LPN practice questions for Crissy-Topic one: Fundamentals

A client who wakes up after a surgery spits out the oral airway placed during the recovery from anesthesia. What does this behavior indicate to the nurse? A.) The client's gag reflex has returned. B.) The client is confused due to anesthesia. C.) The client is nauseated and wants to vomit. D.) The client's airway is becoming obstructed

A.) The client's gag reflex has returned. The ability to spit out the oral airway indicates that the normal gag reflex has returned, and the client can protect his or her airway. Confusion due to anesthesia may be manifested as disorientation. The ability to spit put the airway does not mean that the client is nauseated. Oral airway is meant to keep the airway patent; it may not obstruct the airway.

Which psychophysiologic factors can influence communication between a nurse and a client? Select all that apply. A.) Privacy level B.) Emotional status C.) Information exchange D.) Level of caring expressed E.) Growth and development

B.) Emotional status E.) Growth and development Growth and development and emotional status are two psychophysiologic factors that influence communication between a nurse and a client. Privacy level is an environmental factor. Information exchange is a situational factor. Level of caring expressed is a relational factor.

Which theory focuses on developing the interpersonal relationships between the nurse, client, and the client's family? A.) Orem's theory B.) Peplau's theory C.) Leininger's theory D.) Henderson's theory

B.) Peplau's theory Peplau's theory focuses on interpersonal relationships between the nurse, the client, and the client's family by developing the nurse-client relationship. Orem's theory focuses on the client's self-care needs. Leininger's theory recognizes the importance of culture and its influence on everything that involves the client and the providers of nursing care. Henderson's theory focuses on assisting the individual in the performance of activities that he or she can perform unaided that will contribute to health, recovery, or a peaceful death.

The nurse is caring for a client admitted with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse should monitor the results of which laboratory test to evaluate the client for hypoxia? A.) Red blood cell count B.) Sputum culture C.) Arterial blood gas D.) Total hemoglobin

C.) Arterial blood gas Red blood cell count, sputum culture, and total hemoglobin tests assist in the evaluation of a client with respiratory difficulties; however, arterial blood gas analysis is the only test that evaluates gas exchange in the lungs. This provides accurate information about the client's oxygenation status.

A client tells the nurse, "I am so worried about the results of the biopsy they took today." The nurse overhears the nursing assistant reply, "Don't worry. I'm sure everything will come out all right." What does the nurse conclude about the nursing assistant's answer? A.) It shows empathy. B.) It uses distraction. C.) It gives false reassurance. D.) It makes a value judgment

C.) It gives false reassurance. A person cannot know the results of the biopsy until it is examined under a microscope. The response does not allow the client to voice concerns, shuts off communication, and provides reassurance that may not be accurate. This answer does not empathize with the client; it minimizes the client's concerns. This response is not a form of distraction; it minimizes the client's concern and shuts off communication. This response does not contain any value statements.

A nursing student is listing the professional responsibilities and roles of the nurse. Who is the most independently functioning nurse? A.) Nurse educator B.) Nurse researcher C.) Nurse administrator D.) Advanced practice registered nurse

D.) Advanced practice registered nurse

How many levels of critical thinking exist for nursing judgment? Record your answer using a whole number. ______

There are three levels of critical thinking in nursing judgment. The first level is basic critical thinking, in which the nurse has faith that the expert has the right answer to each problem. The second level is complex critical thinking. The nurse examines and analyzes information provided by the expert. A nurse engaging in this critical thinking may discover that another option is available with which to solve an issue. The third level of critical thinking is commitment. A nurse at this level can make choices without help from others. The nurse at this level of critical thinking takes full responsibility for every action in which he or she engages.

What type of research explores the interrelationship among variables of interest without any active intervention by a researcher? A.) Historical research B.) Evaluation research C.) Exploratory research D.) Correlation research

D.) Correlation research Correlation research involves the exploration of the interrelationship among variables of interest without any active intervention by a researcher. Historical studies are designed to establish facts and relationships concerning past events. Evaluation research tests how well a program, practice, or policy is working. Exploratory research is an initial study designed to develop or refine the dimensions of phenomena.

Arrange these fine-motor skills in ascending order as the infant develops them. 1. Uses pincer grasp 2. Reflexive grasp 3. Bangs objects together 4. Pulls feet to the mouth 5. Places objects into containers 6. Looks at and plays with fingers

The infant begins to develop fine-motor skills within the first month of its birth. The reflexive grasp is seen in the first month. By the age of two to four months, the infant begins to look at his fingers and play with them. The infant is able to bring objects from the hand to the mouth. At four to six months, the infant begins to pull his or her feet to his or her mouth to explore. By the age of six to eight months, the infant is able to hold objects and bang them together. The infant begins to crawl by the age of eight to 10 months and use a pincer grasp to pick up small objects. At this age, the infant also shows a hand preference. The infant is able to pick up objects and place them in containers by the age of 10 to 12 months.

A nurse is assessing a child who is accompanied by a parent. The parent has remarried and has another child from the second marriage. What kind of a family does this child belong to? A.) Blended family B.) Extended family C.) Alternative family D.) Single-parent family

A.) Blended family The child belongs to a blended family. Such a family is formed when parents bring unrelated children from prior relationships into a new, joint living situation. Extended family comprises the husband, wife, children, uncles, aunts, cousins, and grandparents. An alternative family may have grandparents caring for grandchildren. It may also be a multi-adult household with cohabiting partners or homosexual couples. A single-parent family is formed when one parent cares for the children following the death, divorce, or desertion of the other parent. A single person may also decide to have or adopt a child.

A client who had been receiving palliative care for cancer has deteriorated and now needs end-of-life care. The nurse identifies that which types of care will now be removed from the treatment plan? Select all that apply. A.) Chemotherapy B.) Repositioning C.) Regular oral care D.) Blood transfusion E.) Radiation therapy

A.) Chemotherapy D.) Blood transfusion E.) Radiation therapy Palliative care is a combination of care provided when cure is not possible for a chronic disease. It may include symptom management and comfort measures. Chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and blood transfusions are a part of palliative care meant to alleviate symptoms and promote well-being. These therapies may not be required in a client who is about to die and is receiving end-of-life care. End-of-life care comprises measures to make the client as comfortable as possible. It may include measures such as regular oral care and repositioning.

Which workers would the nurse consider to be at high risk of developing dermatitis? Select all that apply. A.) Dry cleaners B.) Dye workers C.) Lathe operators D.) Hospital workers E.) Agricultural workers

A.) Dry cleaners B.) Dye workers Dry cleaners and dye workers are at high risk of developing dermatitis due to exposure to substances such as solvents and dye stuffs. Lathe operators are at high risk of developing cancer. Hospital workers are at greater risk of latex allergies. Agricultural workers are at high risk of skin cancer.

When caring for a client who is receiving enteral feedings, the nurse should take which measure to prevent aspiration? A.) Elevate the head of the bed between 30 and 45 degrees. B.) Decrease flow rate at night. C.) Check for residual daily. D.) Irrigate regularly with warm tap water

A.) Elevate the head of the bed between 30 and 45 degrees. To prevent aspiration, the nurse should keep the head of the bed elevated between 30 and 45 degrees. Elevating the head any higher causes increased sacral pressure and increases the risk of skin breakdown. Decreasing flow rate, checking residual, and irrigating regularly will not prevent aspiration.

Which physiologic changes may occur during the first trimester of pregnancy? Select all that apply. A.) Fatigue B.) Increased libido C.) Morning sickness D.) Breast enlargement E.) Braxton Hicks contractions

A.) Fatigue C.) Morning sickness D.) Breast enlargement Fatigue, morning sickness, and breast enlargement are observed during the first trimester of pregnancy. Increased libido is observed during the second trimester of pregnancy. Braxton Hicks contractions are observed during the third trimester of pregnancy.

A client with congestive heart failure is receiving intravenous digoxin (Cardoxin) therapy. The registered nurse identifies that which items on the client's care plan are appropriate for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) to perform? Select all that apply. A.) Help the client ambulate when required. B.) Monitor the client's vitals every 30 minutes. C.) Administer adequate oral fluids to the client. D.) Prepare the nursing diagnosis after assessing the client. E.) Administer the digoxin (Cardoxin) if the client has chest pain

A.) Help the client ambulate when required. B.) Monitor the client's vitals every 30 minutes. C.) Administer adequate oral fluids to the client. To provide safe care, the nurse should act within the scope of practice and certification. The licensed practice nurse (LPN) can monitor the vitals, ambulate the client, and administer oral fluids to prevent dehydration. The LPN cannot administer medications intravenously and cannot formulate nursing diagnosis; therefore, these two actions do not fall within the scope of the LPN's practice.

A nursing student is listing modifiable risk factors that affect client physical health and wellness. Which risk factors listed by the nursing student are accurate? Select all that apply. A.) Lifestyle B.) Environment C.) Aging factors D.) Sex or gender E.) Genetic factors

A.) Lifestyle B.) Environment Lifestyle and the environment are evidence-based modifiable factors that affect client physical health and wellness. Aging, sex, and genetic factors are all considered non-modifiable risk factors. Although gender reassignment can be considered a modification, it has not shown to be a modifiable risk factor for client physical health and wellness.

To administer a saline enema to a client the PN inserts the tubing 3 inches into the client's rectum & elevates the saline container 6 inches above the client's body. After the PN opens the clamp, the saline solution does not infuse. What is the best action for the PN to take? A.) Raise the saline container 6 more inches above the body B.) insert the tubing and additional 3 inches into the rectum C.) instruct the client to take several slow, deep breaths D.) remove the tubing and check the client for fecal impaction.

A.) Raise the saline container 6 more inches above the body "the saline flows by gravity and should be raised 12 inches above the body."

Which nursing practice is associated with the self-regulation skill? A.) Reflecting on one's experience B.) Reflecting on one's own behavior C.) Supporting one's findings and conclusions D.) Clarifying any data that one is uncertain about

A.) Reflecting on one's experience Self-regulation involves reflecting on the nurse's experience. Evaluation involves reflecting on the nurse's own behavior. Explanation involves supporting findings and conclusions. Interpretation involves clarifying any data about which the nurse is uncertain.

When assessing a client's fluid and electrolyte status, the nurse recalls that the regulator of extracellular osmolarity is what? A.) Sodium B.) Potassium C.) Chloride D.) Calcium

A.) Sodium Sodium is the most abundant extracellular fluid cation and regulates serum (extracellular) osmolarity, as well as nerve impulse transmission and acid-base balance. Potassium is the major intracellular osmolarity regulator, and it also regulates metabolic activities, transmission and conduction of nerve impulses, cardiac conduction, and smooth and skeletal muscle contraction. Chloride is a major extracellular fluid anion and follows sodium. Calcium is an extracellular cation necessary for bone and teeth formation, blood clotting, hormone secretion, cardiac conduction, transmission of nerve impulses, and muscle contraction.

A nursing student is listing the different levels of the health care services pyramid. Under which type of health care services should the nursing student include subacute care? A.) Tertiary care B.) Continuing care C.) Restorative care D.) Secondary acute care

A.) Tertiary care The nursing student should include subacute care under tertiary care. Subacute care is not a part of continuing care, restorative care, or secondary acute care health care services.

The nurse is entering a client's data in the electronic health record. What action should the nurse take to minimize ambiguity and confusion? A.) Use consistent, codified terminology. B.) Record the data in the client's presence. C.) Enter the data in the client's native language. D.) Upload scanned copies of the client's records.

A.) Use consistent, codified terminology. An electronic health record is a client's official digital health record, and is shared among multiple facilities and agencies. Therefore the nurse must use consistent, codified terminology to eliminate ambiguity and confusion. Recording the data in the presence of the client will not help another health care professional understand the data. Healthcare providers review electronic health record for continuing a client's treatment. Therefore the nurse should enter client data by using a clear codified scheme, not in the client's native language. The nurse should not upload scanned copies of client records because others may not understand the nurse's handwriting and may get confused.

What would be the respiratory rate in two-year-old child? A.) 20 B.) 30 C.) 40 D.) 50

B.) 30 The normal range for the respiratory rate in a two-year-old kid (toddler) is between 25 and 32 breaths per minute. Twenty breaths per minute is the normal respiratory rate in adolescents and adults. The normal respiratory rate in newborns is 40. The normal respiratory rate in infants is 50 breaths per minute.

During a routine checkup a client reports concerns over weight gain despite trying juice cleanses and other trend diets. The nurse records the client's weight and BMI at a healthy range, but the client states, "I wish I were as thin as my co-workers." The client is at risk for what culturally-bound condition? A.) Neurasthenia B.) Anorexia nervosa C.) Shenjing shuairuo D.) Ataque de nervios

B.) Anorexia nervosa Anorexia nervosa is a Western culture-bound eating disorder characterized by obsession with body image. A client who continues to follow weight loss diets despite being a healthy weight may be at risk for malnutrition. The client with neurasthenia may feel a lack of energy but not necessarily from following a strict diet to maintain body image. Shenjing shuairuo is a condition associated with Chinese culture that focuses on a weakness of nerves and is not associated with eating disorders or body image. Ataque de nervios is a Latino-Caribbean culture-bound syndrome and is not associated with body image.

Which activity by the community nurse can be considered an illness prevention strategy? A.) Encouraging the client to exercise daily B.) Arranging an immunization program for chicken pox C.) Teaching the community about stress management D.) Teaching the client about maintaining a nutritious diet

B.) Arranging an immunization program for chicken pox An illness prevention program protects people from actual or potential threats to health. A chickenpox immunization program is an illness prevention program. It motivates the community to prevent a decline in health or functional levels. A health promotion program encourages the client to maintain the present levels of health. The nurse promotes the health of the client by encouraging the client to exercise daily. Wellness education teaches people how to care for themselves in a healthy manner. The nurse provides wellness education by teaching about stress management. The nurse promotes the health of the client by teaching the client to maintain a nutritious diet.

A client with an abdominal wound infected with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is scheduled for a computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen. To ensure client and visitor safety during transport, the nurse should implement which precaution? A.) No special precautions are required. B.) Cover the infected site with a dressing. C.) Drape the client with a covering labeled biohazardous. D.) Place a surgical mask on the client

B.) Cover the infected site with a dressing. Covering the infected site with a dressing will contain secretions and set up a barrier, thus decreasing the risk for transmission to others. Contact precautions must be used for clients with known or suspected infections transmitted by direct contact or contact with items in the environment. Draping the client with a sheet marked biohazardous does not protect the client's privacy. A wound infected with MRSA can be transmitted to others via contact, not the airborne route; thus a mask is unnecessary.

Which professional standard does the nurse feel is most important for critical thinking? A.) Logical thinking B.) Evaluation criteria C.) Accurate knowledge D.) Relevant information

B.) Evaluation criteria An evaluation criterion is an important professional standard required for critical thinking. Logical thinking, accurate knowledge, and relevant information are important intellectual standards required for critical thinking.

What is exploratory research? A.) It is a study that tests how well a program, practice, or policy is working. B.) It is a study designed to develop a hypothesis about the relationships among phenomena. C.) It is a study that explores the interrelationships among variables of interest without any active intervention by the researcher. D.) It is a study that measures characteristics of situations, or groups, and the frequency with which certain events or characteristics occur.

B.) It is a study designed to develop a hypothesis about the relationships among phenomena. Exploratory research is an initial study designed to develop or refine the dimensions of phenomena or to develop or refine a hypothesis about the relationships among phenomena. Evaluation research is a study that tests how well a program, practice, or policy is working. Correlational research is a study that explores the interrelationships among variables of interest without any active intervention by the researcher. Descriptive research is a study that measures characteristics of persons, situations, or groups and the frequency with which certain events or characteristics occur.

After changing a dressing that was used to cover a draining wound on a client with vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE), the nurse should take which step to ensure proper disposal of the soiled dressing? A.) Place the dressing in the bedside trash can. B.) Place the dressing in a red bag/hazardous materials bag. C.) Contact Environmental Services personnel to pick up the dressing. D.) Transport the dressing to the laboratory to be placed in the incinerator

B.) Place the dressing in a red bag/hazardous materials bag. Contact precautions must be used for clients with known or suspected infections transmitted by direct contact or contact with items in the environment; thus, the dressing should be placed in a red bag or hazardous materials bag. The soiled dressing should not be placed in a single bag and left in the trash can. Infection control is every healthcare worker's responsibility, not just Environmental Services'. The lab is not responsible for disposal of hazardous wastes that occur as a result of normal nursing activities.

A client with bone cancer is receiving hospice care at home. The hospice program also provides respite care. What is the purpose of respite care? A.) Assisting the client with meals and personal care B.) Providing short-term relief to the family caregiver C.) Providing skilled nursing interventions for the client D.) Providing counseling and treatment for behavioral problems

B.) Providing short-term relief to the family caregiver Hospice programs are focused at providing pain relief to the client. Some hospice programs also provide short-term relief or "time-off" to the family caregiver. This enables the caregiver to leave the home to attend to other activities while the client is looked after by a responsible person. Services in an assisted living facility provide meals and personal care to the clients. A skilled nursing facility or an intermediate care facility provides skilled interventions such as intravenous administration of fluids, wound care, or long-term ventilator management. Psychiatric facilities provide counseling and treatment to clients for behavioral problems.

Which act protects a person who is HIV positive? A.) The National Organ Transplant Act B.) The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) C.) The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) D.) The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA)

B.) The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) protects a person who is HIV positive. The National Organ Transplant Act protects the donor's estate from liability for injury or damage that results from the use of the organ. The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) requires healthcare associations to provide written information to clients about their rights under state law to make decisions, including the right to refuse treatment and formulate advance directives. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) protects individuals from losing their health insurance when changing jobs by providing portability.

A health care worker is collecting data on the quality of health care provided in a health care center. The health care worker finds that too many nurses are attending to a single client. What does the health care worker conclude from this? A.) The nursing team is not providing safe care. B.) The nursing team is not providing efficient care. C.) The nursing team is not providing effective care. D.) The nursing team is not providing patient-centered care

B.) The nursing team is not providing efficient care. Too many nurses attending to a single client indicates that the work that can be performed by a few nurses is being performed by many nurses. This indicates that the nursing team lacks efficiency. The inability of the nursing team to avoid injuries in the client indicates that the nursing team is unable to perform safe care. The inability to address the problems of the vulnerable groups indicates that the nursing team is unable to provide effective care. The inability to address all the problems of the client while providing care indicates that the nursing team is unable to provide patient-centered care.

The registered nurse is teaching a nursing student about providing care to an older adult with dementia. Which statement made by the nursing student indicates a need for further education? A.) "I should serve food that is easy to eat." B.) "I should assist the client with eating." C.) "I should monitor weight and food intake once in a month." D.) "I should offer food supplements that are tasty and easy to swallow."

C.) "I should monitor weight and food intake once in a month." The nurse should monitor an older client's weight and food intake at least once a day because of the client's dementia. The nurse should serve food that is easy to eat provide assistance with eating. The nurse should also offer food supplements that are tasty and easy to swallow.

A client is diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). When examining the client's oral cavity, the nurse assesses white patchy plaques on the mucosa. The nurse recognizes that this finding most likely represents what opportunistic infection? A.) Cytomegalovirus B.) Histoplasmosis C.) Candida albicans D.) Human papillomavirus

C.) Candida albicans (think yeast infection) White patchy plaques on the oral mucosa would most likely be a result of C. albicans, a yeastlike fungal infection. This condition is also known as "thrush." Cytomegalovirus may cause a serious viral infection in persons with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), resulting in retinal, gastrointestinal, and pulmonary manifestations. Histoplasmosis is an infection caused by inhalation of spores of the fungus Histoplasma capsulatum and is characterized by fever, malaise, cough, and lymphadenopathy. Human papillomavirus typically manifests as warts on the hands and feet, as well as mucous membrane lesions of the oral, anal, and genital cavities. It may be transmitted without the presence of warts through body fluids, with some forms associated with cancerous and precancerous conditions.

A nurse is helping a client to maintain and regain health, manage his or her disease and symptoms, and attain a maximal level of function and independence through the healing process. What role is the nurse playing? A.) Manager B.) Advocate C.) Caregiver D.) Communicator

C.) Caregiver As a caregiver, a nurse helps clients maintain and regain health, manage diseases and symptoms, and attain a maximal level of function and independence through the healing process. As a manager, the nurse coordinates the activities of members of the nursing staff in delivering nursing care and has personnel, policy, and budgetary responsibility for a specific nursing unit or agency. As a client's advocate, the nurse protects the client's human and legal rights and provides assistance in asserting these rights if the need arises. As a communicator, the nurse learns about a client's strengths and weaknesses and his or her needs through effective communication.

Which critical thinking skill in nursing practice requires the nurse to possess knowledge and experience for choosing care strategies for clients? A.) Analysis B.) Inference C.) Explanation D.) Interpretation

C.) Explanation Explanation requires knowledge and experience for choosing strategies for care of clients. Analysis is a critical thinking skill that requires open-mindedness while looking at the client's information. The skill of inference is associated with noticing relationships in the findings. Interpretation is associated with an ordered data collection.

What critical thinking skill is applicable when knowledge and experience is used to care for clients? A.) Analysis B.) Evaluation C.) Explanation D.) Interpretation

C.) Explanation When the nurse is using his or her experience to care for clients, the skill called explanation is involved. Analysis is applicable when the information is collected with an open mind. Evaluation is applicable when the information is used to determine nursing actions. Interpretation is involved when orderly data is collected.

A client with cancer is undergoing treatment in a hospital. The nurse finds the orders from the primary healthcare provider inappropriate. Clarification from the healthcare provider does not resolve the nurse's doubts. Who should the nurse contact and inform next? A.) Risk manager B.) Nursing student C.) Supervising nurse D.) Nurse administrator

C.) Supervising nurse The nurse should go to the supervising nurse or follow the established chain of command if he or she finds any discrepancies in the primary healthcare provider's orders. All nurses must act as risk managers, depending upon the situation. The nurse in question should follow the established chain of command to address his or her doubts. A nursing student is still a novice and is too inexperienced to handle such matters. A nurse administrator manages client care and the delivery of specific nursing services within a healthcare agency; a nurse administrator is not the appropriate person to ask for help in solving the problem at hand.

An 80-year-old client is admitted to the hospital because of complications associated with severe dehydration. The client's daughter asks the nurse how her mother could have become dehydrated, because she is alert and able to care for herself. The nurse's best response is: A.) "The body's fluid needs decrease with age because of tissue changes." B.) "Access to fluid may be insufficient to meet the daily needs of the older adult." C.) "Memory declines with age, and the older adult may forget to ingest adequate amounts of fluid." D.) "The thirst reflex diminishes with age, and therefore the recognition of the need for fluid is decreased."

D.) "The thirst reflex diminishes with age, and therefore the recognition of the need for fluid is decreased." For reasons that are still unclear, the thirst reflex diminishes with age, and this may lead to a concomitant decline in fluid intake. There are no data to support the statement "The body's fluid needs decrease with age because of tissue changes." The statement "Access to fluid may be insufficient to meet the daily needs of the older adult" is not true for an alert person who is able to perform the activities of daily living. Research does not support progressive memory loss in normal aging as a contributor to decreased fluid intake.

On the third postoperative day after a below-the-knee amputation, a client is refusing to eat, talk, or perform any rehabilitative activities. What is the best initial approach that the nurse should take when interacting with this client? A.) Explain why there is a need to increase activity. B.) Emphasize that with a prosthesis, there will be a return to the previous lifestyle. C.) Appear cheerful and noncritical regardless of the client's response to attempts at intervention. D.) Acknowledge that the client's withdrawal is an expected and necessary part of initial grieving.

D.) Acknowledge that the client's withdrawal is an expected and necessary part of initial grieving. The withdrawal provides time for the client to assimilate what has occurred and integrate the change in body image. The client is not ready to hear explanations about why there is a need to increase activity until assimilation of the surgery has occurred. Emphasizing a return to the previous lifestyle does not acknowledge that the client must grieve; it also does not allow the client to express any feelings that life will never be the same again. In addition, it may be false reassurance. The client might feel that the nurse has no comprehension of the situation or understanding of feelings if the nurse appears cheerful and noncritical regardless of the client's response to attempts at intervention

Which interview technique is the nurse using when asking a client to score the pain on a scale from 0 to 10? A.) Probing B.) Back channeling C.) Open-ended questioning D.) Closed-ended questioning

D.) Closed-ended questioning Asking a client to score pain on a scale of 0 to 10 is a type of closed-ended question. These types of questions specify the cause of the problem or the client's experience of the illness. Asking whether anything else is bothering the client is an example of probing. A response by the nurse such as "All right," or "Go on," when a client says something is called back channeling. This interview technique encourages a client to provide more details. The nurse asks open-ended, nonspecific questions such as "What brought you to the hospital today?" to elicit the client's side of story. Such questions are related to the client's health history and can strengthen the nurse-client relationship.

A nursing student notes that a nurse is required to integrate best current research with clinical expertise and client preferences and values in order to provide quality healthcare. Which Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) competency does this comply with? A.) Safety B.) Quality improvement C.) Patient-centered care D.) Evidence-based practice

D.) Evidence-based practice The QSEN competency evidence-based practice states that a nurse should integrate best current research with clinical expertise and client's preferences and values in order to provide quality healthcare. Safety involves nursing actions aimed at minimizing the risk of harm to clients and healthcare workers by ensuring system effectiveness and improving individual performance. Quality improvement involves the use of data to monitor outcomes of processes and implementation of methods to improve the healthcare delivery system. Patient-centered care states that the client is the source of control in providing healthcare. Test-Taking Tip: You have at least a 25% chance of selecting the correct response in multiple-choice items. If you are uncertain about a question, eliminate the choices that you believe are wrong and then call on your knowledge, skills, and abilities to choose from the remaining responses.

A nursing student is listing examples of active and passive health promotion strategies. Which strategy is an example of a passive health promotion strategy? A.) Weight-reduction program B.) Smoking-cessation program C.) Drug abuse prevention strategy D.) Fluoridation of municipal drinking water

D.) Fluoridation of municipal drinking water This was a good question for picking "the odd one out". Reduction, cessation, and prevention all fall under the same umbrella. Adding fluoride to city water is passive, because people may not even think about it as being prevention. Passive strategies of health promotion help people benefit from the activities of others without direct involvement. The fluoridation of municipal drinking water is an example of a passive health promotion strategy. Active strategies of health promotion require clients to adopt specific programs for improving health. Weight-reduction programs, smoking-cessation programs, and drug abuse prevention strategies are examples of active health promotion activities.

The nurse is performing nursing care therapies and including the client as an active participant in the care. Which basic step is involved in this situation? A.) Planning B.) Evaluation C.) Assessment D.) Implementation

D.) Implementation The basic step implementation involves performing nursing care therapies and including the client as an active participant in the care. Planning involves nursing processes such as developing an individualized care plan. Evaluation involves nursing processes such as identifying the success in meeting desired outcomes. Assessment involves nursing processes such as collecting data about a client's physical, psychological, social culture.

Which nursing process involves delegation and verbal discussion with the healthcare team? A.) Planning B.) Evaluation C.) Assessment D.) Implementation

D.) Implementation The implementation process involves delegation and verbal discussion with the healthcare team. Planning involves interpersonal or small group healthcare team sessions. Evaluation involves the acquisition of verbal and nonverbal feedback. Assessment involves verbal interviewing and a history of talking with the clients.

Which step in the nursing process would involve promoting a safe environment for the client? A.) Planning B.) Diagnosis C.) Assessment D.) Implementation

D.) Implementation The nurse promotes a safe environment during the implementation stage of the nursing process. During the planning stage, the nurse develops an individualized care plan for the client. The plan contains strategies and alternatives to achieve specific outcomes. During the diagnosis stage, the nurse analyzes the assessment data to determine the health care issues. The nurse collects comprehensive data pertinent to the client's health and situation during the assessment stage.

A nurse takes into consideration that the key factor in accurately assessing how a client will cope with body image changes is what? A.) Suddenness of the change B.) Obviousness of the change C.) Extent of the change D.) Perception of the change

D.) Perception of the change It is not the reality of the change, but the client's feeling about the change, that is most important in determining a client's ability to cope. Although the suddenness, obviousness, and extent of the body change are relevant, they are not as significant as the client's perception of the change.

Which system is used by a health care facility to determine certain aspects of client satisfaction? A.) Six Sigma B.) Value Stream Analysis C.) Health Care Effectiveness Data and Information Set (HEDIS) D.) The Hospital Consumer of Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (HCAHPS)

D.) The Hospital Consumer of Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (HCAHPS) HCAHPS is a standardized survey developed to measure client perceptions of their hospital experience. The survey asks 27 questions about the client's hospital experience. The survey is taken by clients who were discharged from the hospital between 48 hours and six weeks ago.

What is the goal of Healthy People 2020? A.) To ensure the well-being of clients cared for in a hospital setting B.) To encourage the nurse to do good for the client C.) To have the nurse act as an advocate for clients who are not capable of self-determination D.) To eliminate health disparities related to race, ethnicity, and socioeconomic status

D.) To eliminate health disparities related to race, ethnicity, and socioeconomic status The primary goal of Healthy People 2020 is to eliminate health disparities related to race, ethnicity, and socioeconomic status. This helps to increase the quality of health care and help people live longer. Nonmaleficence is the ethical concept that emphasizes the importance of preventing harm and ensuring the client's well-being. Beneficence is the ethical concept that encourages the nurse to do good for the client. According to the American Nurses Association (ANA) Code of Ethics for Nurses (2010), if the client is not capable of self-determination, the nurse is ethically obligated to protect the client as an advocate within the professional scope of nursing practice.

When reading a prescription, what should the PN verify in addition to the 5-rights of medication administration? A.) Anticipate adverse effects B.) Required client teaching C.) Client allergies D.) Prescriber's signature

D.) a Prescriber's signature "a legal medication prescription must include the prescriber's signature" -this made me think of how paper scripts need a physical signature, and E-scripts on practice partner need to be sent under the correct provider, which counts as a signature.

The nurse working in a cardiac center is preparing to enter client data using health information technology. The nurse needs to refer to this data during subsequent follow-up client visits. Which type of record should the nurse use to enter client's data? A.) Personal health record (PHR) B.) Electronic health record (EHR) C.) Electronic medical record (EMR) D.) Regional Health Information Organization health record (RHIO)

The EMR is a client's health record within a healthcare provider's facility. These records are not intended to be shared between multiple facilities and agencies. The PHR is self-recorded and maintained by the client. An EHR is an individual's official, digital health record; it is shared among multiple facilities and agencies. RHIO health records are client records that can be exchanged among providers and across geographic areas.