LIPPINCOTT SHOCK questions

107. Which of the following is a risk factor for hypovolemic shock? 1. Hemorrhage. 2. Antigen-antibody reaction. 3. Gram-negative bacteria. 4. Vasodilation.

1. Hemorrhage. Causes of hypovolemic shock include external fuid loss, such as hemorrhage; internal fuid shifting, such as ascites and severe edema; and dehydration. Massive vasodilation is the initial phase of vasogenic or distributive shock, which can be further subdivided into three types of shock: septic, neurogenic, and anaphylactic. A severe antigen-antibody reaction occurs in anaphylactic shock. Gram-negative bacterial infection is the most common cause of septic shock. Loss of sympathetic tone (vasodilation) occurs in neurogenic shock.

113. A client with toxic shock has been receiving ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin), 1 g every 12 hours. In addition to culture and sensitivity studies, which other laboratory findings should the nurse monitor? 1. Serum creatinine. 2. Spinal fuid analysis. 3. Arterial blood gases. 4. Serum osmolality.

1. Serum creatinine. The nurse monitors the blood levels of antibiotics, white blood cells, serum creatinine, and blood urea nitrogen because of the decreased perfusion to the kidneys, which are responsible for filtering out the Rocephin. It is possible that the clearance of the antibiotic has been decreased enough to cause toxicity. Increased levels of these laboratory values should be reported to the physician immediately. A spinal fluid analysis is done to examine cerebral spinal fluid, but there is no indication of central nervous system involvement in this case. Arterial blood gases are used to determine actual blood gas levels and assess acid-base balance. Serum osmolality is used to monitor fluid and electrolyte balance.

106. Which of the following findings is the best indication that fluid replacement for the client in hypovolemic shock is adequate? 1. Urine output greater than 30 mL/h. 2. Systolic blood pressure greater than 110 mm Hg. 3. Diastolic blood pressure greater than 90 mm Hg. 4. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min.

1. Urine output greater than 30 mL/h. Urine output provides the most sensitive indication of the client's response to therapy for hypovolemic shock. Urine output should be consistently greater than 35 mL/h. Blood pressure is a more accurate refection of the adequacy of vasoconstriction than of tissue perfusion. Respiratory rate is not a sensitive indicator of fuid balance in the client recovering from hypovolemic shock.

115. Which of the following is an indication of a complication of septic shock? 1. Anaphylaxis. 2. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). 3. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). 4. Mitral valve prolapse.

2. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). ARDS is a complication associated with septic shock. ARDS causes respiratory failure and may lead to death, even after the client has recovered from shock. Anaphylaxis is a type of dis-tributive or vasogenic shock. COPD is a functional category of pulmonary disease that consists of persistent obstruction of bronchial airflow and involves chronic bronchitis and chronic emphysema. Mitral valve prolapse is a condition in which the mitral valve is pushed back too far during ventricular contraction.

108. Which is a priority assessment for the client in shock who is receiving an IV infusion of packed red blood cells and normal saline solution? 1. Fluid balance. 2. Anaphylactic reaction. 3. Pain. 4. Altered level of consciousness.

2. Anaphylactic reaction. The client who is receiving a blood product requires astute assessment for signs and symptoms of allergic reaction and anaphylaxis, including pruritus (itching), urticaria (hives), facial or glottal edema, and shortness of breath. If such a reaction occurs, the nurse should stop the transfu-sion immediately, but leave the IV line intact, and notify the physician. Usually, an antihistamine such as diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl) is administered. Epinephrine and corticosteroids may be administered in severe reactions. Fluid balance is not an immediate concern during the blood admin-istration. The administration should not cause pain unless it is extravasating out of the vein, in which case the IV administration should be stopped. Administration of a unit of blood should not affect the level of consciousness.

Which of the following neurologic changes indicates that the client is in the progressive stage of shock? ■ 1. Restlessness. ■ 2. Confusion. ■ 3. Incoherent speech. ■ 4. Unconsciousness.

2. In the progressive stage of shock, the client can display listlessness or agitation, confusion, and slowed speech. Restlessness occurs in the compen- satory stage. Incoherent speech and unconscious- ness are clinical manifestations of the irreversible stage.

109. The client who does not respond adequately to fluid replacement has a prescription for an IV infusion of dopamine hydrochloride at 5 mcg/kg/min. To determine that the drug is having the desired effect, the nurse should assess the client for: 1. Increased renal and mesenteric blood fow. 2. Increased cardiac output. 3. Vasoconstriction. 4. Reduced preload and afterload.

2. Increased cardiac output. At medium doses (4 to 8 mcg/kg/min), dopamine hydrochloride slightly increases the heart rate and improves contractility to increase cardiac output and improve tissue perfusion. When given at low doses (0.5 to 3.0 mcg/kg/min), dopamine increases renal and mesenteric blood flow. At high doses (8 to 10 mcg/kg/min), dopamine produces vasoconstriction, which is an undesirable effect. Dopamine is not given to affect preload and afterload.

110. A client is receiving dopamine hydrochloride for treatment of shock. The nurse should: 1. Administer pain medication concurrently. 2. Monitor blood pressure continuously. 3. Evaluate arterial blood gases at least every 2 hours. 4. Monitor for signs of infection.

2. Monitor blood pressure continuously. The client who is receiving dopamine hydrochloride requires continuous blood pressure monitoring with an invasive or noninvasive device. The nurse may titrate the IV infusion to maintain a systolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg. Administration of a pain medication concurrently with dopamine hydrochloride, which is a potent sympathomimetic with dose-related alpha-adrener-gic agonist, beta 1-selective adrenergic agonist, and dopaminergic blocking effects, is not an essential nursing action for a client who is in shock with already low hemodynamic values. Arterial blood gas concentrations should be monitored according to the client's respiratory status and acid-base balance status and are not directly related to the dopamine hydrochloride dosage. Monitoring for signs of infection is not related to the nursing action for the client receiving dopamine hydrochloride.

The nurse is assessing a client with irrevers- ible shock. The nurse should document which of the following? ■ 1. Increased alertness. ■ 2. Circulatory collapse. ■ 3. Hypertension. ■ 4. Diuresis.

2. Severe hypoperfusion to all vital organs results in failure of the vital functions and then cir- culatory collapse. Hypotension, anuria, respiratory distress, and acidosis are other symptoms associated with irreversible shock. The client in irreversible shock will not be alert.

112. When assessing a client for early septic shock, the nurse should assess the client for which of the following? 1. Cool, clammy skin. 2. Warm, flushed skin. 3. Increased blood pressure. 4. Hemorrhage.

2. Warm, flushed skin. Warm, fushed skin from a high cardiac output with vasodilation occurs in warm shock or the hyperdynamic phase (first phase) of septic shock. Other signs and symptoms of early septic shock include fever with restlessness and confusion; normal or decreased blood pressure with tachypnea and tachycardia; increased or normal urine output; and nausea and vomiting or diarrhea. Cool, clammy skin occurs in the hypodynamic or cold phase (later phase). Hemorrhage is not a factor in septic shock.

Which of the following findings should the nurse note in the client who is in the compensatory stage of shock? ■ 1. Decreased urinary output. ■ 2. Significant hypotension. ■ 3. Tachycardia. ■ 4. Mental confusion.

3. In the compensatory stage of shock, the client exhibits moderate tachycardia. If the shock continues to the progressive stage, decreased urinary output, hypotension, and mental confusion develops as a result of failure to perfuse and ineffective com- pensatory mechanisms. These findings are indications that the body's compensatory mechanisms are failing.

104. Which of the following is the most important goal of nursing care for a client who is in shock? 1. Manage fuid overload. 2. Manage increased cardiac output. 3. Manage inadequate tissue perfusion. 4. Manage vasoconsutriction of vascular beds.

3. Manage inadequate tissue perfusion. Nursing interventions and collaborative management are focused on correcting and main-taining adequate tissue perfusion. Inadequate tissue perfusion may be caused by hemorrhage, as in hypovolemic shock; by decreased cardiac output, as in cardiogenic shock; or by massive vasodilation of the vascular bed, as in neurogenic, anaphylactic, and septic shock. Fluid deficit, not fluid overload, occurs in shock.

111. A client who has been taking warfarin has been admitted with severe acute rectal bleeding and the following laboratory results: International Normalized Ratio (INR), 8; hemoglobin, 11 g/dL (110 g/L); and hematocrit, 33% (0.33). In which order should the nurse implement the following physician prescriptions? 1. Give 1 unit fresh frozen plasma (FFP). 2. Administer vitamin K 2.5 mg by mouth. 3. Schedule client for sigmoidoscopy. 4. Administer IV dextrose 5% in 0.45% normal saline solution.

4,1,2,3 Analysis of the client's laboratory results indicate that an INR of 8 is increased beyond therapeutic ranges. The client is also experiencing severe acute rectal bleeding and has a hemoglobin level in the low range of normal and a hematocrit refecting fuid volume loss. The nurse should first establish an IV line and administer the dextrose in saline. Next the nurse should administer the FFP. FFP con-tains concentrated clotting factors and provides an immediate reversal of the prolonged INR. Vitamin K 2.5 mg PO should be given next because it reverses the warfarin by returning the PT to normal values. However, the reversal process occurs over 1 to 2 hours. Last, the nurse can schedule the client for the sigmoidoscopy.

114. Which nursing intervention is most impor-tant in preventing septic shock? 1. Administering IV fuid replacement therapy as prescribed. 2. Obtaining vital signs every 4 hours for all clients. 3. Monitoring red blood cell counts for elevation. 4. Maintaining asepsis of indwelling urinary catheters.

4. Maintaining asepsis of indwelling urinary catheters. Maintaining asepsis of indwelling urinary catheters is essential to prevent infection. Preventing septic shock is a major focus of nursing care because the mortality rate for septic shock is as high as 90% in some populations. Very young and elderly clients (those younger than age 2 or older than age 65) are at increased risk for septic shock. Administering IV fuid replacement therapy, obtain-ing vital signs every 4 hours on all clients, and monitoring red blood cell counts for elevation do not pertain to septic shock prevention.

105. Which of the following indicates hypovolemic shock in a client who has had a 15% blood loss? 1. Pulse rate less than 60 bpm. 2. Respiratory rate of 4 breaths/min. 3. Pupils unequally dilated. 4. Systolic blood pressure less than 90 mm Hg.

4. Systolic blood pressure less than 90 mm Hg. Typical signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock include systolic blood pressure less than 90 mm Hg, narrowing pulse pressure, tachycardia, tachypnea, cool and clammy skin, decreased urine output, and mental status changes, such as irritability or anxiety. Unequal dilation of the pupils is related to central nervous system injury or possibly to a previous history of eye injury.