Med Surg

The parents of a child diagnosed with hepatitis A express concern that other family members may contract hepatitis because they only have one bathroom. Which response would the nurse reply? a. 'I suggest you buy an individual commode seat to use exclusively for your child's bathroom needs' b. 'Your child may use the bathroom, but you need to use disposable toilet seat covers.' c. 'You will need to clean the bathroom from top to bottom every time a family member uses it.' D. 'All family members, including your child, need to wash their hands after using the bathroom.'

D. 'All family members, including your child, need to wash their hands after using the bathroom.' Hepatitis A is spread via the fecal-oral route; transmission is prevented by proper hand washing. Buying a commode exclusively for the child's use is unnecessary; cleansing the toilet and washing the hands should control the transmission of microorganisms. Cleaning the bathroom 'from top to bottom' after each use is not feasible.

Which intervention would the nurse include in the plan of care for a client admitted with herpes zoster? Select all that apply. a. acyclovir b. silvadene c. gabapentin d. wet compresses e. contact isolation

a. acyclovir b. silvadene c. gabapentin d. wet compresses e. contact isolation Acyclovir is a antiviral medication. Silvadene can be applied to open vesicles. Gabapentin can be used to treat the nerve pain associated with herpes zoster. Wet compresses can be applied to the vesicles to relieve discomfort. Hepres zoster is highly contagious, and the client would be placed in contact isolation precautions.

A client reporting a recent bee sting presents with localized redness, swelling, intense localized pain, and itching. Which action would the nurse implement? a. applying cold compresses to the affected area b. ensuring the client keeps the skin clean and dry c. monitoring for neurological and cardiac symptoms d. advising the client to launder all clothes with bleach

a. applying cold compresses to the affected area A client with a bee stin may have localized redness, swelling, pain, and itching due to an allergic reaction. The nurse would apply cold compresses to the affected area to reduce the pain and edema at the sting site. A client candida albicans infection should keep the his or her skin clean and dry to prevent further fungal infections. A client with borrelia burgdorferi infection may suffer from cardiac, arthritic, and neurological manifestations, which requires monitoring by the nurse. Direct contact may transmit a Sarcoptes scabiei infection; the nurse should make sure the client bleaches his or her clothes to prevent transmission of the infection.

Which medication can be administered via the intramuscular route to treat anaphylaxis? a. epinephrine b. methdilazine c. phenylephrine d. mycophenolate mofetil

a. epinephrine Methdilazine is administered to treat allergic reactions and pruritis. Phenylephrine is administered orally to treat anaphylaxis. Mycophenolate mofetil is administered intravenously as an immunosuppressant agent.

Which clinical manifestations are associated with tuberculosis? Select all that apply. a. fatigue b. nausea c. weight gain d. low-grade fever e. increased appetite

a. fatigue b. nausea d. low-grade fever TB is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Symptoms are fatigue, nausea, low-grade fever, weight loss, and anorexia.

Which organism is responsible for causing dermatitis related to a sexually transmitted infection (STI)? a. phthirus pubis b. candida albicans c. campylobacyter jejuni d. ureapalsma urealyticum

a. phthirus pubis Candida albicans may lead to vulvovaginitis. Campylobacter jejuni may cause proctitis. Ureaplasma urealyticum may cause salpingitis, infertility, reproductive loss, and ectopic pregnancies.

Which color would the nurse anticipate when assessing a client's skin tears? a. red b. gray c. black d. yellow

a. red A wound caused by a full-thickness or third-degree burn is gray or black in color. Wounds with nonviable necrotic tissue that create an ideal situation for bacterial growth are yellow in color.

Which intervention is most important in preventing hospital-acquired catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)? a. removing the catheter b. keeping the drainage bag off the floor c. washing hands before and after assessing the catheter d. cleansing the urinary meatus with soap and water daily

a. removing the catheter

Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) is caused by Treponema pallidum? a. syphillis b. gonorrhea c. genital warts d. vulvovaginitis

a. syphillis Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea. Haemophilus ducreyi and Klebsiella granulomatis cause genital warts. Herpes simplex virus, Trichomonas vaginalis, and Candida albocans may cause vulvovaginitis.

Which fungal infection is commonly referred to as athlete's foot? a. tinea pedis b. tinea cruris c. tinea corporis d. tinea unguium

a. tinea pedis Tinea cruris is jock itch. Tinea corporis is ringworm. Tinea unguium is onychonyosis.

Which medication reduces the risk for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection in unaffected individuals? a. truvada b. abacavir c. cromolyn d. methdilazine

a. truvada Abacavir treats HIV infection in unaffected individuals who are at high risk of HIV infection. Cromolyn manages allergic rhinitis and asthma. Methdilazine, an antihistamine, treat the skin and provides relief from itching.

Which action would the nurse implement when providing care for a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? a. use standard precautions b. employ airborne precautions c. plan interventions to limit direct contact d. discourage long visits from family members

a. use standard precautions

To reduce the incidence of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) transmission, which basic strategies would the nurse teach a health class? Select all that apply. a. using condoms b. using separate toilets c. practicing sexual abstinence d. preventing direct casual contacts e. sterilizing the household utensils

a. using condoms c. practicing sexual abstinence

Which medication is a leukotriene modifier used to manage and prevent allergic rhinitis? a. zileuton b. ephedrine c. scopolamine d. cromolyn sodium

a. zileuton Ephedrine is an ingredient in decongestants used to treat allergic rhinitis, Scopolamine is an anticholinergic used to reduce secretions. Cromolyn sodium is a mast cell stabilizing medication used to prevent mast cell membranes form opening when an allergen binds to immunoglobulin E (IgE).

Which medication treats hay fever preventing leukotriene synthesis? a. zileuton b. cromolyn sodium c. chlorpheniramine d. diphenhydramine

a. zileuton Zileuton is a leukotriene antagonist medicatoin; this substance prevents the synthesis of leukotrienes and helps in managing and preventing hay fever. Cromolyn sodium stabilizes mast cells and prevents the opening of mast cell membranes in response to allergens binging to immunoglobulin E. Chlorpheniramine and diphenhydramine are antihistamines and prevent binding of histamine to receptor cells and decrease allergic manifestations.

Which antimicrobial medication acts on susceptible pathogens by inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis? a. penicillin b. actinomyocin c. erythomyocin d. cephalosporin

b. actinomyocin Acts on susceptible pathogens by inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis. Penicillin acts on susceptible pathogens by inhibiting cell wall synthesis. Erythromyocin acts on susceptible pathogens by inhibiting biosynthesis and reproduction. Cephalosporin acts on susceptible pathogens by inhibiting cell wall synthesis.

Identify the function of IgG antibodies in the body? a. activates the degranulation of mast cells b. activates the classic complement pathways c. prevents upper respiratory tract infections d. prevents lower respiratory tract infections

b. activates the classic complement pathways Classic complement pathway is acticated by the IgG and IgM antibodies. IgE antibodies cause a degranulation of mast cells. IgA antibodies are found largely in mucous membrane secretions and play an important role in preventing upper and lower respiratory tract infections.

A client receiving chemotherapy develops a temperature of 102.2F (39C). The temperature 6 hours ago was 99.2F (37.3C). Which nursing intervention is the priority in this case? a. assess the amount and color of urine; obtain a specimen for a urinanalysis and culture. b. administer the prescribed antipyretic and notify the primary health care provider of this change c. note the consistency of respiratory secretions and obtain a specimen for culture and sensitivity d. obtain the respirations, pulse, and blood pressure when rechecking the temperature in 1 hour.

b. administer the prescribed antipyretic and notify the primary health care provider of this change

Which intervention is most likely to decrease mortality in the septic client? a. oxygen b. antibiotics c. vasopressors d. intravenous fluids

b. antibiotics Administering antibiotics is the only intervention that fights the source of the problem.

A client reports facial lesions that are surrounded by redness and cause itching. On assessment, the lesions are found to be thick with a honey-colored crust and surrounded by erythema. Which infection is suspected by the primary health care provider? a. shingles b. impetigo c. folliculitis d. verruca vulgaris

b. impetigo Shingles or herpes zoster is a viral infection that usually occurs unilaterally onthe trunk, face, and lumbosacral areas. Folliculitis is a bacterial infection seen most commonly on the scalp, beard, and extremities in men. Verruca vulgaris is a viral infection that is clinically manifested as circumscribed, hypertrophic, flesh-colored papule limited to the epidermis.

Which rational explains the purpose of administering diphenoxylate hydrochloride to clients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? a. to manage pain b. to manage diarrhea c. to manage candidal esophagitis d. to manage behavioral problems

b. to manage diarrhea Diphenoxylate hydrochloride is an antidiarrheal medication prescribed to clients with AIDS to manage frequent diarrhea experienced by a client with AIDS. Opioid analgesics such as tramadol are used to manage pain. Ketoconazole can be used to treat candidal esophagitis associated with AIDS. Behavioral problems are managed with psychotropic medications.

An older client with a history of congestive heart failure expresses concern about potential exposure to tuberculosis (TB) from his or her roommate at the extended care facility. The roommate coughs a great deal and sometimes spits up blood. Which is the primary reason that the nurse pursues more information about the roommate? a. death from TB is on the increase in older populations b. the roommate is causing increased anxiety and stress in the client c. TB adversely affects older adults with chronic illness. d. most likely, the roommate prevents the client from getting proper sleep.

c. TB adversely affects older adults with chronic illness.

Which client has a higher risk fro contracting the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? a. a client who is involved in mutual masturbation b. a client who undergoes voluntary prenatal HIV testing c. a client who shares equipment to snort or smoke drugs d. a client who engages in insertive sex with a noninfective partner

c. a client who shares equipment to snort or smoke drugs

In addition to being highly infectious, which additional fact would the nurse teach the client with gonorrhea? a. easily cured b. occurs very rarely c. can produce sterility d. limited to the external genitalia

c. can produce sterility Inflammation assoiciated with gonorhhea may lead to destruction of the epididymis in males and tubal mucosal destruction in females, causing sterility.

An adolescent male complains of painful urination and yellow-green mucosa discharge from urethra without abdominal pain. Which condition is the client likely to have? a. varicocele b. testicular torsion c. epididymitis d. gynecomastia

c. epididymitis

Which influenza vaccine would the nurse administer via intranasal route? a. fluarix b. fluvirin c. flumist d. fluzone

c. flumist FLuarix, fluvirin, and fluzone are influenza vaccines administered via IM route

The client reports crumbly, discolored, and thickened toenails. Which reason could be a possible cause for this condition? a. allergy b. insect bite c. fungal infection d. bacterial infection

c. fungal infection Insect bites may cause life-threatening allergic reactions due to the venom of the insect. Bacteria may cause scalp infections to hair and skin but do not usually cause nail infections.

Which symptom indicates a client with inhalation anthrax is in the fulminant stage? a. fever b. dry cough c. hematemesis d. mild chest pain

c. hematemesis Inhalation anthrax is a bacterial infection caused by Bacillus anthracis. This disease has two stages of illness, the prodromal stage and fulminant stage. The symptom of the fulminant stage is hematemesis. The sympoms of the prodromal stage are fever, dry cough, and mild chest pain.

Why is an infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae troublesome for a female client? a. the medication is expensive b. the infection is difficult to treat with antibiotics c. symptoms are often overlooked d. treatment has many adverse effects

c. symptoms are often overlooked Many female clients who contract gonorrhea are asymptomatic or overlook the minor symptoms, making possible for the bacteria to remain a source of infection. There is no evidence to support th medication to treat the infection is expensive. The infection can be treated with one IM injection of ceftriaxone. There is no evidence to support the medication to treat this infection has many adverse effects.

A client recovering from deep, partial-thickness burns develops chills, fever, flank pain, and malaise. Which prescribed diagnostic test would the nurse expect to confirm a tentative urinary tract diagnosis? a. cystoscopy and bilirubin level b. specific gravity and pH of the urine c. urinalysis and urine culture and sensitivity d. creatinine clearance and albumin/globulin (A/G) ratio

c. urinalysis and urine culture and sensitivity Client's manifestations may indicate a urinary tract infection. A culture of the urine will identify the microorganism, and sensitivity will identify the most appropriate antibiotic. A cystocopy is too invasive as a screening procedure; altered bilirubin results indicate liver or biliary problems, not urinary signs and symptoms. Creatinine clearance reflects renal function; A/G ratio reflects liver function. Although an increased urine specific gravity may indicate RBC, WBC, or casts in urine, which are associated with urinary tract infection, it will not identify the causative organism.

The nurse understands which preparations use toxoids but not live viruses? a. rotavirus vaccine b. varicella virus vaccine c. measles, mumps, and rubella virus vaccine d. diphtheria, hepatitis B, pertussis (acellular). polio, and tetanuse vaccine e. diphtheria and tetnus toxoids and acellular pertussis vaccine

d. diphtheria, hepatitis B, pertussis (acellular). polio, and tetanuse vaccine e. diphtheria and tetnus toxoids and acellular pertussis vaccine Diphtheria, hepatitis B, pertussis (acellular). polio, and tetanuse vaccine consists of diphtheria and tetanus toxoids plus inactivated bacterial components of pertussis, inactive viral antigen of hepatitus B, and inactivetated poliovirus vaccine. Diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and acellular pertussis vaccine is a preparation consisting of toxoids plus inactive bacterial and viral components of diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and acellular pertussis. Rotavirus vaccine, varicella virus vaccine, and measles, mumps, and rubella virus vaccine are preparations containing live viruses.

Which parameter would the nurse consider while assessing the psychologic status of a client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)? a. sleep pattern b. severity of pain c. cognitive changes d. presence of anxiety

d. presence of anxiety Sleep patterns and severity of pain relate to the assessment of activity and rest, a physical status. Cognitive changes relate to the assessment of a client's neurological status.

Which factor would the nurse explain as a reason why women are at a greater risk than men for contracting a urinary tract infection? a. altered urinary pH levels b. hormonal secretions c. juxtaposition of the bladder d. proximity of the urethra and anus

d. proximity of the urethra and anus

Which statement explains why women have a greater risk for recurrent urinary tract infections than men do? a. altered urinary pH b. hormonal secretions c. juxtaposition of the bladder d. proximity of the urethra to the anus

d. proximity of the urethra to the anus Urinary pH is within the same range in both men and women. Hormonal secretions have no effect on the development of bladder infections. The position of the bladder is the same in men and women.

Which identified clinical manifestation is a sign of allergic rhinitis? a. presence of high-grade fever b. reduced breathing through the mouth c. presence of pinkish nasal discharge d. reduced transillumination on the skin over the sinuses

d. reduced transillumination on the skin over the sinuses This effect is caused by the sinuses becoming inflamed and blocked with thick secretions. Generally, fever does not accompany allergic rhinitis unless the client develops a secondary infection. In allergic rhinitis, the client is unable to breathe through the nose because it gets stuffy and blocked. Instead, the client will resort to mouth breathing. Clients with allergic rhinitis will have clear or white nasal discharge.

Which disease is caused by coronavirus? a. pertusis b. inhalation anthrax c. coccidioidomycosis d. severe acute respiratory syndrome

d. severe acute respiratory syndrome Pertusis is caused by bacterium Bordetella pertussis. Inhalation anthrax is caused by Bacillus anthracis.