MB ASCP

At which position on the ribose ring is the base group attached to the nitrogen base group? (A) 1' (B) 2' (C) 3' (D) 4'

(A) 1'

How many amino acids are there? (A) 20 (B) 30 (C) 40 (D) 50

(A) 20

How many nucleotides specify an amino acid? (A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 12

(A) 3

The structure of tRNA resembles a(n): (A) Cloverleaf (B) L (C) A helix (D) B helix

(A) Cloverleaf

What is the name of a mutation that changes the reading frame of an RNA molecule? (A) Frameshift mutation (B) Missense mutation (C) Nonsense mutation (D) Change-frame mutation

(A) Frameshift mutation

What is the name of the enzyme responsible for unwinding helical DNA for replication? (A) Helicase (B) Polymerase (C) Ligase (D) Exonuclease

(A) Helicase

The strand on which DNA replication is continuous is called the: (A) Leading strand (B) Lagging strand (C) Major strand (D) Minor strand

(A) Leading strand

Which of the following is not a name for newly synthesized eukaryotic RNA? (A) Mature RNA (B) Primary transcript RNA (C) Pre-mRNA (D) Transcript RNA

(A) Mature RNA

How do the large and small subunits of a ribosome come together during translation? (A) Self-assembly (B) With the aid of translation factors (C) By the hydrolysis of ATP (D) With the help of tRNAs

(A) Self-assembly

Codons that code for the same amino acid are called: (A) Synonyms (B) Similar (C) Degenerates (D) Complements

(A) Synonyms

Which of the following is the sequence of the -10 region of prokaryotic promoters? (A) TATAAT (B) TTGACA (C) TATA (D) CAA

(A) TATAAT

Which of the following codons cannot be recognized by a tRNA molecule? (A) UAA (B) CGA (C) UUU (D) AUG

(A) UAA

How many hydrogen bonds are formed between one A:T base pair? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

(B) 2

According to the wobble hypothesis, a U in the 5' position of the anitcodon can pair with: (A) U or C (B) A or G (C) A, C, or G (D) Only A

(B) A or G

Which of the following is not a component of a nucleotide? (A) Phosphate group (B) Anti-codon (C) Ribose sugar (D) Nitrogen base

(B) Anti-codon

During DNA replication, the 3' -OH of the growing DNA chain attacks which phosphate of an incoming nucleotide? (A) Alpha (B) Beta (C) Gamma (D) Delta

(B) Beta

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a tRNA molecule? (A) D arm (B) Beta arm (C) T arm (D) Anti-codon arm

(B) Beta arm

The 3' end of a tRNA molecule contains which of the following sequences? (A) TATA (B) CAA (C) AUG (D) UAA

(B) CAA

Which of the following is not involved in the splicing reaction? (A) 5' splice site (B) Hairpin loops (C) Branch A point (D) 3' splice site

(B) Hairpin loops

Which of the following is not a common hydrogen bond acceptor? (A) A carbonyl (B) Primary amine (C) Hydroxyl (D) Tertiary amine

(B) Primary amine

Which of the following is not a source of DNA damage? (A) Chemical damage (B) Splicing (C) Attack by water (D) Radiation damage

(B) Splicing

Which of the following sequences is not typical of a eukaryotic polymerase II promoter? (A) TATAAAA (B) TTGACA (C) GCCCAATCT (D) GGGCG

(B) TTGACA

What signals the end of transcription? (A) Stop codon (B) Terminator (C) The end of the DNA chain (D) RNA polymerase runs out

(B) Terminator

Which of the subunits of RNA polymerase holoenzyme is responsible for promoter recognition? (A) The beta subunit (B) The sigma subunit (C) The gamma subunit (D) The delta subunit

(B) The sigma subunit

Which of the following is not a DNA base? (A) Thymine (B) Uracil (C) Adenine (D) Guanine

(B) Uracil

How many base pairs make up a codon? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

(C) 3

The 5' capping process creates what type of linkage? (A) 5'-3' (B) 3'-5' (C) 5'-5' (D) 3'-3'

(C) 5'-5'

What is the rate of mammalian DNA replication? (A) 500 nucleotides per second (B) 100 nucleotides per second (C) 50 nucleotides per second (D) 10 nucleotides per second

(C) 50 nucleotides per second

What is the rate of DNA translation? (A) 80 nucleotides per second (B) 200 nucleotides per second (C) 60 nucleotides per second (D) 40 nucleotides per second

(C) 60 nucleotides per second

The start codon is: (A) AUU (B) UAA (C) AUG (D) UAG

(C) AUG

What links codons and anti-codons together during DNA translation? (A) DNA ligase (B) Single-stranded binding protein (C) Complementary base pairing (D) GTP

(C) Complementary base pairing

What is the name of the molecule that is added to the 5' end of eukaryotic RNA transcripts? (A) ATP (B) SnRNP (C) GTP (D) Phosphate

(C) GTP

What is the name of the bond that links the nitrogen base and the ribose sugar in a nucleotide? (A) Phosphodiester bond (B) 5'-5' bond (C) Glycosidic bond (D) Amide bond

(C) Glycosidic bond

Which of the following is not a characteristic of eukaryotic DNA transcription? (A) Multiple RNA polymerases (B) TATA-binding protein (C) Strict promoter sequences (D) Transcription factors

(C) Strict promoter sequences

Which of the following is not characteristic of prokaryotic terminators? (A) Rho-independent terminators (B) Rho-dependent terminators (C) The TATA box (D) Hairpin loops

(C) The TATA box

What provides the energy that drives the addition of nucleotides to a growing DNA chain during replication? (A) The release of a pyrophosphate (B) The hydrolysis of ATP (C) The hydrolysis of a pyrophosphate (D) The hydrolysis of GTP

(C) The hydrolysis of a pyrophosphate

Which of the following is not an RNA base? (A) Adenine (B) Uracil (C) Thymine (D) Cytosine

(C) Thymine

Which of the following is an example of a missense mutation? (A) UAC to UAG (B) AAA to UAA (C) UGC to UCC (D) UAA to UGA

(C) UGC to UCC

What is the rate of mutation per round of DNA replication? (A) 1 in 1,000 base pairs (B) 1 in 10,000 base pairs (C) 1 in 1,000,000 base pairs (D) 1 in 1,000,000,000 base pairs

(D) 1 in 1,000,000,000 base pairs

The ideal spacing between the -10 and -35 regions of a prokaryotic promoter is: (A) 14 (B) 15 (C) 16 (D) 17

(D) 17

What is the sequence recognized by poly (A) polymerase? (A) TATAAA (B) CAA (C) CCCGAA (D) AAUAAA

(D) AAUAAA

Between which phosphate groups is the linkage between the GTP molecule and RNA chain in the 5' cap? (A) Beta-beta (B) Alpha-gamma (C) Gamma-beta (D) Alpha-beta

(D) Alpha-beta

What is the name of the enzyme responsible for helping charge tRNA molecules? (A) Guanyl transferase (B) Polymerase (C) Helicase (D) Aminoacyl-tRNA synthase

(D) Aminoacyl-tRNA synthase

What is the enzyme responsible for stitching together Okazaki fragments? (A) Helicase (B) Single-stranded binding protein (C) Primase (D) Ligase

(D) Ligase

Adenine and guanine are examples of what class of nitrogen base? (A) Large (B) Pyrimidines (C) Small (D) Purines

(D) Purines

What is the name of the proteins that catalyze the release of the peptide chain at translationtermination? (A) Terminators (B) Releasors (C) Rho (D) Release factor

(D) Release factor

What is the function of the poly A tail? (A) Helps with recognition by ribosomes during translation (B) Eases transportation from the cell nucleus to the cytoplasm (C) Prevents mutations (D) The function is unknown

(D) The function is unknown

DNA polymerase reads the template strand in which direction?

3' to 5'

What is the orientation of the leading strand?

3' to 5'

What is the directionality of DNA? What is the directionality of the complementary strand? What is the orientation of DNA?

5' to 3', 3' to 5', antiparallel

DNA synthesis occurs in which direction?

5'-->3'

Splicing is the process that does which of the following? (A) Remove introns and conserve exons (B) Remove exons and conserve introns (C) Remove mutated regions of primary transcript RNA (D) Add multiple adenosine bases to the end of a primary RNA transcript

A. Remove introns and conserve exons

What is the difference between B-form, A-form, and Z-form DNA?

B- hydrated, 10.5 steps, right handed A- dehydrated, 11 steps, right handed Z- torsional stress, 12 steps, left handed

The bond between a phosphate group and the ribose sugar group in RNA is called which of the following? (A) Phosphodiester linkage (B) Glycosidic bond (C) Peptide bond (D) Amide bond

B. Glycosidic bond

Which of the following is does not play a role in DNA replication? (A) DNA polymerase (B) Helicase (C) Single-stranded binding protein (D) Guanyl transferase

D. Guanyl transferase

endonuclease vs exonuclease

Endonuclease cleaves Phosphodiester bonds within the polymer, exonuclease cleaves phosphodiester bonds at the ends of the polymer

DNA polymerase III

In charge of synthesizing nucleotides onto the leading end in the classic 5' to 3' direction.

Will single strands of DNA with identical sequences hybridize?

No, due to antiparallel orientation of DNA

Are type II restriction enzymes found on eukaryotes?

No, prokaryotes only

PAM

Protospacer Adjacent Motif, necessary sequence found adjacent to the protospacer in the target DNA, discriminates target from self

DNA pol I

Removes RNA nucleotides of primer from 5' end and replaces them with DNA nucleotides

pyrophosphorolysis

The reverse of a nucleotide polymerization reaction, in which pyrophosphate reacts with the 3'-nucleotide monophosphate of an oligonucleotide, releasing the corresponding nucleotide triphosphate.

Which restriction enzymes have methylation activity?

Type I, II, IV, IIG

nitrogen base

a carbon-nitrogen ring structure that is part of a nucleoside

Gametes

a mature haploid male or female germ cell that is able to unite with another of the opposite sex in sexual reproduction to form a zygote.

nucleotide

a nucleic acid with a phosphorylated ribose sugar and a nitrogen base, triphosphate

Terminal transferase

a template independent polymerase that catalyzes the addition of deoxynucleotides to the 3' hydroxyl terminus of DNA molecules

purine

adenine, guanine (think Ag gold is pure, still has ring formation) double ring structure

CRISPR

an adaptive immune system for bacteria and archaea, clustered interspaced short palindromic repeats and case protein which recognizes foreign DNA and keeps record of previous infections

restriction enzymes

an enzyme produced chiefly by certain bacteria as a basic immune system, having the property of cleaving DNA molecules at or near a specific sequence of bases.

What is the advantage of blunt ends over sticky ends?

blunt ends can be joined together and do not have to match while sticky ends must match exactly in order to hybridize or converted to blunt ends through exonuclease activity or polymerase activity

Which elements make up the macromolecule of DNA?

carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, phosphorous, and hydrogen

replisome

complex of multiple proteins involved in replication

mutations

copying error in DNA replication that results in base changes

Does adenine thymine pairing or cytosine guanine pairing have three hydrogen bonds?

cytosine + guanine (think c&g closer in alphabet, closer in space)

pyrimidine

cytosine, uracil, thymine (think CUT, ring structure has been "cut") single-ring

DNA ligase

enzyme that chemically links DNA fragments together in DNA replication, Okazaki fragments, or nick translation

denaturing agents

formamide, urea, mercaptoethanol, displace hydrogen bonds and separate two DNA strands

hybridization

formation of hydrogen bonds between two strands of DNA

Does the leading strand or lagging strand have Okazaki fragments?

lagging strand because DNA polymerase reads in the 3'-->5' direction and the template strand is in the 5'-->3' orientation leaving jumps between sections of DNA replication

Klenow fragment

large protein fragment of DNA pol I with 5' --> 3' polymerase activity, loses exonuclease activity

The. sequence is the ________ of nucleotides.

order

trait

particular characteristic

What type of bond joins two nucleotides?

phosphodiester bond

What is the structure of DNA?

phosphorylated ribose sugar (deoxy ribose) backbone with a nitrogenous base (guanine, adenine, cytosine, thymine) two strands joined together through hydrogen bonds form a double helix

holoenzyme

polymerase II functions with a larger assembly of proteins to perform priming, initiation, regulation, and termination

DNA synthesis cannot proceed if a deoxyribose 3'hydroxyl oxygen is not available. Which enzyme provides the preceding base?

primase

What is the basis for paternity testing and specimen identity?

restriction enzyme fragment analysis

nucleoside

ribose sugar (unphosphorylated sugar) + nitrogenous base, adenosine, guanosine, cytidine, thymidine

deoxyribose

ribose without a hydroxyl group on the carbon in position 2 on the sugar ring, with a hydroxyl group on the third carbon which is important for phosphodester bond formation

What replication model describes the key to maintaining the sequence of nucleotides in DNA through new generations?

semi-conservative model of DNA replication

hybrid vigor

the characteristic of offspring that are stronger than their parents - produced through crossbreeding

RNase H

the enzyme that helps to remove the RNA primer during DNA replication

nick translation

the phenomenon in which DNA polymerase uses its 5' to 3' exonuclease activity to remove a region of DNA and at the same time replaces it with new DNA in the 3' to 5' direction. Occurs when there are errors in base pairing or can be used for labeling DNA products in experiments for hybridization analysis

Which carbon on the deoxy ribose sugar forms a phosphodiester bond? Which catbon is the phosphate group attached to? What is this process called?

the third carbon, the fifth carbon, DNA polymerization

major groove and minor groove

two phosphate sugar backbones arranged as specific distances from each other, site of interaction with proteins or recognition sites

Pyrimidine dimers are caused by

ultraviolet light

What is the function of helicase?

unwinds the DNA double helix for replication

Type II restriction enzymes

used most frequently in the laboratory - do not have inherent methylation activity in the same molecule as the nuclease activity. Can leave sticky ends or blunt ends.

nuclein

viscous substance isolated from nuclei, discovered by Miescher and later found to be DNA