative pressure in the wound bed This helps with exudate and interstitial edema and facilitates growth of granulation tissue

During an exercise session, a PT monitors exercise intensity with a pt post cardiac transplantation. Which method is the MOST appropriate for the PT to use? a. metabolic equivalents b. perceived exertion scale c. pulmonary function tests d. target HR range

b. perceived exertion scale This should be used since the transplanted heart fails to respond normally to sympathetic nervous stimulation causing abnormal HR response to exercise

A pt reports being unable to drive due to difficulty reaching forward to grasp the wheel secondary to weakness, no pain reported. Which of the following would be MOST likely with this activity limitation? a. rotator cuff impingement b. peripheral nerve entrapment c. adhesive capsulitis d. cervical facet impingement

b. peripheral nerve entrapment This can cause wasting of muscles and weakness, usually with the absence of pain

A PT measures a pt's shoulder complex IR in the standard position. The PT records the pt's IR as 0-70 degrees and classifies the end-feel as firm. Which portion of the joint capsule is PRIMARILY responsible for the firm end-feel? a. ant b. post c. inf d. sup

b. post End feel is felt as the humeral head slides post on the glenoid

A PT measures a pt's complex IR in the standard position. The PT records the pt's IR as 0-70 degrees and classifies the end-feel as firm. Which portion of the joint capsule is PRIMARILY responsible for the firm end-feel? a. anterior b. posterior c. inferior d. superior

b. posterior

A pt post cardiac ablation is placed on coumadin. What is the primary function of this medication? a. alter conduction patterns in the heart b. prevent blood clot formation c. increase the excretion of water and sodium d. interfere with metabolism of blood fats

b. prevent blood clot formation

A PT examines the output from a single ECG of a pt with 1st degree atrioventricular heart block. What is the defining feature of this condition? a. inverted T wave b. prolonged PR interval c. bizarre QRS complex d. ST segment depression

b. prolonged PR interval PR interval is time to conduct impulse from SA node to the AV node, a 1st degree heart block has this defining feature, normal 0.12-0.2 seconds

A pt reports numbness and tingling in the palmar aspect of the thumb, index, and middle fingers. Exam findings reveal pain with resisted pronation and negative Tinel's sign at the wrist. Which of the following conditions should the PT MOST likely suspect? a. carpal tunnel b. pronator syndrome c. ant interosseous syndrome d. cubital tunnel syndrome

b. pronator syndrome Median nerve entrapment at the elbow, aggravated by resisted pronation with a grasp. Negative Tinel's at wrist and pain with resisted pronation are the indicators of this syndrome

A PT is involved in educating the family of a newborn with a brachial plexus injury sustained during delivery. What is the MOST appropriate activity for the family? a. perform full PROM to shoulder in all directions b. protect the shoulder during handling and caregiving c. perform full AROM to shoulder in all directions d. move UE to the waiter's tip position to avoid overstretching

b. protect the shoulder during handling and caregiving This is important since the arm is usually flaccid, overstretching could lead to more damage

A pt in a rehab hospital after SCI asks PT direct question regarding their functional ability after rehab. Which of the following responses would be the MOST appropriate? a. explain it's difficult to predict since all pt's progress differently b. provide info on expected prognosis based on nature and severity of injury c. refer pt to director of rehab d. refer pt to psychiatrist

b. provide info on expected prognosis based on nature and severity of injury this falls within scope of practice

Assuming a normal progression of duchenne muscular dystrophy, which of the following impairments would have MOST likely have been present at the initial onset of the pt's condition? a. distal mm weakness b. proximal mm weakness c. impaired respiratory function d. diminished sensation to light touch

b. proximal mm weakness mm weakness begins proximal and moves distal starting in LE's, then moves to UE's, then to the respiratory mm

A PT is employed in an acute care facility. Which scenario would provide the MOST appropriate justification for using restraints on a pt? a. pt is on med that causes hallucinations b. pt is too agitated to allow for the completion of an essential surgery c. pt is verbally abusive to the hospital staff d. pt is placed on bedrest orders following a major sx

b. pt is too agitated to allow for the completion of an essential surgery The benefit of completing the essential surgery would supersede any negative effects of using restraints

A pt dx w/ ALS is informed that most pts with this disease do not survive more than 2-5 yrs from the time of dx. Which of the following factors would MOST likely shorten the pt's lifespan? a. pt is 25 yrs old b. pt presents w/ bulbar onset c. pt has no complaints of dyspnea d. pt is taking riluzole

b. pt presents w/ bulbar onset This onset has a less favorable prognosis

A physician's order in the medical record indicates a pt has been placed on hold from PT due to suspected pulmonary embolism. Which diagnostic test would be the MOST valid method to confirm a suspected pulmonary embolism? a. MRI b. pulmonary angiography c. bronchoscopy d. US

b. pulmonary angiography This is because it looks at how blood flows through the lungs.

A physician's order in the medical record indicates that a pt has been on hold from PT due to a suspected pulmonary embolism. Which diagnostic test would be the MOST valid method to confirm a suspected pulmonary embolism? a. MRI b. pulmonary angiography c. bronchoscopy d. US

b. pulmonary angiography This tests how blood flows through the lungs, computed tomographic pulmonary angiography in literature is the best choice for this dx

A PT examines a pt who was referred with a dx of lateral epicondylitis. The pt reports elbow pain, but also pain that radiates into their dorsal forearm and wrist. After completing the exam, the PT believes that the original dx may be wrong. Based on the pt's symptoms, which of the following dx would be MOST likely? a. cubital tunnel b. radial tunnel c. elbow OA d. LCL sprain

b. radial tunnel

Which of the following is considered a benefit of administering a medication using iontophoresis instead of through oral administration? a. enhanced systemic effects b. reduced GI impact c. diminished skin sensitivity d. increased cost effectiveness

b. reduced GI impact

A PT attempts to improve a pt's LE strength. What proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) technique would be the MOST appropriate to achieve the PT's goal? a. contract relax b. repeated contractions c. rhythmic stabilization d. hold relax

b. repeated contractions Used to initiate movement and sustain a contraction through the range of motion.

A PT assesses both power and strength in a 75 y/o pt with sarcopenia. Which of the following exercises would BEST address the loss of power the PT observed during the pt's performance of functional activities? a. progressive walking program w/ light weights b. resistance exercises w/ rapid concentric phase c. progression of static to dynamic balance exercises d. wall squats with isometric hold at 90 degrees of hip flex

b. resistance exercises w/ rapid concentric phase Power training is shown to be more effective than strength training to improve function

A PT observes a pt s/p R TKA on stationary bike. The pt's current knee ROM is 0-90. Which deviation while cycling would be LEAST likely given their mobility? a. right hip moves into excessive ER b. right foot falls off back of pedal c. pt leans trunk to L d. pt elevates butt of seat

b. right foot falls of back of pedal this would increase knee flex range which the pt is unable to do with their current range

A PT assesses a 1 month old infant. During the session, the PT strokes the cheek of the infant causing the infant to turn its mouth toward the stimulus. Which reflex would be elicited by the stimulus? a. moror b. rooting c. startle d. righting

b. rooting This starts at 28 wks gestation, integrates at 3 months, this helps with feeding

A PT assesses the posture of a pt with shoulder pain and notes that the pt demonstrates a protracted position of both scapula. The PT wants to strengthen the rhomboid mm using a B scapular retraction exercise. Which pt position would be the MOST appropriate to initiate the exercise? a. S/L b. seated c. supine d. prone

b. seated this is gravity eliminated position of rhomboids and is appropriate to initiate exercise

A PT performs stretching to address a knee flexion contracture on a pt with complete paraplegia. How would this contracture be classified within the medical record? a. primary impairment b. secondary impairment c. primary prevention d. secondary prevention

b. secondary impairment

An 85 y/o F pt was recently dx with osteoporosis after a fall in which she sustained a femoral neck fx. The pt reports that her lifestyle has become much more sedentary over the past 5 years. Which type of osteoporosis is MOST consistent with the presented scenario? a. idiopathic b. senile c. postmenopausal d. secondary

b. senile People >70 yrs, caused by bone formation changes

A PT in an acute care hospital performs stair training w/ a pt who is NWB following triple arthrodesis sx of the ankle. After the session, the PT observes that the dressing is pink and damp. Which term BEST characterizes the description of this exudate? a. sanguineous b. serosanguineous c. serous d. seropurulent

b. serosanguineous This is red/pink and watery consistency, and present during the proliferative phases of healing

A PT discusses positioning issues with the nursing staff prior to scheduled treatment session. What bony prominence would be particularly susceptible to breakdown with the pt positioned in supine? a. ant shoulder b. spinous process c. patella d. ASIS

b. spinous process

A PT would like to strengthen a pt's R glute med muscle in a manner that emphasizes its role in the gait cycle. Which of the following exercise BEST accomplishes this goal? a. stand on L leg, let R pelvis lower, then bring back up b. stand on R leg, let L pelvis lower, then bring back up c. stand on L leg, keep pelvis level, ABD right hip against resistance d. stand on R leg, keep pelvis level, perform mini squat

b. stand on R leg, let L pelvis lower, then bring back up

A PT works with a pt with hemiparesis who uses a hemiplegic chair for mobility. Which activity would become more challenging with this type of w/c? a. reaching for objects outside base of support b. standing up from the seat of chair c. performing independent pressure relief d. elevating legs for edema mgmt

b. standing up from the seat of chair This would be most difficult due to the lowered seat height that allows for LE propulsion

A PT applies sulfandiazine to an open wound on a pt's forearm. What type of aseptic equipment is necessary when applying the topical agent? a. gloves b. sterile gloves c. gloves, gowns d. sterile gloves, gown

b. sterile gloves

A PT applies silver sulfadiazine to open wound on pt's forearm. What type of aseptic equipment is necessary when applying the agent? a. gloves b. sterile gloves c. gloves, gown d. sterile gloves, gown

b. sterile gloves open wound needs sterile gloves

A PT prepares to measure the amount of chest excursion during inspiration of a pt with a neurological injury. Which pt position would be the MOST appropriate? a. sitting b. supine c. prone d. S/L

b. supine supine creates support of resistance to diaphragm, direct correlation between chest expansion and intercostal strength

A pt rehabing from an ankle injury has a limit of plantar flexion end range. Which of the following interventions would be the MOST appropriate to address the impairment? a. talocrural post glide, large amplitude, up to tissue resistance b. talocrural ant glide, small amplitude, into tissue resistance c. subtalar lateral glide, large amplitude, into tissue resistance d. subtalar distraction until separation of the joint is achieved

b. talocrural ant glide, small amplitude, into tissue resistance This is a grade 4 joint mob, an ant glide would increase PF

A PT performs a valgus stress test on a pt who sustained a knee injury during a football game. The PT determines that the test is (+) w/ knee in 30 degrees flex, but not full extension. This is MOST consistent with which of the following knee injuries? a. tear of MCL and PCL b. tear of MCL and posteromedial capsule c. tear of MCL and ACL d. tear of MCL and LCL

b. tear of MCL and posteromedial capsule These are the primary stabilizers at 30 degrees flexion

A pt dx with plantar fasciitis reports significant cramping in the sole of their foot. What type of equipment would be the MOST appropriate to incorporate into the pt's HEP? a. elastic band b. tennis ball c. towel d. foot rocker

b. tennis ball used for self massage

What type of splint would MOST likely be prescribed for a pt with de Quervain's tenosynovitis? a. ulnar gutter splint b. thumb spica splint c. radial gutter splint d. dorsal forearm splint

b. thumb spica splint this covers the radial side of forearm, hand, and thumb. to immobilize wrist and MCP joint of thumb also used for gamekeeper's thumb, scaphoid fx, 1st metacarpal fx, other thumb injuries

A PT makes w/c recommendations for a pt w/ a C4 complete SCI. Which w/c feature would be the MOST desirable for this pt? a. removeable armrests b. tilt in space frame c. handrims w/ rim projections d. handheld joystick controls

b. tilt in space frame This will change orientation w/o changing the back angle, this will allow for pressure relief

A PT attempts to assess the dynamic balance of an elderly pt. Which tool would be the MOST helpful to test balance and gait? a. FIM b. tinetti c. fugl-meyer d. barthal index

b. tinetti This assesses balance seated and during gait, also tests turning, perturbation reactions, and sit to stands.

A PT is guarding a pt that is descending the stairs and is positioned in front of the pt. The pt is using a gait belt but has a loss of balance in a forward direction. What would be the MOST immediate PT response? a. pull back on gait belt and pull back on the trunk b. use 1 hand to press back against the pt's chest and instruct the pt to look up and straighten the trunk c. use 1 hand to press forward against the post pelvic or post trunk while securing the gait belt d. pull forward on the gait belt and slowly lower the pt to sit on the step if needed

b. use 1 hand to press back against the pt's chest and instruct the pt to look up and straighten the trunk PT must be in front of pt to guard while they descend

A pt who is 2 wks s/p ACL reconstruction and is TTWB with bilateral axillary crutches reports a new complaint of post calf pain on their affected leg. Which other clinical finding would MOST likely contribute to a decision to contact the physician? a. weakness of DF b. warmth in lower leg c. reduction in active knee flex of 5 degrees d. pain increase of 3 mm on VAS

b. warmth in lower leg These 2 symptoms may indicate DVT

A pt sustained a fracture of the acetabulum that was treated with ORIF. The injury occurred in a MVA about 7 wks ago. Which objective measure would be the MOST influential variable when determining the pt's WB status? a. VAS pain rating b. x-ray confirmation of bone healing c. LE MMT d. balance and coordination assessment

b. x-ray confirmation of bone healing This would show the stability of the fracture and determine WB status

A PT inspects a pt's wound during a dressing change. The PT identifies moderate amounts of purulent exudate throughout the wound surface and dressing. What would this type of exudate MOST likely be colored? a. clear b. yellow c. pink d. red

b. yellow Purulent exudate is either yellow or green, thick and viscous consistency. This signals infection

Before beginning to train for a w/c racing event, a 40 y/o with complete C7 tetraplegia undergoes a graded exercise test using an upper body ergometer. In the absence of cardiac pathology, which value represents the MOST likely max HR? a. 60 BPM b. 80 BPM c. 120 BPM d. 190 BPM

c. 120 BPM People with T3 or higher complete SCI's have difficulty reaching age-adjusted max and target HR zones. T4-6 are variable, T7 and below and typically able to reach those ranges. T3 and above usually have a max HR of about 110-120 BPM

Before beginning to train for a w/c racing event, a 40 y/o with complete C7 tetraplegia undergoes a graded exercise test using upper body ergometer. In the absence of cardiac pathology, which value represents the MOST likely max HR? a. 60 bpm b. 80 bpm c. 120 bpm d. 190 bpm

c. 120 bpm Pt's with injuries above T2 have difficulty reaching age-adjusted HR max Pt's with injuries between T4-6 have more variable results Pt's with injuries below T7 are typically able to reach age-adjusted HR max

A PT assesses a pt's muscle tone following a stroke and reports that while the pt has marked tones throughout the ROM, their extremity can still be easily moved. Using the modified ashworth scale, which grade of spasticity would be the MOST appropriate for this pt? a. 1 b. 1+ c. 2 d. 3

c. 2 This scale goes from 0 (no spasticity) to 4 (rigid). A grade of 2 is the description used.

A PT initiates mechanical cervical traction to a 150 lb male. How many lbs of force would be necessary if the objective was joint distraction? a. 5 lbs b. 10 lbs c. 25 lbs d. 40 lbs

c. 25 lbs this would be 13-20% of pts body weight and it is necessary for joint distraction

A PT contemplates the necessary amount of force to overcome friction when performing mechanical lumbar traction using a non-split traction table. What percentage of a pt's body weight would be MOST representative of this value? a. 5% b. 15% c. 25% d. 50%

c. 25% You can calculate this by multiplying the % of body weight below L3 (50%0) and the coefficient of friction (0.5)

A pt with diabetes is being treated for a wound on the plantar surface of their foot. The wound has penetrated to the bone and resulted in a bone infection. Using the Wagner ulcer grade system, which score is MOST consistent with the wound? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

c. 3 The Wagner system grades on depth and whether there is an infection graded on a 6 point scale. Grade 3 is a grade 2 ulcer that has progressed to include bone or infection

A pt w/ diabetes is being treated for a wound on the plantar surface of the foot. The wound is documented as a deep ulcer with abscess. Which of the following # grades would the PT use when grading the ulcer based on the Wagner Ulcer Grade Class System? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5

c. 3 This scale grades foot ulcers, 6-point system 1= superficial ulcer, no subcutaneous involvement 2= penetrates subcutaneous tissue, possible exposure to bone, tendon, ligament, joint capsule 3= deep ulcer, includes bone inflammation, abscess, or infx 4= local gangrene 5= extensive gangrene

A PT treats a pt post TKA in an outpatient clinic. The pt is able to complete a full revolution on a bike, however, the PT wants to improve their flexion ROM to eliminate compensatory strategies on the bike. Which pt would be the BEST candidate for this intervention? a. 1 wk post op, 85 degrees PROM b. 2 wks post op, 95 degrees PROM c. 3 wks post op, 105 degrees PROM d. 4 wks post op, 125 degrees PROM

c. 3 wks post op, 105 PROM This ROM would allow a pt to complete a revolution with compensatory strategies, an added 5 degrees would likely eliminate these compensatory strategies

A PT treats a pt post TKA in an outpatient clinic. The pt is able to complete a full revolution on a stationary bike, however, the PT would like the pt to improve their knee flexion ROM to eliminate compensatory strategies on the bike. Which pt would be the BEST candidate for this intervention based on the PT's objective? a. 1 wk post-op, 85 degrees passive flexion b. 2 wks post-op, 95 passive flexion c. 3 wks post-op, 105 passive flexion d. 4 wks post-op, 125 passive flexion

c. 3 wks post-op, 105 passive flexion 105 degrees would be enough ROM to complete a full revolution on a bike

A PT decides to perform a caudal glide hip distraction mob technique on a pt with hip pain. Which of the following hip positions is the MOST appropriate to initially perform this technique? a. 20 ext, 15 ABD, full IR b. 20 flex, 15 ABD, slight IR c. 30 flex, 30 ABD, slight ER d. neutral flex/ext neutral ABD/ADD, slight ER

c. 30 flex, 30 ABD, slight ER This is the OPP of the hip and most appropriate for mobs

A PT treats an 80 y/o pt with general deconditioning following recent hospitalization for pneumonia. Which test would provide the PT the BEST assessment of the pt's muscular endurance? a. TUG b. gait speed over 10 feet c. 30 seconds sit to stand d. sharpened rhomberg

c. 30 seconds sit to stand This test assesses LE strength, power, muscular endurance, and balance, the 30 second test compared to 5x STS test provides more info about their endurance

A PT works with a 9 y/o with cystic fibrosis. What age BEST approximates the median age of survival for a pt with CF? a. 15 years b. 25 years c. 35 years d. 50 years

c. 35 years

A pt who sustained a CVA 4 wks ago is beginning to show the ability to produce movement patterns outside the limb synergies. Using Brunnstrom, what stage are they in? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6

c. 4

A pt who sustained a CVA 4 wks ago is beginning to show the ability to produce movement patterns outside of limb synergies. According to Brunnstrom, this pt is in what stage of recovery? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6

c. 4 stage 2- appearance of basic limb synergies and spasticity stage 3- voluntary movement within synergies, increased spasticity stage 4- beginning to move outside synergies, spasticity decreases stage 6- isolated coordinated joint movement and disappearance of spasticity

A PT plans to begin exercises with a pt diagnosed with Guillian-Barre syndrome 10 days ago. The pt currently has (2+/5) strength in the LE's. Which of the following types of LE strengthening exercises would be the MOST appropriate in this early treatment stage? a. glute and quad set exercises and AROM b. aquatic resistance exercise with foam weights c. AAROM and gravity minimized exercises d. PROM, bridging, and LAQ

c. AAROM and gravity minimized exercises Early stages should be about maintaining ROM and only light exercises

What mm are MOST commonly associated with de Quervain's tenosynovitis? a. ABD pollicis longus and ext pollicis longus b. ABD pollicis brevis and ext pollicis brevis c. ABD pollicis longus and ext pollicis brevis d. ABD pollicis brevis and ext pollicis longus

c. ABD pollicis longus and ext pollicis brevis these are in the first dorsal compartment, indicated with finkelstein test

A physician instructs a pt to use a knee derotation brace for all athletic activities. Which of the following conditions would MOST warrant the use of this type of brace? a. knee OA b. ACL reconstruction c. ACL insufficiency d. PCL reconstruction

c. ACL insufficiency They will have functional instability, unlike the pt with ACL reconstruction

A PT performs circumferential measurements on a 4 y/o and notes edema in both LE's. Based on the presentation, which dx would be MOST likely? a. lymphadenitis b. DVT c. Milroy's disease d. Wilson's disease

c. Milroy's disease This is an inherited primary lymphedema that presents in infants. B LE edema is most common, it worsens over time

A pt explains to a PT that she was instructed to bear up to 10 pounds on her involved extremity. Which description is MOST consistent with the pt's WB status? a. NWB b. toe touch WB c. PWB d. WBAT

c. PWB

A PT attempts to quantify the pt's pain by asking them to mark the point on a 10 cm line that best describes their present pain level. Assuming each end of line is anchored by one extreme of perceived pain intensity, which term BEST described this type of pain scale? a. descriptor differential scale b. verbal rating scale c. visual analog scale d. numerical rating scale

c. VAS

A PT observes a pt complete hip ABD/ADD exercises in standing. Which axis of movement is utilized with these particular motions? a. frontal b. vertical c. anterior-posterior d. longitudinal

c. anterior-posterior

A PT treats a pt 4 days s/p coronary artery bypass. Which pharmacological agent would MOST likely have been prescribed post-op? a. ACE inhibitor agents b. alpha adrenergic antagonist agents c. anticoagulant agents d. antihyperlipidemia agents

c. anticoagulant agents ACE inhibitor decrease BP and afterload alpha adrenergic antagonist reduce peripheral vascular tone anticoagulant inhibit platelet aggregation to prevent embolism antihyperlipidemia (statins) help prevent coronary events for pt's with coronary disease, PVD, DM

A PT discusses the importance of a well-balanced diet with a pt dx with type 2 DM. The pt previously expressed frustration in their ability to control their glucose levels. What is the MOST appropriate action to emphasize the importance of diet? a. provide handout from american diabetes association which outlines an appropriate diet b. ask other pts that have made dietary changes to speak to pt c. arrange for consult with dietician d. provide copies of recent research articles which cite benefits of well-balanced diet

c. arrange for consult with dietician This will provide education and dietary program, recommendations, menu, lifestyle modifications

A pt presents with a small, round, partial-thickness wound on the lateral malleolus with distint wound edges. Upon exam, the wound bed is grey w/o evidence of granulation tissue and appears to be dry. The wound is extremely tender to palpation and the pt reports calf pain during walking. These findings are MOST associated with which of the following types of ulcers? a. venous stasis b. neuropathic c. arterial d. decubitus

c. arterial These are caused by arterial insufficiency secondary to inadequate circulation from diseases like atherosclerosis. These wounds are located on the distal limb and are as described

A pt presents with small, round, partial-thickness wound on lateral malleolus with distinct wound edges. After exam, the wound bed is grey w/o evidence of granulation and is dry. The wound is very tender and pt reports calf pain during walking. This is MOST consistent with which ulcer type? a. venous stasis b. neuropathic c. arterial d. decubitus

c. arterial usually caused by atherosclerosis complications

A pt presents to PT with signs and symptoms of adhesive capsulitis. Which of the following imaging studies would be the MOST appropriate to confirm the dx? a. fluroscopy b. myelography c. arthrography d. computed tomography

c. arthrography This is an invasive procedure that uses x-ray and an injected contrast dye to see joint structures. This can detect decreased volume of fluid within the joint capsule

What imaging technique would have MOST likely been used to confirm the dx of adhesive capsulitis? a. fluoroscopy b. myelography c. arthrography d. computed tomography

c. arthrogrophy invasive procedure uses x-ray and injected contrast dye to visualize joint structure

A pt begins to cry in the middle of a session. The PT attempts to comfort the pt, however, the treatment had to be ceased. What section of the SOAP note would be the MOST appropriate to document this incident? a. subjective b. objective c. assessment d. plan

c. assessment

A PT reviews the medical record of a pt admitted to the hospital with suspected renal involvement. Which lab test would be the MOST useful to assess the pt's present renal function? a. platelet count b. hemoglobin c. blood urea nitrogen d. hematocrit

c. blood urea nitrogen Increased BUN can indicate dehydration, renal failure, or heart failure Decreased BUN can indicate malnourishment, hepatic failure, or pregnancy

While in a soccer game, an athlete complains they feel they are overheating. After exam, the PT is concerned they may be showing signs of heat stroke. Which of the following S/S indicate heat exhaustion has progressed to heat stroke? a. muscle cramps in both legs b. profuse sweating c. body temp 106 F d. HR 170 bpm

c. body temp 106 F Heat exhaustion a person will have normal body temp, or slightly elevated. Other heat stroke symptoms include flushed dry skin, labored breathing, strong rapid pulse

A PT gathers data to assist in differential dx. The PT determines that the pt's pain is located R post shoulder with intermittent paresthesias in R middle finger. This type of presentation is MOST consistent with which condition? a. AC joint arthritis b. bicep tendinitis c. cervical radiculopathy d. rotator cuff tear

c. cervical radiculopathy

A PT reads in the medical record that a wound resulting from venous insufficiency was classified as black using the red-yellow-black system. Given the wound's classification, which of the following interventions would be the MOST appropriate? a. protect wound with transparent film dressing b. use negative pressure wound therapy on wound c. debride wound with forceps d. avoid intervening until wound is yellow

c. debride wound with forceps Debridement of necrotic tissue is the goal of treatment with sharps, enzymatic, or autolytic debridement

A pt rides a stationary bike at 50 revolutions per minute following knee surgery. The PT would like to provide more of a stretch to the pt's knee while cycling to facilitate flexion ROM. Which of the following modifications would be the MOST appropriate to achieve the PT's objective? a. decrease seat height, increase revolutions per minute b. increase seat height, increase revolutions per minute c. decrease seat height, decrease revolutions per minute d. increase seat height, decrease revolutions per minute

c. decrease seat height, decrease revolutions per minute

Which impairment would best explain why a child with Down syndrome prefers to W sit instead of assuming a traditional sitting position when playing with toys? a. hypotonicity b. hypertonicity c. decreased core strength d. fatigue

c. decreased core strength this is the most likely rationale

A PT transports a pt in a w/c to the parallel bars in prep for ambulation activities. The pt is 2 wks s/p abdominal sx and R tibia fx from a MVA. What is the MOST appropriate action to ensure the pt does not exceed the prescribed WB limits on the involved extremity? a. assist the pt to standing b. monitor their vitals c. demonstrate ambulation in the parallel bars d. secure an additional staff member to offer assistance

c. demonstrate ambulation in the parallel bars

A PT instructs a pt rehabing from rotator cuff repair in and HEP. The pt is 27 y/o and illiterate. What is the MOST appropriate action to promote complaince? a. ask pt to memorize exercises b. use short sentences of simple words c. draw pictures d. utilize an HEP

c. draw pictures

A PT evaluates a 3 y/o child dx with a genetic disorder. The PT POC includes monitoring the progression of muscle weakness, maintenance of range of motion and flexibility, and family edu. Which dx would MOST likely require this form of intervention a. down syndrome b. CP c. duchenne muscular dystrophy d. osteogenesis imperfecta

c. duchenne muscular dystrophy

A PT inspects the progress of a partial-thickness wound on a pt's ant forearm. The PT notes evidence of resurfacing of the wound with changes in the edges of the wound. This is MOST consistent with which condition? a. maceration b. granulation c. epithelializaiton d. infection

c. epithelialization

A PT inspects the progress of a partial thickness wound on a pt's anterior forearm. The PT notes evidence of resurfacing of the wound with notable changes in the edges of the wound. This observation is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions? a. maceration b. granulation c. epithelialization d. infection

c. epithelialization This is epidermal resurfacing and appears as pink or red skin

A PT completes a posture screening and muscle length test of the hip flexors on a pt. The PT determines that the pt has extremely tight hip flexors bilaterally. What common structural deformity is MOST often associated with tight hip flexors? a. scoliosis b. exaggerated kyphosis c. exaggerated lordosis d. spondylolyssi

c. exaggerated lordosis This is common due to the origin and insertion of the hip flexors.

A pt recently dx with DVT is placed on heparin. What is the PRIMARY side effect associated with heparin a. hypotension b. depression c. excessive anticoagulation d. thrombocytopenia

c. excessive anticoagulation A PT should be careful to avoid excessive contact or bumping of the limbs of a pt on heparin since it may cause bruising.

A pt with B transfemoral amputations complains of LBP after ambulating short distances. Exam reveals 4/5 B hip ABD and extensor strength. The pt's hip flex ROM is 20-100 degrees. The iliac crests are even when standing. What posture is the pt MOST likely demonstrating during gait? a. excessive lumbar kyphosis b. neutral lumbar spine c. excessive lumbar lordosis d. lateral lumbar flexion

c. excessive lumbar lordosis The presence of hip flex contractures can cause excessive lumbar lordosis, socket adaptations must be made

A PT monitors a 6'3" 275 lb M BP using the brachial artery. Which of the following is MOST important when selecting an appropriate size BP cuff for the pt? a. pt age b. % body fat c. extremity circumference d. somatotype

c. extremity circumference

A PT examines the wound of a pt who sustained a burn on their ant thigh. The wound bed exhibits areas of charred white leathery tissue and the PT is able to visualize damage to the subcutaneous fat layer. Which burn class is MOST consistent with this presentation? a. superficial partial thickness b. deep partial thickness c. full thickness d. subdermal

c. full thickness This class involves epidermis, dermis and subcutaneous fat. These wounds usually have eschar

A pt with duchenne muscular dystrophy exhibits exaggerated lumbar lordosis and genu recurvatum. What other finding is the PT MOST likely to identify? a. impaired hearing b. dystonia c. gower's sign d. LE mm contractures

c. gower's sign This is where children walk their hands up their legs to transition floor to stand, this compensates for weak lumbar and glute mm

A pt exhibits limited pain-free active shoulder ER, however, passive ER is normal. Resistive testing of shoulder ER is weak and pain-free. Which of the following conditions is MOST consistent with the pt's clinical presentation? a. adhesion of the anterior joint capsule b. fear-related psychological response c. grade 3 strain of infraspinatus d. grade 1 strain of shoulder ER's

c. grade 3 strain of infraspinatus review grading of mm strains and the pain and strength associated if unsure

A PT performs a mm length assessment on a pt's soleus and finds tightness of the mm permits only 5 degrees of DF. Which of the following gait deviations should the PT MOST anticipate based on the finding? a. foot slap at heel strike b. tow down instead of heel strike c. heel lift during midstance d. no toe off during toe off

c. heel lift during midstance heel lift caused by lack of DF or PF spasticity, midstance requires 10 degrees DF

A pt in an acute care hospital has a catheter inserted into the internal jugular vein. The catheter travels through the superior vena cava and into the R atrium. It permits removal of blood samples, medication administration, and monitoring central venous pressure. What is the MOST appropriate term for this device? a. arterial line b. IV line c. hickman catheter d. swan-ganz catheter

c. hickman catheter Complications of this device are sepsis and blood clots

A research study examines the effect of frequency of PT sessions of functional outcomes of pt's with TBI's. The study shows a (+) causal relationship between the variables, though the participants are NOT representative of the entire TBI population. Which statement is correct? a. high internal validity, high external validity b. low internal validity, low external validity c. high internal validity, low external validity d. low internal validity, high external validity

c. high internal validity, low external validity internal validity- relationship between IV and DV external validity- extent study can be generalized

A pt status post CVA exhibits significant weakness in the affected LE. When strengthening the affected ABD group using irradiation, which muscle group on the unaffected LE would be the PT use to resist maximal isometric contraction? a. hip flexor b. hip extensor c. hip ABD d. hip ER

c. hip ABD Resisting the unaffected hip ABD muscles will increase muscle tension in the contralateral hip ABD

A PT participates in a research study that examines body composition as a function of aerobic exercise and diet. Which method would provide the PT with the MOST valid measurement of body composition? a. anthropometric measures b. bioelectrical impedance c. hydrostatic weighing d. skinfold measurement

c. hydrostatic weighing This is the gold standard for determining body composition

A pt reports brief episodes of significant dizziness when standing during the last 24 hours. The pt states that their symptoms began shortly after they began taking Lasix to treat CHF. What is the MOST likely rationale for the reported dizziness? a. hypertension due to decrease in blood plasma volume b. hypertension due to an increase in blood plasma volume c. hypotension due to a decrease in blood plasma volume d. hypotension due to an increase in blood plasma volume

c. hypotension due to a decrease in blood plasma volume Diuretics act to reduce blood plasma volume by enhancing the excretion of water and electrolytes. This increases the likelihood of orthostatic hypotension

A PT observes the gait of a child with spastic cerebral palsy. The PT notes that the child exhibits excessive lordosis during ambulation. Which of the following surgical procedures would BEST address this postural deformity? a. hamstring tendon lengthening b. ADD longus tendon lengthening c. iliopsoas tendon lengthening d. lumbar laminectomy

c. iliopsoas tendon lengthening A contracture of this muscle causes an excessive ant pelvic tilt, which increases lordosis of the lumbar spine.

A PT notices that a pt status post sternotomy has significantly altered their breathing pattern. The PT is concerned that the alteration in breathing may lead to atelectasis. What is the MOST appropriate intervention to treat and prevent atelectasis? a. active cycle of breathing b. inspiratory muscle training c. incentive spriometry d. postural drainage

c. incentive spirometry This promotes air passage past mucus obstruction in airways and maximizes alveolar expansion.

Assuming a normal recovery after T10 SCI, which of the following MOST accurately describes the status of the pt's bathroom transfers after rehab? a. ind with presence of attendent b. ind with sliding board c. ind with bathroom adaptations d. ind

c. ind with bathroom adaptations adaptations include grab bar, tub bench, or commode seat

A pt dx with fibromyalgia syndrome reports difficulty with managing flare-ups of symptoms. Which of the following interventions should the PT MOST emphasize in order to address the pt's complaint? a. lumbar stabilization exercise b. aerobic exercise c. instruction in pacing activities d. general flexibility training

c. instruction in pacing activities These pt's should not try to work through the pain, take rest breaks when needed, pace activities through the day to not increase pain and lead to more decreased activity is essential.

A PT observes a pt's breathing a part of a respiratory assessment. Which muscle of respiration is MOST active during forced expiration? a. diaphragm b. external intercostals c. internal intercostals d. upper trap

c. internal intercostals This pulls the ribs down

A pt uses a self-administered assessment tool as a method to record daily progress. What type of reliability would be the MOST essential using this tool? a. reliability of parallel forms b. internal consistency c. intratester d. intertester

c. intratester This refers to the extent to which scores on the tool obtained by the same tester are consistent

A pt post radial head fx has developed and elbow flex contracture. Which of the following interventions is considered a passive exercise technique to increase ROM? a. contract-relax b. hold-relax c. maintained pressure d. rhythmic stabilization

c. maintained pressure This can facilitate long muscle relaxation of the musculotendinous unit

A PT reviews lab values in a pt's medical chart and notes that the pt has a blood pH of 7.25, HCO3 of 20 mEq/L. The pt has had severe diarrhea for 7 days and is currently presenting with tachypnea and lethargy. Which of the following dx's is MOST consistent w/ the described presentation? a. respiratory acidosis b. respiratory alkalosis c. metabolic acidosis d. metabolic alkalosis

c. metabolic acidosis Normal blood pH is between 7.35 and 7.45, 7.25 is characterized as acidosis. Metabolic acidosis has HCO3 of less than 22 mEq/L. This can be caused by overproduction of inadequate excretion of H ions, caused by impaired kidney function or severe diarrhea

A note in a pt's chart indicates they are receiving IV sodium bicarbonate to treat an acid-base disorder. Which acid-base disorder is MOST likely based on the medication? a. respiratory acidosis b. respiratory alkalosis c. metabolic acidosis d. metabolic alkalosis

c. metabolic acidosis This is an accumulation of acids due to acid gain or bicarbonate loss

A PT performs circumferential measurements on a 4 y/o and notes edema in both LE's. Based on the clinical presentation, which dx would be MOST likely? a. lymphadentits b. DVT c. milroy's disease d. wilson's disease

c. milroy's disease inherited lymphedema that presents in infancy and is B

A pt is scheduled to undergo a transtibial amputation of the L LE. The pt is also 1 month post R TKA. Given this info, the PT should expect which of the following activities to be MOST difficult for the pt to perform following the amputation? a. rolling supine to s/l b. moving supine to sit c. moving sit to stand d. ambulating in parallel bars

c. moving sit to stand This requires strength and dynamic balance which is difficult due to the TKA and amputation

A PT attempts to explain to a pt how e-stim can help decrease the perception of pain. Which of the following descriptions would be used to explain the gate control theory of pain? a. the threshold for stimulating peripheral nociceptors is decreased b. the threshold for stimulating peripheral nociceptors is increased c. nociceptive signals are inhibited by stimulating non-nociceptive sensory nerves d. nociceptive signals are inhibited when endorphins bind to optiate receptors

c. nociceptive signals are inhibited by stimulating non-nociceptive sensory nerves The gate control theory is described above, this reduces the transmission of nociceptive signals to the brain

A PT performs a pain assessment on a pt recently referred to PT. The pt reports sharp, localized pain that is consistently reproduced with mechanical testing. Which pain classification is MOST consistent with the pt's presentation? a. nociceptive: deep somatic b. nociceptive: visceral c. nociceptive: superficial d. central neurogenic pain

c. nociceptive: superficial This type of pain is consistent with the description

A PT performs a pain assessment on a pt recently referred to PT. The pt reports sharp, localized pain consistently reproduced with mechanical testing of painful area. Which pain classification is MOST consistent with the pt's presentation? a. nociceptive: deep somatic pain b. nociceptive: visceral pain c. nociceptive: superficial pain d. central neurogenic pain

c. nociceptive: superficial pain

A PT works w/ a pt recovering from a surgical resection of a portion of the GI tract. Which form of medication administration would likely be the MOST problematic for the pt based on the surgical procedure? a. injection b. IV c. oral d. transdermal

c. oral This is avoided with any alteration in GI function

A PT reviews the current pain mgmt protocol of a pt 3 days post THA. Which of the following meds would MOST likely be sued for breakthrough pain as needed? a. acetaminophen b. meloxicam c. oxycodone d. tramadol

c. oxycodone this is an opioid used to treat severe pain

A pt dx w/ fibromyalgia syndrome reports difficulty w/ managing flare-ups of their symptoms. Which of the following interventions should the PT MOST emphasize in order to address the pt's complaint? a. lumbar stabilization ex b. aerobic exercise c. pacing activities instruction d. general flexibility training

c. pace activities instruction This would allow the pt not to push too hard or too little. Learning to pace activities throughout the day is important to maintain activity w/o further deconditioning

A PT examines the integrity of the L4 spinal level. What DTR should the PT use to assess the L4 spinal level? a. lateral HS b. medial HS c. patellar d. achilles

c. patellar L3-4

A PT examines the integrity of the L4 spinal level. What DTR should the PT use to assess this level? a. lateral hamstrings b. medial hamstrings c. patellar d. achilles

c. patellar lateral hamstrings- S1-2 medial hamstrings- L5-S1 patellar- L3-4 achilles- S1-2

A pt performed an isometric contraction of the quads in supine by pushing their knee into a towel under their post knee. Which modification would be the MOST appropriate to assist w/ regaining hyperextension? a. put pt in long sitting b. increase force of contraction c. place towel under ankle d. add ankle cuff to distal tibia

c. place towel under ankle This would lift their knee off the table and aid in hyperextension

A PT prepares to d/c a pt from a rehab hospital after THA using posterior approach. Which finding is MOST commonly associated with post-op hip instability with this type of approach? a. trabecular bone erosion b. femoral nerve paralysis c. post capsule damage d. hip ABD weakness

c. post capsule damage this approach damages this region of the capsule, to prevent dislocation avoid hip flex past 90, hip ADD, and hip IR

A pt who has been addicted to alcohol for years intends to address their addiction. They research the location and dates for upcoming AA meetings and mark the times, they decide to quit drinking on the first meeting. Using the trans-theoretical model, which stage of change is the pt currently in? a. precontemplation b. contemplation c. preparation d. action

c. preparation Preparation phase is a person planning to change their behavior

A pt reports to PT 1 wk s/p transtibial amputation. Which sleeping position would be the MOST appropriate to prevent a knee and hip contracture? a. supine w/ pillow under the knees b. S/L on residual limb side w/ pillow between legs c. prone lying w/o use of pillows d. S/L on non-amputated side w/o pillow between legs

c. prone lying w/o use of pillows

Which finding would MOST likely contribute to a potential false negative when performing the Lachman test? a. moderate effusion of knee joint b. 12 mm of ant translation of tibia on femur c. protective mm guarding of HS d. previous injury involving the ACL

c. protective mm guarding of HS this could limit the translation of tibia on femur

A pt following THA is placed on heparin. Which of the following lab values would be MOST affected based on this med? a. Hct b. Hgb c. prothrombin time d. WBC count

c. prothrombin time heparin in anticoagulant and will affect prothrombin time which is initial clotting time

A pt post THA is placed on anticoagulant meds. Which of the following lab values would be MOST affected based on the pt's current med? a. hematocrit b. hemoglobin c. prothrombin time d. WBC count

c. prothrombin time this examines coagulation factors

A PT examines a pt following a traumatic crush injury to the forearm. The pt displays a wrist drop deformity and is unable to strongly grasp objects with their hand. Which nerve was MOST likely affected? a. median b. ulnar c. radial d. musculocutaneous

c. radial This innervates the triceps, brachioradialis, wrist ext, and finger ext. When injured causes wrist drop Median injury causes weakness with wrist flex and forearm pronation Ulnar injury causes claw hand Musculocutaneous causes weakness in elbow flex and forearm supination

A PT examines a pt following a traumatic crush injury to the forearm. The pt displays wrist drop and is unable to strongly grasp object with their hand. Which nerve was MOST likely affected? a. median b. ulnar c. radial d. musculocutaneous

c. radial nerve This nerve innervates the triceps, brachioradialis, wrist ext, and finger ext. Wrist drop causes decreased grip strength

A physician thinks that a delayed union may be the result of disrupted blood supply. Which fracture would be MOST consistent with this scenario? a. calcaneus fx b. intertrochanteric hip fx c. scaphoid fx d. proximal humerus fx

c. scaphoid fx Disrupted blood flow mostly affects the head of the femur, talus, and scaphoid, can result in AVN

A pt reports mm pain of excess severity in relation to their current activity level and the intervention. Which of the following meds would MOST likely be associated with this finding? a. amlodipine (Norvasc) b. albuterol (Ventolin) c. simvastatin (Zocor) d. methotrexate (Rheumatrex)

c. simvastatin statins can cause myalgia and it is very serious, look out for rhabdomyolysis other side effects are HA, GI distress, rash

A pt reports muscle pains of excess severity in relation to their current activity level and interventions. Which of the following medications would MOST likely be associated with this finding? a. amiodipine (Norvasc) b. albuterol (Ventolin) c. simvastatin (Zocor) d. methotrexate (Rheumatrex)

c. simvastatin (Zocor) Muscle pain with or without muscle weakness is a common side effect of statin drugs

A pt is seen in PT to treat a foot ulcer. The PT observes edema and redness in the lower leg and is concerned that the pt may have developed cellulitis. Which action would be the MOST beneficial to assess the PT's hypothesis? a. stand for 5 min and reassess color b. sit in a chair with legs in dependent position and reassess color c. sit with the legs in an elevated position and reassess color d. perform active ankle pumps and reassess color

c. sit with the legs in an elevated position and reassess color Cellulitis is a fast spreading inflammation from a bacterial infection of the skin and connective tissue. This test will see if the redness in the extremities changes with positioning. Dependent rubor is associated with peripheral arterial disease. If the redness does not disappear with elevation, cellulitis is more likely

A PT determines that a pt's abnormal gait pattern is best characterized as parkinsonian. Which of the following BEST describes this pattern? a. wide BOS, exaggerated movements, marked unsteadiness b. advancement of swing limb through compensatory pelvic elevation and PF of stance limb c. small shuffling steps and generalized slowness d. slight hip and knee flex, stiff movements, and toe drag as limb advances

c. small shuffling steps and generalized slowness

A PT discussed the importance of a proper diet with a pt dx with CHF. Which of the following substances would MOST likely be restricted in the pt's diet? a. HDL b. LDL c. sodium d. triglycerides

c. sodium These pt's tend to have fluid retention due to poor cardiac output, this over time would overwork the heart, so sodium must be reduced to reduce blood volume

A female pt expresses to a PT that she has difficulty shrugging her shoulders and turning her head due to a nerve injury. Based on the comment, which CN is MOST likely affected? a. vestibulocochlear b. vagus c. spinal accessory d. hypoglossal

c. spinal accessory This is purely motor, innervates the SCM and trapezius

A PT applies a hold-relax technique to a pt in prone in order to increase knee extension ROM. Where should the PT's hands be placed when administering this intervention? a. stabilize pelvic, apply resistance to post surface of distal tibia b. stabilize pelvis, apply resistance to ant surface of distal tibia c. stabilize distal femur, apply resistance to post surface of distal tibia d. stabilize distal femur, apply resistance to ant surface of distal tibia

c. stabilize distal femur, apply resistance to post surface of distal tibia Hold-relax uses isometric contraction to increase ROM through autogenic inhibition. The knee flexors are limiting the range, they are activated then relaxed, inhibited and move through more range as you go on.

A PT examines a pt with an UMN disorder an identifies the babinski sign. Which technique would have been utilized to produce this finding? a. brushing skin with light feathery, object b. PROM c. stroking skin with blunt object d. tapping over mm tendon

c. stroking skin with blunt object babinski is normal in children, but not in adults and indicated UMN injury

A pt with osteogenesis imperfecta is examined by a PT due to UE pain. The PT decides to perform special tests. Given the dx, which of the following special tests would MOST likely by positive? a. cervical foraminal compression test b. adson maneuver c. sulcus sign d. lift off sign

c. sulcus sign This detects glenohumeral instability, this pt population have hypermobile joints, and any joint laxity test will most likely be positive.

A person with an injury to which structure would have the MOST difficulty performing a deficit calf raise? a. deep peroneal nerve b. peroneus longus mm c. tibial nerve d. plantaris mm

c. tibial nerve This nerve (L4-S3) innervates the posterior leg, damage to this nerve would weaken the plantar flexors

A PT transfers a pt in a w/c down a curb with a forward approach. Which of the following actions would be the MOST appropriate? a. have pt lean forward b. have w/c brakes locked c. tilt w/c backwards d. put yourself in front of pt

c. tilt w/c backward

A PT instructs a pt with a unilateral amputation to ascend and descend stairs. Which amputation level would you expect to have the MOST difficulty performing the described task? a. transmetatarsal b. transtibial c. transfemoral d. syme's

c. transfemoral A higher amputation level is associated with a larger energy expenditure

A PT examines a pt with a complete C6 SCI. Which muscle would NOT be innervated based on the pt's level of injury? a. biceps b. deltoid c. triceps d. diaphragm

c. triceps The triceps are innervated by the radial nerve C7-C8

A PT treats a pt who has a C6 SCI. Which of the following muscles would NOT be innervated based on the pt's level of injury. a. biceps b. deltoid c. triceps d. diaphragm

c. triceps The triceps are innervated by the radial nerve C7-C8

A PT palpates the bony structures of the wrist and hand. Which of the following structures would be identified in the proximal row of carpals? a. capitate b. hamate c. triquetrum d. trapezoid

c. triquetrum

A PT examines a pt's gait and identifies a lack of toe off. Which finding in the pt's medical hx would be MOST likely to contribute to this observation? a. vertigo b. lymphedema c. type 2 diabetes d. raynaud's phenomenon

c. type 2 diabetes Neuropathy from type 2 diabetes can cause gait deviations, along with wounds, PT should check their feet for sensation and motor control

A PT determines through exam that a pt exhibits poor strength of the ADD pollicis and a positive froment's sign. The PT should MOST likely expect a palsy involving which of the following nerves? a. median b. ant interosseous c. ulnar d. post interosseous

c. ulnar The ulnar nerve innervates the ADD pollicis and this causes the froment's sign

A PT assesses a pt that describes their pain as throbbing and pounding. These characteristics describe which type of pain pattern? a. MSK b. neurogenic c. vascular d. emotional

c. vascular Can also be described as pulsing and beating

The medical record of a pt rehabing from TKA indicates that the surgical procedure included a femoral nerve block. Which mm would MOST likely be affected by the nerve block? a. tib anterior b. biceps femoris c. vastus lateralis d. glute med

c. vastus lateralis quad is innervated by femoral nerve L2-4

In order to maximize the effects of therapy for a pt dx with Parkinson's, the PT should coordinate which of the following levodopa dosing schedule with a home therapy session? a. 30 min after lunch dose b. 1 hour after lunch dose c. 30 min after breakfast dose d. 1 hour after breakfast dose

d. 1 hour after breakfast dose peak effects of levodopa is 1 hour after dose, morning is better because they have more energy

The PT designs interventions to focus on long-term goals of increasing functional activities including cross legged sitting on the floor, transitions from the floor to standing, and improved mobility within the school building as part of a child's IEP. Which of the following timeframes is MOST appropriate to attain these goals? a. 1 month b. 4 months c. 6 months d. 1 year

d. 1 year IEP individualized education plan long term goals are based on 1 year

A medical record indicates that a child's oral temp was recorded as 100.6 degrees fahrenheit. Which value would be MOST expected if the pt's rectal temp was taken? a. 98.6 degrees F b. 99.6 c. 100.6 d. 101.6

d. 101.6 Rectal temp value is typically 0.5-1 degree higher than the oral temp

A PT administers the modified ashworth scale to a pt with a suspected neurological injury. What is the MOST accurate description of the starting position when testing the elbow flexors? a. full ext of elbow b. 45 degrees elbow flex c. 90 degrees elbow flex d. 145 degrees elbow flex

d. 145 degrees elbow flex Since the modified ashworth is testing resistance to passive stretch, you should start in the fully flexed position then attempt to stretch the muscle

A PT attempts to determine the relative increase in tissue temperature using US. Which parameters would result in the GREATEST amount of tissue heating? a. 1 MHz, 0.5 W/cm2 b. 1 MHz, 2 W/cm2 c. 3 MHz, 0.5 W/cm2 d. 3 MHz, 2 W/cm2

d. 3 MHz, 2 W/cm2

A PT conducts an inservice on Alzheimer's disease. Which pt has the GREATEST risk of this disease? a. 46 y/o M b. 42 y/o F c. 81 y/o M d. 83 y/o F

d. 83 y/o F This disease is more common in older females

A pt post cardiac surgery is monitored using an arterial line. The PRIMARY purpose of an arterial line is to monitor which of the following measure? a. right atrial pressure b. HR and O2 saturation c. pulmonary artery pressure d. BP

d. BP This is a catheter inserted into an artery, it is more accurate than traditional BP measurements

A PT assesses the saccadic movements of a pt with a mild TBI and notes the pt has difficulty shifting their gaze laterally, other movements are normal. Which cranial nerve is MOST likely impaired? a. CN2 b. CN3 c. CN4 d. CN6

d. CN6 The abducens nerve innervates the lateral rectus which moves the eye laterally

A PT designs an exercise program for a pt that minimizes the use of isometric work. Which medical condition would MOST necessitate this type of program? a. anemia b. DM c. hemophilia d. HTN

d. HTN Isometric work can result in sharp increases in BP due to increased pressure within the muscles. For these patients you should use low resistance and low reps

A PT treats a pt referred to outpatient rehab. During the session the PT identifies weakness, hypertonia, and hyperreflexia. What is the MOST likely dx? a. carpal tunnel syndrome b. polio c. bell's palsy d. MS

d. MS MS is an UMN disease

A PT is treating a pt 2 wks post rotator cuff repair. Which of the following interventions is MOST appropriate? a. light progressive shoulder exercises with resistive tubing b. grade III sustained joint mobilizations c. AROM up to 90 degrees of ABD d. PROM up to 10 degrees ER

d. PROM up to 10 degrees ER In this early phase of rehab, focus on protection of repair and pain mgmt, gentle pain free PROM is safe

A PT monitors the BP of a pt during increasing levels of physical exertion. Asuuming a normal physiological response, which of the following BEST describes the pt's BP response to dynamic exercise? a. SBP increases, DBP increases b. SBP same, DBP increases c. SBP and DBP same d. SBP increases, DBP same

d. SBP increases, DBP same

While performing the 6MWT a pt begins to show symptoms associated with hypoxemia. What should the PT assess in order to confirm this? a. HR and BP b. PaO2 with an oxygen analyzer c. PaCO2 with pulse oximeter d. SaO2 with pulse oximeter

d. SaO2 with pulse oximeter Hypoxemia can be measured using Hgb with pulse ox

A pt receives surgical d/c instructions that include using an incentive spirometer and LE compression stockings. Which of the following procedures would be the MOST likely to require this type of equipment? a. achilles tendon repair b. lateral ankle ligament reconstruction c. knee meniscectomy d. TKA

d. TKA Incentive spirometry help recovery and reduce the risk of pneumonia. Stockings prevent DVT in pts on bed rest.

A PT attempts to determine a pt's general willingness to use and affected body part. What objective information would be the MOST useful? a. passive movement b. sensory testing c. bony palpation d. active movement

d. active movement

A PT works w/ a pt 6 wks following THA (posterolateral approach). The pt's medical hx includes Grave's disease. Which intervention should the PT avoid when treating the pt? a. supine resisted hip ER b. standing hip ABD w/ ankle weight c. stair training d. ambulation in warm therapy pool

d. ambulation in warm therapy pool Pool or land based therapy would be appropriate, the warm temperature would be inappropriate due to their increased metabolic rate

A pt who has CP exhibits slow, involuntary continuous writhing movements of the upper and lower extremities. Which of the following motor impairments is MOST representative of this type of motor disturbance. a. spasticity b. ataxia c. hypotonia d. athetosis

d. athetosis Athetosis refers to involuntary movements characterized as slow, irregular, and twisting. This type of movement makes it difficult to maintain a static body position.

A PT prepares to measure the BP of a pt with suspected HTN. Which action by the PT would be unnecessary? a. avoid caffeine 30 minutes before measurement b. sit with arm resting on table during measurement c. sit quietly for 5 minutes before measurement d. avoid eating 1 hour before measurement

d. avoid eating 1 hour before measurement food has minimal effect on BP measurements

A PT observes a pt perform a sit-to-stand transfer. The pt struggles to initiate the movement of scooting forward and rising from the chair and performs all movements slowly. Based on the pt's impairments during the sit-to-stand transfer, which of the following structures is MOST likely damaged? a. cerebellum b. medulla oblongata c. hippocampus d. basal ganglia

d. basal ganglia Bradykinesia is slow movement and characteristic of Parkinson's along with difficulty of initiating movement

A pt has an ECG following a myocardial infarction. The ECG shows damage to the posterolateral wall of the left ventricle. Which artery was MOST likely occluded based on the involved area of the heart? a. right coronary b. left subclavian c. left ant descending d. circumflex

d. circumflex This is a branch off the left coronary artery. Occlusion of this artery would damage the posterolateral and anterolateral wall of the left ventricle

Which activity would be the MOST difficult for a pt with adhesive capsulitis to perform based on their anticipated ROM restriction? a. reaching across the body b. reaching into their back hip pocket c. performing push up d. combing their hair

d. combing their hair capsular pattern of shoulder joint is ER, ABD, IR combing hair involves ER and ABD

A physician provides a group of PTs with an overview of imaging techniques commonly used in practice. Which imaging would be non-invasive? a. arthrography b. myelography c. discography d. computed tomography

d. computed tomography Uses cross-sectional images based on x-ray, this has better contrast resolution compared to x-rays

A pt s/p achilles tendon repair is examined in PT. The physician referral includes a very specific post-op protocol. Which action would be MOST appropriate if the PT plans on deviating from the established protocol? a. secure pt's surgical report b. complete a thorough exam c. carefully document any modifications d. contact referring physician

d. contact referring physician

A pt in PT gym suddenly begins to cough, which is shortly followed by wheezing. The PT recognizing the possibility of airway obstruction, should take which of the following actions? a. attempt to ventilate b. administer abdominal thrusts c. perform finger sweep d. continue to observe pt, but do not interfere

d. continue to observe pt, but do not interfere If a mild obstruction is present and to pt is coughing or wheezing, no need to interfere. Should only intervene if cough becomes silent, respiration is difficult, or pt becomes unresponsive.

A PT treats a 14 y/o with a pulmonary condition. The PT teaches the pt various postural drainage positions. The child MOST likely has which medical condition? a. idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis b. pulmonary edema c. pneumonia d. cystic fibrosis

d. cystic fibrosis This disorder affects the exocrine glands, they have thick secretions that plug the lung airwarys

A child with CP is evaluated in PT after selective dorsal rhizotomy. Which outcome associated with this surgical procedure are MOST beneficial to improve the pt's overall functional status? a. decrease sensation, preserve hypertonicity b. increase strength, preserve sensation c. increase sensation, preserve hypertonicity d. decrease spasticity, preserve strength

d. decrease spasticity, preserve strength This procedure is to decrease spasticity when conservative measures have failed by cutting LE sensory nerve rootlets

A pt with atrial flutter suddenly becomes extremely lightheaded while exercising and appears to lose consciousness. Which of the following responses BEST explains the change in the pt's stauts? a. increased filling of the ventricles b. increased system congestion c. decreased atrial depolarization d. decreased blood traveling to the brain

d. decreased blood traveling to the brain Atrial flutter is an abnormal hear rhythm characterized by rapid atrial tachycardia, this decreased filling time of the ventricles resulting in diminished blood traveling to the brain

A pt with atrial flutter suddenly becomes extremely lightheaded while exercising and appears to lose consciousness. Which of the following responses BEST explains the change in pt status? a. increased filling ventricles b. increased system congestion c. decreased atrial depolarization d. decreased blood travelling to brain

d. decreased blood travelling to brain atrial flutter is rapid atrial tachycardia, not allowing adequate ventricle filling time and blood ejection from heart this would decrease blood to brain and may cause fainting

A pt s/p R transfemoral amputation is prescribed a standard w/c with recommendation for post rear wheel axle placement. What is the result of this positioning? a. decreased w/c rear stability b. decreased w/c rolling resistance c. decreased turning radius d. decreased ease of performing wheelies

d. decreased ease of performing wheelies a and c would be increased due to post rear wheel axle placement wheelies would be harder since this placement makes tilting w/c backwards harder

A PT treats a small area of skin for hypersensitivity prior to cold immersion bath. The pt begins to show S/S of cold intolerance within 60 seconds of cold application. Which action should the PT take? a. limit cold exposure to <10 min b. select other cryo agent c. continue with cold immersion bath d. discontinue cold application and document findings

d. discontinue cold application and document findings

A pt 2 days post arthroscopy of the knee completes a quad set exercise while lying supine on a mat table. During the exercise, the pt reports severe pain. Which of the following actions is the MOST appropriate action for the PT to take? a. have pt perform exercise in s/l b. have pt flex knee prior to initiating exercise c. place pillow under to ankle d. discontinue exercise

d. discontinue exercise Severe pain after surgery is reasonable to discontinue exercise

A pt refuses PT services after being transported to the gym. The PT explains the potential consequences of refusing treatment, however, the pt does not reconsider. What is the MOST appropriate PT action? a. treat the pt b. convince the pt to have therapy c. contact the referring physician d. document the incident in the medical record

d. document the incident in the medical record

A PT concludes that it is necessary to elongate the long head of the triceps brachii as part of a PROM assessment. Which position of the arm would help the PT meet the objective? a. elbow ext, shoulder ext b. elbow ext, shoulder flex c. elbow flex, shoulder ext d. elbow flex, shoulder flex

d. elbow flex, shoulder flex These are the opposite actions of the muscle

A pt who has ankylosing spondylitis is referred to PT for instruction on HEP. Strengthening of which of the following muscles would be the MOST beneficial for the pt? a. rectus abdominis b. internal and external obliques c. QL d. erector spinae

d. erector spinea Extension exercises are important for pt's with AS to maintain normal curves of the spine while limiting the forward bending nature of the disease process.

A PT wearing sterile protective clothing establishes a sterile field prior to changing a dressing on a wound. Which area of the protective clothing would NOT be considered sterile even before coming in contact with a non-sterile object? a. gloves b. sleeves of gown c. front of gown above waist level d. front of gown below waist level

d. front of gown below waist level Not sterile due to incidental contact

A PT completed a developmental assessment on an infant. Which of the following pediatric reflexes should the PT expect to be integrated at the youngest age? a. plantar grasp b. moro c. landau d. galant

d. galant This reflex occurs by touching the spine from the shoulder to the hip. Lateral flexion toward the stimulus side occurs. This integrates at 2 months.

A PT assigns a grade of good after performing a MMT with a pt in prone. What is the MSOT likely muscle group associated with the described testing procedure? a. hip ABD b. hip ADD c. hip IR d. hip ext

d. hip ext

A PT reviews a chart prior to treating a pt in a hospital coronary care unit. A recent entry indicates that the pt is taking an ACE inhibitor. Which of the following side effects is common to ACE inhibitors and would MOST impact the PT performing transfer training with the pt? a. bradycardia b. dehydration c. hypokalemia d. hypotension

d. hypotension ACE inhibitors decrease BP. Common side effects are hypotension, dizziness, fatigue, hyperkalemia, and hyponatremia. Hypotension would affect transfer training due to the position changes

A PT identifies a bluish discoloration of the skin and nailbeds of a pt referred to PT for pulmonary rehab. What does this objective finding indicate? a. hyperoxemia b. hyperoxia c. hypokalemia d. hypoxemia

d. hypoxemia Measured by PaO2, if less than 80 mm Hg then hypoxemia

A PT treats a pt w/ osteoporosis for a general strength program. Based on the dx, which of the following meds would MOST likely be included in a pt's med list? a. esomeprazole (Nexium) b. methotrexate (Rheumatrex) c. metformin (Riomet) d. ibadronate (Boniva)

d. ibadronate (Boniva) this is a bisphosphonate, Fosamax, Actonel, and Reclast are also common

A PT completes a 2-point discrimination sensory assessment of the R hand of a pt who has peripheral nerve injury. Which of the following instructions is the MOST appropriate for the PT to ask during the test? a. location of stimulus b. when 2 points are felt c. when stimulus is first felt d. if 1 or 2 points are felt

d. if 1 or 2 points are felt This can be affected in peripheral nerve injuries, parietal lobe lesion, or central pathway lesion

A child is seen in PT after being dx with a R thoracic scoliotic curve. Which of the following features would be MOST likely given the dx? a. increased space between R arm and trunk b. L rib jump with forward bend test c. excessive ant tilt of pelvis d. increased elevation of R shoulder

d. increased elevation of R shoulder Scoliosis is names for the convexity of their curve (convex on R = R scoliosis), this would elevate the R shoulder

During a treatment session, a pt makes a culturally insensitive remark that the PT feels is offensive. Which of the following actions is MOST appropriate for the PT? a. document in medical record b. transfer pt to another PT's schedule c. recommend D/C d. inform the pt the remark was offensive, continue treatment

d. inform the pt the remark was offensive, continue treatment

A PT initiates an exercise program for a pt who has a LE injury. Which of the following parameters is the single MOST important factor in an exercise program designed to increase muscular strength? a. recovery time between sets b. # repetitions per set c. duration of the session d. intensity of the exericse

d. intensity of the exercise

A PT works with a pt dx with ACL insufficiency. The physician referral specifies closed chain rehab. Which exercise would NOT be appropriate based on the physician order? a. exercise on stair machine b. limited squats to 45 degrees c. walking backwards on treadmill d. isokinetic knee ext and flex

d. isokinetic knee ext and flex These are open chain rehab

A PT participates in a community fitness program by conduction anthropometric measurements designed to determine % body fat. Which site is NOT typically utilized when measuring skinfolds? a. suprailiac b. subscapular c. triceps d. lateral calf

d. lateral calf Medial calf is used w/ a vertical fold

A K2 level ambulator with U transfemoral prosthesis is learning to ambulate up a steep incline (20 degrees). What technique is the MOST appropriate to navigate steep inclinations? a. lead w/ prosthetic limb, use reciprocal pattern b. lead w/ contralateral limb, use reciprocal pattern c. lead w/ prosthetic limb, use step-to pattern d. lead w/ contralateral limb, use step-to pattern

d. lead w/ contralateral limb, use step-to pattern This allows for stable ext of prosthetic knee

A PT is treating a pt with an acute ankle sprain. The PT plans to utilize elastic bandaging to reduce the pt's ankle edema. Which of the following bandages would be the MOST appropriate to use with this pt? a. short stretch to utilize high working pressure b. short stretch to utilize high resting pressure c. long stretch to utilize high working pressure d. long stretch to utilize high resting pressure

d. long stretch to utilize high resting pressure

A pt elevated on a tilt table to 60 degrees suddenly begins to demonstrate S/S of orthostatic hypotension. What is the MOST appropriate PT action? a. lower table 10 degrees, monitor vitals b. lower table 20 degrees, monitor vitals c. lower table 40 degrees, monitor vitals d. lower table completely, monitor vitals

d. lower table completely, monitor vitals The 60 degree position change would be adequate to reduce the pt's symptoms

A pt prepares to be d/c from a rehab hospital after T10 SCI. Which of the following pieces of a equipment should the PT expect to be MOST essential to assist with functional mobility? a. lofstrand crutches b. lofstrand crutches and AFO's c. lofstrand crutches and KAFO's d. manual w/c

d. manual w/c pt with T10 injury or above would not be functional ambulator due to energy demands

A PT works with a pt rehabing from a TBI on a mat program. The program emphasizes various developmental positions to prepare for ambulation. Which developmental position would be the MOST demanding? a. hooklying b. quadruped c. tall kneeling d. modified plantigrade

d. modified plantigrade This requires postural stability of trunk and all extremities

A PT works w/ a pt on proprioceptive and balance activities due to a hx of recent falls. The pt informs the PT that they have been dx w/ optic neuritis. Which condition should the PT MOST suspect be the cause? a. Parkinson's b. Guillain-barre c. myasthenia gravis d. multiple sclerosis

d. multiple sclerosis This is one of the first symptoms of MS, and this corresponding with their therapy activities make this dx most likely

A PT performs girth measurements on a pt rehabing from knee surgery. The PT takes the measurements 5 and 10 cm above the sup pole of the patella. The measurements are 32 and 37 cm on his R leg, 34 and 40 cm on his L leg. Which conclusion can be made regarding the strength of the pt's quads? a. R quad is capable of producing greater force b. L quad is capable of producing greater force c. R and L quads produce equal force d. not enough info

d. not enough info Girth measurements are not enough to determine strength

A pt s/p knee surgery receives instructions on the use of a CPM. Which of the following would be the MOST essential to ensure pt safety? a. instructions on progression of ROM b. utilization of proximal and distal stabilization straps c. recommendations for cryotherapy after session d. orientation to on/off switch

d. orientation to on/off switch

A PT monitors a pt with a C6 SCI positioned on a tilt table. After elevating the tilt table to 30 degrees, the pt reports nausea and dizziness. The PT measures the pt's BP as 70/35 mm Hg. The pt's S/S are MOST indicative of which condition? a. spinal shock b. postural hypertension c. autonomic dysreflexia d. orthostatic hypotension

d. orthostatic hypotension Due to a loss of sympathetic control of vasoconstriction and reduced/lost muscle tone. Change of 20 mm Hg from supine to sit is typically given this condition

A PT discusses common cognitive and behavioral changes associated w/ stroke w/ family members of a pt w/ R hemisphere damage and resultant L hemiplegia. Which term does NOT accurately describe the typical pt presentation? a. poor judgment b. impulsive c. quick d. overly cautious

d. overly cautious Pts with L hemisphere damage are often described as cautious, anxious, and disorganized. They have difficulty in communicating and processing info in a sequential manner. The other options are characteristic of R hemisphere damage.

A pt is referred to PT with a dx of L shoulder impingement. During the exam the PT begins to suspect a systemic cause for the pt's pain. Which of the following symptoms would BEST support this hypothesis? a. pain has been present for years b. pain is alleviated with use of cryotherapy c. pain is aggravated by cervical rotation d. pain remains unrelieved with rest

d. pain remains unrelieved with rest Pain with systemic cause is difficult to reproduce, unrelieved by rest or changing position

A PT employed in an acute care hospital works with a pt dx with CHF. While discussing the planned treatment with the pt, the therapist identifies several findings consistent with the medical dx. Which finding would be the MOST likely? a. decreased accessory muscle use during respiration b. muscle fasciculations and atrophy c. productive cough and decreased respiratory rate d. peripheral edema and dyspnea

d. peripheral edema and dyspnea These are common symptoms of CHF. Peripheral edema is associated with R sided CHF.

A PT treats a pt in the ICU with significant fluid loss. Which objective finding is MOST likely based on the pt's current status? a. dependent edema b. distended neck veins c. orthopnea d. postural hypotension

d. postural hypotension

A PT working in a rehab hospital completed the Braden scale as part of a pt exam. The Braden scale is MOST often used as a risk assessment for which integumentary condition? a. neuropathic ulcers b. arterial insufficiency ulcers c. venous insufficiency ulcers d. pressure ulcers

d. pressure ulcers This scale takes into account risk factors that make one more prone to pressure ulcers like sensation, mobility level, moisture level, nutrition, etc.

A PT determines a pt with a hx of recurrent LBP would benefit from frontal plane stabilization focusing on the quadratus lumborum. Which exercise would BEST accomplish this? a. balancing rod on the back, performing exercises in quadruped b. single leg slides in supine, maintaining neutral spine c. alternating leg lifts in prone while maintaining neutral spine d. propping on elbows in S/L while lifting pelvis of mat (side plank)

d. propping on elbows in S/L while lifting pelvis of mat (side plank) This occurs in the frontal plane and activates the QL and the obliques

A PT attempts to assess the integrity of CN1. Which test would provide the desired info? a. pt protrudes tongue, PT checks for lateral deviation b. pt completed vision exam c. pt performs shoulder shrug against resistance d. pt asked to identify odors w/ eyes closed

d. pt asked to identify odors w/ eyes closed CN1= olfactory

A PT asks a pt to raise one hand to indicate they felt a Semmes-Weinstein monofilament contacting their skin. Which situation would BEST support this type of modification to the procedure? a. pt does not speak English b. pt has ideomotor apraxia c. pt has DM d. pt has Broca's aphasia

d. pt has Broca's aphasia Aka expressive aphasia, language errors

A PT observes a pt exercising on a treadmill while monitoring the pt's vital signs. The pt suddenly develops SOB and chest pain. After resting, the pt develops a cough that produces blood-tinged sputum in addition to their other symptoms. The pt is MOST likely experiencing which condition? a. unstable angina b. MI c. pneumothorax d. pulmonary embolism

d. pulmonary embolism Thrombus loosens and travels throughout the circulatory system and becomes lodged in the lungs. MEDICAL EMERGENCY, call EMS

A pt with lateral epicondylitis reports pain in the lateral elbow, as well as paresthesias that radiate into the forearm and hand. Based on the dx and location of the symptoms, which of the following nerves is MOST likely affected? a. median b. musculocutaneous c. ulnar d. radial

d. radial When this nerve crosses the elbow it runs close to the lateral epicondyle

A pt with an injury to which structure would have the MOST difficulty performing a hammer curl? a. coracobrachialis b. axillary nerve c. supinator muscle d. radial nerve

d. radial nerve This nerve innervates the wrist extensors, supinator, brachioradialis, anconeus, and triceps

A 12 y/o presents with acute onset of groin and medial thigh pain that is rated 7/10. The PT suspects that the pt has a SCFE. Assuming the hypothesis is correct, what would be the MOST appropriate initial action? a. grade 1 and 2 mobilizations of the hip b. gentle PROM c. pulsed US to the hip joint d. referral to an orthopedic surgeon

d. referral to an orthopedic surgeon' Treatment for SCFE usually requires surgical fixation, the PT may be able to perform interventions to manage pain, but this would not fix the root problem

A PT attempts to obtain informed consent from a 17 y/o prior to exercise test. The pt signs the form, but their parent dropped them off and cannot sign the form. Which action should the PT take? a. complete exercise test b. secure another PT or PTA to witness exercise test c. contact referring MD to obtain approval to complete test d. reschedule test

d. reschedule test a minor cannot give formal consent in this case

A PT uses large amplitude movements in the treatment of a pt w/ degenerative neurological disorder. Given the dx, which other intervention would MOST likely be beneficial for this pt? a. core stabilization to maintain neutral spine b. neuro e-stim to reduce atrophy c. sensory integration to improve attention d. rhythmic auditory stimulation to improve gait activities

d. rhythmic auditory stimulation to improve gait activities Amplitude training - BIG - to improve motor performance This can improve gait speed, cadence, and stride length in pts w/Parkinson's.

A pt rehabing from a LE injury has been NWB for 3 wks. A recent physician entry in the medical record indicates the pt is cleared for WB up to 25 pounds. What is the MOST appropriate device to use when instructing the pt on the new WB status? a. inclinometer b. tape measure c. anthropometer d. scale

d. scale This can show immediate feedback in pounds

A child is seen in PT after her mother expressed concern that she had a leg length discrepancy. Exam in standing reveals R shoulder elevation, unequal spacing between the UE and the trunk, and the head positioned away from the midline. Which condition is MOST consistent with the described clinical presentation? a. spondylolysis b. kyphosis c. spondylolisthesis d. scoliosis

d. scoliosis

A PT works on diaphragmatic breathing with a pt who has a chronic pulmonary disease. The pt has significant weakness of the diaphragm and is hypertensive. Which of the following positions is the MOST appropriate to initiate treatment? a. prone b. supine c. trendelenburg d. semi-fowler's

d. semi-fowler's This places a pt in supine, head of bed elevated 45, pillows under knees. This would facilitate movement of diaphragm and reduce weight of abdominal contents of diaphragm.

A PT treats a pt w/ Klinefelter syndrome. What is the etiology of the condition? a. autosomal dominant b. autosomal trisomy c. partial deletion d. sex chromosome aneuploidy disorder

d. sex chromosome aneuploidy disorder Aneuploidy is an abnormal # of chromosomes in a cell. This syndrome is when a male is born with an at least 1 extra X chromosome

An older adult pt has difficutly communicating in PT due to presbycusis. What intervention is the MOST appropriate to improve communication with the pt? a. speak with louder voice b. speak in higher tone c. speak with lower voice d. speak in lower tone

d. speak in lower tone Presbycusis is the normal loss of auditory acuity, lower frequencies are preserved and should be used

A PT is asked to assist in administering a graded exercise test to a pt referred to a phase II cardiac rehab program. Which of the following objective findings would MOST warrant the termination of the test? a. diastolic BP rising to 100 mm Hg b. systolic BP rising to 200 mm Hg c. multifocal premature ventricular contractions d. sustained ventricular tachycardia

d. sustained ventricular tachycardia This is an absolute termination of graded exercise test. This lasting more than 30 seconds can be life threatening

A pt presents to PT for treatment of a non-operative osteoporotic fx. Which of the following structures would have been LEAST likely affected? a. distal radius b. vertebral body c. proximal femur d. tibial plateau

d. tibial plateau

A PT reviews a pt's medication list. The pt is 10 days post L THA. Which medication would MOST likely prohibit the pt from driving? a. celecoxib (Celebrex) b. meloxicam (Mobic) c. methylprednisolone (Medrol) d. tramadol (Ultram)

d. tramadol (Ultram) This is a narcotic-like med to treat severe pain

A PT applies a dressing to an area of skin on a pt's heel. The PT decided to use the dressing as a prophylactic measure to reduce the risk of skin breakdown in an area determined to be susceptible. Which of the following dressings would the PT have MOST likely used? a. calcium alginate b. hydrocolloid c. hydrogel d. transparent film

d. transparent film This allows for frequent assessment and offers protection, the film is oxygen permeable, but not to bacteria or moisture

A PT applies a dressing to an area of skin on a pt's heel. The PT decided to use the dressing as a prophylactic measure to reduce the risk of skin breakdown in an area that was determined to be particularly susceptible. Which of the following dressings would the PT have MOST likely used? a. calcium alginate b. hydrocolloid c. hydrogel d. transparent film

d. transparent film This allows for frequent assessment of the wound while offering protection from microorganisms and moisture.

A PT performs massage using his index finger over a pt's patellar tendon. The PT applies pressure perpendicular to the direction of the patellar tendon's fibers. Which of the following massage techniques is MOST consistent with the description? a. connective tissue b. petrissage c. tapotement d. transverse friction

d. transverse friction

A PT progresses a pt involved in phase 2 cardiac rehab through an established exercise protocol. It indicates the pt should be performing activities requiring 3-4 METs. Which of the following activities is the MOST appropriate? a. level walking 1 mph b. jogging 5 mph c. cycling 10 mph d. treadmill walking 3 mph

d. treadmill walking 3 mph a= 1-2 b= 7-8 c= 5-6 d= 3-4

A PT examines a pt who has been experiencing intermittent butt and lateral thigh pain for 2 wks. The pt rates the pain as 3/10, however, indicates that the pain is a 6-7/10 during activity or at night. Which of the following conditions is MOST consistent with this presentation? a. sacroilitis b. iliolumbar syndrome c. piriformis syndrome d. trochanteric bursitis

d. trochanteric bursitis Pt is sensitive to palpation over bursa and may have pain worsened by activity or periods of long rest

During palpation, a PT determines the spine of a pt's scapula is level with SP of T2. Which exercise should the PT MOST likely prescribe? a. shoulder shrugs w/ dumbbells b. horizontal ABD with resistance band c. serratus ant punch w/ dumbbells d. upper trap stretch

d. upper trap stretch Spine of scapula should align with SP of T3, this pt shows elevated scapula most likely due to short upper traps

A pt's job requires them to move heavy boxes from a transport cart to an elevated conveyor belt. The pt can complete the activity, however is unable to prevent hyperextension of the spine. Which of the following action is MOST appropriate for the PT to implement? a. initiate a pelvic stabilization program b. design an abdominal strengthening program c. review proper body mechanics d. use an elevated platform when placing boxes on the belt

d. use an elevated platform when placing boxes on the belt

A PT applies the principle of stretching where stretching for longer decreases more tissue tension. Which of the following scenarios BEST represents the use of a stretching technique associated with this principle? a. use of cyclic (intermittent) stretching to improve soft tissue flexibility b. use of dynamic stretching as a warm-up for athletic activities c. use of agonist contraction stretching technique to improve muscle flexibility d. use of stretching technique designed to improve ROM in contractures

d. use of stretching technique designed to improve ROM in contractures This principle is the idea behind splints that are used to prevent the progression of contractures, this is the stress-relaxation technique

A PT is treating a pt with R hemiplegia in standing balance activities The PT works on reaching activities on level surfaces, on uneven surfaces, and picking up objects off the ground. Which type of practice is MOST consistent with these interventions? a. blocked b. distributed c. constant d. variable

d. variable Practice task under differing conditions

A PT is treating a pt with R hemiplegia using standing balance activities. The PT works on reaching activities on level surfaces, on uneven surfaces, and by picking items up off the ground. Which practice is MOST consistent with the form of intervention? a. blocked practice b. distributes practice c. constant practice d. variable practice

d. variable practice This is practicing a given task under differing conditions

A PT listens to the lung sounds of a pt w/ chronic bronchitis. The pt was admitted to the hospital 2 days ago after complaining of SOB and difficulty breathing. While performing auscultation, the PT identifies distinct lung sounds w/ a high constant pitch during exhale. What is the type of sound MOST consistent with? a. crackles b. rales c. rhonchi d. wheezes

d. wheezes This is a continuous high pitched adventitious breath sound w/ exhale associated w/ airway obstruction/bronchospasm

A PT listens to the lung sound of a pt w/ chronic bronchitis. The pt was admitted to the hospital 2 days ago after complaining of SOB and difficulty breathing. While performing auscultation, the PT identifies distinct lung sounds with a high constant pitch during exhale. What is this type of sound MOST consistent with? a. crackels b. rales c. rhonchi d. wheezes

d. wheezes Wheezes are continuous high-pitched, adventitious breath sounds that are most frequently heard on exhale and associated with airway obstruction or bronchospasm. Inspiratory wheezing is caused by movement of air through secretions.