Med Surg Exam 2

A nurse teaches a client to perform total skin self-examinations on a monthly basis. Which statements should the nurse include in this clients teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Look for asymmetry of shape and irregular borders. b. Assess for color variation within each lesion. c. Examine the distribution of lesions over a section of the body. d. Monitor for edema or swelling of tissues. e. Focus your assessment on skin areas that itch.

A,B Clients should be taught to examine each lesion following the ABCDE features associated with skin cancer: asymmetry of shape, border irregularity, color variation within one lesion, diameter greater than 6 mm, and evolving or changing in any feature.

The nurse working in the gastrointestinal clinic sees clients who are anemic. What are common causes for which the nurse assesses in these clients? (Select all that apply.) a. Colon cancer b. Diverticulitis c. Inflammatory bowel disease d. Peptic ulcer disease e. Pernicious anemia

A,B,C,D In adults, the most common cause of anemia is GI bleeding. This is commonly associated with colon cancer, diverticulitis, inflammatory bowel disease, and peptic ulcer disease. Pernicious anemia is not associated with GI bleeding.

The nurse has taught a client about lifestyle modifications for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). What statements by the client indicate good understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. I just joined a gym, so I hope that helps me lose weight. b. I sure hate to give up my coffee, but I guess I have to. c. I will eat three small meals and three small snacks a day. d. Sitting upright and not lying down after meals will help. e. Smoking a pipe is not a problem and I dont have to stop.

A,B,C,D Lifestyle modifications can help control GERD and include losing weight if needed; avoiding chocolate, caffeine, and carbonated beverages; eating frequent small meals or snacks; and remaining upright after meals. Tobacco is a risk factor for GERD and should be avoided in all forms.

A client has been discharged to an inpatient rehabilitation center after an esophagogastrectomy. What menu selections by the client at the rehabilitation center indicate a good understanding of dietary instructions? (Select all that apply.) a. Boost supplement b. Greek yogurt c. Scrambled eggs d. Whole milk shake e. Whole wheat

A,B,C,D Malnutrition is a serious problem after this procedure. The client needs high-protein, high-calorie foods that are easy to chew and swallow. The Boost supplement, Greek yogurt, scrambled eggs, and whole milk shake are all good choices. The whole wheat bread, while heart healthy, is not a good choice as it is dry and not easy to chew and swallow.

The nurse is aware that which factors are related to the development of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? (Select all that apply.) a. Delayed gastric emptying b. Eating large meals c. Hiatal hernia d. Obesity e. Viral infections

A,B,C,D Many factors predispose a person to GERD, including delayed gastric emptying, eating large meals, hiatal hernia, and obesity. Viral infections are not implicated in the development of GERD, although infection with Helicobacter pylori is.

The student nurse learns about risk factors for gastric cancer. Which factors does this include? (Select all that apply.) a. Achlorhydria b. Chronic atrophic gastritis c. Helicobacter pylori infection d. Iron deficiency anemia e. Pernicious anemia

A,B,C,E Achlorhydria, chronic atrophic gastritis, H. pylori infection, and pernicious anemia are all risk factors for developing gastric cancer. Iron deficiency anemia is not a risk factor.

When working with older adults to promote good nutrition, what actions by the nurse are most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Allow uninterrupted time for eating. b. Assess dentures for appropriate fit. c. Ensure the client has glasses on when eating. d. Provide salty foods that the client can taste. e. Serve high-calorie, high-protein snacks.

A,B,C,E Older adults need unhurried and uninterrupted time for eating. Dentures should fit appropriately and glasses, if used, should be on. High-calorie, high-protein snacks are a good choice. Salty snacks are not recommended because all adults should limit sodium in their diets.

A client had an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). The nurse instructs the client and family about the signs of potential complications, which include what problems? (Select all that apply.) a. Cholangitis b. Pancreatitis c. Perforation d. Renal lithiasis e. Sepsis

A,B,C,E Possible complications after an ERCP include cholangitis, pancreatitis, perforation, sepsis, and bleeding. Kidney stones are not a complication of ERCP.

The student nurse studying stomach disorders learns that the risk factors for acute gastritis include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Alcohol b. Caffeine c. Corticosteroids d. Fruit juice e. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

A,B,C,E Risk factors for acute gastritis include alcohol, caffeine, corticosteroids, and chronic NSAID use. Fruit juice is not a risk factor, although in some people it does cause distress.

The nurse working with older clients understands age-related changes in the gastrointestinal system. Which changes does this include? (Select all that apply.) a. Decreased hydrochloric acid production b. Diminished sensation that can lead to constipation c. Fat not digested as well in older adults d. Increased peristalsis in the large intestine e. Pancreatic vessels become calcified

A,B,C,E Several age-related changes occur in the gastrointestinal system. These include decreased hydrochloric acid production, diminished nerve function that leads to decreased sensation of the need to pass stool, decreased fat digestion, decreased peristalsis in the large intestine, and calcification of pancreatic vessels.

A nurse assesses a client with ulcerative colitis. Which complications are paired correctly with their physiologic processes? (Select all that apply.) a. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding Erosion of the bowel wall b. Abscess formation Localized pockets of infection develop in the ulcerated bowel lining c. Toxic megacolon Transmural inflammation resulting in pyuria and fecaluria d. Nonmechanical bowel obstruction Paralysis of colon resulting from colorectal cancer e. Fistula Dilation and colonic ileus caused by paralysis of the colon

A,B,D Lower GI bleeding can lead to erosion of the bowel wall. Abscesses are localized pockets of infection that develop in the ulcerated bowel lining. Nonmechanical bowel obstruction is paralysis of the colon that results from colorectal cancer. When the inflammation is transmural, fistulas can occur between the bowel and bladder resulting in pyuria and fecaluria. Paralysis of the colon causing dilation and subsequent colonic ileus is known as a toxic megacolon.

A nurse plans care for a client who is recovering from an inguinal hernia repair. Which interventions should the nurse include in this clients plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Encouraging ambulation three times a day b. Encouraging normal urination c. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing d. Providing ice bags and scrotal support e. Forcibly reducing the hernia

A,B,D Postoperative care for clients with an inguinal hernia includes all general postoperative care except coughing. The nurse should promote lung expansion by encouraging deep breathing and ambulation. The nurse should encourage normal urination, including allowing the client to stand, and should provide scrotal support and ice bags to prevent swelling. A hernia should never be forcibly reduced, and this procedure is not part of postoperative care.

The nurse is caring for a client who had an esophagectomy 3 days ago and was extubated yesterday. What actions may the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Assisting with position changes and getting out of bed b. Keeping the head of the bed elevated to at least 30 degrees c. Reminding the client to use the spirometer every 4 hours d. Taking and recording vital signs per hospital protocol e. Titrating oxygen based on the clients oxygen saturations

A,B,D The UAP can assist with mobility, keep the head of the bed elevated, and take and record vital signs. The client needs to use the spirometer every 1 to 2 hours. The nurse titrates oxygen.

A nurse plans care for a client who has chronic diarrhea. Which actions should the nurse include in this clients plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Using premoistened disposable wipes for perineal care b. Turning the client from right to left every 2 hours c. Using an antibacterial soap to clean after each stool d. Applying a barrier cream to the skin after cleaning e. Keeping broken skin areas open to air to promote healing

A,B,D The nurse should use premoistened disposable wipes instead of toilet paper for perineal care, or mild soap and warm water after each stool. Antibacterial soap would be too abrasive and damage good bacteria on the skin. The nurse should apply a thin layer of a medicated protective barrier after cleaning the skin. The client should be re-positioned frequently so that he or she is kept off the affected area, and open skin areas should be covered with DuoDerm or Tegaderm occlusive dressing to promote rapid healing.

A client has a gastrointestinal hemorrhage and is prescribed two units of packed red blood cells. What actions should the nurse perform prior to hanging the blood? (Select all that apply.) a. Ask a second nurse to double-check the blood. b. Prime the IV tubing with normal saline. c. Prime the IV tubing with dextrose in water. d. Take and record a set of vital signs. e. Teach the client about reaction manifestations.

A,B,D,E Prior to starting a blood transfusion, the nurse asks another nurse to double-check the blood (and client identity), primes the IV tubing with normal saline, takes and records a baseline set of vital signs, and teaches the client about manifestations to report. The IV tubing is not primed with dextrose in water.

A nurse assesses a client with peritonitis. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.) a. Distended abdomen b. Inability to pass flatus c. Bradycardia d. Hyperactive bowel sounds e. Decreased urine output

A,B,E A client with peritonitis may present with a distended abdomen, diminished bowel sounds, inability to pass flatus or feces, tachycardia, and decreased urine output secondary to dehydration. Bradycardia and hyperactive bowel sounds are not associated with peritonitis.

A client who had a partial gastrectomy has several expected nutritional problems. What actions by the nurse are best to promote better nutrition? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer vitamin B12 injections. b. Ask the provider about folic acid replacement. c. Educate the client on enteral feedings. d. Obtain consent for total parenteral nutrition. e. Provide iron supplements for the client.

A,B,E After gastrectomy, clients are at high risk for anemia due to vitamin B12 deficiency, folic acid deficiency, or iron deficiency. The nurse should provide supplements for all these nutrients. The client does not need enteral feeding or total parenteral nutrition.

A nurse assesses a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which questions should the nurse include in this clients assessment? (Select all that apply.) a. Which food types cause an exacerbation of symptoms? b. Where is your pain and what does it feel like? c. Have you lost a significant amount of weight lately? d. Are your stools soft, watery, and black in color? e. Do you experience nausea associated with defecation?

A,B,E The nurse should ask the client about factors that may cause exacerbations of symptoms, including food, stress, and anxiety. The nurse should also assess the location, intensity, and quality of the clients pain, and nausea associated with defecation or meals. Clients who have IBS do not usually lose weight and stools are not black in color.

A nurse is preparing to administer pantoprazole (Protonix) intravenously. What actions by the nurse are most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer the drug through a separate IV line. b. Infuse pantoprazole using an IV pump. c. Keep the drug in its original brown bag. d. Take vital signs frequently during infusion. e. Use an in-line IV filter when infusing.

A,B,E When infusing pantoprazole, use a separate IV line, a pump, and an in-line filter. A brown wrapper and frequent vital signs are not needed.

The nurse is caring for a client with sialadenitis. What comfort measures may the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Applying warm compresses b. Massaging salivary glands c. Offering fluids every hour d. Providing lemon-glycerin swabs e. Reminding the client to avoid speaking

A,C The UAP can apply warm compresses and offer fluids. Massaging salivary glands can be done, but not by the UAP. Lemon-glycerin swabs are drying and should not be used. Speaking has no effect on this condition.

The nurse is aware of the 2014 American Cancer Society Screening Guidelines for colon cancer, which include which testing modalities for people over the age of 50? (Select all that apply.) a. Colonoscopy every 10 years b. Colonoscopy every 5 years c. Computed tomography (CT) colonography every 5 years d. Double-contrast barium enema every 10 years e. Flexible sigmoidoscopy every 10 years

A,C The options for colon cancer screening for people over the age of 50 include colonoscopy every 10 years and CT colonography, double-contrast barium enema, or flexible sigmoidoscopy every 5 years.

A nurse plans care for a client who has a wound that is not healing. Which focused assessments should the nurse complete to develop the clients plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Height b. Allergies c. Alcohol use d. Prealbumin laboratory results e. Liver enzyme laboratory results

A,C,D Nutritional status can have a significant impact on skin health and wound healing. The care plan for a client with poor nutritional status should include a high-protein, high-calorie diet. To determine the clients nutritional status, the nurse should assess height and weight, alcohol use, and prealbumin laboratory results. These data will provide information related to vitamin and protein deficiencies, and obesity. Allergies and liver enzyme laboratory results will not provide information about nutrition status or wound healing.

After teaching a client with an anal fissure, a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which client actions indicate that the client correctly understands the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Taking a warm sitz bath several times each day b. Utilizing a daily enema to prevent constipation c. Using bulk-producing agents to aid elimination d. Self-administering anti-inflammatory suppositories e. Taking a laxative each morning

A,C,D Taking warm sitz baths each day, using bulk-producing agents, and administering anti-inflammatory suppositories are all appropriate actions for the client with an anal fissure. The client should not use enemas or laxatives to promote elimination, but rather should rely on bulk-producing agents such as psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid (Metamucil).

A nurse is teaching clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) about foods to avoid. Which foods should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Chocolate b. Decaffeinated coffee c. Citrus fruits d. Peppermint e. Tomato sauce

A,C,D,E Chocolate, citrus fruits such as oranges and grapefruit, peppermint and spearmint, and tomato-based products all contribute to the reflux associated with GERD. Caffeinated teas, coffee, and sodas should be avoided.

The nurse understands that malnutrition can occur in hospitalized clients for several reasons. Which are possible reasons for this to occur? (Select all that apply.) a. Cultural food preferences b. Family bringing snacks c. Increased need for nutrition d. Need for NPO status e. Staff shortages

A,C,D,E Many factors increase the hospitalized clients risk for nutritional deficits. Cultural food preferences may make hospital food unpalatable. Ill clients have increased nutritional needs but may be NPO for testing or treatment, or have a loss of appetite from their illness. Staff shortages impact clients who need to be fed or assisted with meals. The family may bring snacks that are either healthy or unhealthy, so without further information, the nurse cannot assume the snacks are leading to malnutrition.

A nurse teaches a client how to avoid becoming ill with Salmonella infection again. Which statements should the nurse include in this clients teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Wash leafy vegetables carefully before eating or cooking them. b. Do not ingest water from the garden hose or the pool. c. Wash your hands before and after using the bathroom. d. Be sure meat is cooked to the proper temperature. e. Avoid eating eggs that are sunny side up or undercooked.

A,C,D,E Salmonella is usually contracted via contaminated eggs, beef, poultry, and green leafy vegetables. It is not transmitted through water in garden hoses or pools. Clients should wash leafy vegetables well, wash hands before and after using the restroom, make sure meat and eggs are cooked properly, and, because it can be transmitted by flies, keep flies off of food.

A nurse studying cancer knows that job-related risks for developing oral cancer include which occupations? (Select all that apply.) a. Coal miner b. Electrician c. Metal worker d. Plumber e. Textile worker

A,C,D,E The occupations of coal mining, metal working, plumbing, and textile work produce exposure to polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs), which are known carcinogens. Electricians do not have this risk.

A nurse teaches a community group about food poisoning and gastroenteritis. Which statements should the nurse include in this groups teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Rotavirus is more common among infants and younger children. b. Escherichia coli diarrhea is transmitted by contact with infected animals. c. To prevent E. coli infection, dont drink water when swimming. d. Clients who have botulism should be quarantined within their home. e. Parasitic diseases may not show up for 1 to 2 weeks after infection.

A,C,E Rotavirus is more common among the youngest of clients. Not drinking water while swimming can help prevent E. coli infection. Parasitic diseases may take up to 2 weeks to become symptomatic. People with botulism need to be hospitalized to monitor for respiratory failure and paralysis. Escherichia coli is not transmitted by contact with infected animals.

A nurse cares for a client who has been diagnosed with a small bowel obstruction. Which assessment findings should the nurse correlate with this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.) a. Serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L b. Loss of 15 pounds without dieting c. Abdominal pain in upper quadrants d. Low-pitched bowel sounds e. Serum sodium of 121 mEq/L

A,C,E Small bowel obstructions often lead to severe fluid and electrolyte imbalances. The client is hypokalemic (normal range is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L) and hyponatremic (normal range is 136 to 145 mEq/L). Abdominal pain across the upper quadrants is associated with small bowel obstruction. Dramatic weight loss without dieting followed by bowel obstruction leads to the probable development of colon cancer. High-pitched sounds may be noted with small bowel obstructions.

A nurse inserts a nasogastric (NG) tube for an adult client who has a bowel obstruction. Which actions does the nurse perform correctly? (Select all that apply.) a. Performs hand hygiene and positions the client in high-Fowlers position, with pillows behind the head and shoulders b. Instructs the client to extend the neck against the pillow once the NG tube has reached the oropharynx c. Checks for correct placement by checking the pH of the fluid aspirated from the tube d. Secures the NG tube by taping it to the clients nose and pinning the end to the pillowcase e. Connects the NG tube to intermittent medium suction with an anti-reflux valve on the air vent

A,C,E The clients head should be flexed forward once the NG tube has reached the oropharynx. The NG tube should be secured to the clients gown, not to the pillowcase, because it could become dislodged easily. All the other actions are appropriate.

A client has dumping syndrome. What menu selections indicate the client understands the correct diet to manage this condition? (Select all that apply.) a. Canned unsweetened apricots b. Coffee cake c. Milk shake d. Potato soup e. Steamed broccoli

A,D Canned apricots and potato soup are appropriate selections as they are part of a high-protein, high-fat, low- to moderate-carbohydrate diet. Coffee cake and other sweets must be avoided. Milk products and sweet drinks such as shakes must be avoided. Gas-forming foods such as broccoli must also be avoided.

A nurse teaches a community group ways to prevent Escherichia coli infection. Which statements should the nurse include in this groups teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Wash your hands after any contact with animals. b. It is not necessary to buy a meat thermometer. c. Stay away from people who are ill with diarrhea. d. Use separate cutting boards for meat and vegetables e. Avoid swimming in backyard pools and using hot tubs.

A,D Washing hands after contact with animals and using separate cutting boards for meat and other foods will help prevent E. coli infection. The other statements are not related to preventing E. coli infection.

A nurse cares for a client who has a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Assess for proper placement of the tube every 4 hours. b. Flush the tube with water every hour to ensure patency. c. Secure the NG tube to the clients upper lip. d. Disconnect suction when auscultating bowel peristalsis. e. Monitor the clients skin around the tube site for irritation.

A,D,E The nurse should assess for proper placement, tube patency, and output every 4 hours. The nurse should also monitor the skin around the tube for irritation and secure the tube to the clients nose. When auscultating bowel sounds for peristalsis, the nurse should disconnect suction.

A client had a retinal detachment and has undergone surgical correction. What discharge instruction is most important? a. Avoid reading, writing, or close work such as sewing. b. Dim the lights in your house for at least a week. c. Keep the follow-up appointment with the ophthalmologist. d. Remove your eye patch every hour for eyedrops.

ANS: A After surgery for retinal detachment, the client is advised to avoid reading, writing, and close work because they cause rapid eye movements. Dim lights are not indicated. Keeping a postoperative appointment is important for any surgical client. The eye patch is not removed for eyedrops.

An older adult in the family practice clinic reports a decrease in hearing over a week. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Assess for cerumen buildup. b. Facilitate audiological testing. c. Perform tuning fork tests. d. Review the medication list.

ANS: A All options are possible actions for the client with hearing loss. The first action the nurse should take is to look for cerumen buildup, which can decrease hearing in the older adult. If this is normal, medications should be assessed for ototoxicity. Further auditory testing may be needed for this client.

A clients chart indicates anisocoria. For what should the nurse assess? a. Difference in pupil size b. Draining infection c. Recent eye trauma d. Tumor of the eyelid

ANS: A Anisocoria is a noticeable difference in the size of a persons pupils. This is a normal finding in a small percentage of the population. Infection, trauma, and tumors are not related.

A client has a corneal ulcer. What information provided by the client most indicates a potential barrier to home care?a. Chronic use of sleeping pills b. Impaired near vision c. Slightly shaking hands d. Use of contact lenses

ANS: A Antibiotic eyedrops are often needed every hour for the first 24 hours for corneal ulceration. The client who uses sleeping pills may not wake up each hour or may awaken unable to perform this task. This client might need someone else to instill the eyedrops hourly. Impaired near vision and shaking hands can both make administration of eyedrops more difficult but are not the most likely barriers. Contact lenses should be discarded.

A nurse is teaching a community group about preventing hearing loss. What instruction is best? a. Always wear a bicycle helmet. b. Avoid swimming in ponds or lakes. c. Dont go to fireworks displays. d. Use a soft cotton swab to clean ears.

ANS: A Avoiding head trauma is a practical way to help prevent hearing loss. Swimming can lead to hearing loss if the client has repeated infections. Fireworks displays are loud, but usually brief and only occasional. Nothing smaller than the clients fingertip should be placed in the ear canal.

A nurse is teaching a client about ear hygiene and health. What client statement indicates a need for further teaching? a. A soft cotton swab is alright to clean my ears with. b. I make sure my ears are dry after I go swimming. c. I use good earplugs when I practice with the band. d. Keeping my diabetes under control helps my ears.

ANS: A Clients should be taught not to put anything larger than their fingertip into their ears. Using a cotton swab, although soft, can cause damage to the ears and cerumen buildup. The other statements are accurate.

The nurse has given a community group a presentation on eye health. Which statement by a participant indicates a need for more instruction? a. I always lose my sunglasses, so I dont wear them. b. I have diabetes and get an annual eye exam. c. I will not share my contact solution with others. d. I will wear safety glasses when I mow the lawn.

ANS: A Clients should be taught to protect their eyes from ultraviolet (UV) exposure by consistently wearing sunglasses when outdoors, when tanning in tanning salons, or when working with UV light. The other statements are correct.

A client presents to the emergency department reporting a foreign body in the eye. For what diagnostic testing should the nurse prepare the client? a. Corneal staining b. Fluorescein angiography c. Ophthalmoscopy d. Tonometry

ANS: A Corneal staining is used when the possibility of eye trauma exists, including a foreign body. Fluorescein angiography is used to assess problems of retinal circulation. Ophthalmoscopy looks at both internal and external eye structures. Tonometry tests the intraocular pressure.

The nurse reads on a clients chart that the client has exophthalmos. What assessment finding is consistent with this diagnosis? a. Bulging eyes b. Drooping eyelids c. Sunken-in eyes d. Yellow sclera

ANS: A Exophthalmos is bulging eyes. Drooping eyelids is ptosis. Sunken-in eyes is enophthalmos. Yellow sclera indicates jaundice.

A client does not understand why vision loss due to glaucoma is irreversible. What explanation by the nurse is best? a. Because eye pressure was too high, the tissue died. b. Glaucoma always leads to permanent blindness. c. The traumatic damage to your eye was too great. d. The infection occurs so quickly it cant be treated.

ANS: A Glaucoma is caused when the intraocular pressure becomes too high and stays high long enough to cause tissue ischemia and death. At that point, vision loss is permanent. Glaucoma does not have to cause blindness. Trauma can cause glaucoma but is not the most common cause. Glaucoma is not an infection.

A client has labyrinthitis and is prescribed antibiotics. What instruction by the nurse is most important for this client? a. Immediately report headache or stiff neck. b. Keep all follow-up appointments. c. Take the antibiotics with a full glass of water. d. Take the antibiotic on an empty stomach.

ANS: A Meningitis is a complication of labyrinthitis. The client should be taught to take all antibiotics as prescribed and to report manifestations of meningitis such as fever, headache, or stiff neck. Keeping follow-up appointments is important for all clients. Without knowing what antibiotic was prescribed, the nurse cannot instruct the client on how to take it.

A client is scheduled to have a tumor of the middle ear removed. What teaching topic is most important for the nurse to cover? a. Expecting hearing loss in the affected ear b. Managing postoperative pain c. Maintaining NPO status prior to surgery d. Understanding which medications are allowed the day of surgery

ANS: A Removal of an inner ear tumor will likely destroy hearing in the affected ear. The other teaching topics are appropriate for any surgical client.

A client hospitalized for a wound infection has a blood urea nitrogen of 45 mg/dL and creatinine of 4.2 mg/dL. What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess the ordered antibiotics for ototoxicity. b. Explain how kidney damage causes hearing loss. c. Use ibuprofen (Motrin) for pain control. d. Teach that hearing loss is temporary.

ANS: A Some medications are known to be ototoxic. Diminished kidney function slows the excretion of drugs from the body, worsening the ototoxic effects. The nurse should assess the antibiotics the client is receiving for ototoxicity. The other options are not warranted.

A client had a myringotomy. The nurse provides which discharge teaching? a. Buy dry shampoo to use for a week. b. Drink liquids through a straw. c. Flying is not allowed for 1 month. d. Hot water showers will help the pain.

ANS: A The client cannot shower or get the head wet for 1 week after surgery, so using dry shampoo is a good suggestion. The other instructions are incorrect: straws are not allowed for 2 to 3 weeks, flying is not allowed for 2 to 3 weeks, and the client should not shower.

A client had proxymetacaine (Ocu-Caine) instilled in one eye in the emergency department. What discharge instruction is most important? a. Do not touch or rub the eye until it is no longer numb. b. Monitor the eye for any bleeding for the next day. c. Rinse the eye with warm saline solution at home. d. Use all the eyedrops as prescribed until they are gone.

ANS: A This drug is an ophthalmic anesthetic. The client can injure the numb eye by touching or rubbing it. Bleeding is not associated with this drug. The client should not be told to rinse the eye. This medication was given in the emergency department and is not prescribed for home use.

A client has a foreign body in the eye. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Administering ordered antibiotics b. Assessing the clients visual acuity c. Obtaining consent for enucleation d. Removing the object immediately

ANS: A To prevent infection, antibiotics are provided. Visual acuity in the affected eye cannot be assessed. The client may or may not need enucleation. The object is only removed by the ophthalmologist.

A nurse delegates care for a client who has open skin lesions. Which statements should the nurse include when delegating this clients hygiene care to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Wash your hands before touching the client. b. Wear gloves when bathing the client. c. Assess skin for breakdown during the bath. d. Apply lotion to lesions while the skin is wet. e. Use a damp cloth to scrub the lesions.

ANS: A, B All health care providers should follow Standard Precautions when caring for clients who have any open skin areas. This includes hand hygiene and wearing gloves when in contact with the lesions. The UAP is not qualified to assess the clients skin. The other statements are not appropriate for the care of open skin lesions.

A nurse manages wound care for clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client wounds are paired with the appropriate treatments? (Select all that apply.) a. Client with a left heel ulcer with slight necrosis Whirlpool treatments b. Client with an eschar-covered sacral ulcer Surgical dbridement c. Client with a sunburn and erythema Soaking in warm water for 20 minutes d. Client with urticaria Wet-to-dry dressing changes every 6 hours e. Client with a sacral ulcer with purulent drainage Transparent film dressing

ANS: A, B Necrotic tissue should be removed so that healing can take place. Whirlpool treatment can gently remove the necrosis. A wound covered with eschar most likely needs surgical dbridement. Warm water would not be recommended for a client with erythema. A wet-to-dry dressing and a transparent film dressing are not appropriate for urticaria or pressure ulcers, respectively.

A nurse has delegated applying a warm compress to a clients eye. What actions by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) warrant intervention by the nurse? (Select all that apply.) a. Heating the wet washcloth in the microwave b. Holding the cloth on the client using an Ace wrap c. Turning the cloth so it remains warm on the client d. Using a clean washcloth for the compress e. Washing the hands on entering the clients room

ANS: A, B The washcloth should be warmed under running warm water. Microwaving it can lead to burns. Gentle pressure is used to hold the compress in place. The other actions are correct.

A nurse cares for a client with burn injuries during the resuscitation phase. Which actions are priorities during this phase? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer analgesics. b. Prevent wound infections. c. Provide fluid replacement. d. Decrease core temperature. e. Initiate physical therapy.

ANS: A, B, C Nursing priorities during the resuscitation phase include securing the airway, supporting circulation and organ perfusion by fluid replacement, keeping the client comfortable with analgesics, preventing infection through careful wound care, maintaining body temperature, and providing emotional support. Physical therapy is inappropriate during the resuscitation phase but may be initiated after the client has been stabilized.

The nursing student studying the eye learns that which cranial nerves control its functions? (Select all that apply.) a. II b. III c. VI d. XII e. X

ANS: A, B, C The cranial nerves involved with eye function include II, III, IV, V, VI, and VII.

A client had cataract surgery. What instructions should the nurse provide? (Select all that apply.) a. Call the doctor for increased pain. b. Do not bend over from the waist. c. Do not lift more than 10 pounds. d. Sexual intercourse is allowed. e. Use stool softeners to avoid constipation.

ANS: A, B, C, E The client should be taught to call the physician for increased pain as this might indicate infection or other complication. To avoid increasing intraocular pressure, clients are taught to not lift more than 10 pounds, to avoid bending at the waist, to avoid straining at stool, and to avoid sexual intercourse for a time after surgery.

The nursing student learns that age-related changes affect the eyes and vision. Which changes does this include? (Select all that apply.) a. Decreased eye muscle tone b. Development of arcus senilis c. Increase in far point of near vision d. Decrease in general color perception e. Increase in point of near vision

ANS: A, B, D, E Normal age-related changes include decreased eye muscle tone, development of arcus senilis, decreased color perception, and increased point of near vision. The far point of near vision typically decreases.

A nurse plans care for a client with burn injuries. Which interventions should the nurse implement to prevent infection in the client? (Select all that apply.) a. Ask all family members and visitors to perform hand hygiene before touching the client. b. Carefully monitor burn wounds when providing each dressing change. c. Clean equipment with alcohol between uses with each client on the unit. d. Allow family members to only bring the client plants from the hospitals gift shop. e. Use aseptic technique and wear gloves when performing wound care.

ANS: A, B, E To prevent infection in a client with burn injuries the nurse should ensure everyone performs hand hygiene, monitor wounds for signs of infection, and use aseptic technique, including wearing gloves when performing wound care. The client should have disposable equipment that is not shared with another client, and plants should not be allowed in the clients room.

A client is scheduled for a tympanoplasty. What actions by the nurse are most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer preoperative antibiotics. b. Assess for allergies to local anesthetics. c. Ensure that informed consent is on the chart. d. Give ordered antivertigo medications. e. Teach that hearing improves immediately.

ANS: A, C Preoperatively, the nurse administers antibiotics and ensures that informed consent is on the chart. Local anesthetics can be used, but general anesthesia is used more often. Antivertigo medications are not used. Hearing will be decreased immediately after the operation until the ear packing is removed.

A nurse cares for an older client with burn injuries. Which age-related changes are paired appropriately with their complications from the burn injuries? (Select all that apply.) a. Slower healing time Increased risk for loss of function from contracture formation b. Reduced inflammatory response Deep partial-thickness wound with minimal exposure c. Reduced thoracic compliance Increased risk for atelectasis d. High incidence of cardiac impairments Increased risk for acute kidney injury e. Thinner skin May not exhibit a fever when infection is present

ANS: A, C, D Slower healing time will place the older adult client at risk for loss of function from contracture formation due to the length of time needed for the client to heal. A pre-existing cardiac impairment increases risk for acute kidney injury from decreased renal blood flow, and reduced thoracic compliance places the client at risk for atelectasis. Reduced inflammatory response places the client at risk for infection without a normal response, including fever. Clients with thinned skin are at greater risk for deeper wounds from minimal exposure.

A nurse plans care for a client with burn injuries. Which interventions should the nurse include in this clients plan of care to ensure adequate nutrition? (Select all that apply.) a. Provide at least 5000 kcal/day. b. Start an oral diet on the first day. c. Administer a diet high in protein. d. Collaborate with a registered dietitian. e. Offer frequent high-calorie snacks.

ANS: A, C, D, E A client with a burn injury needs a high-calorie diet, including at least 5000 kcal/day and frequent high-calorie snacks. The nurse should collaborate with a registered dietitian to ensure the client receives a high-calorie and high-protein diet required for wound healing. Oral diet therapy should be delayed until GI motility resumes.

A client has a hearing aid. What care instructions does the nurse provide the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) in the care of this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Be careful not to drop the hearing aid when handling. b. Soak the hearing aid in hot water for 20 minutes. c. Turn the hearing aid off when the client goes to bed. d. Use a toothpick to clean debris from the device. e. Wash the device with soap and a small amount of warm water.

ANS: A, C, D, E All these actions except soaking the hearing aid are proper instructions for the nurse to give to the UAP. While some water is used to clean the hearing aid, excessive wetting should be avoided.

A nursing student studying the auditory system learns about the structures of the inner ear. What structures does this include? (Select all that apply.) a. Cochlea b. Epitympanum c. Organ of Corti d. Semicircular canals e. Vestibule

ANS: A, C, D, E The cochlea, organ of Corti, semicircular canals, and vestibule are all part of the inner ear. The epitympanum is in the middle ear.

The student learning about vision should remember which facts related to the eyes? (Select all that apply.) a. Aqueous humor controls intraocular pressure. b. Cones work in low light conditions. c. Glaucoma occurs due to increased pressure in the eye. d. Muscles of the iris control light entering the eye. e. Rods work in low light conditions.

ANS: A, C, D, E The inflow and outflow of aqueous humor controls the intraocular pressure. Glaucoma results when the pressure is chronically high. Muscles of the iris relax and constrict to control the amount of light entering the eye. Rods work in low light conditions. Cones work in bright light conditions.

A nurse cares for a client who reports pain related to eczematous dermatitis. Which nonpharmacologic comfort measures should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.) a. Cool, moist compresses b. Topical corticosteroids c. Heating pad d. Tepid bath with cornstarch e. Back rub with baby oil

ANS: A, D For a client with eczematous dermatitis, the goal of comfort measures is to decrease inflammation and help dbride crusts and scales. The nurse should implement cool, moist compresses and tepid baths with additives such as cornstarch. Topical corticosteroids are a pharmacologic intervention. A heating pad and a back rub with baby oil are not appropriate for this client and could increase inflammation and discomfort.

The nurse working in the ophthalmology clinic sees clients with eyelid and eye problems. What information should the nurse understand about these disorders? (Select all that apply.) a. A chalazion is an inflammation of an eyelid sebaceous gland. b. An ectropion is the eyelid turning inward. c. An entropion is the eyelid turning outward. d. A hordeolum is an infection of the eyelid sweat gland. e. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca is caused by drugs or diseases.

ANS: A, D, E A chalazion is an inflammation of one of the sebaceous glands in the eyelid. A hordeolum is an infection of a sweat gland in the eyelid. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca can be caused by drugs or diseases. An ectropion is an outward turning and sagging eyelid, while an entropion is an inward turning of the eyelid.

A nurse plans care for a client who is immobile. Which interventions should the nurse include in this clients plan of care to prevent pressure sores? (Select all that apply.) a. Place a small pillow between bony surfaces. b. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. c. Limit fluids and proteins in the diet. d. Use a lift sheet to assist with re-positioning. e. Re-position the client who is in a chair every 2 hours. f. Keep the clients heels off the bed surfaces. g. Use a rubber ring to decrease sacral pressure when up in the chair.

ANS: A, D, F A small pillow decreases the risk for pressure between bony prominences, a lift sheet decreases friction and shear, and heels have poor circulation and are at high risk for pressure sores, so they should be kept off hard surfaces. Head-of-the-bed elevation greater than 30 degrees increases pressure on pelvic soft tissues. Fluids and proteins are important for maintaining tissue integrity. Clients should be repositioned every hour while sitting in a chair. A rubber ring impairs capillary blood flow, increasing the risk for a pressure sore.

A nurse cares for a client with burn injuries who is experiencing anxiety and pain. Which nonpharmacologic comfort measures should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.) a. Music as a distraction b. Tactile stimulation c. Massage to injury sites d. Cold compresses e. Increasing client control

ANS: A,B,E Nonpharmacologic comfort measures for clients with burn injuries include music therapy, tactile stimulation, massaging unburned areas, warm compresses, and increasing client control.

A nurse cares for older adult clients in a long-term acute care facility. Which interventions should the nurse implement to prevent skin breakdown in these clients? (Select all that apply.) a. Use a lift sheet when moving the client in bed. b. Avoid tape when applying dressings. c. Avoid whirlpool therapy. d. Use loose dressing on all wounds. e. Implement pressure-relieving devices.

ANS: A,B,E Using a lift sheet will prevent shearing forces from tearing skin. Tape should be avoided so that the skin wont tear. Using pressure-relieving devices for clients who are at risk for pressure ulcer formation, including older adults, is a proactive approach to prevent skin breakdown. No contraindication to using whirlpool therapy for the older client is known. Dressings should be applied as prescribed, not so loose that they do not provide required treatment, and not so tight that they decrease blood flow to tissues.

A nurse is seeing clients in the ophthalmology clinic. Which client should the nurse see first? a. Client with intraocular pressure reading of 24 mm Hg b. Client who has had cataract surgery and has worsening vision c. Client whose red reflex is absent on ophthalmologic examination d. Client with a tearing, reddened eye with exudate

ANS: B After cataract surgery, worsening vision indicates an infection or other complication. The nurse should see this client first. The intraocular pressure is slightly elevated. An absent red reflex may indicate cataracts. The client who has the tearing eye may have an infection.

A client is brought to the emergency department after a car crash. The client has a large piece of glass in the left eye. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Administer a tetanus booster shot. b. Ensure the client has a patent airway. c. Prepare to irrigate the clients eye. d. Turn the client on the unaffected side.

ANS: B Airway always comes first. After ensuring a patent airway and providing cervical spine precautions (do not turn the client to the side), the nurse provides other care that may include administering a tetanus shot. The clients eye may or may not be irrigated.

A client has been prescribed brinzolamide (Azopt). What assessment by the nurse requires consultation with the provider? a. Allergy to eggs b. Allergy to sulfonamides c. Use of contact lenses d. Use of beta blockers

ANS: B Brinzolamide is similar to sulfonamides, so an allergic reaction could occur. The other assessment findings are not related to brinzolamide.

An older client has decided to give up driving due to cataracts. What assessment information is most important to collect? a. Family history of visual problems b. Feelings related to loss of driving c. Knowledge about surgical options d. Presence of family support

ANS: B Loss of driving is often associated with loss of independence, as is decreasing vision. The nurse should assess how the client feels about this decision and what its impact will be. Family history and knowledge about surgical options are not related as the client has made a decision to decline surgery. Family support is also useful information, but it is most important to get the clients perspective on this change.

The student nurse is performing a Weber tuning fork test. What technique is most appropriate? a. Holding the vibrating tuning fork 10 to 12 inches from the clients ear b. Placing the vibrating fork in the middle of the clients head c. Starting by placing the vibrating fork on the mastoid process d. Tapping the vibrating tuning fork against the bridge of the nose

ANS: B The Weber tuning fork test includes placing the vibrating tuning fork in the middle of the clients head and asking in which ear the client hears the vibrations louder. The other techniques are incorrect.

The nurse is administering eyedrops to a client with an infection in the right eye. The drops go in both eyes, and two different bottles are used to administer the drops. The nurse accidentally uses the left eye bottle for the right eye. What action by the nurse is best? a. Inform the provider of the issue. b. Obtain a new bottle of eyedrops. c. Rinse the clients right eye thoroughly. d. Wipe the left eye bottle with alcohol.

ANS: B The nurse has contaminated the clean bottle by using it on the infected eye. The nurse needs to obtain a new bottle of solution to use on the left eye. The other actions are not appropriate.

A client has Mnires disease with frequent attacks. About what drugs does the nurse plan to teach the client? (Select all that apply.) a. Broad-spectrum antibiotics b. Chlorpromazine hydrochloride (Thorazine) c. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) d. Meclizine (Antivert) e. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

ANS: B, C, D Drugs such as chlorpromazine, diphenhydramine, and meclizine can all be used to treat Mnires disease. Antibiotics and NSAIDs are not used.

A client is scheduled for a stapedectomy in 2 weeks. What teaching instructions are most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Avoid alcohol use before surgery. b. Blow the nose gently if needed. c. Clean the telephone often. d. Sneeze with the mouth open. e. Wash the external ear daily.

ANS: B, C, D, E It is imperative that the client having a stapedectomy is free from ear infection. Teaching includes ways to prevent such infections, such as blowing the nose gently, cleaning objects that come into contact with the ear, sneezing with the mouth open, and washing the external ear daily. Avoiding alcohol will not help prevent ear infections.

A nurse prepares to admit a client who has herpes zoster. Which actions should the nurse take?(Select all that apply.) a. Prepare a room for reverse isolation. b. Assess staff for a history of or vaccination for chickenpox. c. Check the admission orders for analgesia. d. Choose a roommate who also is immune suppressed. e. Ensure that gloves are available in the room.

ANS: B, C, E Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by reactivation of the same virus, varicella zoster, in clients who have previously had chickenpox. Anyone who has not had the disease or has not been vaccinated for it is at high risk for getting chickenpox. Herpes zoster is very painful and requires analgesia. Use of gloves and good handwashing are sufficient to prevent spread. It is best to put this client in a private room. Herpes zoster is a disease of immune suppression, so no one who is immune-suppressed should be in the same room.

A client is admitted to the nursing unit after having a tympanoplasty. What activities does the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer prescribed antibiotics. b. Keep the head of the clients bed flat. c. Remind the client to lie on the operative side. d. Remove the iodoform gauze in 8 hours. e. Take and record postoperative vital signs.

ANS: B, E The UAP can keep the head of the clients bed flat and take/record vital signs. The nurse administers medications. The client should lie flat with the head turned so the operative side is up. The nurse or surgeon removes the gauze packing.

A hospitalized client has Mnires disease. What menu selections demonstrate good knowledge of the recommended diet for this disorder? (Select all that apply.) a. Chinese stir fry with vegetables b. Broiled chicken breast c. Chocolate espresso cookies d. Deli turkey sandwich and chips e. Green herbal tea with meals

ANS: B, E The diet recommendations for Mnires disease include low-sodium, caffeine-free foods and fluids distributed evenly throughout the day. Plenty of water is also needed. The broiled chicken breast and herbal tea are the best selections. The stir fry is high in sodium and possibly monosodium glutamate (MSG, also not recommended). The cookies have caffeine, and the sandwich and chips are high in sodium.

A nurse assesses a client who presents with an increase in psoriatic lesions. Which questions should the nurse ask to identify a possible trigger for worsening of this clients psoriatic lesions? (Select all that apply.) a. Have you eaten a large amount of chocolate lately? b. Have you been under a lot of stress lately? c. Have you recently used a public shower? d. Have you been out of the country recently? e. Have you recently had any other health problems? f. Have you changed any medications recently?

ANS: B, E, F Systemic factors, hormonal changes, psychological stress, medications, and general health factors can aggravate psoriasis. Psoriatic lesions are not triggered by chocolate, public showers, or international travel.

A client has external otitis. On what comfort measure does the nurse instruct the client? a. Applying ice four times a day b. Instilling vinegar-and-water drops c. Use of a heating pad to the ear d. Using a home humidifier

ANS: C A heating pad on low or a warm moist pack can provide comfort to the client with otitis externa. The other options are not warranted.

A client with Mnires disease is in the hospital when the client has an attack of this disorder. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Assess vital signs every 15 minutes. b. Dim or turn off lights in the clients room. c. Place the client in bed with the upper siderails up. d. Provide a cool, wet cloth for the clients face.

ANS: C Clients with Mnires disease can have vertigo so severe that they can fall. The nurse should assist the client into bed and put the siderails up to keep the client from falling out of bed due to the intense whirling feeling. The other actions are not warranted for clients with Mnires disease.

The nurse works with clients who have hearing problems. Which action by a client best indicates goals for an important diagnosis have been met? a. Babysitting the grandchildren several times a week b. Having an adaptive hearing device for the television c. Being active in community events and volunteer work d. Responding agreeably to suggestions for adaptive devices

ANS: C Clients with hearing problems can become frustrated and withdrawn. The client who is actively engaged in the community shows the best evidence of psychosocial adjustment to hearing loss. Babysitting the grandchildren is a positive sign but does not indicate involvement outside the home. Having an adaptive device is not the same as using it, and watching TV without evidence of other activities can also indicate social isolation. Responding agreeably does not indicate the client will actually follow through.

A client has severe tinnitus that cannot be treated adequately. What action by the nurse is best? a. Advise the client to take antianxiety medication. b. Educate the client on nerve cutting procedures. c. Refer the client to online or local support groups. d. Teach the client side effects of furosemide (Lasix).

ANS: C If the clients tinnitus cannot be treated, he or she will have to learn to cope with it. Referring the client to tinnitus support groups can be helpful. The other options are not warranted.

The clients chart indicates a sensorineural hearing loss. What assessment question does the nurse ask to determine the possible cause?a. Do you feel like something is in your ear? b. Do you have frequent ear infections? c. Have you been exposed to loud noises? d. Have you been told your ear bones dont move?

ANS: C Sensorineural hearing loss can occur from damage to the cochlea, the eighth cranial nerve, or the brain. Exposure to loud music is one etiology. The other questions relate to conductive hearing loss.

A client has been taught about retinitis pigmentosa (RP). What statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. Beta carotene, lutein, and zeaxanthin are good supplements. b. I might qualify for a retinal transplant one day soon. c. Since Im going blind, sunglasses are not needed anymore. d. Vitamin A has been shown to slow progression of RP.

ANS: C Sunglasses are needed to prevent the development of cataracts in addition to the RP. The other statements are accurate.

A clients intraocular pressure (IOP) is 28 mm Hg. What action by the nurse is best? a. Educate the client on corneal transplantation. b. Facilitate scheduling the eye surgery. c. Plan to teach about drugs for glaucoma. d. Refer the client to local Braille classes.

ANS: C This increased IOP indicates glaucoma. The nurses main responsibility is teaching the client about drug therapy. Corneal transplantation is not used in glaucoma. Eye surgery is not indicated at this time. Braille classes are also not indicated at this time.

A nurse who is applying eyedrops to a client holds pressure against the corner of the eye nearest the nose after instilling the drops. The client asks what the nurse is doing. What response by the nurse is best? a. Doing this allows time for absorption. b. I am keeping the drops in the eye. c. This prevents systemic absorption. d. I am stopping you from rubbing your eye.

ANS: C This technique, called punctal occlusion, prevents eyedrops from being absorbed systemically. The other answers are inaccurate

A client who is near blind is admitted to the hospital. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Allow the client to feel his or her way around. b. Let the client arrange objects on the bedside table. c. Orient the client to the room using a focal point. d. Speak loudly and slowing when talking to the client.

ANS: C Using a focal point, orient the client to the room by giving descriptions of items as they relate to the focal point. Letting the client arrange the bedside table is a good idea, but not as important as orienting the client to the room for safety. Allowing the client to jusNt fUeeRlSaIrNoGunTdB.mCaOyMcause injury. Unless the client is also hearing impaired, use a normal tone of voice.

A client is seen in the ophthalmology clinic with bacterial conjunctivitis. Which statements by the client indicate a good understanding of home management of this condition? (Select all that apply.) a. As long as I dont wipe my eyes, I can share my towel. b. Eye irrigations should be done with warm saline or water. c. I will throw away all my eye makeup when I get home. d. I wont touch the tip of the eyedrop bottle to my eye. e. When the infection is gone, I can use my contacts again.

ANS: C, D Bacterial conjunctivitis is very contagious, and re-infection or cross-contamination between the clients eyes is possible. The client should discard all eye makeup being used at the time the infection started. When instilling eyedrops, the client must be careful not to contaminate the bottle by touching the tip to the eye or face. The client should be instructed not to share towels. Eye irrigations are not needed. Contacts being used when the infection first manifests also need to be discarded.

A nurse is teaching a community group about noise-induced hearing loss. Which client who does not use ear protection should the nurse refer to an audiologist as the priority? a. Client with an hour car commute on the freeway each day b. Client who rides a motorcycle to work 20 minutes each way c. Client who sat in the back row at a rock concert recently d. Client who is a tree-trimmer and uses a chainsaw 6 to 7 hours a day

ANS: D A chainsaw becomes dangerous to hearing after 2 hours of exposure without hearing protection. This client needs to be referred as the priority. Normal car traffic is safe for more than 8 hours. Motorcycle noise is safe forabout8hours.ThesafeexposuretimeforNaUfrRonStI-NroGwTBro.CckOMconcertseatis3minutes,butthisclientwasin the back, and so had less exposure. In addition, a one-time exposure is less damaging than chronic exposure.

A client is in the preoperative holding area waiting for cataract surgery. The client says Oh, yeah, I forgot to tell you that I take clopidogrel, or Plavix. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Ask the client when the last dose was. b. Check results of the prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR). c. Document the information in the chart. d. Notify the surgeon immediately.

ANS: D Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet aggregate and could increase bleeding. The surgeon should be notified immediately. The nurse should find out when the last dose of the drug was, but the priority is to notify the provider. This drug is not monitored with PT and INR. Documentation should occur but is not the priority.

A nurse is irrigating a clients ear when the client becomes nauseated. What action by the nurse is most appropriate for client comfort? a. Have the client tilt the head back. b. Re-position the client on the other side. c. Slow the rate of the irrigation. d. Stop the irrigation immediately.

ANS: D During ear irrigation, if the client becomes nauseated, stop the procedure. The other options are not helpful.

A client is going on a cruise but has had motion sickness in the past. What suggestion does the nurse make to this client? a. Avoid alcohol on the cruise ship. b. Change positions slowly on the ship. c. Change your travel plans. d. Try scopolamine (Transderm Scop).

ANS: D Scopolamine can successfully treat the vertigo and dizziness associated with motion sickness. Avoiding alcohol and changing positions slowly are not effective. Telling the client to change travel plans is not a caring suggestion.

A client is taking timolol (Timoptic) eyedrops. The nurse assesses the clients pulse at 48 beats/min. What action by the nurse is the priority? a. Ask the client about excessive salivation. b. Assess the client for shortness of breath. c. Give the drops using punctal occlusion. d. Hold the eyedrops and notify the provider.

ANS: D The nurse should hold the eyedrops and notify the provider because beta blockers can slow the heart rate. Excessive salivation can occur with cholinergic agonists. Shortness of breath is not related. If the drops are given, the nurse uses punctal occlusion to avoid systemic absorption.

A nursing student is instructed to remove a clients ear packing and instill eardrops. What action by the student requires intervention by the registered nurse? a. Assessing the eardrum with an otoscope b. Inserting a cotton ball in the ear after the drops c. Warming the eardrops in water for 5 minutes d. Washing the hands and removing the packing

ANS: D The student should wash his or her hands, don gloves, and then remove the packing. The other actions are correct.

The nurse is working with clients who have esophageal disorders. The nurse should assess the clients for which manifestations? (Select all that apply.) a. Aphasia b. Dysphagia c. Eructation d. Halitosis e. Weight gain

B,C,D Common signs of esophageal disorders include dysphagia, eructation, halitosis, and weight loss. Aphasia is difficulty with speech, commonly seen after stroke.

After teaching a client with a parasitic gastrointestinal infection, a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statements made by the client indicate that the client correctly understands the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Ill have my housekeeper keep my toilet clean. b. I must take a shower or bathe every day. c. I should have my well water tested. d. I will ask my sexual partner to have a stool test. e. I must only eat raw vegetables from my own garden.

B,C,D Parasitic infections can be transmitted to other people. The client himself or herself should keep the toilet area clean instead of possibly exposing another person to the disease. Parasites are transmitted via unclean water sources and sexual practices with rectal contact. The client should test his or her well water and ask sexual partners to have their stool examined for parasites. Raw vegetables are not associated with parasitic gastrointestinal infections. The client can eat vegetables from the store or a home garden as long as the water source is clean.

After teaching a client who is recovering from a colon resection, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statements by the client indicate a correct understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. I must change the ostomy appliance daily and as needed. b. I will use warm water and a soft washcloth to clean around the stoma. c. I might start bicycling and swimming again once my incision has healed. d. Cutting the flange will help it fit snugly around the stoma to avoid skin breakdown. e. I will check the stoma regularly to make sure that it stays a deep red color. f. I must avoid dairy products to reduce gas and odor in the pouch.

B,C,D The ostomy appliance should be changed as needed when the adhesive begins to decrease, placing the appliance at risk of leaking. Changing the appliance daily can cause skin breakdown as the adhesive will still be secured to the clients skin. The client should avoid using soap to clean around the stoma because it might prevent effective adhesion of the ostomy appliance. The client should use warm water and a soft washcloth instead. The tissue of the stoma is very fragile, and scant bleeding may occur when the stoma is cleaned. The flange should be cut to fit snugly around the stoma to reduce contact between excretions and the clients skin. Exercise (other than some contact sports) is important for clients with an ostomy. The stoma should remain a soft pink color. A deep red or purple hue indicates ischemia and should be reported to the surgeon right away. Yogurt and buttermilk can help reduce gas in the pouch, so the client need not avoid dairy products.

A clients small-bore feeding tube has become occluded after the nurse administered medications. What actions by the nurse are best? (Select all that apply.) a. Attempt to dissolve the clog by instilling a cola product. b. Determine if any of the medications come in liquid form. c. Flush the tube before and after administering medications. d. Mix all medications in the formula and use a feeding pump. e. Try to flush the tube with 30 mL of water and gentle pressure.

B,C,E If the tube is obstructed, use a 50-mL syringe and gentle pressure to attempt to open the tube. Cola products should not be used unless water is not effective. To prevent future problems, determine if any of the medications can be dispensed in liquid form and flush the tube with water before and after medication administration. Do not mix medications with the formula.

The nurse working with clients who have gastrointestinal problems knows that which laboratory values are related to what organ dysfunctions? (Select all that apply.) a. Alanine aminotransferase: biliary system b. Ammonia: liver c. Amylase: liver d. Lipase: pancreas e. Urine urobilinogen: stomach

B,D Alanine aminotransferase and ammonia are related to the liver. Amylase and lipase are related to the pancreas. Urobilinogen evaluates both hepatic and biliary function.

A nurse is designing a community education program to meet the Healthy People 2020 objectives for nutrition and weight status. What information about these goals does the nurse use to plan this event? (Select all that apply.) a. Decrease the amount of fruit to 1.1 cups/1000 calories. b. Increase the amount of vegetables to 1.1 cups/1000 calories. c. Increase the number of adults at a healthy weight by 25%. d. Reduce the number of adults who are obese by 10%. e. Reduce the consumption of saturated fat by nearly 10%.

B,D,E Some of the goals in this initiative include increasing fruit consumption to 0.9 cups/1000 calories, increasing vegetable intake to 1.1 cups/1000 calories, increasing the number of people at a healthy weight by 10%, decreasing the number of adults who are obese by 10%, and reducing the consumption of saturated fats by 9.5%.

A nurse working with a client who has possible gastritis assesses the clients gastrointestinal system. Which findings indicate a chronic condition as opposed to acute gastritis? (Select all that apply.) a. Anorexia b. Dyspepsia c. Intolerance of fatty foods d. Pernicious anemia e. Nausea and vomiting

C,D Intolerance of fatty or spicy foods and pernicious anemia are signs of chronic gastritis. Anorexia and nausea/vomiting can be seen in both conditions. Dyspepsia is seen in acute gastritis.

A nurse assesses a male client with an abdominal hernia. Which abdominal hernias are correctly paired with their physiologic processes? (Select all that apply.) a. Indirect inguinal hernia An enlarged plug of fat eventually pulls the peritoneum and often the bladder into a sac b. Femoral hernia A peritoneum sac pushes downward and may descend into the scrotum c. Direct inguinal hernia A peritoneum sac passes through a weak point in the abdominal wall d. Ventral hernia Results from inadequate healing of an incision e. Incarcerated hernia Contents of the hernia sac cannot be reduced back into the abdominal cavity

C,D,E A direct inguinal hernia occurs when a peritoneum sac passes through a weak point in the abdominal wall. A ventral hernia results from inadequate healing of an incision. An incarcerated hernia cannot be reduced or placed back into the abdominal cavity. An indirect inguinal hernia is a sac formed from the peritoneum that contains a portion of the intestine and pushes downward at an angle into the inguinal canal. An indirect inguinal hernia often descends into the scrotum. A femoral hernia protrudes through the femoral ring and, as the clot enlarges, pulls the peritoneum and often the urinary bladder into the sac.

A nurse has delegated feeding a client to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). What actions does the nurse include in the directions to the UAP? (Select all that apply.) a. Allow 30 minutes for eating so food doesnt get spoiled. b. Assess the clients mouth while providing premeal oral care. c. Ensure warm and cold items stay at appropriate temperatures. d. Remove bedpans, soiled linens, and other unpleasant items. e. Sit with the client, making the atmosphere more relaxed.

C,D,E The UAP should make sure food items remain at the appropriate temperatures for maximum palatability. Removing items such as bedpans, urinals, or soiled linens helps make the atmosphere more conducive to eating. The UAP should sit, not stand, next to the client to promote a relaxing experience. The client, especially older clients who tend to eat more slowly, should not be rushed. Assessment is done by the nurse.

A nurse assesses an older adults skin. Which findings require immediate referral? (Select all that apply.) a. Excessive moisture under axilla b. Increased hair thinning c. Increased presence of fungal toenails d. Lesion with various colors e. Spider veins on legs f. Asymmetric 6-mm dark lesion on forehead

D,F The lesion with various colors, as well as the asymmetric 6-mm dark lesion, fits two of the American Cancer Societys hallmark signs for cancer according to the ABCD method. Other manifestations are variants of normal seen in various age groups.

A nurse is caring for a client receiving enteral feedings through a Dobhoff tube. What action by the nurse is best to prevent hyperosmolarity? a. Administer free-water boluses. b. Change the clients formula. c. Dilute the clients formula. d. Slow the rate of infusion.

a. Administer free-water boluses. Proteins and sugar molecules in the enteral feeding product contribute to dehydration due to increased osmolarity. The nurse can administer free-water boluses after consulting with the provider on the appropriate amount and timing of the boluses, or per protocol. The client may not be able to switch formulas. Diluting the formula is not appropriate. Slowing the rate of the infusion will not address the problem.

A nurse cares for a client with burn injuries. Which intervention should the nurse implement to appropriately reduce the clients pain? a. Administer the prescribed intravenous morphine sulfate. b. Apply ice to skin around the burn wound for 20 minutes. c. Administer prescribed intramuscular ketorolac (Toradol). d. Decrease tactile stimulation near the burn injuries.

a. Administer the prescribed intravenous morphine sulfate. Drug therapy for pain management requires opioid and nonopioid analgesics. The IV route is used because of problems with absorption from the muscle and the stomach. For the client to avoid shivering, the room must be kept warm, and ice should not be used. Ice would decrease blood flow to the area. Tactile stimulation can be used for pain management.

A client is scheduled to have a fundoplication. What statement by the client indicates a need to review preoperative teaching? a. After the operation I can eat anything I want. b. I will have to eat smaller, more frequent meals. c. I will take stool softeners for several weeks. d. This surgery may not totally control my symptoms.

a. After the operation I can eat anything I want. Nutritional and lifestyle changes need to continue after surgery as the procedure does not offer a lifetime cure. The other statements show good understanding.

A client is having a temporary tracheostomy placed during surgery for oral cancer. What action by the nurse is best to relieve anxiety? a. Agree on a postoperative communication method. b. Explain that staff will answer the call light promptly. c. Give the client a Magic Slate to write on postoperatively. d. Reassure the client that you will take care of all of his or her needs.

a. Agree on a postoperative communication method. Before surgery that interrupts the clients ability to communicate, the nurse, client, and family (if possible) agree upon a method of communication in the postoperative period. The client may or may not prefer a slate and may not be able to communicate in writing. Reassuring the client and telling him or her you will take care of all of his or her needs does not help the client be an active participant in care. Ensuring that the staff will answer the call light promptly will not guarantee this will occur.

A client has a large oral tumor. What assessment by the nurse takes priority? a. Airway b. Breathing c. Circulation d. Nutrition

a. Airway Airway always takes priority. Airway must be assessed first and any problems resolved if present.

An emergency room nurse assesses a client who was rescued from a home fire. The client suddenly develops a loud, brassy cough. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Apply oxygen and continuous pulse oximetry. b. Provide small quantities of ice chips and sips of water. c. Request a prescription for an antitussive medication. d. Ask the respiratory therapist to provide humidified air.

a. Apply oxygen and continuous pulse oximetry. Brassy cough and wheezing are some of the signs seen with inhalation injury. The first action by the nurse is to give the client oxygen. Clients with possible inhalation injury also need continuous pulse oximetry. Ice chips and humidified room air will not help the problem, and antitussives are not warranted.

A client has dumping syndrome after a partial gastrectomy. Which action by the nurse would be most helpful? a. Arrange a dietary consult. b. Increase fluid intake. c. Limit the clients foods. d. Make the client NPO.

a. Arrange a dietary consult. The client with dumping syndrome after a gastrectomy has multiple dietary needs. A referral to the registered dietitian will be extremely helpful. Food and fluid intake is complicated and needs planning. The client should not be NPO.

A client scheduled for a percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography (PTC) denies allergies to medication. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask the client about shellfish allergies. b. Document this information on the chart. c. Ensure that the client has a ride home. d. Instruct the client on bowel preparation.

a. Ask the client about shellfish allergies. PTC uses iodinated dye, so the client should be asked about seafood allergies, specifically to shellfish. Documentation should occur, but this is not the priority. The client will need a ride home afterward if the procedure is done on an outpatient basis. There is no bowel preparation for PTC.

A client is in the family practice clinic. Today the client weighs 186.4 pounds (84.7 kg). Six months ago the client weighed 211.8 pounds (96.2 kg). What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask the client if the weight loss was intentional. b. Determine if there are food allergies or intolerances. c. Perform a comprehensive nutritional assessment. d. Perform a rapid bedside blood glucose test.

a. Ask the client if the weight loss was intentional. This client has had a 12% weight loss. The nurse first determines if the weight loss was intentional. If not, then the nurse proceeds to a comprehensive nutritional assessment. Food intolerances are part of this assessment. Depending on risk factors and other findings, a blood glucose test may be warranted.

A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). On assessment, the nurse notes the clients pulse is 128 beats/min, blood pressure is 98/56 mm Hg, and skin turgor is dry. What action should the nurse perform next? a. Assess the 24-hour fluid balance. b. Assess the clients oral cavity. c. Prepare to hang a normal saline bolus. d. Turn up the infusion rate of the TPN.

a. Assess the 24-hour fluid balance. This client has clinical indicators of dehydration, so the nurse calculates the clients 24-hour intake, output, and fluid balance. This information is then reporteNdUtoRtShIeNpGrToBvi.dCeOr.MThe clients oral cavity assessment may or may not be consistent with dehydration. The nurse may need to give the client a fluid bolus, but not as an independent action. The clients dehydration is most likely due to fluid shifts from the TPN, so turning up the infusion rate would make the problem worse, and is not done as an independent action.

A client is in the bariatric clinic 1 month after having gastric bypass surgery. The client is crying and says I didnt know it would be this hard to live like this. What response by the nurse is best? a. Assess the clients coping and support systems. b. Inform the client that things will get easier. c. Re-educate the client on needed dietary changes. d. Tell the client lifestyle changes are always hard.

a. Assess the clients coping and support systems. The nurse should assess this clients coping styles and support systems in order to provide holistic care. The other options do not address the clients distress.

A client is in the emergency department with an esophageal trauma. The nurse palpates subcutaneous emphysema in the mediastinal area and up into the lower part of the clients neck. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Assess the clients oxygenation. b. Facilitate a STAT chest x-ray. c. Prepare for immediate surgery. d. Start two large-bore IVs.

a. Assess the clients oxygenation. The priorities of care are airway, breathing, and circulation. The priority option is to assess oxygenation. This occurs before diagnostic or therapeutic procedures. The client needs two large-bore IVs as a trauma client, but oxygenation comes first.

A nurse cares for a client who has a deep wound that is being treated with a wet-to-damp dressing. Which intervention should the nurse include in this clients plan of care? a. Change the dressing every 6 hours. b. Assess the wound bed once a day. c. Change the dressing when it is saturated. d. Contact the provider when the dressing leaks.

a. Change the dressing every 6 hours. Wet-to-damp dressings are changed every 4 to 6 hours to provide maximum dbridement. The wound should be assessed each time the dressing is changed. Dry gauze dressings should be changed when the outer layer becomes saturated. Synthetic dressings can be left in place for extended periods of time but need to be changed if the seal breaks and the exudate leaks.

An older client has had an instance of drug toxicity and asks why this happens, since the client has been on this medication for years at the same dose. What response by the nurse is best? a. Changes in your liver cause drugs to be metabolized differently. b. Perhaps you dont need as high a dose of the drug as before. c. Stomach muscles atrophy with age and you digest more slowly. d. Your body probably cant tolerate as much medication anymore.

a. Changes in your liver cause drugs to be metabolized differently. Decreased liver enzyme activity depresses drug metabolism, which leads to accumulation of drugspossibly to toxic levels. The other options do not accurately explain this age-related change.

A nurse assesses a client who has a chronic skin disorder. Which finding indicates the client is effectively coping with the disorder? a. Clean hair and nails b. Poor eye contact c. Disheveled appearance d. Drapes a scarf over the face

a. Clean hair and nails The nurse should complete a psychosocial assessment to determine if the client is coping effectively. Signs of adequate coping include clean hair, skin, and nails; good eye contact; and being socially active. A disheveled appearance and draping a scarf over the face to hide the clients appearance demonstrate that the client may be having difficulty coping with his or her condition.

A nurse who manages client placements prepares to place four clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should be placed in isolation awaiting possible diagnosis of infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus(MRSA)? a. Client admitted from a nursing home with furuncles and folliculitis b. Client with a leg cut and other trauma from a motorcycle crash c. Client with a rash noticed after participating in sporting events d. Client transferred from intensive care with an elevated white blood cell count

a. Client admitted from a nursing home with furuncles and folliculitis The client in long-term care and other communal environments is at high risk for MRSA. The presence of furuncles and folliculitis is also an indication that MRSA may be present. A client with an open wound from a motorcycle crash would have the potential to develop MRSA, but no signs are visible at present. The rash following participation in a sporting event could be caused by several different things. A client with an elevated white blood cell count has the potential for infection but should be at lower risk for MRSA than the client admitted from the communal environment.

A nurse and a registered dietitian are assessing clients for partial parenteral nutrition (PPN). For which client would the nurse suggest another route of providing nutrition? a. Client with congestive heart failure b. Older client with dementia c. Client who has multiorgan failure d. Client who is post gastric resection

a. Client with congestive heart failure Clients receiving PPN typically get large amounts of fluid volume, making the client with heart failure a poor candidate. The other candidates are appropriate for this type of nutritional support.

A nurse administers topical gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) to a clients burn injury. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor while the client is prescribed this therapy? a. Creatinine b. Red blood cells c. Sodium d. Magnesium

a. Creatinine Gentamicin is nephrotoxic, and sufficient amounts can be absorbed through burn wounds to affect kidney function. Any client receiving gentamicin by any route should have kidney function monitored. Topical gentamicin will not affect the red blood cell count or the sodium or magnesium levels.

A nurse assesses a client with Crohns disease and colonic strictures. Which clinical manifestation should alert the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider? a. Distended abdomen b. Temperature of 100.0 F (37.8 C) c. Loose and bloody stool d. Lower abdominal cramps

a. Distended abdomen The presence of strictures predisposes the client to intestinal obstruction. Abdominal distention may indicate that the client has developed an obstruction of the large bowel, and the clients provider should be notified right away. Low-grade fever, bloody diarrhea, and abdominal cramps are common symptoms of Crohns disease.

A nurse teaches a client who has viral gastroenteritis. Which dietary instruction should the nurse include in this clients teaching? a. Drink plenty of fluids to prevent dehydration. b. You should only drink 1 liter of fluids daily. c. Increase your protein intake by drinking more milk. d. Sips of cola or tea may help to relieve your nausea.

a. Drink plenty of fluids to prevent dehydration The client should drink plenty of fluids to prevent dehydration. Milk products may not be tolerated. Caffeinated beverages increase intestinal motility and should be avoided.

The nurse reads a clients chart and sees that the health care provider assessed mucosal erythroplasia. What should the nurse understand that this means for the client? a. Early sign of oral cancer b. Fungal mouth infection c. Inflammation of the gums d. Obvious oral tumor

a. Early sign of oral cancer Mucosal erythroplasia is the earliest sign of oral cancer. It is not a fungal infection, inflammation of the gums, or an obvious tumor.

A nurse cares for a client who has a new colostomy. Which action should the nurse take? a. Empty the pouch frequently to remove excess gas collection. b. Change the ostomy pouch and wafer every morning. c. Allow the pouch to completely fill with stool prior to emptying it. d. Use surgical tape to secure the pouch and prevent leakage.

a. Empty the pouch frequently to remove excess gas collection. The nurse should empty the new ostomy pouch frequently because of excess gas collection, and empty the pouch when it is one-third to one-half full of stool. The ostomy pouch does not need to be changed every morning. Ostomy wafers with paste should be used to secure and seal the ostomy appliance; surgical tape should not be used.

A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed alosetron (Lotronex). Which assessment question should the nurse ask this client? a. Have you been experiencing any constipation? b. Are you eating a diet high in fiber and fluids? c. Do you have a history of high blood pressure? d. What vitamins and supplements are you taking?

a. Have you been experiencing any constipation? Ischemic colitis is a life-threatening complication of alosetron. The nurse should assess the client for constipation. The other questions do not identify complications related to alosetron.

After teaching a client who has a femoral hernia, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement indicates the client needs additional teaching related to the proper use of a truss? a. I will put on the truss before I go to bed each night. b. Ill put some powder under the truss to avoid skin irritation. c. The truss will help my hernia because I cant have surgery. d. If I have abdominal pain, Ill let my health care provider know right away.

a. I will put on the truss before I go to bed each night. The client should be instructed to apply the truss before arising, not before going to bed at night. The other statements show an accurate understanding of using a truss.

A client has been prescribed lorcaserin (Belviq). What teaching is most appropriate? a. Increase the fiber and water in your diet. b. Reduce fat to less than 30% each day. c. Report dry mouth and decreased sweating. d. Lorcaserin may cause loose stools for a few days.

a. Increase the fiber and water in your diet. This drug can cause constipation, so the client should increase fiber and water in the diet to prevent this from occurring. Reducing fat in the diet is important with orlistat. Lorcaserin can cause dry mouth but not decreased sweating. Loose stools are common with orlistat.

A client is prescribed cetuximab (Erbitux) for oral cancer and asks the nurse how it works. What response by the nurse is best? a. It blocks epidermal growth factor. b. It cuts off the tumors blood supply. c. It prevents tumor extension. d. It targets rapidly dividing cells.

a. It blocks epidermal growth factor. Cetuximab (Erbitux) targets and blocks the epidermal growth factor, which contributes to the growth of oral cancers. The other explanations are not correct.

The nurse assesses a client who has a severe burn injury. Which statement indicates the client understands the psychosocial impact of a severe burn injury? a. It is normal to feel some depression. b. I will go back to work immediately. c. I will not feel anger about my situation. d. Once I get home, things will be normal.

a. It is normal to feel some depression. During the recovery period, and for some time after discharge from the hospital, clients with severe burn injuries are likely to have psychological problems that require intervention. Depression is one of these problems. Grief, loss, anxiety, anger, fear, and guilt are all normal feelings that can occur. Clients need to know that problems of physical care and psychological stresses may be overwhelming.

A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy and the nurse has provided instructions on the bowel cleansing regimen. What statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. Its a good thing I love orange and cherry gelatin. b. My spouse will be here to drive me home. c. I should refrigerate the GoLYTELY before use. d. I will buy a case of Gatorade before the prep.

a. Its a good thing I love orange and cherry gelatin. The client should be advised to avoid beverages and gelatin that are red, orange, or purple in color as their residue can appear to be blood. The other statements show a good understanding of the preparation for the procedure.

A nurse delegates hydrotherapy to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which statement should the nurse include when delegating this activity? a. Keep the water temperature constant when showering the client. b. Assess the wound beds during the hydrotherapy treatment. c. Apply a topical enzyme agent after bathing the client. d. Use sterile saline to irrigate and clean the clients wounds.

a. Keep the water temperature constant when showering the client. Hydrotherapy is performed by showering the client on a special shower table. The UAP should keep the water temperature constant. This process allows the nurse to assess the wound beds, but a UAP cannot complete this act. Topical enzyme agents are not part of hydrotherapy. The irrigation does not need to be done with sterile saline.

To promote comfort after a colonoscopy, in what position does the nurse place the client? a. Left lateral b. Prone c. Right lateral d. Supine

a. Left lateral After colonoscopy, clients have less discomfort and quicker passage of flatus when placed in the left lateral position.

A nurse cares for a client with ulcerative colitis. The client states, I feel like I am tied to the toilet. This disease is controlling my life. How should the nurse respond? a. Lets discuss potential factors that increase your symptoms. b. If you take the prescribed medications, you will no longer have diarrhea. c. To decrease distress, do not eat anything before you go out. d. You must retake control of your life. I will consult a therapist to help.

a. Lets discuss potential factors that increase your symptoms. Clients with ulcerative colitis often express that the disorder is disruptive to their lives. Stress factors can increase symptoms. These factors should be identified so that the client will have more control over his or her condition. Prescription medications and anorexia will not eliminate exacerbations. Although a therapist may assist the client, this is not an appropriate response.

A nurse cares for a client who states, My husband is repulsed by my colostomy and refuses to be intimate with me. How should the nurse respond? a. Lets talk to the ostomy nurse to help you and your husband work through this. b. You could try to wear longer lingerie that will better hide the ostomy appliance. c. You should empty the pouch first so it will be less noticeable for your husband. d. If you are not careful, you can hurt the stoma if you engage in sexual activity.

a. Lets talk to the ostomy nurse to help you and your husband work through this. The nurse should collaborate with the ostomy nurse to help the client and her husband work through intimacy issues. The nurse should not minimize the clients concern about her husband with ways to hide the ostomy. The client will not hurt the stoma by engaging in sexual activity.

A nurse cares for a client who has a Giardia infection. Which medication should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client? a. Metronidazole (Flagyl) b. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) c. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) d. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

a. Metronidazole (Flagyl) Metronidazole is the drug of choice for a Giardia infection. Ciprofloxacin and ceftriaxone are antibiotics used for bacterial infections. Sulfasalazine is used for ulcerative colitis and Crohns disease.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from an ileostomy placement. Which clinical manifestation should alert the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider? a. Pale and bluish stoma b. Liquid stool c. Ostomy pouch intact d. Blood-smeared output

a. Pale and bluish stoma The nurse should assess the stoma for color and contact the health care provider if the stoma is pale, bluish, or dark. The nurse should expect the client to have an intact ostomy pouch with dark green liquid stool that may contain some blood.

A nurse assesses an older client who is scratching and rubbing white ridges on the skin between the fingers and on the wrists. Which action should the nurse take? a. Place the client in a single room. b. Administer an antihistamine. c. Assess the clients airway. d. Apply gloves to minimize friction.

a. Place the client in a single room. The clients presentation is most likely to be scabies, a contagious mite infestation. The client needs to be admitted to a single room and treated for the infestation. Secondary interventions may include medication to decrease the itching. This is not an allergic manifestation; therefore, antihistamine and airway assessments are not indicated. Gloves may decrease skin breakdown but would not address the clients infectious disorder.

A nurse assesses a client who has a lesion on the skin that is suspicious for skin cancer, as shown below: Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate being ordered for this client? a. Punch skin biopsy b. Viral cultures c. Woods lamp examination d. Diascopy

a. Punch skin biopsy This lesion is suspicious for skin cancer and a biopsy is needed. A viral culture would not be appropriate. A Woods lamp examination is used to determine if skin lesions have characteristic color changes. Diascopy eliminates erythema, making skin lesions easier to examine.

A nurse assesses a client who has open lesions. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Put on gloves. b. Ask the client about his or her occupation. c. Assess the clients pain. d. Obtain vital signs.

a. Put on gloves. Nurses should wear gloves as part of Standard Precautions when examining skin that is not intact. The other options should be completed after gloves are put on.

A nurse prepares to discharge a client who has a wound and is prescribed home health care. Which information should the nurse include in the hand-off report to the home health nurse? a. Recent wound assessment, including size and appearance b. Insurance information for billing and coding purposes c. Complete health history and physical assessment findings d. Resources available to the client for wound care supplies

a. Recent wound assessment, including size and appearance The hospital nurse should provide details about the wound, including size and appearance and any special wound needs, in a hand-off report to the home health nurse. Insurance information is important to the home health agency and manager, but this is not appropriate during this hand-off report. The nurse should report focused assessment findings instead of a complete health history and physical assessment. The home health nurse should work with the client to identify community resources.

A nurse reviews the chart of a client who has Crohns disease and a draining fistula. Which documentation should alert the nurse to urgently contact the provider for additional prescriptions? a. Serum potassium of 2.6 mEq/L b. Client ate 20% of breakfast meal c. White blood cell count of 8200/mm3 d. Clients weight decreased by 3 pounds

a. Serum potassium of 2.6 mEq/L Fistulas place the client with Crohns disease at risk for hypokalemia which can lead to serious dysrhythmias. This potassium level is low and should cause the nurse to intervene. The white blood cell count is normal. The other two findings are abnormal and also warrant intervention, but the potassium level takes priority.

A nurse assesses a client who has appendicitis. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find? a. Severe, steady right lower quadrant pain b. Abdominal pain associated with nausea and vomiting c. Marked peristalsis and hyperactive bowel sounds d. Abdominal pain that increases with knee flexion

a. Severe, steady right lower quadrant pain Right lower quadrant pain, specifically at McBurneys point, is characteristic of appendicitis. Usually if nausea and vomiting begin first, the client has gastroenteritis. Marked peristalsis and hyperactive bowel sounds are not indicative of appendicitis. Abdominal pain due to appendicitis decreases with knee flexion.

A nurse cares for a client who had a colostomy placed in the ascending colon 2 weeks ago. The client states, The stool in my pouch is still liquid. How should the nurse respond? a. The stool will always be liquid with this type of colostomy. b. Eating additional fiber will bulk up your stool and decrease diarrhea. c. Your stool will become firmer over the next couple of weeks. d. This is abnormal. I will contact your health care provider.

a. The stool will always be liquid with this type of colostomy. The stool from an ascending colostomy can be expected to remain liquid because little large bowel is available to reabsorb the liquid from the stool. This finding is not abnormal. Liquid stool from an ascending colostomy will not become firmer with the addition of fiber to the clients diet or with the passage of time.

A nurse assesses a client who has two skin lesions on his chest. Each lesion is the size of a nickel, flat, and darker in color than the clients skin. How should the nurse document these lesions? a. Two 2-cm hyperpigmented patches b. Two 1-inch erythematous plaques c. Two 2-mm pigmented papules d. Two 1-inch moles

a. Two 2-cm hyperpigmented patches Patches are larger flat areas of the skin. The information provided does not indicate a mole or the presence of erythema.

A nurse assesses a client who is admitted with inflamed soft-tissue folds around the nail plates. Which question should the nurse ask to elicit useful information about the possible condition? a. What do you do for a living? b. Are your nails professionally manicured? c. Do you have diabetes mellitus? d. Have you had a recent fungal infection?

a. What do you do for a living? The condition chronic paronychia is common in people with frequent intermittent exposure to water, such as homemakers, bartenders, and laundry workers. The other questions would not provide information specifically related to this assessment finding.

A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) chemotherapy intravenously for the treatment of colon cancer. Which assessment finding should alert the nurse to contact the health care provider? a. White blood cell (WBC) count of 1500/mm3 b. Fatigue c. Nausea and diarrhea d. Mucositis and oral ulcers

a. White blood cell (WBC) count of 1500/mm3 Common side effects of 5-FU include fatigue, leukopenia, diarrhea, mucositis and mouth ulcers, and peripheral neuropathy. However, the clients WBC count is very low (normal range is 5000 to 10,000/mm3), so the provider should be notified. He or she may want to delay chemotherapy by a day or two. Certainly the client is at high risk for infection. The other assessment findings are consistent with common side effects of 5-FU that would not need to be reported immediately.

A nurse assesses a client who has a chronic wound. The client states, I do not clean the wound and change the dressing every day because it costs too much for supplies. How should the nurse respond? a. You can use tap water instead of sterile saline to clean your wound. b. If you dont clean the wound properly, you could end up in the hospital. c. Sterile procedure is necessary to keep this wound from getting infected. d. Good hand hygiene is the only thing that really matters with wound care.

a. You can use tap water instead of sterile saline to clean your wound. For chronic wounds in the home, clean tap water and nonsterile supplies are acceptable and serve as cheaper alternatives to sterile supplies. Of course, if the wound becomes grossly infected, the client may end up in the hospital, but this response does not provide any helpful information. Good handwashing is important, but it is not the only consideration.

A nurse receives new prescriptions for a client with severe burn injuries who is receiving fluid resuscitation per the Parkland formula. The clients urine output continues to range from 0.2 to 0.25 mL/kg/hr. Which prescription should the nurse question? a. Increase intravenous fluids by 100 mL/hr. b. Administer furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV push. c. Continue to monitor urine output hourly. d. Draw blood for serum electrolytes STAT.

b. Administer furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV push. The plan of care for a client with a burn includes fluid and electrolyte resuscitation. Furosemide would be inappropriate to administer. Postburn fluid needs are calculated initially by using a standardized formula such as the Parkland formula. However, needs vary among clients, and the final fluid volume needed is adjusted to maintain hourly urine output at 0.5 mL/kg/hr. Based on this clients inadequate urine output, fluids need to be increased, urine output needs to be monitored hourly, and electrolytes should be evaluated to ensure appropriate fluids are being infused.

A nurse cares for an older adult client who has Salmonella food poisoning. The clients vital signs are heart rate: 102 beats/min, blood pressure: 98/55 mm Hg, respiratory rate: 22 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation: 92%. Which action should the nurse complete first? a. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula. b. Administer intravenous fluids. c. Provide perineal care with a premedicated wipe. d. Teach proper food preparation to prevent contamination.

b. Administer intravenous fluids. Dehydration caused by diarrhea can occur quickly in older clients with Salmonella food poisoning, so maintenance of fluid balance is a high priority. Monitoring vital signs and providing perineal care are important nursing actions but are of lower priority than fluid replacement. The nurse should teach the client about proper hand hygiene to prevent the spread of infection, and preparation of food and beverages to prevent contamination.

An older client has gastric cancer and is scheduled to have a partial gastrectomy. The family does not want the client told about her diagnosis. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask the family why they feel this way. b. Assess family concerns and fears. c. Refuse to go along with the familys wishes. d. Tell the family that such secrets cannot be kept.

b. Assess family concerns and fears. The nurse should use open-ended questions and statements to fully assess the familys concerns and fears. Asking why questions often puts people on the defensive and is considered a barrier to therapeutic communication. Refusing to follow the familys wishes or keep their confidence will not help move this family from their position and will set up an adversarial relationship.

An emergency room nurse assesses a client after a motor vehicle crash and notes ecchymotic areas across the clients lower abdomen. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Measure the clients abdominal girth. b. Assess for abdominal guarding or rigidity. c. Check the clients hemoglobin and hematocrit. d. Obtain the clients complete health history.

b. Assess for abdominal guarding or rigidity. On noticing the ecchymotic areas, the nurse should check to see if abdominal guarding or rigidity is present, because this could indicate major organ injury. The nurse should then notify the provider. Measuring abdominal girth or obtaining a complete health history is not appropriate at this time. Laboratory test results can be checked after assessment for abdominal guarding or rigidity.

A client is recovering from an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) and requests something to drink. What action by the nurse is best? a. Allow the client cool liquids only. b. Assess the clients gag reflex. c. Remind the client to remain NPO. d. Tell the client to wait 4 hours.

b. Assess the clients gag reflex. The local anesthetic used during this procedure will depress the clients gag reflex. After the procedure, the nurse should ensure that the gag reflex is intact before offering food or fluids. The client does not need to be restricted to cool beverages only and is not required to wait 4 hours before oral intake is allowed. Telling the client to remain NPO does not inform the client of when he or she can have fluids, nor does it reflect the clients readiness for them.

A client is scheduled for a traditional esophagogastrostomy. All preoperative teaching has been completed and the client and family show good understanding. What action by the nurse is best? a. Arrange an intensive care unit tour. b. Assess the clients psychosocial status. c. Document the teaching and response. d. Have the client begin nutritional supplements.

b. Assess the clients psychosocial status. Clients facing this long, difficult procedure are often anxious and fearful. The nurse should now assess the clients psychosocial status and provide the care and teaching required based on this assessment. An intensive care unit tour may help decrease stress but is too limited in scope to be the best response. Documentation should be thorough, but the nurse needs to do more than document. The client should begin nutritional supplements prior to the operation, but again this response is too limited in scope.

A client is awaiting bariatric surgery in the morning. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Answering questions the client has about surgery b. Beginning venous thromboembolism prophylaxis c. Informing the client that he or she will be out of bed tomorrow d. Teaching the client about needed dietary changes

b. Beginning venous thromboembolism prophylaxis Morbidly obese clients are at high risk of venous thromboembolism and should be started on a regimen to prevent this from occurring as a priority. Answering questions about the surgery is done by the surgeon. Teaching is important, but safety comes first.

After teaching a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which menu selection indicates that the client correctly understands the dietary teaching? a. Ham sandwich on white bread, cup of applesauce, glass of diet cola b. Broiled chicken with brown rice, steamed broccoli, glass of apple juice c. Grilled cheese sandwich, small banana, cup of hot tea with lemon d. Baked tilapia, fresh green beans, cup of coffee with low-fat milk

b. Broiled chicken with brown rice, steamed broccoli, glass of apple juice Clients with IBS are advised to eat a high-fiber diet (30 to 40 g/day), with 8 to 10 cups of liquid daily. Chicken with brown rice, broccoli, and apple juice has the highest fiber content. They should avoid alcohol, caffeine, and other gastric irritants.

The nurse is caring for a client with an acute burn injury. Which action should the nurse take to prevent infection by autocontamination? a. Use a disposable blood pressure cuff to avoid sharing with other clients. b. Change gloves between wound care on different parts of the clients body. c. Use the closed method of burn wound management for all wound care. d. Advocate for proper and consistent handwashing by all members of the staff.

b. Change gloves between wound care on different parts of the clients body. Autocontamination is the transfer of microorganisms from one area to another area of the same clients body, causing infection of a previously uninfected area. Although all techniques listed can help reduce the risk for infection, only changing gloves between performing wound care on different parts of the clients body can prevent autocontamination.

A client is receiving bolus feedings through a Dobhoff tube. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Auscultate lung sounds after each feeding. b. Check tube placement before each feeding. c. Check tube placement every 8 hours. d. Weigh the client daily on the same scale.

b. Check tube placement before each feeding. For bolus feedings, the nurse checks placement of the tube per institutional policy prior to each feeding, which is more often than every 8 hours during the day. Auscultating lung sounds is also important, but this will indicate a complication that has already occurred. Weighing the client is important to determine if nutritional goals are being met.

A nurse is reviewing laboratory values for several clients. Which value causes the nurse to conduct nutritional assessments as a priority? a. Albumin: 3.5 g/dL b. Cholesterol: 142 mg/dL c. Hemoglobin: 9.8 mg/dL d. Prealbumin: 28 mg/dL

b. Cholesterol: 142 mg/dL A cholesterol level below 160 mg/dL is a possible indicator of malnutrition, so this client would be at highest priority for a nutritional assessment. The albumin and prealbumin levels are normal. The low hemoglobin could be from several problems, including dietary deficiencies, hemodilution, and bleeding.

A nurse is caring for four clients. After receiving the hand-off report, which client should the nurse see first? a. Client having a radial neck dissection tomorrow who is asking questions b. Client who had a tracheostomy 4 hours ago and needs frequent suctioning c. Client who is 1 day postoperative for an oral tumor resection who is reporting pain d. Client waiting for discharge instructions after a small tumor resection

b. Client who had a tracheostomy 4 hours ago and needs frequent suctioning The client who needs frequent suctioning should be seen first to ensure that his or her airway is patent. The client waiting for pain medication should be seen next. The nurse may need to call the surgeon to see the client who is asking questions. The client waiting for discharge instructions can be seen last.

A nurse has conducted a community screening event for oral cancer. What client is the highest priority for referral to a dentist? a. Client who has poor oral hygiene practices b. Client who smokes and drinks daily c. Client who tans for an upcoming vacation d. Client who occasionally uses illicit drugs

b. Client who smokes and drinks daily Smoking and alcohol exposure create a high risk for this client. Poor oral hygiene is not related to the etiology of cancer but may cause a tumor to go unnoticed. Tanning is a risk factor, but short-term exposure does not have the same risk as daily exposure to tobacco and alcohol. Illicit drugs are not related to oral cancers.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a hemorrhoidectomy that was done the day before. The nurse notes that the client has lower abdominal distention accompanied by dullness to percussion over the distended area. Which action should the nurse take? a. Assess the clients heart rate and blood pressure. b. Determine when the client last voided. c. Ask if the client is experiencing flatus. d. Auscultate all quadrants of the clients abdomen.

b. Determine when the client last voided. Assessment findings indicate that the client may have an over-full bladder. In the immediate postoperative period, the client may experience difficulty voiding due to urinary retention. The nurse should assess when the client last voided. The clients vital signs may be checked after the nurse determines the clients last void. Asking about flatus and auscultating bowel sounds are not related to a hemorrhoidectomy.

A nurse cares for a client with burn injuries from a house fire. The client is not consistently oriented and reports a headache. Which action should the nurse take? a. Increase the clients oxygen and obtain blood gases. b. Draw blood for a carboxyhemoglobin level. c. Increase the clients intravenous fluid rate. d. Perform a thorough Mini-Mental State Examination.

b. Draw blood for a carboxyhemoglobin level. These manifestations are consistent with moderated carbon monoxide poisoning. This client is at risk for carbon monoxide poisoning because he or she was in a fire in an enclosed space. The other options will not provide information related to carbon monoxide poisoning.

A nurse cares for a client newly diagnosed with colon cancer who has become withdrawn from family members. Which action should the nurse take? a. Contact the provider and recommend a psychiatric consult for the client. b. Encourage the client to verbalize feelings about the diagnosis. c. Provide education about new treatment options with successful outcomes. d. Ask family and friends to visit the client and provide emotional support.

b. Encourage the client to verbalize feelings about the diagnosis. The nurse recognizes that the client may be expressing feelings of grief. The nurse should encourage the client to verbalize feelings and identify fears to move the client through the phases of the grief process. A psychiatric consult is not appropriate for the client. The nurse should not brush aside the clients feelings with discussions related to cancer prognosis and treatment. The nurse should not assume that the client desires family or friends to visit or provide emotional support.

A morbidly obese client is admitted to a community hospital that does not typically care for bariatric-sized clients. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Assess the clients readiness to make lifestyle changes. b. Ensure adequate staff when moving the client. c. Leave siderails down to prevent pressure ulcers. d. Reinforce the need to be sensitive to the client.

b. Ensure adequate staff when moving the client. Many hospitals that see bariatric-sized clients have appropriate equipment for this population. A hospital that does not typically see these clients is less likely to have appropriate equipment, putting staff and client safety at risk. The nurse ensures enough staffing is available to help with all aspects of mobility. It may or may not be appropriate to assess the clients willingness to make lifestyle changes. Leaving the siderails down may present a safety hazard. The staff should be sensitive to this clients situation, but safety takes priority.

A nurse is caring for a morbidly obese client. What comfort measure is most important for the nurse to delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Designating quiet time so the client can rest b. Ensuring siderails are not causing excess pressure c. Providing oral care before and after meals and snacks d. Relaying any reports of pain to the registered nurse

b. Ensuring siderails are not causing excess pressure All actions are good for client comfort, but when dealing with an obese client, the staff should take extra precautions, such as ensuring the siderails are not putting pressure on the clients tissues. The other options are appropriate for any client, and are not specific to obese clients.

A client who has been taking antibiotics reports severe, watery diarrhea. About which test does the nurse teach the client? a. Colonoscopy b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) toxin A+B c. Ova and parasites d. Stool culture

b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) toxin A+B Clients taking antibiotics are at risk for Clostridium difficile infection. The most common test for this disorder is a stool sample for ELISA toxin A+B. Colonoscopy, ova and parasites, and stool culture are not warranted at this time.

A client with an esophageal tumor is having extreme difficulty swallowing. For what procedure does the nurse prepare this client? a. Enteral tube feeding b. Esophageal dilation c. Nissen fundoplication d. Photodynamic therapy

b. Esophageal dilation Esophageal dilation can provide immediate relief of esophageal strictures that impair swallowing. Enteral tube feeding is a method of providing nutrition when dysphagia is severe, but esophageal dilation would be attempted before this measure is taken. Nissen fundoplication is performed for severe gastroesophageal reflux disease. Photodynamic therapy is performed for esophageal cancer.

A nurse assesses a client and identifies that the client has pallor conjunctivae. Which focused assessment should the nurse complete next? a. Partial thromboplastin time b. Hemoglobin and hematocrit c. Liver enzymes d. Basic metabolic panel

b. Hemoglobin and hematocrit Pallor conjunctivae signifies anemia. The nurse should assess the clients hemoglobin and hematocrit to confirm anemia. The other laboratory results do not relate to this clients potential anemia.

After teaching a client who is at risk for the formation of pressure ulcers, a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which dietary choice by the client indicates a good understanding of the teaching? a. Low-fat diet with whole grains and cereals and vitamin supplements b. High-protein diet with vitamins and mineral supplements c. Vegetarian diet with nutritional supplements and fish oil capsules d. Low-fat, low-cholesterol, high-fiber, low-carbohydrate diet

b. High-protein diet with vitamins and mineral supplements The preferred diet is high in protein to assist in wound healing and prevention of new wounds. Fat is also needed to ensure formation of cell membranes, so any of the options with low fat would not be good choices. A vegetarian diet would not provide fat and high levels of protein.

A nurse assesses a wife who is caring for her husband. She has a Braden Scale score of 9. Which question should the nurse include in this assessment? a. Do you have a bedpan at home? b. How are you coping with providing this care? c. What are you doing to prevent pediculosis? d. Are you sharing a bed with your husband?

b. How are you coping with providing this care? A client with a Braden Scale score of 9 is at high risk for skin breakdown and requires moderate to maximum assistance to prevent further breakdown. Family members who care for clients at home may experience a disruption in family routines and added stress. The nurse should assess the wifes feelings and provide support for coping with changes. Asking about the clients toileting practices, prevention of pediculosis, and sleeping arrangements do not provide information about the caregivers support and coping mechanisms and ability to continue to care for her husband.

After teaching a client who has psoriasis, a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement indicates the client needs additional teaching? a. At the next family reunion, Im going to ask my relatives if they have psoriasis. b. I have to make sure I keep my lesions covered, so I do not spread this to others. c. I expect that these patches will get smaller when I lie out in the sun. d. I should continue to use the cortisone ointment as the patches shrink and dry out.

b. I have to make sure I keep my lesions covered, so I do not spread this to others. Psoriasis is not a contagious disorder. The client does not have to worry about spreading the condition to others. It is a condition that has hereditary links, the patches will decrease in size with ultraviolet light exposure, and cortisone ointment should be applied directly to lesions to suppress cell division.

A client has been taught about alginic acid and sodium bicarbonate (Gaviscon). What statement by the client indicates that teaching has been effective? a. I can only take this medicine at night. b. I should take this on a full stomach. c. This drug decreases stomach acid. d. This should be taken 1 hour before meals.

b. I should take this on a full stomach. Gaviscon should be taken with food in the stomach. It can be taken with meals at any time. Its mechanism of action is not to decrease stomach acid.

After teaching a client with perineal excoriation caused by diarrhea from acute gastroenteritis, a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. Ill rinse my rectal area with warm water after each stool and apply zinc oxide ointment. b. I will clean my rectal area thoroughly with toilet paper after each stool and then apply aloe vera gel. c. I must take a sitz bath three times a day and then pat my rectal area gently but thoroughly to make sure I am dry. d. I shall clean my rectal area with a soft cotton washcloth and then apply vitamin A and D ointment.

b. I will clean my rectal area thoroughly with toilet paper after each stool and then apply aloe vera gel. Toilet paper can irritate the sensitive perineal skin, so warm water rinses or soft cotton washcloths should be used instead. Although aloe vera may facilitate healing of superficial abrasions, it is not an effective skin barrier for diarrhea. Skin barriers such as zinc oxide and vitamin A and D ointment help protect the rectal area from the excoriating effects of liquid stools. Patting the skin is recommended instead of rubbing the skin dry.

After teaching a client who is prescribed adalimumab (Humira) for severe ulcerative colitis, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. I will avoid large crowds and people who are sick. b. I will take this medication with my breakfast each morning. c. Nausea and vomiting are common side effects of this drug. d. I must wash my hands after I play with my dog.

b. I will take this medication with my breakfast each morning. Adalimumab (Humira) is an immune modulator that must be given via subcutaneous injection. It does not need to be given with food or milk. Nausea and vomiting are two common side effects. Adalimumab can cause immune suppression, so clients receiving the medication should avoid large crowds and people who are sick, and should practice good handwashing.

A client has a recurrence of gastric cancer and is in the gastrointestinal clinic crying. What response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Do you have family or friends for support? b. Id like to know what you are feeling now. c. Well, we knew this would probably happen. d. Would you like me to refer you to hospice?

b. Id like to know what you are feeling now. The nurse assesses the clients emotional state with open-ended questions and statements and shows a willingness to listen to the clients concerns. Asking about support people is very limited in nature, and yes-or- no questions are not therapeutic. Stating that this was expected dismisses the clients concerns. The client may or may not be ready to hear about hospice, and this is another limited, yes-or-no question.

After educating a caregiver of a home care client, a nurse assesses the caregivers understanding. Which statement indicates that the caregiver needs additional education? a. I can help him shift his position every hour when he sits in the chair. b. If his tailbone is red and tender in the morning, I will massage it with baby oil. c. Applying lotion to his arms and legs every evening will decrease dryness. d. Drinking a nutritional supplement between meals will help maintain his weight.

b. If his tailbone is red and tender in the morning, I will massage it with baby oil. Massage of reddened areas over bony prominences such as the coccyx, or tailbone, is contraindicated because the pressure of the massage can cause damage to the skin and subcutaneous tissue layers. The other statements are appropriate for the care of a client at home.

After teaching a client who was hospitalized for Salmonella food poisoning, a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. I will let my husband do all of the cooking for my family. b. Ill take the ciprofloxacin until the diarrhea has resolved. c. I should wash my hands with antibacterial soap before each meal. d. I must place my dishes into the dishwasher after each meal.

b. Ill take the ciprofloxacin until the diarrhea has resolved. Ciprofloxacin should be taken for 10 to 14 days to treat Salmonella infection, and should not be stopped once the diarrhea has cleared. Clients should be advised to take the entire course of medication. People with Salmonella should not prepare foods for others because the infection may be spread in this way. Hands should be washed with antibacterial soap before and after eating to prevent spread of the bacteria. Dishes and eating utensils should not be shared and should be cleaned thoroughly. Clients can be carriers for up to 1 year.

An older female client has been prescribed esomeprazole (Nexium) for treatment of chronic gastric ulcers. What teaching is particularly important for this client? a. Check with the pharmacist before taking other medications. b. Increase intake of calcium and vitamin D. c. Report any worsening of symptoms to the provider. d. Take the medication as prescribed by the provider.

b. Increase intake of calcium and vitamin D. All of this advice is appropriate for any client taking this medication. However, long-term use is associated with osteoporosis and osteoporosis-related fractures. This client is already at higher risk for this problem and should be instructed to increase calcium and vitamin D intake. The other options are appropriate for any client taking any medication and are not specific to the use of esomeprazole.

A nurse performs a skin screening for a client who has numerous skin lesions. Which lesion does the nurse evaluate first? a. Beige freckles on the backs of both hands b. Irregular blue mole with white specks on the lower leg c. Large cluster of pustules in the right axilla d. Thick, reddened papules covered by white scales

b. Irregular blue mole with white specks on the lower leg This mole fits two of the criteria for being cancerous or precancerous: variation of color within one lesion, and an indistinct or irregular border. Melanoma is an invasive malignant disease with the potential for a fatal outcome. Freckles are a benign condition. Pustules could mean an infection, but it is more important to take care of the potentially cancerous lesion first. Psoriasis vulgaris manifests as thick reddened papules covered by white scales. This is a chronic disorder and is not the priority.

During skin inspection of a client, a nurse observes lesions with wavy borders that are widespread across the clients chest. Which descriptors should the nurse use to document these observations? a. Clustered and annular b. Linear and circinate c. Diffuse and serpiginous d. Coalesced and circumscribed

b. Linear and circinate Diffuse is used to describe lesions that are widespread. Serpiginous describes lesions with wavy borders. Clustered describes lesions grouped together. Linear describes lesions occurring in a straight line. Annular lesions are ringlike with raised borders, circinate lesions are circular, and circumscribed lesions have well- defined sharp borders. Coalesced describes lesions that merge with one another and appear confluent.

The student nurse studying the gastrointestinal system understands that chyme refers to what? a. Hormones that reduce gastric acidity b. Liquefied food ready for digestion c. Nutrients after being absorbed d. Secretions that help digest food

b. Liquefied food ready for digestion Before being digested, food must be broken down into a liquid form. This liquid is called chyme. Secretin is the hormone that inhibits acid production and decreases gastric motility. Absorption is carried out as the nutrients produced by digestion move from the lumen of the GI tract into the bodys circulatory system for uptake by individual cells. The secretions that help digest food include hydrochloric acid, bile, and digestive enzymes.

The nurse knows that a client with prolonged prothrombin time (PT) values (not related to medication) probably has dysfunction in which organ? a. Kidneys b. Liver c. Spleen d. Stomach

b. Liver Severe acute or chronic liver damage leads to a prolonged PT secondary to impaired synthesis of clotting proteins. The other organs are not related to this issue.

A client with an esophageal tumor has difficulty swallowing and has been working with a speech-language pathologist. What assessment finding by the nurse indicates that the priority goal for this problem is being met? a. Choosing foods that are easy to swallow b. Lungs clear after meals and snacks c. Properly performing swallowing exercises d. Weight unchanged after 2 weeks

b. Lungs clear after meals and snacks All these assessment findings are positive for this client. However, this client is at high risk for aspiration. Clear lungs after eating indicates no aspiration has occurred. Choosing easy-to-swallow foods, performing swallowing checks, and having an unchanged weight do not assess aspiration, and therefore do not indicate that the priority goal has been met.

The nurse is caring for a client with peptic ulcer disease who reports sudden onset of sharp abdominal pain. On palpation, the clients abdomen is tense and rigid. What action takes priority? a. Administer the prescribed pain medication. b. Notify the health care provider immediately. c. Percuss all four abdominal quadrants. d. Take and document a set of vital signs.

b. Notify the health care provider immediately. This client has manifestations of a perforated ulcer, which is an emergency. The priority is to get the client medical attention. The nurse can take a set of vital signs while someone else calls the provider. The nurse should not percuss the abdomen or give pain medication since the client may need to sign consent for surgery.

A client presents to the emergency department reporting severe abdominal pain. On assessment, the nurse finds a bulging, pulsating mass in the abdomen. What action by the nurse is the priority? a. Auscultate for bowel sounds. b. Notify the provider immediately. c. Order an abdominal flat-plate x-ray. d. Palpate the mass and measure its size.

b. Notify the provider immediately. This observation could indicate an abdominal aortic aneurysm, which could be life threatening and should never be palpated. The nurse notifies the provider at once. An x-ray may be indicated. Auscultation is part of assessment, but the nurses priority action is to notify the provider.

While assessing a clients lower extremities, a nurse notices that one leg is pale and cooler to the touch. Which assessment should the nurse perform next? a. Ask about a family history of skin disorders. b. Palpate the clients pedal pulses bilaterally. c. Check for the presence of Homans sign. d. Assess the clients skin for adequate skin turgor.

b. Palpate the clients pedal pulses bilaterally. Localized, decreased skin temperature and pallor indicate interference with vascular flow to the region. The nurse should assess bilateral pedal pulses to screen for vascular sufficiency. Without adequate blood flow, the clients limb could be threatened. Asking about a family history of skin problems would not take priority over assessing blood flow. Homans sign is a screening tool for deep vein thrombosis and is often inaccurate. Skin turgor gives information about hydration status. This assessment may be needed but certainly does not take priority over assessing for blood flow.

A client had an upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage and now has a nasogastric (NG) tube. What comfort measure may the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Lavaging the tube with ice water b. Performing frequent oral care c. Re-positioning the tube every 4 hours d. Taking and recording vital signs

b. Performing frequent oral care Clients with NG tubes need frequent oral care both for comfort and to prevent infection. Lavaging the tube is done by the nurse. Re-positioning the tube, if needed, is also done by the nurse. The UAP can take vital signs, but this is not a comfort measure.

A student nurse is providing care to an older client with stomatitis and dysphagia. What action by the student nurse requires the registered nurse to intervene? a. Assisting the client to perform oral care every 2 hours b. Preparing to administer a viscous lidocaine gargle c. Reminding the client not to swallow nystatin (Mycostatin) d. Teaching the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush

b. Preparing to administer a viscous lidocaine gargle Viscous lidocaine gargles or mouthwashes are sometimes prescribed for clients with stomatitis and pain. However, the numbing effect can lead to choking or mouth burns from hot food. This client already has difficulty swallowing, so this medication is not appropriate. Therefore, the nurse should intervene when the student prepares to administer this preparation. The other options are correct actions.

A client has a nasogastric (NG) tube after a Nissen fundoplication. The nurse answers the call light and finds the client vomiting bright red blood with the NG tube lying on the floor. What action should the nurse take first? a. Notify the surgeon. b. Put on a pair of gloves. c. Reinsert the NG tube. d. Take a set of vital signs.

b. Put on a pair of gloves. To avoid exposure to blood and body fluids, the nurse first puts on a pair of gloves. Taking vital signs and notifying the surgeon are also appropriate, but the nurse must protect himself or herself first. The surgeon will reinsert the NG tube either at the bedside or in surgery if the client needs to go back to the operating room.

A client has a pyloric obstruction and reports sudden muscle weakness. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Document the findings in the chart. b. Request an electrocardiogram (ECG). c. Facilitate a serum potassium test. d. Place the client on bedrest.

b. Request an electrocardiogram (ECG). Pyloric stenosis can lead to hypokalemia, which is manifested by muscle weakness. The nurse first obtains an ECG because potassium imbalances can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias. A potassium level is also warranted, as is placing the client on bedrest for safety. Documentation should be thorough, but none of these actions takes priority over the ECG.

A nurse assesses a client who has psoriasis. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Don gloves and an isolation gown. b. Shake the clients hand and introduce self. c. Assess for signs and symptoms of infections. d. Ask the client if she might be pregnant.

b. Shake the clients hand and introduce self. Clients with psoriatic lesions are often self-conscious of their skin. The nurse should first provide direct contact and touch without gloves to establish a good report with the client. Psoriasis is not an infectious disease, nor is it contagious. The nurse would not need to wear gloves or an isolation gown. Obtaining a health history and assessing for an infection and pregnancy should be completed after establishing a report with the client.

A nurse plans care for a client with Crohns disease who has a heavily draining fistula. Which intervention should the nurse indicate as the priority action in this clients plan of care? a. Low-fiber diet b. Skin protection c. Antibiotic administration d. Intravenous glucocorticoids

b. Skin protection Protecting the clients skin is the priority action for a client who has a heavily draining fistula. Intestinal fluid enzymes are caustic and can cause skin breakdown or fungal infections if the skin is not protected. The plan of care for a client who has Crohns disease includes adequate nutrition focused on high-calorie, high-protein, high-vitamin, and low-fiber meals, antibiotic administration, and glucocorticoids.

A client with peptic ulcer disease asks the nurse about taking slippery elm supplements. What response by the nurse is best? a. Slippery elm has no benefit for this problem. b. Slippery elm is often used for this disorder. c. There is no evidence that this will work. d. You should not take any herbal remedies.

b. Slippery elm is often used for this disorder. There are several complementary and alternative medicine regimens that are used for gastritis and peptic ulcer disease. Most have been tested on animals but not humans. Slippery elm is a common supplement used for this disorder.

Several nurses have just helped a morbidly obese client get out of bed. One nurse accesses the clients record because I just have to know how much she weighs! What action by the clients nurse is most appropriate? a. Make an anonymous report to the charge nurse. b. State That is a violation of client confidentiality. c. Tell the nurse Dont look; Ill tell you her weight. d. Walk away and ignore the other nurses behavior.

b. State That is a violation of client confidentiality. Ethical practice requires the nurse to speak up and tell the other nurse that he or she is violating client confidentiality rules. The other responses do not address this concern.

A nurse assesses a client who is hospitalized for botulism. The clients vital signs are temperature: 99.8 F (37.6 C), heart rate: 100 beats/min, respiratory rate: 10 breaths/min, and blood pressure: 100/62 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take? a. Decrease stimulation and allow the client to rest. b. Stay with the client while another nurse calls the provider. c. Increase the clients intravenous fluid replacement rate. d. Check the clients blood glucose and administer orange juice.

b. Stay with the client while another nurse calls the provider. A client with botulism is at risk for respiratory failure. This clients respiratory rate is slow, which could indicate impending respiratory distress or failure. The nurse should remain with the client while another nurse notifies the provider. The nurse should monitor and document the IV infusion per protocol, but this client does not require additional intravenous fluids. Allowing the client to rest or checking the clients blood glucose and administering orange juice are not appropriate actions.

A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a hemorrhoidectomy. The client states, I need to have a bowel movement. Which action should the nurse take? a. Obtain a bedside commode for the client to use. b. Stay with the client while providing privacy. c. Make sure the call light is in reach to signal completion. d. Gather supplies to collect a stool sample for the laboratory.

b. Stay with the client while providing privacy The first bowel movement after hemorrhoidectomy can be painful enough to induce syncope. The nurse should stay with the client. The nurse should instruct clients who are discharged the same day to have someone nearby when they have their first postoperative bowel movement. Making sure the call light is within reach is an important nursing action too, but it does not take priority over client safety. Obtaining a bedside commode and taking a stool sample are not needed in this situation.

A nurse cares for a client with a new ileostomy. The client states, I dont think my friends will accept me with this ostomy. How should the nurse respond? a. Your friends will be happy that you are alive. b. Tell me more about your concerns. c. A therapist can help you resolve your concerns. d. With time you will accept your new body.

b. Tell me more about your concerns. Social anxiety and apprehension are common in clients with a new ileostomy. The nurse should encourage the client to discuss concerns. The nurse should not minimize the clients concerns or provide false reassurance.

A nurse cares for a middle-aged male client who has irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). The client states, I have changed my diet and take bulk-forming laxatives, but my symptoms have not gotten better. I heard about a drug called Amitiza. Do you think it might help? How should the nurse respond? a. This drug is still in the research phase and is not available for public use yet. b. Unfortunately, lubiprostone is approved only for use in women. c. Lubiprostone works well. I will recommend this prescription to your provider. d. This drug should not be used with bulk-forming laxatives.

b. Unfortunately, lubiprostone is approved only for use in women. Lubiprostone (Amitiza) is a new drug for IBS with constipation that works by simulating receptors in the intestines to increase fluid and promote bowel transit time. Lubiprostone is currently approved only for use in women. Trials with increased numbers of male participants are needed prior to Food and Drug Administration approval for men.

A nurse assesses a client admitted with deep partial-thickness and full-thickness burns on the face, arms, and chest. Which assessment finding should alert the nurse to a potential complication? a. Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) of 80 mm Hg b. Urine output of 20 mL/hr c. Productive cough with white pulmonary secretions d. Core temperature of 100.6 F (38 C)

b. Urine output of 20 mL/hr A significant loss of fluid occurs with burn injuries, and fluids must be replaced to maintain hemodynamics. If fluid replacement is not adequate, the client may become hypotensive and have decreased perfusion of organs, including the brain and kidneys. A low urine output is an indication of poor kidney perfusion. The other manifestations are not complications of burn injuries.

While assessing a client, a nurse detects a bluish tinge to the clients palms, soles, and mucous membranes. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Ask the client about current medications he or she is taking. b. Use pulse oximetry to assess the clients oxygen saturation. c. Auscultate the clients lung fields for adventitious sounds. d. Palpate the clients bilateral radial and pedal pulses.

b. Use pulse oximetry to assess the clients oxygen saturation. Cyanosis can be present when impaired gas exchange occurs. In a client with dark skin, cyanosis can be seen because the palms, soles, and mucous membranes have a bluish tinge. The nurse should assess for systemic oxygenation before continuing with other assessments.

After teaching a client who has a new colostomy, the nurse provides feedback based on the clients ability to complete self-care activities. Which statement should the nurse include in this feedback? a. I realize that you had a tough time today, but it will get easier with practice. b. You cleaned the stoma well. Now you need to practice putting on the appliance. c. You seem to understand what I taught you today. What else can I help you with? d. You seem uncomfortable. Do you want your daughter to care for your ostomy?

b. You cleaned the stoma well. Now you need to practice putting on the appliance. The nurse should provide both approval and room for improvement in feedback after a teaching session. Feedback should be objective and constructive, and not evaluative. Reassuring the client that things will improve does not offer anything concrete for the client to work on, nor does it let him or her know what was done well. The nurse should not make the client convey learning needs because the client may not know what else he or she needs to understand. The client needs to become the expert in self-management of the ostomy, and the nurse should not offer to teach the daughter instead of the client.

A nurse uses the rule of nines to assess a client with burn injuries to the entire back region and left arm. How should the nurse document the percentage of the clients body that sustained burns? a. 9% b. 18% c. 27% d. 36%

c. 27% According to the rule of nines, the posterior trunk, anterior trunk, and legs each make up 18% of the total body surface. The head, neck, and arms each make up 9% of total body surface, and the perineum makes up 1%. In this case, the client received burns to the back (18%) and one arm (9%), totaling 27% of the body.

A nurse assesses clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for pressure ulcer development? a. A 44-year-old prescribed IV antibiotics for pneumonia b. A 26-year-old who is bedridden with a fractured leg c. A 65-year-old with hemi-paralysis and incontinence d. A 78-year-old requiring assistance to ambulate with a walker

c. A 65-year-old with hemi-paralysis and incontinence Being immobile and being incontinent are two significant risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers. The client with pneumonia does not have specific risk factors. The young client who has a fractured leg and the client who needs assistance with ambulation might be at moderate risk if they do not move about much, but having two risk factors makes the 65-year-old the person at highest risk.

A nurse prepares a client for a colonoscopy scheduled for tomorrow. The client states, My doctor told me that the fecal occult blood test was negative for colon cancer. I dont think I need the colonoscopy and would like to cancel it. How should the nurse respond? a. Your doctor should not have given you that information prior to the colonoscopy. b. The colonoscopy is required due to the high percentage of false negatives with the blood test. c. A negative fecal occult blood test does not rule out the possibility of colon cancer. d. I will contact your doctor so that you can discuss your concerns about the procedure.

c. A negative fecal occult blood test does not rule out the possibility of colon cancer. A negative result from a fecal occult blood test does not completely rule out the possibility of colon cancer. To determine whether the client has colon cancer, a colonoscopy should be performed so the entire colon can be visualized and a tissue sample taken for biopsy. The client may want to speak with the provider, but the nurse should address the clients concerns prior to contacting the provider.

A nurse teaches a client who is at risk for colon cancer. Which dietary recommendation should the nurse teach this client? a. Eat low-fiber and low-residual foods. b. White rice and bread are easier to digest. c. Add vegetables such as broccoli and cauliflower to your new diet. d. Foods high in animal fat help to protect the intestinal mucosa.

c. Add vegetables such as broccoli and cauliflower to your new diet. The client should be taught to modify his or her diet to decrease animal fat and refined carbohydrates. The client should also increase high-fiber foods and Brassica vegetables, including broccoli and cauliflower, which help to protect the intestinal mucosa from colon cancer.

When transferring a client into a chair, a nurse notices that the pressure-relieving mattress overlay has deep imprints of the clients buttocks, heels, and scapulae. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Turn the mattress overlay to the opposite side. b. Do nothing because this is an expected occurrence. c. Apply a different pressure-relieving device. d. Reinforce the overlay with extra cushions.

c. Apply a different pressure-relieving device. Bottoming out, as evidenced by deep imprints in the mattress overlay, indicates that this device is not appropriate for this client, and a different device or strategy should be implemented to prevent pressure ulcer formation.

A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed mesalamine (Asacol) for ulcerative colitis. The client states, I am having trouble swallowing this pill. Which action should the nurse take? a. Contact the clinical pharmacist and request the medication in suspension form. b. Empty the contents of the capsule into applesauce or pudding for administration. c. Ask the health care provider to prescribe the medication as an enema instead. d. Crush the pill carefully and administer it in applesauce or pudding.

c. Ask the health care provider to prescribe the medication as an enema instead. Asacol is the oral formula for mesalamine and is produced as an enteric-coated pill that should not be crushed, chewed, or broken. Asacol is not available as a suspension or elixir. If the client is unable to swallow the Asacol pill, a mesalamine enema (Rowasa) may be administered instead, with a providers order.

A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed vancomycin (Vancocin) 500 mg IV every 6 hours for a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection. Which action should the nurse take? a. Administer it over 30 minutes using an IV pump. b. Give the client diphenhydramine (Benadryl) before the drug. c. Assess the IV site at least every 2 hours for thrombophlebitis. d. Ensure that the client has increased oral intake during therapy.

c. Assess the IV site at least every 2 hours for thrombophlebitis. Vancomycin is very irritating to the veins and can easily cause thrombophlebitis. This drug is given over at least 60 minutes; although it can cause histamine release (leading to red man syndrome), it is not customary to administer diphenhydramine before starting the infusion. Increasing oral intake is not specific to vancomycin therapy.

A nurse cares for a client with a burn injury who presents with drooling and difficulty swallowing. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assess the level of consciousness and pupillary reactions. b. Ascertain the time food or liquid was last consumed. c. Auscultate breath sounds over the trachea and bronchi. d. Measure abdominal girth and auscultate bowel sounds.

c. Auscultate breath sounds over the trachea and bronchi. Inhalation injuries are present in 7% of clients admitted to burn centers. Drooling and difficulty swallowing can mean that the client is about to lose his or her airway because of this injury. Absence of breath sounds over the trachea and bronchi indicates impending airway obstruction and demands immediate intubation. Knowing the level of consciousness is important in assessing oxygenation to the brain. Ascertaining the time of last food intake is important in case intubation is necessary (the nurse will be more alert for signs of aspiration). However, assessing for air exchange is the most important intervention at this time. Measuring abdominal girth is not relevant in this situation.

A nurse works on the surgical unit. After receiving the hand-off report, which client should the nurse see first? a. Client who underwent diverticula removal with a pulse of 106/min b. Client who had esophageal dilation and is attempting first postprocedure oral intake c. Client who had an esophagectomy with a respiratory rate of 32/min d. Client who underwent hernia repair, reporting incisional pain of 7/10

c. Client who had an esophagectomy with a respiratory rate of 32/min The client who had an esophagectomy has a respiratory rate of 32/min, which is an early sign of sepsis; this client needs to be assessed first. The client who underwent diverticula removal has a pulse that is out of the normal range (106/min), but not terribly so. The client reporting pain needs pain medication, but the client with the elevated respiratory rate needs investigation first. The nurse should see the client who had esophageal dilation prior to and during the first attempt at oral feedings, but this can wait until the other clients are cared for.

For which client would the nurse suggest the provider not prescribe misoprostol (Cytotec)? a. Client taking antacids b. Client taking antibiotics c. Client who is pregnant d. Client over 65 years of age

c. Client who is pregnant Misoprostol can cause abortion, so pregnant women should not take this drug. The other clients have no contraindications to taking misoprostol.

A nurse is caring for four clients receiving enteral tube feedings. Which client should the nurse see first? a. Client with a blood glucose level of 138 mg/dL b. Client with foul-smelling diarrhea c. Client with a potassium level of 2.6 mEq/L d. Client with a sodium level of 138 mEq/L

c. Client with a potassium level of 2.6 mEq/L The potassium is critically low, perhaps due to hyperglycemia-induced hyperosmolarity. The nurse should see this client first. The blood glucose reading is high, but not extreme. The sodium is normal. The client with the diarrhea should be seen last to avoid cross-contamination.

A nurse assesses clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse evaluate for a wound infection? a. Client with blood cultures pending b. Client who has thin, serous wound drainage c. Client with a white blood cell count of 23,000/mm3 d. Client whose wound has decreased in size

c. Client with a white blood cell count of 23,000/mm3 A client with an elevated white blood cell count should be evaluated for sources of infection. Pending cultures, thin drainage, and a decrease in wound size are not indications that the client may have an infection.

A nurse assessing a client with colorectal cancer auscultates high-pitched bowel sounds and notes the presence of visible peristaltic waves. Which action should the nurse take? a. Ask if the client is experiencing pain in the right shoulder. b. Perform a rectal examination and assess for polyps. c. Contact the provider and recommend computed tomography. d. Administer a laxative to increase bowel movement activity.

c. Contact the provider and recommend computed tomography. The presence of visible peristaltic waves, accompanied by high-pitched or tingling bowel sounds, is indicative of partial obstruction caused by the tumor. The nurse should contact the provider with these results and recommend a computed tomography scan for further diagnostic testing. This assessment finding is not associated with right shoulder pain; peritonitis and cholecystitis are associated with referred pain to the right shoulder. The registered nurse is not qualified to complete a rectal examination for polyps, and laxatives would not help this client.

A client just returned to the surgical unit after a gastric bypass. What action by the nurse is the priority? a. Assess the clients pain. b. Check the surgical incision. c. Ensure an adequate airway. d. Program the morphine pump.

c. Ensure an adequate airway All actions are appropriate care measures for this client; however, airway is always the priority. Bariatric clients tend to have short, thick necks that complicate airway management.

A nurse attempted to assist a morbidly obese client back to bed and had immediate pain in the lower back. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?a. Ask another nurse to help next time. b. Demand better equipment to use. c. Fill out and file a variance report. d. Refuse to assist the client again.

c. Fill out and file a variance report. The nurse should complete a variance report per agency policy. Asking another nurse to help and requesting better equipment are both good ideas, but the nurse may have an injury that needs care. It would be unethical to refuse to care for this client again.

A nurse assesses a client who has ulcerative colitis and severe diarrhea. Which assessment should the nurse complete first? a. Inspection of oral mucosa b. Recent dietary intake c. Heart rate and rhythm d. Percussion of abdomen

c. Heart rate and rhythm Although the client with severe diarrhea may experience skin irritation and hypovolemia, the client is most at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias secondary to potassium and magnesium loss from severe diarrhea. The client should have her or his electrolyte levels monitored, and electrolyte replacement may be necessary. Oral mucosa inspection, recent dietary intake, and abdominal percussion are important parts of physical assessment but are lower priority for this client than heart rate and rhythm.

A nurse assesses a client who is hospitalized with an exacerbation of Crohns disease. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find? a. Positive Murphys sign with rebound tenderness to palpitation b. Dull, hypoactive bowel sounds in the lower abdominal quadrants c. High-pitched, rushing bowel sounds in the right lower quadrant d. Reports of abdominal cramping that is worse at night

c. High-pitched, rushing bowel sounds in the right lower quadrant The nurse expects high-pitched, rushing bowel sounds due to narrowing of the bowel lumen in Crohns disease. A positive Murphys sign is indicative of gallbladder disease, and rebound tenderness often indicates peritonitis. Dullness in the lower abdominal quadrants and hypoactive bowel sounds are not commonly found with Crohns disease. Nightly worsening of abdominal cramping is not consistent with Crohns disease.

A client having a tube feeding begins vomiting. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Administer an antiemetic. b. Check the clients gastric residual. c. Hold the feeding until the nausea subsides. d. Reduce the rate of the tube feeding by half.

c. Hold the feeding until the nausea subsides. The nurse should hold the feeding until the nausea and vomiting have subsided and consult with the provider on the rate at which to restart the feeding. Giving an antiemetic is not appropriate. After vomiting, a gastric residual will not be accurate. The nurse should not continue to feed the client while he or she is vomiting.

After teaching a client who expressed concern about a rash located beneath her breast, a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement indicates the client has a good understanding of this condition? a. This rash is probably due to fluid overload. b. I need to wash this daily with antibacterial soap. c. I can use powder to keep this area dry. d. I will schedule a mammogram as soon as I can.

c. I can use powder to keep this area dry. Rashes limited to skinfold areas (e.g., on the axillae, beneath the breasts, in the groin) may reflect problems related to excessive moisture. The client needs to keep the area dry; one option is to use powder. Good hygiene is important, but the rash does not need an antibacterial soap. Fluid overload and breast cancer are not related to rashes in skinfolds.

A nurse assesses a client who has a burn injury. Which statement indicates the client has a positive perspective of his or her appearance? a. I will allow my spouse to change my dressings. b. I want to have surgical reconstruction. c. I will bathe and dress before breakfast. d. I have secured the pressure dressings as ordered.

c. I will bathe and dress before breakfast. Indicators that the client with a burn injury has a positive perception of his or her appearance include a willingness to touch the affected body part. Self-care activities such as morning care foster feelings of self- worth, which are closely linked to body image. Allowing others to change the dressing and discussing future reconstruction would not indicate a positive perception of appearance. Wearing the dressing will assist in decreasing complications but will not enhance self-perception.

A nurse teaches a client being treated for a full-thickness burn. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients discharge teaching? a. You should change the batteries in your smoke detector once a year. b. Join a program that assists burn clients to reintegration into the community. c. I will demonstrate how to change your wound dressing for you and your family. d. Let me tell you about the many options available to you for reconstructive surgery.

c. I will demonstrate how to change your wound dressing for you and your family. Teaching clients and family members to perform care tasks such as dressing changes is critical for the progressive goal toward independence for the client. All of the other options are important in the rehabilitation stage. However, dressing changes have priority.

A nurse cares for a client with colon cancer who has a new colostomy. The client states, I think it would be helpful to talk with someone who has had a similar experience. How should the nurse respond? a. I have a good friend with a colostomy who would be willing to talk with you. b. The enterostomal therapist will be able to answer all of your questions. c. I will make a referral to the United Ostomy Associations of America. d. Youll find that most people with colostomies dont want to talk about them.

c. I will make a referral to the United Ostomy Associations of America. Nurses need to become familiar with community-based resources to better assist clients. The local chapter of the United Ostomy Associations of America has resources for clients and their families, including Ostomates (specially trained visitors who also have ostomies). The nurse should not suggest that the client speak with a personal contact of the nurse. Although the enterostomal therapist is an expert in ostomy care, talking with him or her is not the same as talking with someone who actually has had a colostomy. The nurse should not brush aside the clients request by saying that most people with colostomies do not want to talk about them. Many people are willing to share their ostomy experience in the hope of helping others.

After teaching a client who has diverticulitis, a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. Ill ride my bike or take a long walk at least three times a week. b. I must try to include at least 25 grams of fiber in my diet every day. c. I will take a laxative nightly at bedtime to avoid becoming constipated. d. I should use my legs rather than my back muscles when I lift heavy objects.

c. I will take a laxative nightly at bedtime to avoid becoming constipated. Laxatives are not recommended for clients with diverticulitis because they can increase pressure in the bowel, causing additional outpouching of the lumen. Exercise and a high-fiber diet are recommended for clients with diverticulitis because they promote regular bowel function. Using the leg muscles rather than the back for lifting prevents abdominal straining.

A client with a bleeding gastric ulcer is having a nuclear medicine scan. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?a. Assess the client for iodine or shellfish allergies. b. Educate the client on the side effects of sedation. c. Inform the client a second scan may be needed. d. Teach the client about bowel preparation for the scan.

c. Inform the client a second scan may be needed. A second scan may be performed in 1 to 2 days to see if interventions have worked. The nuclear medicine scan does not use iodine-containing contrast dye or sedation. There is no required bowel preparation.

A nurse prepares to administer intravenous cimetidine (Tagamet) to a client who has a new burn injury. The client asks, Why am I taking this medication? How should the nurse respond? a. Tagamet stimulates intestinal movement so you can eat more. b. It improves fluid retention, which helps prevent hypovolemic shock. c. It helps prevent stomach ulcers, which are common after burns. d. Tagamet protects the kidney from damage caused by dehydration.

c. It helps prevent stomach ulcers, which are common after burns. Ulcerative gastrointestinal disease (Curlings ulcer) may develop within 24 hours after a severe burn as a result of increased hydrochloric acid production and a decreased mucosal barrier. This process occurs because of the sympathetic nervous system stress response. Cimetidine is a histamine2 blocker and inhibits the production and release of hydrochloric acid. Cimetidine does not affect intestinal movement and does not prevent hypovolemic shock or kidney damage.

A nurse cares for a teenage girl with a new ileostomy. The client states, I cannot go to prom with an ostomy. How should the nurse respond? a. Sure you can. Purchase a prom dress one size larger to hide the ostomy appliance. b. The pouch wont be as noticeable if you avoid broccoli and carbonated drinks prior to the prom. c. Lets talk to the enterostomal therapist about options for ostomy supplies and dress styles. d. You can remove the pouch from your ostomy appliance when you are at the prom so that it is less noticeable.

c. Lets talk to the enterostomal therapist about options for ostomy supplies and dress styles. The ostomy nurse is a valuable resource for clients, providing suggestions for supplies and methods to manage the ostomy. A larger dress size will not necessarily help hide the ostomy appliance. Avoiding broccoli and carbonated drinks does not offer reassurance for the client. Ileostomies have an almost constant liquid effluent, so pouch removal during the prom is not feasible.

The nurse caring for clients with gastrointestinal disorders should understand that which category best describes the mechanism of action of sucralfate (Carafate)? a. Gastric acid inhibitor b. Histamine receptor blocker c. Mucosal barrier fortifier d. Proton pump inhibitor

c. Mucosal barrier fortifier Sucralfate is a mucosal barrier fortifier (protector). It is not a gastric acid inhibitor, a histamine receptor blocker, or a proton pump inhibitor.

A client is 1 day postoperative after having Zenkers diverticula removed. The client has a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction, and for the last 4 hours there has been no drainage. There are no specific care orders for the NG tube in place. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Document the findings as normal. b. Irrigate the NG tube with sterile saline. c. Notify the surgeon about this finding. d. Remove and reinsert the NG tube.

c. Notify the surgeon about this finding. NG tubes placed during surgery should not be irrigated or moved unless prescribed by the surgeon. The nurse should notify the surgeon about this finding. Documentation is important, but this finding is not normal.

A client has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). The provider prescribes a proton pump inhibitor. About what medication should the nurse anticipate teaching the client? a. Famotidine (Pepcid) b. Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox) c. Omeprazole (Prilosec) d. Ranitidine (Zantac)

c. Omeprazole (Prilosec) Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used in the treatment of GERD. Famotidine and ranitidine are histamine blockers. Maalox is an antacid

A client has a nasogastric (NG) tube. What action by the nursing student requires the registered nurse to intervene? a. Checking tube placement every 4 to 8 hours b. Monitoring and documenting drainage from the NG tube c. Pinning the tube to the gown so the client cannot turn the head d. Providing oral care every 4 to 8 hours

c. Pinning the tube to the gown so the client cannot turn the head The client should be able to turn his or her head to prevent pulling the tube out with movement. The other actions are appropriate.

A client had an oral tumor removed this morning and now has a tracheostomy. What action by the nurse is the priority? a. Delegate oral care every 4 hours. b. Monitor and record the clients intake. c. Place the client in a high-Fowlers position. d. Remove the inner cannula for cleaning.

c. Place the client in a high-Fowlers position. To promote airway clearance, this client should be placed in a semi- or high-Fowlers position. Oral care can be delegated, but that is not the priority. Intake and output should also be recorded but again is not the priority. The inner cannula may or may not need to be cleaned, and the tracheostomy may or may not have a disposable cannula.

A client is having an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) and has been given midazolam hydrochloride (Versed). The clients respiratory rate is 8 breaths/min. What action by the nurse is best? a. Administer naloxone (Narcan). b. Call the Rapid Response Team. c. Provide physical stimulation. d. Ventilate with a bag-valve-mask.

c. Provide physical stimulation. For an EGD, clients are given mild sedation but should still be able to follow commands. For shallow or slow respirations after the sedation is given, the nurses first action is to provide a physical stimulation such as a sternal rub and directions to breathe deeply. Naloxone is not the antidote for Versed. The Rapid Response Team is not needed at this point. The client does not need manual ventilation.

A client tells the nurse about losing weight and regaining it multiple times. Besides eating and exercising habits, for what additional data should the nurse assess as the priority? a. Economic ability to join a gym b. Food allergies and intolerances c. Psychosocial influences on weight d. Reasons for wanting to lose weight

c. Psychosocial influences on weight While all topics might be important to assess, people who lose and gain weight in cycles often are depressed or have poor self-esteem, which has a negative effect on weight-loss efforts. The nurse assesses the clients psychosocial status as the priority.

A nurse answers a clients call light and finds the client in the bathroom, vomiting large amounts of bright red blood. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assist the client back to bed. b. Notify the provider immediately. c. Put on a pair of gloves. d. Take a set of vital signs.

c. Put on a pair of gloves. All of the actions are appropriate; however, the nurse should put on a pair of gloves first to avoid contamination with blood or body fluids.

A client had a colonoscopy and biopsy yesterday and calls the gastrointestinal clinic to report a spot of bright red blood on the toilet paper today. What response by the nurse is best? a. Ask the client to call back if this happens again today. b. Instruct the client to go to the emergency department. c. Remind the client that a small amount of bleeding is possible. d. Tell the client to come in to the clinic this afternoon.

c. Remind the client that a small amount of bleeding is possible. After a colonoscopy with biopsy, a small amount of bleeding is normal. The nurse should remind the client of this and instruct him or her to go to the emergency department for large amounts of bleeding, severe pain, or dizziness.

A nurse is teaching a client about magnesium hydroxide with aluminum hydroxide (Maalox). What instruction is most appropriate? a. Aspirin must be avoided. b. Do not worry about black stools. c. Report diarrhea to your provider. d. Take 1 hour before meals.

c. Report diarrhea to your provider Maalox can cause hypermagnesemia, which causes diarrhea, so the client should be taught to report this to the provider. Aspirin is avoided with bismuth sulfate (Pepto-Bismol). Black stools can be caused by Pepto-Bismol. Maalox should be taken after meals.

A nurse reviews the laboratory results for a client who was burned 24 hours ago. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately? a. Arterial pH: 7.32 b. Hematocrit: 52% c. Serum potassium: 6.5 mEq/L d. Serum sodium: 131 mEq/L

c. Serum potassium: 6.5 mEq/L The serum potassium level is changed to the degree that serious life-threatening responses could result. With such a rapid rise in potassium level, the client is at high risk for experiencing severe cardiac dysrhythmias and death. All the other findings are abnormal but do not show the same degree of severity; they would be expected in the emergent phase after a burn injury.

The nurse teaches burn prevention to a community group. Which statement by a member of the group should cause the nurse the greatest concern? a. I get my chimney swept every other year. b. My hot water heater is set at 120 degrees. c. Sometimes I wake up at night and smoke. d. I use a space heater when it gets below zero.

c. Sometimes I wake up at night and smoke. House fires are a common occurrence and often lead to serious injury or death. The nurse should be most concerned about a person who wakes up at night and smokes. The nurse needs to question this person about whether he or she gets out of bed to do so, or if this person stays in bed, which could lead to falling back asleep with a lighted cigarette. Although it is recommended to have chimneys swept every year, skipping a year does not pose as much danger as smoking in bed, particularly if the person does not burn wood frequently. Water heaters should be set below 140 F. Space heaters should be used with caution, and the nurse may want to ensure that the person does not allow it to get near clothing or bedding.

A nursing student is studying nutritional problems and learns that kwashiorkor is distinguished from marasmus with which finding? a. Deficit of calories b. Lack of all nutrients c. Specific lack of protein d. Unknown cause of malnutrition

c. Specific lack of protein Kwashiorkor is a lack of protein when total calories are adequate. Marasmus is a caloric malnutrition.

A client with peptic ulcer disease is in the emergency department and reports the pain has gotten much worse over the last several days. The clients blood pressure when lying down was 122/80 mm Hg and when standing was 98/52 mm Hg. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Administer ibuprofen (Motrin). b. Call the Rapid Response Team. c. Start a large-bore IV with normal saline. d. Tell the client to remain lying down.

c. Start a large-bore IV with normal saline. This client has orthostatic changes to the blood pressure, indicating fluid volume loss. The nurse should start a large-bore IV with isotonic solution. Ibuprofen will exacerbate the ulcer. The Rapid Response Team is not needed at this point. The client should be put on safety precautions, which includes staying in bed, but this is not the priority.

A nurse teaches a client who is recovering from a colon resection. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients plan of care? a. You may experience nausea and vomiting for the first few weeks. b. Carbonated beverages can help decrease acid reflux from anastomosis sites. c. Take a stool softener to promote softer stools for ease of defecation. d. You may return to your normal workout schedule, including weight lifting.

c. Take a stool softener to promote softer stools for ease of defecation. Clients recovering from a colon resection should take a stool softener as prescribed to keep stools a soft consistency for ease of passage. Nausea and vomiting are symptoms of intestinal obstruction and perforation and should be reported to the provider immediately. The client should be advised to avoid gas-producing foods and carbonated beverages, and avoid lifting heavy objects or straining on defecation.

A nurse cares for an older adult client who has a chronic skin disorder. The client states, I have not been to church in several weeks because of the discoloration of my skin. How should the nurse respond? a. I will consult the chaplain to provide you with spiritual support. b. You do not need to go to church; God is everywhere. c. Tell me more about your concerns related to your skin. d. Religious people are nonjudgmental and will accept you.

c. Tell me more about your concerns related to your skin. Clients with chronic skin disorders often become socially isolated related to the fear of rejection by others. Nurses should assess how the clients skin changes are affecting the clients body image and encourage the client to express his or her feelings about a change in appearance. The other responses are not appropriate.

A nurse assesses a young female client who is prescribed isotretinoin (Accutane). Which question should the nurse ask prior to starting this therapy? a. Do you spend a great deal of time in the sun? b. Have you or any family members ever had skin cancer? c. Which method of contraception are you using? d. Do you drink alcoholic beverages?

c. Which method of contraception are you using? Isotretinoin has many side effects. It is a known teratogen and can cause severe birth defects. A pregnancy test is required before therapy is initiated, and strict birth control measures must be used during therapy. Sun exposure, alcohol ingestion, and family history of cancer are contraindications for isotretinoin.

A nurse cares for a client who has facial burns. The client asks, Will I ever look the same? How should the nurse respond? a. With reconstructive surgery, you can look the same. b. We can remove the scars with the use of a pressure dressing. c. You will not look exactly the same but cosmetic surgery will help. d. You shouldnt start worrying about your appearance right now.

c. You will not look exactly the same but cosmetic surgery will help. Many clients have unrealistic expectations of reconstructive surgery and envision an appearance identical or equal in quality to the preburn state. The nurse should provide accurate information that includes something to hope for. Pressure dressings prevent further scarring; they cannot remove scars. The client and the family should be taught the expected cosmetic outcomes.

A nurse assesses clients at a community health center. Which client is at highest risk for the development of colorectal cancer? a. A 37-year-old who drinks eight cups of coffee daily b. A 44-year-old with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) c. A 60-year-old lawyer who works 65 hours per week d. A 72-year-old who eats fast food frequently

d. A 72-year-old who eats fast food frequently Colon cancer is rare before the age of 40, but its incidence increases rapidly with advancing age. Fast food tends to be high in fat and low in fiber, increasing the risk for colon cancer. Coffee intake, IBS, and a heavy workload do not increase the risk for colon cancer.

A nurse teaches a client who has very dry skin. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients education? a. Use lots of moisturizer several times a day to minimize dryness. b. Take a cold shower instead of soaking in the bathtub. c. Use antimicrobial soap to avoid infection of cracked skin. d. After you bathe, put lotion on before your skin is totally dry.

d. After you bathe, put lotion on before your skin is totally dry. The client should bathe in warm water for at least 20 minutes and then apply lotion immediately because this will keep the moisture in the skin. Just using moisturizer will not be as helpful because the moisturizer is not what rehydrates the skin; it is the water. Bathing in warm water will rehydrate skin more effectively than a cold shower, and antimicrobial soaps are actually more drying than other kinds of soap.

An emergency room nurse cares for a client who has been shot in the abdomen and is hemorrhaging heavily. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Send a blood sample for a type and crossmatch. b. Insert a large intravenous line for fluid resuscitation. c. Obtain the heart rate and blood pressure. d. Assess and maintain a patent airway.

d. Assess and maintain a patent airway. All of the options are important nursing actions in the care of a trauma client. However, airway always comes first. The client must have a patent airway, or other interventions will not be helpful.

A nurse assesses a client with a mechanical bowel obstruction who reports intermittent abdominal pain. An hour later the client reports constant abdominal pain. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Administer intravenous opioid medications. b. Position the client with knees to chest. c. Insert a nasogastric tube for decompression. d. Assess the clients bowel sounds.

d. Assess the clients bowel sounds. A change in the nature and timing of abdominal pain in a client with a bowel obstruction can signal peritonitis or perforation. The nurse should immediately check for rebound tenderness and the absence of bowel sounds. The nurse should not medicate the client until the provider has been notified of the change in his or her condition. The nurse may help the client to the knee-chest position for comfort, but this is not the priority action. The nurse need not insert a nasogastric tube for decompression.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a pressure ulcer on the right ankle. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Draw blood for albumin, prealbumin, and total protein. b. Prepare for and assist with obtaining a wound culture. c. Place the client in bed and instruct the client to elevate the foot. d. Assess the right leg for pulses, skin color, and temperature.

d. Assess the right leg for pulses, skin color, and temperature. A client with an ulcer on the foot should be assessed for interruption in arterial flow to the area. This begins with the assessment of pulses and color and temperature of the skin. The nurse can also assess for pulses noninvasively with a Doppler flowmeter if unable to palpate with his or her fingers. Tests to determine nutritional status and risk assessment would be completed after the initial assessment is done. Wound cultures are done after it has been determined that drainage, odor, and other risks for infection are present. Elevation of the foot would impair the ability of arterial blood to flow to the area.

After teaching a client with diverticular disease, a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which menu selection made by the client indicates the client correctly understood the teaching? a. Roasted chicken with rice pilaf and a cup of coffee with cream b. Spaghetti with meat sauce, a fresh fruit cup, and hot tea c. Garden salad with a cup of bean soup and a glass of low-fat milk d. Baked fish with steamed carrots and a glass of apple juice

d. Baked fish with steamed carrots and a glass of apple juice Clients who have diverticular disease are prescribed a low-residue diet. Whole grains (rice pilaf), uncooked fruits and vegetables (salad, fresh fruit cup), and high-fiber foods (cup of bean soup) should be avoided with a low-residue diet. Canned or cooked vegetables are appropriate. Apple juice does not contain fiber and is acceptable for a low-residue diet.

A nurse cares for clients who have various skin infections. Which infection is paired with the correct pharmacologic treatment? a. Viral infection Clindamycin (Cleocin) b. Bacterial infection Acyclovir (Zovirax) c. Yeast infection Linezolid (Zyvox) d. Fungal infection Ketoconazole (Nizoral)

d. Fungal infection Ketoconazole (Nizoral) Ketoconazole is an antifungal. Clindamycin and linezolid are antibiotics. Acyclovir is an antiviral drug.

A nurse assesses bilateral wheezes in a client with burn injuries inside the mouth. Four hours later the wheezing is no longer heard. Which action should the nurse take? a. Document the findings and reassess in 1 hour. b. Loosen any constrictive dressings on the chest. c. Raise the head of the bed to a semi-Fowlers position. d. Gather appropriate equipment and prepare for an emergency airway.

d. Gather appropriate equipment and prepare for an emergency airway. Clients with severe inhalation injuries may sustain such progressive obstruction that they may lose effective movement of air. When this occurs, wheezing is no longer heard, and neither are breath sounds. These clients can lose their airways very quickly, so prompt action is needed. The client requires establishment of an emergency airway. Swelling usually precludes intubation. The other options do not address this emergency situation.

After teaching a client how to care for a furuncle in the axilla, a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement indicates the client correctly understands the teaching? a. Ill apply cortisone cream to reduce the inflammation. b. Ill apply a clean dressing after squeezing out the pus. c. Ill keep my arm down at my side to prevent spread. d. Ill cleanse the area prior to applying antibiotic cream.

d. Ill cleanse the area prior to applying antibiotic cream. Cleansing and topical antibiotics can eliminate the infection. Warm compresses enhance comfort and open the lesion, allowing better penetration of the topical antibiotic. Cortisone cream reduces the inflammatory response but increases the infectious process. Squeezing the lesion may introduce infection to deeper tissues and cause cellulitis. Keeping the arm down increases moisture in the area and promotes bacterial growth.

A client is scheduled for a total gastrectomy for gastric cancer. What preoperative laboratory result should the nurse report to the surgeon immediately? a. Albumin: 2.1 g/dL b. Hematocrit: 28% c. Hemoglobin: 8.1 mg/dL d. International normalized ratio (INR): 4.2

d. International normalized ratio (INR): 4.2 An INR as high as 4.2 poses a serious risk of bleeding during the operation and should be reported. The albumin is low and is an expected finding. The hematocrit and hemoglobin are also low, but this is expected in gastric cancer.

After hiatal hernia repair surgery, a client is on IV pantoprazole (Protonix). The client asks the nurse why this medication is given since there is no history of ulcers. What response by the nurse is best? a. Bacteria can often cause ulcers. b. This operation often causes ulcers. c. The medication keeps your blood pH low. d. It prevents stress-related ulcers.

d. It prevents stress-related ulcers. After surgery, anti-ulcer medications such as pantoprazole are often given to prevent stress-related ulcers. The other responses are incorrect.

A nurse is examining a client reporting right upper quadrant (RUQ) abdominal pain. What technique should the nurse use to assess this clients abdomen? a. Auscultate after palpating. b. Avoid any palpation. c. Palpate the RUQ first. d. Palpate the RUQ last.

d. Palpate the RUQ last. If pain is present in a certain area of the abdomen, that area should be palpated last to keep the client from tensing up, which could possibly affect the rest of the examination. Auscultation of the abdomen occurs prior to palpation.

A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). What action by the nurse is most important? a. Assessing blood glucose as directed b. Changing the IV dressing each day c. Checking the TPN with another nurse d. Performing appropriate hand hygiene

d. Performing appropriate hand hygiene Clients on TPN are at high risk for infection. The nurse performs appropriate hand hygiene as a priority intervention. Checking blood glucose is also an important measure, but preventing infection takes priority. The IV dressing is changed every 48 to 72 hours. TPN does not need to be double-checked with another nurse.

A nurse assesses a client who has burn injuries and notes crackles in bilateral lung bases, a respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min, and a productive cough with blood-tinged sputum. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Administer furosemide (Lasix). b. Perform chest physiotherapy. c. Document and reassess in an hour. d. Place the client in an upright position.

d. Place the client in an upright position. Pulmonary edema can result from fluid resuscitation given for burn treatment. This can occur even in a young healthy person. Placing the client in an upright position can relieve lung congestion immediately before other measures can be carried out. Although Lasix may be used to treat pulmonary edema in clients who are fluid overloaded, a client with a burn injury will lose a significant amount of fluid through the broken skin; therefore, Lasix would not be appropriate. Chest physiotherapy will not get rid of fluid.

A client presents to the family practice clinic reporting a week of watery, somewhat bloody diarrhea. The nurse assists the client to obtain a stool sample. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Ask the client about recent exposure to illness. b. Assess the clients stool for obvious food particles. c. Include the date and time on the specimen container. d. Put on gloves prior to collecting the sample.

d. Put on gloves prior to collecting the sample. To avoid possible exposure to infectious agents, the nurse dons gloves prior to handling any bodily secretions. Recent exposure to illness is not related to collecting a stool sample. The nurse can visually inspect the stool for food particles, but it still needs analysis in the laboratory. The container should be dated and timed, but safety for the staff and other clients comes first.

A nurse cares for a client who has food poisoning resulting from a Clostridium botulinum infection. Which assessment should the nurse complete first? a. Heart rate and rhythm b. Bowel sounds c. Urinary output d. Respiratory rate

d. Respiratory rate Severe infection with C. botulinum can lead to respiratory failure, so assessments of oxygen saturation and respiratory rate are of high priority for clients with suspected C. botulinum infection. The other assessments may be completed after the respiratory system has been assessed.

A client has returned to the nursing unit after an open Nissen fundoplication. The client has an indwelling urinary catheter, a nasogastric (NG) tube to low continuous suction, and two IVs. The nurse notes bright red blood in the NG tube. What action should the nurse take first? a. Document the findings in the chart. b. Notify the surgeon immediately. c. Reassess the drainage in 1 hour. d. Take a full set of vital signs.

d. Take a full set of vital signs. tube should initially be brown with old blood. The presence of bright red blood indicates bleeding. The nurse should take a set of vital signs to assess for shock and then notify the surgeon. Documentation should occur but is not the first thing the nurse should do. The nurse should not wait an additional hour to reassess.

A client asks the nurse about drugs for weight loss. What response by the nurse is best? a. All weight-loss drugs can cause suicidal ideation. b. No drugs are currently available for weight loss. c. Only over-the-counter medications are available. d. There are three drugs currently approved for this.

d. There are three drugs currently approved for this. There are three drugs available by prescription for weight loss, including orlistat (Xenical), lorcaserin (Belviq), and phentermine-topiramate (Qsymia). Suicidal thoughts are possible with lorcaserin and phentermine- topiramate. Orlistat is also available in a reduced-dose over-the-counter formulation.

A nurse is weighing and measuring a client with severe kyphosis. What is the best method to obtain this clients height? a. Add the trunk and leg measurements. b. Ask the client how tall he or she is. c. Estimate by measuring clothing. d. Use knee-height calipers.

d. Use knee-height calipers. A sliding blade knee-height caliper is used to obtain the height of a client who cannot stand upright, such as those with kyphosis or lower extremity contractures. The other methods will not yield accurate data.

The registered nurse assigns a client who has an open burn wound to a licensed practical nurse (LPN). Which instruction should the nurse provide to the LPN when assigning this client? a. Administer the prescribed tetanus toxoid vaccine. b. Assess the clients wounds for signs of infection. c. Encourage the client to breathe deeply every hour. d. Wash your hands on entering the clients room.

d. Wash your hands on entering the clients room. Infection can occur when microorganisms from another person or from the environment are transferred to the client. Although all of the interventions listed can help reduce the risk for infection, handwashing is the most effective technique for preventing infection transmission.

A nurse assesses a client who has multiple areas of ecchymosis on both arms. Which question should the nurse ask first? a. Are you using lotion on your skin? b. Do you have a family history of this? c. Do your arms itch? d. What medications are you taking?

d. What medications are you taking? Certain drugs such as aspirin, warfarin, and corticosteroids can lead to easy or excessive bruising, which can result in ecchymosis. The other options would not provide information about bruising.

A nurse cares for a client who has burn injuries. The clients wife asks, When will his high risk for infection decrease? How should the nurse respond? a. When the antibiotic therapy is complete. b. As soon as his albumin levels return to normal. c. Once we complete the fluid resuscitation process. d. When all of his burn wounds have closed.

d. When all of his burn wounds have closed. Intact skin is a major barrier to infection and other disruptions in homeostasis. No matter how much time has passed since the burn injury, the client remains at high risk for infection as long as any area of skin is open. Although the other options are important goals in the clients recovery process, they are not as important as skin closure to decrease the clients risk for infection.

A client is being taught about drug therapy for Helicobacter pylori infection. What assessment by the nurse is most important? a. Alcohol intake of 1 to 2 drinks per week b. Family history of H. pylori infection c. Former smoker still using nicotine patches d. Willingness to adhere to drug therapy

d. Willingness to adhere to drug therapy Treatment for this infection involves either triple or quadruple drug therapy, which may make it difficult for clients to remain adherent. The nurse should assess the clients willingness and ability to follow the regimen. The other assessment findings are not as critical.

A female client hospitalized for an unrelated problem has a large pearly-white lesion on her lip, to which she continues to apply lipstick that she will not remove for inspection. The client refuses to discuss the lesion with the nurse or health care provider. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask the client why her appearance is so important. b. Ignore the lesion since the client will not discuss it. c. Inform the client that early-stage cancer is curable. d. Work with the client to establish a trusting relationship.

d. Work with the client to establish a trusting relationship. Clients with oral cancers often have body image difficulties due to the location of the tumor or the results of surgical treatment. This client appears to be using denial to cope with this problem. The nurse should work to establish a helping-trusting relationship in hopes that the client will be amenable to future discussions about the lesion. Asking why questions often puts people on the defensive and should be avoided. Ignoring the lesion is not being an advocate for the client. Education is important, but right now the client is in denial, so this information will not seem relevant to her.

A nurse cares for a client who has a family history of colon cancer. The client states, My father and my brother had colon cancer. What is the chance that I will get cancer? How should the nurse respond? a. If you eat a low-fat and low-fiber diet, your chances decrease significantly. b. You are safe. This is an autosomal dominant disorder that skips generations. c. Preemptive surgery and chemotherapy will remove cancer cells and prevent cancer. d. You should have a colonoscopy more frequently to identify abnormal polyps early.

d. You should have a colonoscopy more frequently to identify abnormal polyps early. The nurse should encourage the client to have frequent colonoscopies to identify abnormal polyps and cancerous cells early. The abnormal gene associated with colon cancer is an autosomal dominant gene mutation that does not skip a generation and places the client at high risk for cancer. Changing the clients diet, preemptive chemotherapy, and removal of polyps will decrease the clients risk but will not prevent cancer. However, a client at risk for colon cancer should eat a low-fat and high-fiber diet.