M4 Quiz

A nurse is caring for a poorly controlled type 2 diabetic client. The client does not adhere to the diet and the latest HbA1c is 8%. The serum glucose at this visit is 218mg/dL (12.09 mmol/L). The client is currently taking metformin and exenatide. Based on this history, what should the nurse anticipate will be the first strategy implemented to improve glucose control for this client? 1. Nutritional counseling 2. Increased daily exercise regimen 3. Education regarding Insulin by basal/bolus dosing method 4. More frequent self-monitoring of blood glucose

1. Correct: True, nutritional teaching to promote diet compliance should be tried first because the client's HbA1c is 8% and his blood sugar is 218mg/dL (12.09 mmol/L) - not terribly bad for a type 2 diabetic who is non-compliant. Noncompliant is your big hint with this question! 2. Incorrect: No, this is not priority over nutritional counseling. Appropriate, moderate exercise, like walking, can overtime lower blood glucose. Increasing the daily exercise regimen is not appropriate based on the information provided in the question stem. 3. Incorrect: No, insulin is not indicated for a HbA1c of 8%, unless diet and oral hypoglycemics have failed long-term. Insulin is generally prescribed for a sustained HbA1c of 9% or >. 4. Incorrect: No,This is not the priority over nutritional counseling. More frequent self monitoring will be important once insulin therapy has begun.

What signs and symptoms of ovarian cancer should a nurse include when educating women? 1. Urinary frequency. 2. Menorrhagia with breast tenderness. 3. Watery vaginal discharge. 4. Increasing abdominal girth. 5. Fullness after a heavy meal.

1., 2., & 4. Correct: Signs and symptoms of ovarian cancer include irregular menses, increasing premenstrual tension, menorrhagia with breast tenderness, early menopause, abdominal discomfort, dyspepsia, pelvic pressure and urinary frequency. Flatulence, fullness after a light meal, and increasing abdominal girth are significant symptoms. 3. Incorrect: Watery, vaginal discharge is a sign of advanced cervical cancer. 5. Incorrect: A sense of fullness occurs after ingesting a light meal.

What signs and symptoms of ovarian cancer should a nurse include when educating women? 1. GI disturbances 2. Menstrual changes 3. Malnutrition 4. Increasing abdominal girth 5. Pain radiating down the legs

1., 2., & 4. Correct: Signs and symptoms of ovarian cancer include irregular menses, increasing premenstrual tension, menorrhagia with breast tenderness, early menopause, abdominal discomfort, dyspepsia, pelvic pressure and urinary frequency. Indigestion, flatulence, and fullness after a light meal, and increasing abdominal girth are significant symptoms. 3. Incorrect: Malnutrition is a complication of advanced metastatic cancer. 5. Incorrect: Pain will be in the abdomen and pelvis, and does not radiate down the legs.

What should the nurse include in a discharge plan for a client diagnosed with lymphoma who will be receiving outpatient treatment? 1. Avoid uncooked meats, seafood or eggs and unwashed fruits and vegetables. 2. Take bleeding precautions. 3. Do not take influenza or pneumonia vaccine during treatment. 4. Avoid individuals with infections. 5. Emphasize importance of frequent oral hygiene with an alcohol based mouthwash.

1., 2., & 4. Correct: The client with lymphoma is susceptible to infection and should eat foods low in bacteria. The client should avoid uncooked meats, seafood or eggs and unwashed fruits and vegetables as the bacteria count will be higher than desired. Instruct client and family about bleeding precautions and management of active bleeding due to thrombocytopenia. They should be advised to avoid activities that place them at risk for injury or bleeding (including excessive straining). This client is at risk for infection due to low white count, so the client should avoid individuals who are ill. 3. Incorrect: Encourage clients to maintain current immunizations for influenza and pneumonia. They are more susceptible to infection. Cancer and cancer treatment can weaken the immune system, which puts them at higher risk of serious problems if they get the flu or pneumonia. Only live vaccines (MMR, varicella, oral polio) are contraindicated in clients receiving chemotherapy. 5. Incorrect: This client is at risk for bleeding and infection due to low platelet and white cell counts. The client needs frequent oral care with a soft toothbrush and alcohol free mouthwash. Alcohol-based mouthwashes can dry out the gum and increase bleeding.

The nurse recognizes which manifestation as a sign/symptom of Hodgkin's lymphoma? 1. Drenching night sweats 2. Small, red, itchy bumps 3. Painful lymph nodes in the neck 4. Weight loss of 2 kg in 1 week 5. Flushed skin 6. Enlarged spleen

1., 2., & 6. Correct. With this disease, the body switches back and forth from fever and chills to excessive sweating. The sweating is the worst at nighttime; and many clients report waking up in the middle of the night to clothing and bedding that is completely drenched. As the lymphoma cells grow, they secrete a chemical that causes a generalized itchiness and irritation of the skin throughout the body. The spleen is part of the lymph system and works as a drainage network that defends the body against infection. Since Hodgkin's lymphoma affects the lymphatic system, the spleen is also affected. 3. Incorrect. The most common symptom of Hodgkin lymphoma is one or more enlarged lymph nodes. The enlarged lymph node may be in the neck, upper chest, armpit, abdomen or groin. The swollen lymph node is usually painless. 4. Incorrect. This is not a significant weight loss. A large decrease in weight is common in many types of cancers and is particularly noticeable in lymphoma cases. 5. Incorrect. Lymphoma lowers the body's red blood cell count, leading to anemia and even greater fatigue. Skin will be pale.

A client who has diabetes calls the nurse hot-line reporting shakiness, nervousness, and palpitations. Which questions would yield information that would help the nurse decide that this is a hypoglycemic episode? 1. What have you eaten today and at what times? 2. Are you using insulin as a treatment of diabetes, and if so, what kind? 3. Do you feel hungry? 4. Do you have access to a glucose monitor to check your current glucose level? 5. Does your skin feel hot and dry?

1., 2., 3. & 4. Correct. This question will give the nurse information about how much time has elapsed since the last meal and will indicate the amount of protein and carbohydrates consumed at the last meal. Even a minor delay in meal times may result in hypoglycemia. Insulin type will give the nurse information about duration of action and peak time. Hunger is a symptom of hypoglycemia.If the client has a glucose monitor, an accurate reading would give the nurse valuable information about how much food the client should consume now.5. Incorrect. Hot and dry skin is not an indicator of hypoglycemia and would not help the nurse determine if the client is experiencing a hypoglycemic episode. Cool, clammy skin is a symptom of hypoglycemia.

A nurse is planning discharge education for a client diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which instructions should the nurse include when teaching this client? 1. Limit fluid intake. 2. Report muscle cramping. 3. Measure intake and output. 4. Perform mouth care once a day. 5. Report weight gain of 2 pounds (0.9 kg) over 24 hours.

1., 2., 3. & 5. Correct: The nurse should advise the client diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) to limit fluid intake. In SIADH, excessive amounts of water are reabsorbed by the kidneys, creating potentially disastrous dilutional hyponatremia. Water must be restricted to prevent water intoxication. The nurse should advise the client diagnosed SIADH to report muscle cramping. Muscle cramping should be reported immediately to the primary healthcare provider because this sign could indicate hyponatremia, which can lead to seizures or coma. The nurse should advise the client diagnosed with SIADH to measure intake and output. Intake and output should be monitored carefully to assess the amount of fluid restriction needed. Weight gain of 2 pounds (0.9 kg) or more should be reported to the primary healthcare provider because this is an indication of fluid retention and increases the client's risk for fluid volume excess. 4. Incorrect: The nurse should teach the client to rinse the mouth frequently to keep mucous membranes moist during fluid restriction, not just once a day.

A client diagnosed with hypothyroidism has been taking levothyroxine in increasing doses over the past week. Which findings, if present, would indicate to the nurse that the drug dosage is too high? 1. Irritability 2. Weight gain 3. Tachycardia 4. Tremors 5. Headache 6. Bradycardia

1., 3., 4., & 5. Correct: When a nurse administers levothyroxine, there is an expected therapeutic response of increase in energy, improved affect, improved gastric motility, weight loss, and less sensitivity to cold. If the levothyroxine dose is too high, the client may experience an tachycardia, dysrhythmias, tremors, and a headache. When the levothyroxine level is too high, the symptoms are the same as hyperthyroidism. 2. Incorrect: Weight gain is a symptom of the decrease level of the thyroid hormones, T3 and/or T4. This is a symptom of hypothyroidism. 6. Incorrect: Bradycardia is a symptom of hypothyroidism. This is a result of a decrease in the thyroid hormones, T3 and/or T4 is a s/s of hypothyroidism..

Which statements made by a client diagnosed with Addison's disease indicates to the nurse that the client understands fludrocortisone therapy? 1. "Taking my medicine at night will help me sleep." 2. "It is important to wear a medical alert bracelet all of the time." 3. "I will limit my sodium intake to 200 mg per day." 4. "My medication dose will change based on my daily weight." 5. "I may need more medication if I feel weak or dizzy."

2., 4., & 5. Correct: Medical alert bracelet is an excellent way of informing healthcare providers of a life threatening condition if the client is unable to verbalize that information. Steroid therapy is adjusted according to the client's weight and signs of fluid volume status. Signs of being undermedicated include weakness, fatigue, and dizziness. The client will need to report these symptoms, so more medication can be given to the client. 1. Incorrect: Steroids can cause insomnia so the client does not need to take the medication prior to going to bed. 3. Incorrect: This client needs a high sodium diet as they are losing sodium and retaining potassium.

Which risk factor should the nurse include when planning to educate a group of women about breast cancer? 1. Menopause before the age of 50 2. Drinking one glass of wine daily 3. Multiparity 4. Early menarche

4. Correct: Early menarche before age 12 is a known risk factor for breast cancer. The increased risk of breast cancer linked to a younger age at first period is likely due, at least in part, to the amount of estrogen a woman is exposed to in her life. A higher lifetime exposure to estrogen is linked to an increase in breast cancer risk. The earlier a woman starts having periods, the longer her breast tissue is exposed to estrogens released during the menstrual cycle and the greater her lifetime exposure to estrogen. 1. Incorrect: Studies show women who go through menopause after age 50 have increased risk of breast cancer. The risk for breast cancer increases as time period between menarche and menopause increases. 2. Incorrect: Small increase in risk with moderate alcohol consumption, not one glass of wine daily. Drinking low to moderate amounts of alcohol, however, may lower the risks of heart disease, high blood pressure and death. But, drinking more than one drink per day (for women) and more than two drinks per day (for men) has no health benefits and many serious health risks, including breast cancer. Alcohol can change the way a woman's body metabolizes estrogen (how estrogen works in the body). This can cause blood estrogen levels to rise. Estrogen levels are higher in women who drink alcohol than in non-drinkers. These higher estrogen levels may in turn, increase the risk of breast cancer. 3. Incorrect: Nulliparity (no pregnancies) is a known risk factor for breast cancer. Factors that increase the number of menstrual cycles also increase the risk of breast cancer, probably due to increased endogenous estrogen exposure.

What signs/symptoms would the nurse expect to find in a client admitted to the unit with a diagnosis of Addison's disease? 1. Moon face 2. Buffalo hump 3. Hirsutism 4. Acne 5. Hyperpigmentation 6. Hypotension

5., & 6. Correct: Addison's disease results in a decrease in glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex hormones resulting in a darkening in skin color and hypotension. 1. Incorrect: Moon face occurs when the body has too much cortisol, such as with Cushing's. 2. Incorrect: Buffalo hump occurs with Cushing's. 3. Incorrect: An increase in facial hair occurs with Cushing's. 4. Incorrect: Acne occurs with Cushing's.

What should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client receiving external beam radiation? 1. Small marks will be placed on the skin to mark the treatment area. 2. Lotion may be used around the treatment area to decrease dryness. 3. The radiation therapist can see, hear, and talk with you at all times during treatment. 4. Stay away from babies for 24 hours. 5. You will have to hold your breath during radiation treatment.

1., & 3. Correct: Small ink marks or small tattoos will be placed on the skin to mark the treatment area. Do not remove the marks. The radiation therapist can see, hear, and talk to the client at all times during treatment. Relieve anxiety by letting client know he/she is not alone. 2. Incorrect: Do not put lotion, powder or deodorant near or on treatment area. 4. Incorrect: Client is not radioactive and will not radiate others. The client can safely be around other people, babies, and children. 5. Incorrect: The client will need to stay very still so radiation goes to the exact same place each time, but can breathe as always and does not have to hold breath.

What should a community health nurse include when planning a presentation on prevention and early detection of colon cancer? 1. Maintain a diet high in fruits, vegetables, and whole grains. 2. Exercise regularly. 3. Regular screening should begin at age 30. 4. Yearly fecal occult blood test beginning at age 50. 5. Flexible esophagogastroduodenoscopy every 5 years.

1., 2., & 4. Correct: A diet high in vegetables, fruits, and whole grains have been linked with a decreased risk of colorectal cancer, whereas, a diet high in red meats, processed meats, and frying can increase risk of colorectal cancer. There is a greater risk of developing colorectal cancer in individuals who live a sedentary life style. The fecal occult blood test detects blood in the stool through a chemical reaction. This test is done yearly. 3. Incorrect: If there is no identified risk factors (other than age), regular screening should begin at age 50. 5. Incorrect: A flexible esophagogastroduodenoscopy is not a recommended procedure for the early detection of cancer of the colon.

A client with acute pancreatitis is prescribed total parenteral nutrition (TPN), methylprednisolone, and sliding scale insulin. What is the rationale for the insulin prescribed? 1. Impaired endocrine function of the pancreas 2. Inability of the liver to convert glucose 3. Steroid therapy side effects 4. Dextrose concentration of TPN 5. Re-establish serum potassium level Rationale Strategies

1., 3., & 4. Correct: Really what we are saying here is why would the client be on insulin? Well, the pancreas is damaged and so the endocrine function of the pancreas is impaired. We know that hyperglycemia or pseudo diabetes is a side effect of steroid therapy and TPN is high in glucose and may require additional insulin. These are the three rationales for why they might need insulin. 2. Incorrect: If the liver can't convert glucose that will decrease the insulin need so that one is false. 5. Incorrect: Is not related at all. The NCLEX people want you to say,"I remember something about potassium and glucose, but I am not sure what. Don't fall for that, this is false. The rationale for the Insulin order is not to re-establish potassium in this question.

The nurse is caring for a poorly controlled type 2 diabetic client. Lab results include a BUN of 22mg/dL (7.85 mmol/L) and a creatinine of 1.9 mg/dL (0.67 mmol/L). The nurse checks the client's blood sugar and it is 218mg/dL (12.09 mmol/L). Current medications include metformin and exenatide. What is the priority concern with this client taking metformin? 1. Inadequate blood glucose control 2. Concomittent administration of metformin and exenatide 3. Reports of headache 4. Renal function impairment

4. Correct: This is the priority response. Why? Because metformin is eliminated primarily by the kidneys, and if the kidneys are not working properly, as evidenced by the elevated BUN and creatinine levels, administration of metformin can lead to toxicity and increased lactic acidosis risk. 1. Incorrect: Now there is a lot to know about metformin, and I'm a brand new nurse! The glucose is not where I want it to be, but is a blood sugar of 218 mg/dL going to kill me? No. 2. Incorrect: Exenatide and metformin are commonly prescribed together to control a client's glucose level, so this should not be a concern. 3. Incorrect: Headache is a side effect of metformin and the primary healthcare provider may be notified. However, this is not the priority.

What is the nursing priority for the client experiencing hyperparathyroidism? 1. Continuous cardiac monitoring. 2. Initiate fall precautions. 3. Administer IV normal saline. 4. Begin preparations for emergency parathyroidectomy.

1. Correct: To much calcium equals sedation. Life threatening complications such as airway obstruction and cardiact arrest may occur from severely high levels of calcium. 2. Incorrect: Preventing injury is important because of bone density loss and risk of fractures. But it is not the priority. Done after maintaining airway and circulation. 3. Incorrect: IV normal saline in large volumes is done to promote calcium excretion, but it is not the priority over airway and circulation. 4. Incorrect: Surgery is indicated "when medically feasible". Cardiac monitoring is the priority at this time.

Which interventions should a nurse discuss with a client for primary prevention of skin cancer from exposure to ultraviolet light? 1. Use sunscreen when outdoors. 2. Stay in the shade when outdoors. 3. Wear wide brimmed hats when outdoors. 4. Examine skin every 3 months for changes. 5. Have an annual skin assessment by a dermatologist.

1., 2. & 3. Correct: Using sunscreen, staying in shaded areas, and wearing wide brimmed hats are effective interventions to prevent skin cancer. 4. Incorrect: Examine your whole body monthly for possible changes that may be precancerous or cancerous lesions. Early detection is considered secondary prevention. 5. Incorrect: Assessment by a dermatologist is not a primary prevention strategy. Early diagnosis is considered secondary prevention.

What discharge instructions should the nurse include for a client following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy? 1. Sleep with head of bed at 35 degrees. 2. Notify the primary healthcare provider for an increased urinary output. 3. Brush the teeth three times a day followed by rinsing with a commercial mouthwash. 4. Nasal packing will need to be removed in 48 hours. 5. Use a humidifier in the room.

1.,2., 5. Correct. Sleeping with the head of the bed elevated will promote drainage of cerebrospinal fluid. An increased UOP could indicate diabetes insipidus, an adverse reaction to this surgical procedure. Humidified air prevents drying of nasal passages. 3. Incorrect. Because the incision for this surgery is just above the gumline, the client should not brush the front teeth. Oral care should be performed with a sponge until the incision heals. 4. Incorrect. There is no nasal packing. The incision is located just above the gumline of the upper teeth.

A client's absolute neutrophil count (ANC) is 750/mm3. Which measures should the nurse take to protect the client? 1. Prohibit the client from shaving. 2. Instruct the client to wear a mask when leaving the hospital room. 3. Remove fresh flowers and plants from the client's room. 4. Ask visitors to perform hand hygiene before entering the client's room. 5. Instruct client to avoid flossing of teeth.

2., 3. & 4. Correct: If a client's ANC is less than 1000/mm3, the client is at risk for infection. Instructing the client to wear a mask outside of the hospital room protects the client from infection. The soil in fresh flowers and plants can carry bacteria and fungi, which can cause infection. Performing hand hygiene is the best way to prevent the spread of infection. 1. Incorrect: Not allowing the client to shave would be an appropriate intervention for someone with a low platelet count. 5. Incorrect: Not allowing the client to floss the teeth would be an appropriate intervention for someone with a low platelet count. The client needs good oral care to prevent infections in the mouth.

The nurse is caring for a client with Addison's disease that is taking fludrocortisone 0.1mg/day. What assessment data by the nurse would suggest that the client's dose is too high? 1. Weight loss of 2 lbs (0.907 kg)/24 hours 2. Elevated serum sodium level 3. Bilateral pedal edema 4. Crackles in the lung fields bilaterally 5. Elevated blood pressure

2., 3., 4., & 5. Correct: Now, remember that with Addison's disease the client does not have enough steroids, so we have to ADD steroids. All of these options indicate the client is holding onto fluid, and we would expect the client to hold onto fluid when their steroid dose is too high. 1. Incorrect: We would expect weight gain with this client, and what is the amount of weight gain we worry about? That's right, anything over 2-3 lbs (0.907 - 1.360 kg) in 24 hours.

he nurse is providing foot care to the client who has diabetes. What should the nurse include in the teaching? 1. Inspect the feet daily for abrasions or pressure areas. 2. Check water temperature with the hands before getting into tub. 3. Do not use heating pads on the feet or lower legs. 4. Thoroughly dry the feet, especially between the toes. 5. Cut toenails rather than file them. 6. Cut nails in a rounded fashion.

1., 2., 3. & 4. Correct: The feet should be inspected daily. Small tears or abrasions can occur without the client's awareness due to decreased sensation in the feet. The client may be burned by getting into water that is too hot due to decreased sensation in the feet. There is less chance of decreased sensation in the hands. Heating pads may burn the client's feet. It is better to apply blankets for warmth. Drying the feet and between the toes will prevent skin breakdown.5. Incorrect: Filing is safer, as it is not likely to result in cutting or irritating the skin around the nail. A cut on the lower extremity can result in an infection. Clients should not cut their nails. Filing is safer. 6. Incorrect: The nails should be filed straight across. Filing into a round shape may result in an ingrown toenail, which may lead to infection. Skin breaks on the lower extremity can lead to infection.

What signs/symptoms would the nurse expect to find in a client admitted to the unit with a diagnosis of Cushing's disease? 1. Hyperpigmentation 2. Buffalo hump 3. Hirsutism 4. Acne 5. Moon face 6. Hypertension

2., 3., 4., 5., & 6. Correct: Cushing's disease results in an increase in glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex hormones resulting in a buffalo hump, hirsutism, acne, moon face, and hypertension. 1. Incorrect: Hyperpigmentation occurs when the body has too little cortisol, such as with Addison's disease.

A nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which primary healthcare provider prescription is appropriate during the first 24 hours of treatment for this client? 1. 0.45% saline solution (NaCl) at 50 mL/hr 2. 3% saline solution (NaCl) at 125 mL/hr 3. 0.9% saline solution (NaCl) at 1,000 mL/hr times 2 4. Dextrose 5% in lactated Ringer's solution at 150 mL/hr

3. Correct: 0.9% saline solution should be infused at a rate of at 1,000 mL/hr times 2, up to a total of 10 L in the first 24 hours of treatment. This client will be in a fluid volume deficit or shock and fluid replacement is essential. 1. Incorrect. 0.45% saline would not be administered at 50 mL/hr because the first goal of fluid therapy in DKA is to restore volume in a severely volume depleted client, thus we need normal saline at a faster rate to replace fluid volume. 2. Incorrect. 3% saline solution would be contraindicated in this client because it is a hypertonic solution that would worsen the client's dehydration. 4. Incorrect. Dextrose 5% in lactated Ringer's solution at 150 mL/hr is inappropriate because the blood sugar is too high for infusion of a dextrose containing solution.

Which client diagnosis would a prescription for an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL normal saline with 20 mEq (20 mmol) potassium chloride be appropriate? 1. Major burn injury 2. Kidney disease 3. Abdominal cramping with diarrhea 4. Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) 5. Hypokalemia

3., 4. & 5. Correct: Clients with abdominal cramping with diarrhea, diabetic ketoacidosis, and hypokalemia are safe to receive normal saline with potassium chloride. A primary electrolyte found in the lower GI tract is potassium. Therefore, diarrhea can result in excessive losses of potassium and associated hypokalemia can occur. When insulin is given to the client in DKA, it causes a transport of both glucose and potassium out of the blood and into the cell, resulting in hypokalemia. Finally, a client who has hypokalemia from other causes would need potassium replacement as well. 1. Incorrect: Tissue destruction from a major burn will cause release of potassium from the cell and into the blood. Thus, hyperkalemia occurs. An IV infusion with potassium will make the problem worse. 2. Incorrect: With kidney disease and the resulting diminished renal function, the client is at risk for sodium and potassium retention