Maternity EAQ

Which is the best advice the nurse can provide to a pregnant woman in her first trimester?

"Avoid drugs and don't smoke or drink alcohol."

The nurse is teaching participants in a prenatal class regarding breast-feeding versus formula feeding. A client asks, "What is the primary advantage of breast-feeding?" Which response is most appropriate?

"Breast-fed infants have fewer infections."

Which direction would be given to a client with a fourth-degree perineal laceration to protect the area from additional trauma?

"Eat a high-fiber diet with increased fluid intake."

A client who has had a cesarean birth is being discharged. Which statement indicates to the nurse that further teaching is required?

"I don't need perineal care because I didn't give birth through the vagina."

Which statement by a breast-feeding mother indicates that the nurse's teaching regarding stimulating the let-down reflex has been successful?

"I will apply warm packs and massage my breasts before each feeding."

Which statement by a breast-feeding mother indicates that the nurse's teaching regarding stimulating the let-down reflex has been successful?

"I will apply warm packs and massage my breasts before each feeding." Applying warm packs and massaging the breasts before each feeding help dilate milk ducts, promote emptying of the breasts, and stimulate further lactation. Taking a cool shower before each feeding will contract the milk ducts and interfere with the let-down reflex. Heavy consumption of milk products is not required to stimulate the production of milk. Breast binders may inhibit lactation by fooling the body into thinking that milk secretion is no longer needed.

Which client statement would cause the nurse to stop the health care provider from initiating epidural anesthesia?

"I'm not exactly sure how an epidural works."

During a routine second-trimester visit to the prenatal clinic a client expresses concern regarding gaining weight and losing her figure. She says to the nurse, "I'm going on a diet." Which is the nurse's best response?

"If you add 340 calories a day to your regular diet, you won't become overweight."

Which statement explains the primary purpose of the side-lying position during labor?

"It enhances blood flow to the uterus and makes contractions easier."

Which response would the nurse give to a primigravida at 9 weeks' gestation who asks when she can first expect to feel her baby move?

"Many women are able to first feel light movement between 18 and 20 weeks."

Which statement would be the basis for the nurse's response when a laboring client expresses concern about the effect that an intravenous (IV) analgesic may have on her fetus?

"The medication will be administered during a contraction, when the uterine blood vessels are constricted."

As the nurse helps a postpartum client change her perineal pad, the client comments, "I wish you didn't have to look at the pad. It's so embarrassing for me." Which is the best response by the nurse?

"This seems to be uncomfortable for you; however, I have to estimate the amount of blood loss to identify any potential problems."

Which recommendation would the nurse make to a pregnant client who sits almost continuously during her working hours?

"Try to walk around every few hours during the workday."

Which response would the nurse give to a postpartum client who asks if she can drink a small glass of wine before breast-feeding the first time to help her relax?

"You seem a little tense. Tell me how you feel about breast-feeding."

Which response would the nurse give to a new mother who asks if she needs to alter her diet to breast-feed?

"You'll need greater amounts of the same foods you've been eating and more fluids."

A client at 35 weeks' gestation asks the nurse why her breathing has become more difficult. How would the nurse respond?

"Your diaphragm has been displaced upward."

Which lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio is indicative of fetal lung maturity?

2:1 The detection of the presence of pulmonary surfactants, surface-active phospholipids, in amniotic fluid has been used to determine the degree of fetal lung maturity, or the ability of the lungs to function after birth. Lecithin (L) is the most critical alveolar surfactant required for postnatal lung expansion. It is detectable at approximately 21 weeks and increases after week 24. Another pulmonary phospholipid, sphingomyelin (S), remains constant in amount. The measure of lecithin in relation to sphingomyelin, or the L/S ratio, is used to determine fetal lung maturity. When the L/S ratio reaches 2:1, the fetus' lungs are considered mature. The ratios of 1:1, 1.4:1, and 1.8:1 are incorrect.

Which percentage of all cervical cancers occurs during pregnancy?

3% Careful assessment of all pregnant women is important because approximately 3% of all invasive cervical cancers occur during pregnancy. The other answer options (6%, 9%, and 12%) are all too high for the percentage of all cervical cancers that occur during pregnancy.

For which reason would the nurse encourage a client to void during the first stage of labor?

A full bladder may inhibit the progress of labor.

The nurse determines that a client's placenta has separated during the third stage of labor. Which clinical finding supports the nurse's conclusion?

A gush of blood

A prenatal client's vaginal mucosa is noted to have a purplish discoloration. Which sign would be documented in the client's clinical record?

A purplish coloration, called the Chadwick sign, results from the increased vascularity and blood vessel engorgement of the vagina. The Hegar sign is softening of the lower uterine segment. The Goodell sign is softening of the cervix. After the fourth month of pregnancy, irregular, painless uterine contractions, called Braxton-Hicks contractions, can be felt through the abdominal wall.

Which pH value of amniotic fluid is indicated by a Nitrazine test strip that turns deep blue?

Amniotic fluid changes the color of a nitrazine strip from yellow to deep blue if the pH of the fluid is 7.5. A pH of 4.5, 5.5, or 6.5 would result in a test strip of yellow, olive yellow, or blue green, respectively.

Which physiological alteration does the nurse expect in a client's hematological system during the second trimester of pregnancy?

An increase in blood volume

After a client gives birth, which physiological occurrence indicates to the nurse that the placenta is beginning to separate from the uterus and is ready to be expelled?

Appearance of a sudden gush of blood

Which would the nurse recommend to a client who is formula-feeding her infant and complains of discomfort from engorged breasts?

Apply cold packs and a snugly fitting bra.

Thirty minutes after circumcision blood is oozing from the penis. Which action would the nurse take?

Apply direct pressure with sterile gauze after donning sterile gloves.

Which is the optimal nursing intervention to minimize perineal edema after an episiotomy?

Applying ice packs

The nurse is providing postpartum care instructions to a client and her spouse, both of whom have a limited command of English. Which is the best way to ensure that the teaching is being understood?

Ask the client and her spouse to repeat, in their own words, what they have been told.

Which is the initial approach the nurse would use when teaching a pregnant woman about the foods she should be eating to promote healthy growth and development of her fetus?

Asking the client what she usually eats at each meal

When assessing a client who gave birth 1 day ago, the nurse finds the fundus is firm at 1 fingerbreadth below the umbilicus and the perineal pad is saturated with lochia rubra. Which is the nurse's next action?

Asking the client when she last changed the perineal pad The amount of lochia would be excessive if the pad were saturated in 15 minutes; saturating the pad in 2 hours is considered heavy bleeding. If the pad has not been changed for a longer period, this could account for the large quantity of lochia, so asking the client when she last changed the perineal pad is appropriate. These findings cannot be supported or recorded without additional information. Excessive bleeding cannot be established without more information from the client. Oxytocics are administered for uterine atony; the need for this is not supported by the assessment of a firm fundus.

Which is the immediate nursing action when a client's membranes rupture spontaneously, releasing clear, odorless fluid?

Assess the fetal heart rate (FHR).

Which is the nurse's immediate action when a laboring client experiences a spontaneous rupture of membranes?

Assess the fetal heart rate.

Which is the priority nursing action when a client at 40 weeks' gestation has an amniotomy performed to facilitate labor?

Assessing the fetal heart rate

Which nursing action takes priority during the admission process to the birthing unit?

Auscultating the fetal heart

Which recommendation would the nurse make for a pregnant patient experiencing nausea and vomiting? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

Avoid an empty or excessively full stomach. Correct2 Drink real ginger ale or tea, or use real ginger in another recipe. Correct3 Try sucking on sour candies or smelling a citrus-scented food or product. Correct4 Eat crackers or vanilla wafers or drink a small amount of liquid before getting out of bed. Correct5 Eat small, carbohydrate-rich, low-fat meals throughout the day, such as toast, oatmeal, or noodle soup. Correct6 Locate the pressure points to reduce nausea located at the middle of the wrist, and press firmly for 3 minutes

In which location would the Doppler ultrasound transducer be placed to best auscultate fetal heart tones when the fetus is in the right occiput posterior (ROP) position?

Below the umbilicus on the right side

Which breathing technique would the nurse instruct the client to use as the head of the fetus is crowning?

Blowing

Which information about adolescent growth and development would the nurse need to understand before discussing changes in body size to a 16-year-old adolescent at 24 weeks' gestation?

Body image is very important to adolescents; therefore, pregnant teenagers are overly concerned about body size.

Which instruction would the nurse give to a client in labor who begins to experience dizziness and tingling of her hands?

Breathe into her cupped hands.

Which laboratory test is conducted during the initial prenatal visit? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

Cervical culture for Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Which action would the nurse take when a client's membranes rupture while her labor is being augmented with an oxytocin infusion and variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate occur?

Change the client's position.

Which foods would a postpartum client complaining of leg cramps be encouraged to eat?

Cheese and broccoli

Which prenatal test provides the earliest diagnosis of fetal defects?

Chorionic villus sampling Chorionic villus sampling may be performed between 10 and 12 weeks' gestation. The nonstress test, which is not invasive, is a technique used for antepartum evaluation of the fetus; it does not reveal fetal defects. Amniocentesis may be performed after 14 weeks' gestation, when sufficient amniotic fluid is available. Direct access to the fetal circulation with percutaneous umbilical blood sampling may be performed during the second and third trimesters.

Which is the most highly sensitive time within the developing embryo for the risk of malformation related to environmental teratogens?

Cleft palate at 8 weeks' gestation

Which is a description of contractions that indicate true labor in a nullipara?

Come every 5 minutes for an hour

Which is a causative factor of urinary frequency occurring in the first trimester of pregnancy?

Compression by the enlarging uterus

One hour after a birth the nurse palpates a client's fundus to determine whether involution is taking place. The fundus is firm, in the midline, and 2 fingerbreadths below the umbilicus. Which would the nurse do next?

Continue periodic assessments and record the findings.

Which action would the nurse take when external fetal uterine monitoring shows fetal heart rate (FHR) decelerations in a uniform wave shape that reflects the shape of the contraction?

Continue to monitor for return of the FHR to baseline when each contraction ends.

Which action would the nurse take when a client begins to shiver uncontrollably about 1 hour after giving birth?

Cover the client with blankets to alleviate this typical postpartum reaction.

The nurse instructs a pregnant woman in labor that she must avoid lying on her back. What is the primary reason for this instruction?

Decreased placental perfusion is seen in the supine position.

Which is the nurse's priority assessment for a client in the fourth stage of labor?

Distention of the bladder

Which action provides support for the fetal head as it is being delivered?

Distributing the fingers evenly around the head Distribution of the fingers around the head will prevent a rapid change in intracranial pressure while the head is being born and keeps the head from "popping out," which could result in maternal perineal trauma. Applying suprapubic pressure will not aid in the birth of the head. Placing a hand firmly against the perineum may interfere with the birth and harm the neonate. Maintaining pressure against the anterior fontanel could injure the neonate.

When can a primigravida fetal heartbeat be heard for the first time?

Doppler ultrasound at 10 to 12 weeks

Which technique would the nurse suggest to a laboring woman's partner that involves gently stroking the woman's abdomen in rhythm with her breathing during a contraction?

Effleurage Effleurage is the gentle stroking of the abdomen in rhythm with her breathing during a contraction. Massage is the application of therapeutic touch and pressure on the body. Acupressure is the application of pressure along special acupressure points. Counterpressure is the application of pressure to the sacrum during a contraction.

Which recommendation would the nurse provide the client with fluid retention during pregnancy?

Elevate the lower extremities.

Which instruction would the nurse include when teaching a client about a contraction stress test (CST)?

Empty the bladder before the test.

The cervix of a client in labor is fully dilated and 100% effaced. The fetal head is at +3 station, the fetal heart rate ranges from 140 to 150 beats per minute, and the contractions, lasting 60 seconds, are 2 minutes apart. Which finding would the nurse expect when inspecting the perineum?

Enlarging area of caput with each contraction

For which reason is an ultrasound done during the first trimester?

Estimate fetal age

Which direction would the nurse give to a 3-day postpartum client who reports that her breasts are so painful that she dreads breast-feeding the baby?

Express some milk manually before feeding to relieve pressure.

Which factor accounts for the greatest portion of weight gain during pregnancy?

Fetal growth

Which complication is prevented by coaching a client in the second stage of labor to take a breath at least every 6 seconds while pushing with each contraction?

Fetal hypoxia

A nonstress test evaluates the condition of the fetus by comparing the fetal heart rate with which factor?

Fetal movement

Using the 5-digit system, determine the obstetric history in this situation: The client is 38 weeks into her fourth pregnancy. Her third pregnancy, a twin gestation, ended at 32 weeks with a live birth, her second pregnancy ended at 38 weeks with a live birth, and her first pregnancy ended at 18 weeks.

Four pregnancies = G (gravida) 4. One pregnancy that ended at 38 weeks = T (term) 1. One pregnancy that ended at 32 weeks = P (preterm) 1. One pregnancy that ended at 18 weeks = A (abortion) 1. One set of twins and a singleton = L (living) 3.

Which descriptor would the nurse use when explaining to a client how to time the frequency of contractions?

From the beginning of 1 contraction to the beginning of the next contraction

Which prenatal teaching is most applicable for a client who is between 13 and 24 weeks' gestation?

Growth of the fetus, body changes, and nutritional guidance

When the cervix of a woman in labor is dilated 9 cm, she states that she has the urge to push. Which action would the nurse implement at this time?

Having her pant-blow during contractions

Because of the increased discomfort level during the transition phase of labor, nursing care would be directed toward what?

Helping the client maintain control

At term a client's hemoglobin level is 10.6 g/dL (106 mmol/L) and her hematocrit is 31%. Which physiological factor accounts for these values?

Hemodilution

Which factor is frequently associated with hyperemesis gravidarum?

High level of chorionic gonadotropin

Which would the nurse assess for in pregnant women who present with signs of physical abuse or neglect?

Human trafficking

Which direction would the nurse give a client in preparation for ultrasonography at the end of her first trimester?

Increase fluid intake for 1 hour before the procedure. In the first trimester when fluid fills the bladder, the uterus is pushed up toward the abdominal cavity for optimum ultrasound viewing. The bladder must be full, not empty, for better visualization of the uterus. The gastrointestinal tract is not involved in ultrasound preparation, so directing the client to not eat for 8 hours before the test or to take a laxative would not be appropriate.

While conducting prenatal teaching, the nurse explains to clients that there is an increase in vaginal secretions during pregnancy called leukorrhea. Which factor does the nurse identify as the cause of this increase?

Increased production of estrogen

Which immediate action would the nurse take if a client in the active phase of labor says, "I feel all wet. I think I wet myself."?

Inspect her perineum.

While experiencing contractions every 2 to 3 minutes lasting from 60 to 90 seconds, a client complains of severe rectal pressure. Which would the nurse's priority intervention be at this time?

Inspect the client's perineum for bulging.

Which statements regarding the involution process are correct? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

Involution begins immediately after expulsion of the placenta. Involution progresses rapidly during the next few days after birth. Involution is the return of the uterus to a nonpregnant state after birth.

While caring for a client during labor, which would the nurse remember about the second stage of labor?

It ends at the time of birth.

On arriving in the birthing room the nurse finds the client lying on her back with her head on a pillow and the bed in a flat position. The nurse explains that it is important to avoid lying in the supine position because of which reason?

It will prevent adequate blood flow to the fetus.

The fetus of a client in labor is found to be at +1 station. Where would the nurse locate the presenting part?

Just below the ischial spines

Which clinical finding is an indicator of placental separation?

Lengthening of the umbilical cord

Which suggestion would the nurse make regarding what a client would wear to prevent back pain as pregnancy progresses?

Low-heeled shoes

Which assessments and interventions are needed once an epidural catheter has been inserted? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

Maintain intravenous fluid administration. Check the bladder for distention every 2 hours. Monitor fetal heart rate and labor progress per hospital protocol. Have oxygen available in case of hypotension

Which is the priority nursing intervention for the postpartum client whose fundus is 3 fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, boggy, and midline?

Massaging the uterine fundus

A vaginal examination reveals that a client's cervix is 90% effaced and dilated to 6 cm. The fetus's head is at station 0, and the fetus is in a right occiput anterior position. The contractions are occurring every 3 to 4 minutes, are lasting 60 seconds, and are of moderate intensity. Which description is appropriate to use when reporting on the client's condition?

Midway through first stage of labor

Which type of lochia would the visiting nurse expect to observe on a client's pad on the fourth day after a vaginal delivery?

Moderate rubra The uterus sloughs off the blood, tissue, and mucus of the endometrium postdelivery. This happens in 3 stages that will vary in length and represent the normal healing of the endometrium. Lochia rubra is the first and heaviest stage of lochia. The blood that is expelled during lochia rubra will be bright red and may contain blood clots. The lochia rubra phase typically lasts for about 7 days. Lochia serosa is the second stage of postpartum bleeding and is thinner in consistency and brownish or pink in color. Lochia serosa typically lasts about 2 weeks, although for some women it can last up to 4 to 6 weeks postpartum. Lochia alba is the final stage of lochia; rather than blood, you will see a white or yellowish discharge that is generated during the healing process and the initial reconstruction of the endometrium. Expect this discharge to continue for around 6 weeks after birth, but keep in mind that it may extend beyond that if the second phase of lochia lasted longer than 2 weeks.

Information about which factor can be obtained by means of an amniocentesis done during the 16th week of gestation?

Neural tube defect

Which statement indicates a client understands the meaning of having a reactive nonstress test?

Normal because of increases in fetal heart rate (FHR) with fetal movement

Between contractions that are 2 to 3 minutes apart and last about 45 seconds the internal fetal monitor shows a fetal heart rate (FHR) of 100 beats/min. Which is the priority nursing action?

Notify the health care provider. The expected FHR is 110 to 160 beats/min between contractions. An FHR of 100 beats/min is bradycardia (baseline FHR slower than 110 beats/min) and indicates that the fetus may be compromised, requiring notifying the health care provider and medical intervention. Resuming continuous fetal heart monitoring may be dangerous. The fetus may be compromised, and time should not be spent on monitoring. Continuing to monitor the maternal vital signs is not the priority at this time. Although a fetal heart rate slower than 110 beats/minute should be documented, it is not an expected response.

Which instruction would the nurse include when teaching episiotomy care?

Perform perineal care after toileting until healing occurs.

Which information concerning the childbearing process would the nurse teach a client during the first trimester of pregnancy?

Physical and emotional changes resulting from pregnancy

Which high-risk nutritional practice must be assessed for when a pregnant client is found to be anemic?

Pica

The nurse in the postpartum unit is teaching self-care to a group of new mothers. Which color would the nurse teach them that the lochial discharge will be on the fourth postpartum day?

Pinkish brown

Which effect does the nurse expect after an amniotomy is performed on a client in active labor?

Progressive dilation and effacement

Which fetal heart tracing during labor can most likely result in fetal hypoxia and metabolic acidosis?

Recurrent late decelerations

Which behavior indicates a client has entered the second stage of labor?

Report of feeling pressure on the rectum

When the fetal monitor is applied to a client's abdomen, it records late decelerations. Which action would the nurse take?

Reposition the client on her left side.

Which preventable diseases pose a particular risk for pregnant women and their infants? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

Rubella Correct2 Varicella Correct3 Pertussis Correct4 Hepatitis B Correct5 Seasonal influenza

Which of these presentations would indicate that the nurse should direct a primipara to call a health care provider?

Rupture of membranes or contractions 5 minutes apart

Which positions promote comfort when a client is in active back labor? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

Sitting, lateral, knee to chest The sitting position relieves back pain because it removes pressure from the back. The lateral position relieves back pain because it removes pressure from the back. The knee-chest position may help relieve back pain because it removes pressure from the back. The prone position is almost impossible to assume because of the size of the uterus; also, it cannot be maintained because it impedes fetal monitoring. Low back pain is aggravated when the client is in the supine position because of increased pressure from the fetus on the lumbar and sacral regions.

Which finding indicates the development of a complication from bilateral cephalohematomas?

Skin color

The electronic fetal monitor on a client receiving an infusion of oxytocin (Pitocin) displays contractions every 2 minutes and lasting 95 seconds. Which is the appropriate nursing action?

Stop the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. The contraction pattern indicates hyperstimulation of the uterus. Stopping the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion permits relaxation of the uterus and perfusion of the placenta. Oxygen cannot reach the placenta until the uterus is relaxed, so administering oxygen will not help. Increasing the rate of delivery of the main line fluid does not affect hyperstimulation of the uterus. Insertion of an intrauterine pressure catheter will only provide measurement of the internal uterine pressure and will not affect uterine contractions.

Which is the expected color and consistency of amniotic fluid at 36 weeks' gestation?

Straw colored, clear, and containing little white specks

When low back pain is a problem, which position would the nurse advise a client in labor to avoid?

Supine

Which action would the nurse take to facilitate labor in a primigravida with irregular contractions, cervix dilated 3 cm, fetal head at station 0, and a reactive fetal heart rate tracing?

Take a walk around the unit with her.

When a client at 39 weeks' gestation arrives at the birthing suite she says, "I've been having contractions for 3 hours, and I think my water broke." Which action would the nurse take to confirm that the membranes have ruptured?

Test the leaking fluid with nitrazine paper.

Which cervical changes are observed during pregnancy? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

The cervical tip becomes soft. The volume of cervical muscle increases. The elasticity of cervical collagen-rich connective tissue increases.

The nurse teaches a postpartum client how to care for her episiotomy to prevent infection. Which behavior indicates that the teaching has been effective?

The client washes her hands before and after she changes a perineal pad.

A client in active labor is admitted to the birthing room. A vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is dilated 6 to 7 cm. In light of this finding, which would the nurse expect?

The client's contractions will become longer and more frequent.

Where would the nurse expect the fundus to be located 3 days after a cesarean birth?

The fundus descends 1 fingerbreadth per day from the first postpartum day. So 3 days after birth, the fundus would be 3 fingerbreadths below the umbilicus. If the fundus is 1 or 2 fingerbreadths below the umbilicus, the nurse should suspect that involution has been delayed, and further investigation is required. Although a fundus 4 fingerbreadths below the umbilicus is not expected, it is a benign occurrence.

The nurse is caring for a primigravid client during labor. Which physiological finding would the nurse observe that indicates birth is about to take place?

The perineum has begun to bulge with each contraction.

Which information would the nurse include in the discharge teaching of a postpartum client?

The prenatal Kegel tightening exercises should be continued.

A pregnant client asks how smoking will affect her baby. Which information about cigarette smoking will influence the nurse's response?

The resulting vasoconstriction affects both fetal and maternal blood vessels.

Morning sickness generally disappears by the end of which month?

Third month

At which time during prenatal development would the nurse tell the client to expect the greatest fetal and maternal weight gain?

Third trimester The third trimester is the period in which the fetus stores deposits of fat. There is growth, but fat deposition does not occur in the second trimester. The first 8 weeks is the period of organogenesis, when cells differentiate into major organ systems. The implantation period is the period of the blastocyst, when initial cell division takes place.

A 42-year-old client at 39 weeks' gestation has a reactive nonstress test (NST). Which interpretation pertains to this result?

This is the desired response at this stage of gestation. An NST indicates that the fetus is healthy because there is an active pattern of fetal heart rate acceleration with movement. The result is positive and desired; immediate birth is not required. Further testing is needed. If the pregnancy continues, another test of fetal well-being will probably be done. The results were positive, not inconclusive.

For which condition are pregnant women at a five- to sixfold increased risk?

Thromboembolic disease

A few hours after being admitted in early labor, a primigravida perspires profusely and becomes restless, flushed, and irritable and says she is going to vomit. Which phase of the first stage of labor does the nurse suspect the client has entered?

Transition

As the nurse inspects the perineum of a client who is in active labor, the client suddenly turns pale and states that she feels as if she is going to faint even though she is lying flat on her back. Which is the nurse's priority intervention?

Turn her onto her left side.

Which result after 20 minutes of a nonstress test is suggestive of fetal reactivity?

Two accelerations of 15 beats/min lasting 15 seconds

Which complication is the pregnant client at risk for related to the dilation of renal pelves and ureters?

Urinary tract infection

Which instruction does the nurse give to a client who arrives in the birthing room with the fetal head crowning?

Use the pant-breathing pattern.

When the nurse asks participants in a prenatal class to demonstrate effleurage, which behavior would be observed?

Using the fingertips to gently massage their abdomens

Late fetal heart rate decelerations begin to appear when a client's cervix is dilated 6 cm, and her contractions are occurring every 4 minutes and lasting 45 seconds. Which is the likely cause of these late decelerations?

Uteroplacental insufficiency

Whole milk cannot be substituted for formula because it does not meet an infant's requirements for which nutrients?

Vitamin C and iron

During the assessment of a client in labor, the cervix is determined to be dilated 4 cm. Which stage of labor would the nurse record?

first The first stage of labor is from zero cervical dilation to full cervical dilation (10 cm). The second stage is from full cervical dilation to delivery. The prodromal stage is before cervical dilation begins. The transitional phase is the first stage of labor, from 8 cm of dilation to 10 cm of dilation.

Soon after a vaginal examination revealing cervical dilation of 8 cm, bloody show increases and the client becomes nauseated and irritable. Which phase of labor would the nurse conclude the client is entering?

transition