Med Surg HESI

A patient is admitted to the hospital with symptoms consistent with a right hemisphere stroke. Which neurovascular assessment requires immediate intervention by the nurse? A. Pupillary changes to ipsilateral dilation. B. Left-sided facial drooping and dysphagia. C. Orientation to person and place only. D. Unequal bilateral hand grip strengths.

A. Pupillary changes to ipsilateral dilation. Explanation Choice A reason: Pupillary changes to ipsilateral dilation indicate increased intracranial pressure, which is a life-threatening complication of stroke. The nurse should notify the physician and prepare for emergency measures.

During a follow-up clinic visit, a mother tells the nurse that her 5-month-old son who had surgical correction for tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) has rapid breathing, often takes a long time to eat, and requires frequent rest periods. The infant is not crying while being held and his growth is in the expected range. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Auscultate heart and lungs while the infant is held. Rationale: Auscultating heart and lungs while the infant is held is the first intervention that the nurse should implement. This is a simple and noninvasive way to assess the infant's respiratory and cardiac status. The nurse can listen for any abnormal sounds, such as crackles, wheezes, or murmurs, that may indicate a problem. The nurse can also monitor the infant's heart rate and oxygen saturation. Holding the infant can provide comfort and security to the infant and the mother.

The nurse is caring for a client who had a cholecystectomy two days ago. The client is febrile, reporting upper abdominal pain radiating to the back and has had three episodes of vomiting in the last 8 hours. The nurse reviews the client's serum amylase and lipase level results which are twice the normal value. Based on these findings, the nurse should recognize the client is exhibiting symptoms of which condition? A. Hepatorenal failure. B. Acute pancreatitis. C. Surgical site infection. D. Biliary duct obstruction.

B. Acute pancreatitis. Explanation Choice B reason: This is correct because acute pancreatitis is an inflammation of the pancreas that can be caused by gallstones, alcohol abuse, trauma, infection, or drugs. The symptoms of acute pancreatitis may include fever, upper abdominal pain that radiates to the back, nausea, vomiting, and elevated amylase and lipase levels. These are consistent with the client's presentation and suggest that the cholecystectomy may have triggered an attack of acute pancreatitis.

A client with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) calls the clinic to report difficulty wearing the continuous positive air pressure (CPAP) mask because it is uncomfortable. The client asks the nurse for an alternative way to manage sleep apnea. Which recommendation should the nurse provide? A. Sleep with the head ofthe bed flat. B. Take sedatives prior to sleep. C. Begin a weight loss program. D. Drink 1to 2 glasses of wine at bedtime.

C. Begin a weight loss program. Explanation Choice C reason: This is correct because beginning a weight loss program can help reduce OSA by decreasing fat deposits around the neck and chest that can compress and narrow the airway.

A client presents with the onset of a severe headache, fever, nuchal rigidity, and a petechial rash on arms and legs. The nurse recognizes the client is exhibiting symptoms of which condition? A. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. B. Intracerebral hemorrhage. C. Cerebrovascular accident (CVA). D. Meningococcal meningitis.

D. Meningococcal meningitis. Explanation Choice D reason: Meningococcal meningitis is the most likely condition for the client who has a severe headache, fever, nuchal rigidity, and a petechial rash on arms and legs. Meningococcal meningitis is a bacterial infection that causes inflammation of the membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord. The rash is a characteristic sign of meningococcal meningitis, which can appear as small red or purple spots that do not fade when pressed. The client may also have other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, sensitivity to light, confusion, and seizures.

A 9-month-old with Tay-Sachs disease is admitted due to seizures. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Exaggerated startle reaction Rationale: The exaggerated startle reaction is the most important assessment for the nurse to obtain. Tay-Sachs disease causes increased sensitivity to sound and touch, which results in an exaggerated startle reaction. This is a specific sign of the disease and indicates the severity of the condition. The exaggerated startle reaction may also trigger seizures, which can be life-threatening. The nurse should monitor the infant's vital signs, seizure activity, and neurological status closely.

A client who had a biliopancreatic diversion procedure (BPD) 3 months ago is admitted with severe dehydration. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse? A. Gastroccult positive emesis. B. Strong foul smelling flatus. C. Complaint of poor night vision. D. Loose bowel movements.

A. Gastroccult positive emesis. Explanation Choice A reason: Gastroccult positive emesis indicates the presence of blood in the vomit, which is a sign of a serious complication such as anastomotic leak, ulcer, or bleeding. The nurse should notify the physician and monitor the client's vital signs and hemoglobin level.

A 70-year-old female presents to the emergency department through triage with a noticeable facial droop and garbled speech. After having a few drinks at a local seafood restaurant, the client's husband noticed his wife's speech became difficult to understand. Flow sheets 1915 Arrival at emergency department 1920 Vital Signs: - Temperature: 98.2° F (36.8° C) - Heart rate: 92 beats/minute - Respirations: 24 breaths/minute - Blood pressure: 210/98 mmHg - Oxygen saturation: 95% on room air Imaging studies 1935 Head CT scan results: - No evidence of intracranial hemorrhage - No evidence of acute disease Orders - Obtain CT scan of the head. - Insert a large bore peripheral IV. - Start normal saline infusion at 50 mL/hour. The nurse administered tPA and conducted neurologic assessments every 15 minutes during the infusion. The tPA infusion finished and the nurse performed neurologic assessments every 30 minutes for the

A. Occupational Therapist B. Speech Therapist C. Case manager D. Physical therapist Explanation Choice A: Occupational therapist. This is correct because an occupational therapist can help the client with activities of daily living (ADLs) such as dressing, grooming, eating, and toileting. The client may have difficulty performing these tasks due to the facial droop and weakness caused by the stroke. - Choice B: Speech therapist. This is correct because a speech therapist can help the client with communication and swallowing problems. The client has garbled speech, which indicates a possible aphasia or dysarthria. The client may also have dysphagia, which is difficulty swallowing, due to the impaired coordination of the muscles involved in swallowing. - Choice C: Case manager. This is correct because a case manager can coordinate the client's care and discharge planning. The case manager can arrange for referrals, home health services, equipment, and follow-up appointments as needed. The case manager can also provide education and support to the client and family. - Choice D: Physical therapist. This is correct because a physical therapist can help the client with mobility and balance issues. The client may have hemiparesis or hemiplegia, which is weakness or paralysis of one side of the body. The physical therapist can assist the client with exercises, gait training, and assistive devices to improve the client's functional status.

While completing a health assessment for a young adult female with acute appendicitis, the client informs the nurse that there is a chance that she may be pregnant. The operating team is preparing to take the client to surgery. Which intervention should the nurse implement immediately? A. Perform a bedside pregnancy test. B. Continue with surgery as scheduled. C. Calculate gestation from last menstrual cycle. D. Notify the surgical team to cancel the surgery.

A. Perform a bedside pregnancy test. Explanation Choice A reason: This is correct because performing a bedside pregnancy test is the intervention that should be implemented immediately by the nurse. This is to confirm or rule out pregnancy and inform the surgical team of any possible risks or complications that may affect the client or the fetus.

On the third postoperative day, a client who has had a hip replacement surgery becomes anxious and diaphoretic, and begins to experience auditory hallucinations. The client denies having any pain. The client's vital signs are pulse rate 125 beats/minute, respiratory rate 36 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 166/88 mm Hg. Which nursing intervention(s) should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.) A. Present a calm, supportive demeanor. B. Reorient to day and time frequently. C. Administer an as needed (PRN) dose of lorazepam. D. Turn the television on for distraction. E. Apply soft wrist restraints bilaterally.

A. Present a calm, supportive demeanor. B. Reorient to day and time frequently. C. Administer an as needed (PRN) dose of lorazepam. Explanation Choice A reason: Presenting a calm, supportive demeanor is an appropriate intervention for a client who is experiencing anxiety and hallucinations. The nurse should use a soothing tone of voice, maintain eye contact, and avoid arguing or challenging the client's perceptions. This can help reduce the client's agitation and promote trust. Choice B reason: Reorienting to day and time frequently is an appropriate intervention for a client who is experiencing anxiety and hallucinations. The nurse should provide reality-based information and reminders about the client's situation, such as the reason for hospitalization, the name of the nurse, and the expected plan of care. This can help the client regain a sense of orientation and control. Choice C reason: Administering an as needed (PRN) dose of lorazepam is an appropriate intervention for a client who is experiencing anxiety and hallucinations. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that can reduce anxiety, agitation, and psychotic symptoms by enhancing the effects of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs, level of sedation, and risk of falls after giving the medication.

A client with gouty arthritis reports tenderness and swelling of the right ankle and great toe. The nurse observes the area of inflammation extends above the ankle area. The client receives prescriptions for colchicine and indomethacin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching? A. Return for periodic liver function studies. B. Massage joints to relax muscles and decrease pain. C. Limit use of mobility equipment to avoid muscle atrophy. D. Substitute natural fruit juices for carbonated drinks.

A. Return for periodic liver function studies. Explanation Choice A reason: Returning for periodic liver function studies is an important instruction for a client with gouty arthritis who is taking colchicine and indomethacin. These medications can cause liver toxicity, which can manifest as jaundice, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and dark urine. The nurse should advise the client to monitor for these signs and symptoms, and to have regular blood tests to check the liver enzymes and function.

A client with acute renal injury (AKI) weighs 110.3 pounds (50 kg) and has a potassium level of 6.7 mEq/L (6.7 mmol/L) is admitted to the hospital. Which prescribed medication should the nurse administer first? Reference Range: Potassium [3.5 to 5 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mmol/L)] A. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate 15 grams by mouth. B. Sevelamer one tablet by mouth. C. Calcium acetate one tablet by mouth. D. Epoetin alfa, recombinant 2,500 units subcutaneously. E. Calcium acetate one tablet by mouth.

A. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate 15 grams by mouth. Explanation Choice A reason: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is a medication that binds to excess potassium in the gastrointestinal tract and removes it from the body through feces. It is used to treat hyperkalemia, which is a high level of potassium in the blood. Hyperkalemia can cause cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness, and it is a common complication of AKI. Therefore, this medication should be administered first to lower the potassium level and prevent life-threatening complications.

A client with a closed head injury demonstrates signs of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which additional finding should the nurse expect to obtain? A. Weight gain of 2 pounds (0.91 kg) in one day. B. Fremitus over the chest wall. C. Serum sodium of 150 mEq/L (150 mmol/L). D. Urine specific gravity of 1.004.

A. Weight gain of 2 pounds (0.91 kg) in one day. Explanation Choice A reason: Weight gain of 2 pounds (0.91 kg) in one day is a sign of fluid retention, which occurs in SIADH due to excessive secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH causes the kidneys to reabsorb water and reduce urine output, leading to hyponatremia and hypervolemia.

The nurse is caring for a client with chemotherapy-induced mucositis who is describing soreness of the tongue and oral issues. Which is the best initial nursing action?

Administer a topical analgesic per protocol. Administering a topical analgesic per protocol is the best initial nursing action, as it can provide immediate relief and comfort to the client. Topical analgesics can numb the nerve endings and reduce the sensation of pain in the tongue and mouth. The client should follow the health care provider's instructions on how to apply the analgesic, and avoid eating or drinking for at least 30 minutes after the application.

The nurse is assessing the lung sounds of a preschooler. Which action should the nurse implement to ensure the child's cooperation?

Allow the child to use a stethoscope on a stuffed animal. Rationale: Allowing the child to use a stethoscope on a stuffed animal is a good strategy to ensure the child's cooperation. This activity helps the child to understand the purpose of the stethoscope and reduces the fear of the unfamiliar device. It also allows the nurse to observe the child's breathing pattern and chest movement.

The nurse is caring for a client with chemotherapy-induced mucositis who is describing soreness of the tongue and oral issues. Which is the best initial nursing action? A. Obtain a soft diet for the client. B. Encourage frequent mouth care. C. Cleanse the tongue and mouth with swabs. D. Administer a topical analgesic per protocol.

B. Encourage frequent mouth care. Explanation Choice B reason: Encouraging frequent mouth care is the best initial nursing action for a client with chemotherapy-induced mucositis who is describing soreness of the tongue and oral issues. Frequent mouth care can help prevent or reduce the severity of mucositis by removing plaque, bacteria, and debris from the oral cavity, and by moisturizing and soothing the oral tissues. The nurse should instruct the client to use a soft toothbrush, a mild toothpaste, and a saline or bicarbonate rinse at least four times a day, and to avoid alcohol, tobacco, spicy, acidic, or hot foods and beverages.

A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/mm³ (20%). The client asks the nurse why they have these recurring massive infections. Which pathophysiological mechanism should the nurse describe in response to this client's question? Reference Range: T-helper CD4 cells [600 to 1500 cells/mm³ (60 to 75%)] A. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result. B. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages. C. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms. D. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.

B. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages. Explanation Choice B reason: The cellular immune response is mediated by T lymphocytes that activate other immune cells, such as macrophages, to destroy infected or abnormal cells. This response is the main problem in AIDS, because HIV infects and destroys CD4+ T cells, which are essential for coordinating the cellular immunity. As a result, the client becomes susceptible to opportunistic infections, such as Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. Therefore, this choice is correct.

A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/mm³ (20%). The client asks the nurse why they have these recurring massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to this client's question? Reference Range: T-helper CD4 cells [600 to 1500 cells/mm³ (60 to 75%)] A. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result. B. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages. C. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms. D. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.

B. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages. Explanation Choice B reason: This is correct because AIDS is caused by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which infects and destroys CD4+ T cells, also known as helper T cells. These cells are essential for initiating and regulating both humoral and cellular immunity. Without enough CD4+ T cells, the body cannot mount an effective response against pathogens, especially opportunistic infections that take advantage of a weakened immune system.

A client with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) calls the clinic to report difficulty wearing the continuous positive air pressure (CPAP) mask because it is uncomfortable. The client asks the nurse for an alternative way to manage sleep apnea. Which recommendation should the nurse provide?

Begin a weight loss program. Rationale: Beginning a weight loss program can help reduce the severity of OSA, which is a condition that causes repeated episodes of breathing cessation during sleep due to upper airway obstruction. Excess weight can contribute to OSA by increasing the fat deposits around the neck and throat, which can narrow the airway and make it more prone to collapse. Losing weight can help improve the airflow and reduce the need for CPAP therapy.

A patient experiences residual effects following an acute attack of Ménière's disease and receives a new prescription for an antihistamine. Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is effective? A. Headache rated at 0 on 0 to 10 scale. B. Oxygen saturation level of 99%. C. Ambulates easily without vertigo. D. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg.

C. Ambulates easily without vertigo. Explanation Choice C: Ambulating easily without vertigo is a sign that the antihistamine is effective. Vertigo is a common symptom of Ménière's disease, which is a disorder of the inner ear that causes episodes of spinning sensation, hearing loss, and tinnitus. Antihistamines can help reduce the fluid buildup in the inner ear and relieve vertigo.

After performing a head-to-toe assessment for a client with Addison's disease, the nurse reports findings to the healthcare provider. The findings include moist mucous membranes, strong palpable peripheral pulses, and blood pressure 132/88 mm Hg. The client verbalizes understanding of the illness and importance of taking medications every day. Which action should the nurse implement? A. Make a referral for social services at home. B. Continue to limit daily fluid intake to 500 mL. C. Begin preparing the client for discharge home. D. Recommend strict intake and output monitoring.

C. Begin preparing the client for discharge home. Explanation Choice C reason: Preparing the client for discharge home is the best action for the nurse to implement, as the client has no signs of complications or deterioration from Addison's disease. The client should be able to manage the condition at home with regular follow-up and medication adherence.

A client who received 6 units of packed red blood cells 3 days ago for a lower gastrointestinal (GI) bleed is now displaying signs of shortness of breath with occasional stridor and is reporting muscle cramping. Reference Range: Potassium [3.5 to 5 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mmol/L)] Magnesium [Adult: 1.3 to 2.1 mEq/L (0.65 to 1.05 mmol/L)] Calcium [9 to 10.5 mg/dL (2.3 to 2.6 mmol/L)] Sodium (136 to 145 mEq/L (136 to 145 mmol/L)] Which serum laboratory value should the nurse immediately report to the healthcare provider? A. Potassium 4.7 mEq/L (4.70 mmol/L). B. Magnesium 2.1 mEq/L (0.86 mmol/L). C. Calcium 6.5 mg/dL (1.63 mmol/L). D. Sodium 135 mEq/L (135 mmol/L).

C. Calcium 6.5 mg/dL (1.63 mmol/L). Explanation Choice C reason: Calcium 6.5 mg/dL (1.63 mmol/L) is below the normal reference range of 9 to 10.5 mg/dL (2.3 to 2.6 mmol/L). Calcium is an electrolyte that helps regulate the function of muscles, nerves, bones, and blood clotting. A high calcium level (hypercalcemia) can cause nausea, vomiting, constipation, confusion, kidney stones, and bone pain. A low calcium level (hypocalcemia) can cause muscle spasms, cramps, tingling, numbness, and stridor (a high-pitched sound when breathing). **This is a critical value that should be immediately reported to the healthcare provider**, as it can indicate a serious condition such as acute pancreatitis, sepsis, or massive blood transfusion.

Following a motor vehicle accident, a client with chest trauma receives a chest tube to relieve a hemothorax. Two hours following the chest tube insertion, the nurse observes the water level in the water-seal chamber is rising during inspiration and falling during expiration. Which action should the nurse implement? A. Lift and clear drainage from the chest tube. B. Inspect the tube insertion site for leaking. C. Continue to monitor the drainage system. D. Auscultate lungs for unequal breath sounds.

C. Continue to monitor the drainage system. Explanation Choice C reason: Continuing to monitor the drainage system is the best action for the nurse to implement, as the water level fluctuations are normal and expected in a water-seal drainage system. The water level should rise during inspiration and fall during expiration, reflecting the changes in intrathoracic pressure.

After initiating a steroid nebulizer treatment for a client with asthma in respiratory distress, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? A. Monitor pulse oximetry every 2 hours. B. Teach proper use of a rescue inhaler. C. Elevate the head of bed to 90 degrees. D. Determine exposure to asthmatic triggers.

C. Elevate the head of bed to 90 degrees. Explanation Choice C reason: This is correct because elevating the head of bed to 90 degrees is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Elevating the head of bed to 90 degrees can help improve breathing and oxygenation by reducing pressure on the diaphragm and chest wall, increasing lung expansion and ventilation, and facilitating expectoration of mucus. This can enhance the effects of nebulizer treatment and reduce respiratory distress in a client with asthma.

A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease is to begin hemodialysis treatment. Which statement should the nurse include in client education? A. Prepare for an abdominal catheter. B. Continue routine medications. C. Expect the insulin dosage to be reduced. D. Include potassium-rich foods in the diet.

C. Expect the insulin dosage to be reduced. Explanation Choice C reason: Insulin dosage may need to be reduced during hemodialysis because insulin is removed by the dialyzer and blood glucose levels may drop. This is the correct statement to include in client education.

The nurse is caring for a client who had an appendectomy 4 hours ago. Which finding requires immediate action by the nurse? A. Redness and edema noted at the incision site. B. Apical heart rate of 100 to 110 beats/minute. C. High-pitched sound heard upon inspiration. D. Pain rating of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10.

C. High-pitched sound heard upon inspiration. Explanation Choice C reason: High-pitched sound heard upon inspiration is a sign of stridor, which is a life-threatening emergency that indicates airway obstruction. The nurse should call for help, administer oxygen, and prepare for intubation or tracheostomy.

Which admission assessment findings should the nurse document related to a client who has been diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome?

Central-type obesity, with thin extremities. Rationale: Central-type obesity, with thin extremities, is a common feature of Cushing's syndrome, which is caused by excess cortisol production or exposure. Cortisol causes fat redistribution to the trunk, face, and back of the neck, while causing muscle wasting and weakness in the arms and legs.

Five months following treatment for Herpes zoster (shingles), an older adult client tells the home health nurse of continuing to experience pain where the rash occurred. Which action should the nurse implement? A. Perform a complete mental status exam. B. Determine if the client has had a shingles vaccination. C. Teach the client about phantom pain symptoms. D. Complete an assessment of the client's pain.

D. Complete an assessment of the client's pain. Explanation Choice D reason: This is correct because completing an assessment of the client's pain is the most important action for the nurse to implement. Pain assessment involves collecting information about the location, intensity, quality, duration, frequency, and aggravating or relieving factors of the pain, as well as its impact on the client's daily activities and quality of life. This can help the nurse identify the cause and severity of the pain, as well as plan and evaluate appropriate interventions.

A client asks the nurse for information about how to reduce risk factors for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which information should the nurse provide? A. Consume a high protein diet. B. Obtain a prostate-specific antigen blood level test. C. Take vitamin supplements. D. Increase physical activity.

D. Increase physical activity. Explanation Choice D reason: This is correct because increasing physical activity is a helpful way to reduce risk factors for BPH. Physical activity can help maintain a healthy weight, lower blood pressure, improve blood circulation, reduce inflammation, and regulate hormone levels. All of these factors can contribute to preventing or delaying the development of BPH.

A client is hospitalized with an inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) exacerbation and is being treated with a corticosteroid. The client develops a rigid abdomen with rebound tenderness. Which action should the nurse take? A. Measure capillary glucose level. B. Encourage ambulation in the room. C. Monitor for bloody diarrheal stools. D. Obtain vital sign measurements.

D. Obtain vital sign measurements. Explanation Choice D reason: Obtaining vital sign measurements is the priority action for a client with a rigid abdomen and rebound tenderness. These signs indicate peritonitis, which is a serious complication of IBD that requires immediate attention. Vital signs can reveal signs of infection, inflammation, shock, and organ failure, which can guide the appropriate interventions and treatments.

A client has an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of 500/mm³ (0.5 x 10⁹/L) after completing chemotherapy. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? Reference Range: Neutrophils (ANC) [2500 to 5800/mm³ (2.5 to 5.8 x 10⁹/L)] A. Review need for pneumococcal vaccine. B. Implement bleeding precautions. C. Assess vital signs every 4 hours. D. Place the client in protective isolation.E. Assess vital signs every 4 hours. E. Assess vital signs every 4 hours.

D. Place the client in protective isolation.E. Assess vital signs every 4 hours. Explanation Choice D reason: This is correct because placing the client in protective isolation is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Protective isolation, also known as reverse isolation or neutropenic precautions, is a set of measures that aim to protect the client from exposure to pathogens that may cause infections. These include wearing gloves, masks, gowns, and eye protection; using sterile equipment and techniques; avoiding contact with people who are sick or have infections; and restricting visitors and fresh flowers or fruits.

The nurse is preparing an older client for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with contrast. Which laboratory value should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before the scan is performed? Reference Range: Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C) [4% to 5.9%] Creatinine [0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL (44 to 97 umol/L)] Glucose [74 to 106 mg/dL (4.1 to 5.9 mmol/L)] Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) [10 to 20 mg/dL (3.6 to 7.1 mmol/L)] A. Fasting blood sugar of 200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L). B. Glycosylated hemoglobin A1c of 8%. C. Blood urea nitrogen of 22 mg/dL (7.9 mmol/L). D. Serum creatinine of 1.9 mg/dL (169 umol/L).

D. Serum creatinine of 1.9 mg/dL (169 umol/L) Explanation Choice D reason: Serum creatinine of 1.9 mg/dL (169 umol/L) indicates moderate renal insufficiency, which is a reduced ability of the kidneys to filter and excrete waste products and fluids from the body. It can be caused by diabetes mellitus, hypertension, glomerulonephritis, or nephrotoxic drugs. Renal insufficiency can cause symptoms such as edema, anemia, electrolyte imbalance, and acidosis. It can also increase the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy, which is a sudden deterioration of kidney function after exposure to contrast media used for imaging studies such as MRI. Contrast-induced nephropathy can lead to acute kidney injury, dialysis requirement, or even death. Therefore, serum creatinine should be reported to the healthcare provider before MRI with contrast to assess the risk and benefit of the procedure and to take preventive measures such as hydration, medication adjustment, or alternative imaging modalities.

An older adult client with symptoms of osteoarthritis asks the nurse which form of exercise would be most beneficial. Which is the best response by the nurse? A. Jogging or running are excellent aerobic exercises. B. Tennis or racquetball will increase your muscle strength. C. Limit your exercise to just your daily activities. D. Swimming is an excellent exercise for you.

D. Swimming is an excellent exercise for you. Explanation Choice D reason: Swimming is an excellent exercise for an older adult client with osteoarthritis. Swimming is a low-impact aerobic exercise that can strengthen the muscles, improve the cardiovascular fitness, and enhance the flexibility of the joints without putting too much pressure or stress on them. Swimming can also reduce the pain and stiffness of osteoarthritis by providing a soothing and relaxing effect on the body. The nurse should recommend swimming as a safe and effective exercise for the client.

An older client with cirrhosis of the liver and hepatic failure is placed on a low sodium diet and is receiving periodic albumin infusions. Which assessment finding indicates progress toward the desired effect of this treatment plan?

Decreased abdominal girth. Decreased abdominal girth is the most specific assessment finding that indicates progress toward the desired effect of this treatment plan, because it reflects the reduction of ascites, which is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, due to portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia, common features of cirrhosis and hepatic failure. The low sodium diet and the albumin infusions are interventions that can help to decrease the fluid retention and increase the oncotic pressure, which can draw the fluid back into the blood vessels and reduce the ascites. The nurse should measure the client's abdominal girth daily, using a tape measure at the level of the umbilicus, and record the results. The nurse should also monitor the client's weight, edema, and abdominal discomfort, and report any signs of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, such as fever, abdominal pain, or leukocytosis, to the doctor.

An older client who experienced a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) has difficulty with visual perception and eats only half of the food on the meal tray. The client's family expresses concern about the client's nutritional status. How should the nurse respond to the family's concern?

Demonstrate the use of visual scanning during meals to the client and family. Rationale: Demonstrating the use of visual scanning during meals can help the client overcome the difficulty with visual perception, which is a common problem after a CVA. Visual perception is the ability to interpret and process the information received from the eyes. A CVA can damage the parts of the brain that are responsible for visual perception, causing impairments such as hemianopia, neglect, or agnosia. Visual scanning is a technique that involves moving the eyes or the head from side to side to scan the entire visual field and compensate for the missing or distorted information. Visual scanning can help the client see all the food on the tray and eat more adequately.

The nurse is preparing to administer medications for an eight-month-old infant with heart failure. The infant has a blood pressure of 114/66 mm Hg, apical pulse of 88 beats/minute, and respirations of 30 breaths/minute. Which medication should the nurse withhold until the health care provider is notified?

Digoxin Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that is used to treat heart failure and arrhythmias in infants. It increases the contractility of the heart and slows down the heart rate. Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic range and can cause toxicity if the dose is too high or the infant is dehydrated. Digoxin should be withheld if the infant's apical pulse is less than 90 beats/minute, which is the case in this scenario. The nurse should notify the health care provider and monitor the infant for signs of digoxin toxicity, such as nausea, vomiting, bradycardia, and visual disturbances.

The nurse prepares a teaching plan for an adult client with metabolic syndrome. Which finding(s) should the nurse address to help the client reduce the risk for diabetes mellitus and vascular disease? (Select all that apply.) A. Abdominal obesity. B. Blood pressure of 150/96 mm Hg. C. Elevated high density lipoproteins. D. Increased triglyceride levels. E. Hyperglycemia. F. Hypothyroidism.

Explanation Choice A reason: This is correct because abdominal obesity, also known as central obesity or visceral fat, is one of the criteria for diagnosing metabolic syndrome and a major risk factor for diabetes mellitus and vascular disease. Abdominal obesity is defined as having a waist circumference of more than 40 inches (102 cm) for men or 35 inches (88 cm) for women. Abdominal obesity can increase insulin resistance, inflammation, and blood pressure, which can lead to impaired glucose metabolism and cardiovascular complications. Choice B reason: This is correct because blood pressure of 150/96 mm Hg is another criterion for diagnosing metabolic syndrome and a significant risk factor for diabetes mellitus and vascular disease. Blood pressure is defined as the force exerted by blood against the walls of blood vessels. Normal blood pressure is less than 120/80 mm Hg, while high blood pressure (hypertension) is 140/90 mm Hg or higher. High blood pressure can damage the blood vessels and organs, such as the heart, kidneys, eyes, and brain, and increase the risk of heart attack, stroke, kidney failure, and vision loss. Choice D reason: This is correct because increased triglyceride levels are another criterion for diagnosing metabolic syndrome and a risk factor for diabetes mellitus and vascular disease. Triglycerides are a type of fat that circulates in the blood and provides energy to cells. Normal triglyceride levels are less than 150 mg/dL (1.7 mmol/L), while high triglyceride levels are 200 mg/dL (2.3 mmol/L) or higher. High triglyceride levels can increase insulin resistance, inflammation, and blood clotting, which can impair glucose metabolism and increase the risk of heart attack and stroke. Choice E reason: This is correct because hyperglycemia, also known as high blood sugar, is another criterion for diagnos

The nurse calls the healthcare provider because a client diagnosed with an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is reporting of low back pain. Which additional information about the client would be important for the nurse to tell the healthcare provider?

Hematocrit and blood pressure. Rationale: Hematocrit and blood pressure are the most important information about the client that the nurse should tell the healthcare provider, because they are directly related to the AAA and the low back pain. Hematocrit is a measure of the percentage of red blood cells in the blood, and it may be decreased in cases of bleeding or anemia, which can occur if the AAA ruptures or leaks. Blood pressure is a measure of the force of the blood against the walls of the arteries, and it may be increased in cases of hypertension or stress, which can worsen the AAA or cause it to rupture. The nurse should monitor the client's hematocrit and blood pressure closely and report any changes to the healthcare provider.

A client is admitted to the medical unit during an exacerbation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). It is most important to report which assessment finding to the health care provider?

Hematuria Rationale: Hematuria is the presence of blood in the urine, which can indicate kidney damage or failure. Kidney involvement is one of the most serious complications of SLE, which can lead to end-stage renal disease and require dialysis or transplantation. Hematuria is a critical finding that requires prompt intervention and treatment from the health care provider.

The nurse is caring for a client who had an appendectomy 4 hours ago. Which finding requires immediate action by the nurse?

High-pitched sound heard upon inspiration. Rationale: A high-pitched sound heard upon inspiration, also known as stridor, is a sign of upper airway obstruction, which can be life-threatening. This finding requires immediate action by the nurse, such as administering oxygen, suctioning, or calling for help.

A 9-year-old boy is diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM). Which stage of Erikson's theory of psychosocial development is the nurse addressing when teaching this client about insulin injections?

Industry Rationale: Industry is the stage of Erikson's theory of psychosocial development that the nurse is addressing when teaching this client about insulin injections. Industry is the stage that occurs from 6 to 11 years of age, when the child develops a sense of competence and achievement. The conflict in this stage is between industry and inferiority. The nurse may address this stage when teaching the client about how to manage their diabetes and how to acquire the skills and knowledge needed for self-care and health promotion.

A client admitted to the emergency department with an acute exacerbation of peptic ulcer disease is vomiting and describing epigastric pain and nausea. After obtaining vital sign measurements, which prescription should the nurse implement first?

Insert a nasogastric tube (NGT) and attach to low intermittent suction. Rationale: Inserting a nasogastric tube (NGT) and attaching to low intermittent suction is the priority intervention for a client with peptic ulcer disease who is vomiting and experiencing epigastric pain and nausea. This can help decompress the stomach, remove gastric contents, prevent further bleeding, and relieve the symptoms. The NGT should be inserted carefully and checked for proper placement before suctioning.

The nurse is providing discharge instructions to the caregiver of an infant with recurrent otitis media. Which statement made by the caregiver should the nurse recognize as needing additional education about minimizing subsequent infections?

Instill benzocaine otic drops regularly. Rationale: Instilling benzocaine otic drops regularly is not a recommended practice for preventing or treating otitis media. Benzocaine is a topical anesthetic that can temporarily relieve ear pain, but it does not address the underlying cause of the infection. Moreover, benzocaine can cause allergic reactions, skin irritation, or methemoglobinemia, a condition that reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. The nurse should instruct the caregiver to avoid using benzocaine otic drops unless prescribed by a health care provider.

The parents of a child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) are learning to care for their child at home. Which statement made by the parents should the nurse recognize as correct monitoring for early signs of an infection in the child?

Notify for a temporal temperature greater than 100° F (37.8° C). Rationale: Notifying for a temporal temperature greater than 100° F (37.8° C) is a correct monitoring for early signs of an infection in the child. Temporal temperature is a noninvasive and convenient method of measuring body temperature, using an infrared scanner that detects the heat emitted by the temporal artery on the forehead. Temporal temperature is comparable to the core body temperature and can reflect changes in body temperature quickly. A child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia who has a temporal temperature greater than 100° F (37.8° C) may have an infection and should be reported to the health care provider immediately.

A preschool-aged child who is experiencing respiratory distress is brought to the emergency department by the parents. The child is anxious, has a temperature of 102.8° F (39.3° C), and is drooling from the mouth while leaning forward when sitting. Which action should the nurse prepare the child for next?

Obtain bedside trays for intubation or tracheotomy by the healthcare provider. Rationale: Obtaining bedside trays for intubation or tracheotomy by the healthcare provider is the most appropriate action for the nurse. Intubation is a procedure that involves inserting a tube through the mouth or nose into the trachea to secure the airway and provide ventilation. Tracheotomy is a surgical procedure that involves creating an opening in the neck and inserting a tube into the trachea to bypass the upper airway obstruction. Both procedures are life-saving interventions for children with respiratory distress caused by upper airway obstruction, which is the most likely scenario for this child. The nurse should prepare the necessary equipment and assist the healthcare provider in performing these procedures.

An adolescent client reports to the nurse of walking with a limp due to pain localized in the right knee which worsens at night but denies any recent injury or trauma. The nurse observes swelling and tenderness in the right lower thigh and imaging results reveal radial ossification in the soft tissues. Which condition should the nurse consider as the probable cause of the findings?

Osteosarcoma Rationale: Osteosarcoma is the probable cause of the findings. Osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer that usually affects the long bones of the arms and legs. It is more common in adolescents and young adults. It can cause pain, swelling, and limping in the affected area, as well as radial ossification in the soft tissues, which is a sign of tumor invasion.

While completing a health assessment for a young adult female with acute appendicitis, the client informs the nurse that there is a chance that she may be pregnant. The operating team is preparing to take the client to surgery. Which intervention should the nurse implement immediately?

Perform a bedside pregnancy test. Rationale: Performing a bedside pregnancy test is the most appropriate and timely intervention that the nurse should implement immediately, given the client's situation. A bedside pregnancy test is a simple and quick way to detect the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), a hormone produced by the placenta, in the client's urine. A positive result indicates that the client is pregnant, and a negative result indicates that the client is not pregnant. The nurse should perform the test as soon as possible and report the result to the surgical team and the client.

The nurse is performing a routine assessment of a 3-year-old at a community health center. Which behavior by the child should alert the nurse to request a follow-up for a possible autism spectrum disorder (ASD)?

Performs odd repetitive behaviors. Rationale: Performing odd repetitive behaviors is a specific sign of ASD. These behaviors may include rocking, spinning, hand flapping, lining up objects, or repeating words or sounds. These behaviors are often used by children with ASD to cope with sensory overload, anxiety, or boredom. They may also interfere with the child's learning and social interaction. The nurse should request a follow-up for a possible ASD diagnosis and provide support to the child and the parents.

The nurse is caring for a client who is still experiencing light sedation after undergoing an emergency colectomy for bowel obstruction. Which postoperative pain intervention should the nurse implement first?

Provide the first medication prescribed for pain management. Rationale: Providing the first medication prescribed for pain management is the best intervention that the nurse can implement first, because it can prevent the escalation of pain and reduce the need for higher doses later. The nurse should follow the principles of pain management, such as administering analgesics before pain becomes severe, using a multimodal approach, and individualizing the plan of care.

On the third postoperative day, a client who has had a hip replacement surgery becomes anxious and diaphoretic, and begins to experience auditory hallucinations. The client denies having any pain. The client's vital signs are pulse rate is 125 beats/minute, respiratory rate is 36 breaths/minute, and blood pressure is 166/88 mmHg. Which nursing interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.)

Reorient to day and time frequently. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam. Present a calm, supportive demeanor. Rationale: Reorienting to day and time frequently is a nursing intervention that the nurse should implement, because it can help the client to reduce confusion, anxiety, and disorientation, which may contribute to the auditory hallucinations. The nurse should use simple and clear language, speak slowly and calmly, and provide cues and reminders, such as a clock, a calendar, or a picture, to help the client to orient to reality. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam is a nursing intervention that the nurse should implement, if it is prescribed by the doctor and indicated by the client's condition. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that can help the client to relax, reduce anxiety, and sedate the central nervous system, which may alleviate the auditory hallucinations. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs, level of consciousness, and respiratory status, and report any adverse effects, such as hypotension, bradycardia, or respiratory depression. Presenting a calm, supportive demeanor is a nursing intervention that the nurse should implement, because it can help the client to feel safe, comfortable, and respected, and to establish a trusting relationship with the nurse. The nurse should show empathy, compassion, and patience, and avoid arguing, criticizing, or dismissing the client's hallucinations. The nurse should acknowledge the client's feelings, validate their distress, and reassure them that they are not alone.

An 8-year-old girl with precocious sexual development is being treated medically with injections of luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) to regulate the pituitary gland. Which statement by the parents indicates that they understand the treatment?

"Sexual maturity differences between my daughter and her peers will disappear within a few years." Rationale: Sexual maturity differences between the daughter and her peers will disappear within a few years is the correct statement that shows understanding of the treatment. LHRH injections slow down the growth and development of the sex organs and secondary sexual characteristics, such as breasts and pubic hair. This allows the girl to grow at a normal rate and reach her full adult height potential. It also reduces the social and emotional problems that may arise from being sexually mature too early. Once the treatment is stopped, the girl will go through puberty at the same time as her peers and the differences will no longer be noticeable.

An infant who is developmentally delayed has a ventricular peritoneal (VP) shunt for hydrocephalus. The nurse makes a postoperative home visit to assess the child's progress. During the visit, the mother tells the nurse, "When the shunt is removed, the pressure in my baby's head will be gone." Which response should the nurse provide?

"The shunt will be replaced as your child grows to reduce pressure in the brain." Rationale: "The shunt will be replaced as your child grows to reduce pressure in the brain." is the correct response that the nurse should provide. This statement is true, as the shunt will need to be adjusted or replaced as the child grows to accommodate the changes in the size and shape of the head and the amount of fluid drainage. The nurse should educate the mother about the signs and symptoms of shunt malfunction and the need for regular follow-up visits.

During a home visit, the nurse assesses the skin of a client with eczema who reports that an exacerbation of symptoms has occurred during the last week. Which information is most useful in determining the possible cause of the symptoms?

A grandson and his new dog recently visited. Rationale: A grandson and his new dog recently visited is a useful information in determining the possible cause of the symptoms, because it can indicate that the client was exposed to an allergen or an irritant that can trigger an eczema flare-up. Some people with eczema may have allergic reactions to animal dander, saliva, or fur, which can cause skin inflammation, redness, and itching. The nurse should ask the client about their history of allergies and their contact with the dog, and advise them to avoid or minimize exposure to potential allergens.

A client with metastatic cancer reports a pain level of 10 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. Twenty minutes after the nurse administers an IV analgesic, the client reports no pain relief. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?

Administer analgesics on a fixed and continuous schedule. Rationale: Administering analgesics on a fixed and continuous schedule is the most important intervention that the nurse should include in this client's plan of care, because it can provide consistent and adequate pain relief for the client with metastatic cancer, who is likely to have chronic and severe pain. The nurse should follow the principles of cancer pain management, such as using the WHO analgesic ladder, titrating the dose according to the pain intensity, and using a multimodal approach that combines opioids, non-opioids, and adjuvants.

After administering varicella vaccine to a five-year-old child, which instruction should the nurse provide the child's parent?

Apply a cool pack to the injection site to reduce discomfort. Rationale: Applying a cool pack to the injection site is a simple and effective way to reduce discomfort after receiving the varicella vaccine. The cool pack can help numb the pain, decrease swelling, and prevent bruising. The nurse should instruct the parent to apply the cool pack for 10 to 15 minutes at a time, several times a day, as needed.

The nurse is caring for a child with chronic kidney disease who is experiencing renal osteodystrophy. Which outcome should the nurse explain to the parents about the sequela for their child with renal osteodystrophy?

Arrested growth. Rationale: Arrested growth is a common outcome of renal osteodystrophy in children. It is caused by the impaired bone formation and mineralization that result from the abnormal calcium, phosphorus, vitamin D, and parathyroid hormone levels in chronic kidney disease. Arrested growth can lead to short stature, delayed puberty, and poor quality of life.

A 10-year-old boy has been seen frequently by the school nurse over the past three weeks after school begins in the fall. He reports headaches, stomach aches, and difficulty sleeping. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Ask the boy to describe a typical day at school. Rationale: Asking the boy to describe a typical day at school is the best intervention that the nurse can implement. This can help the nurse identify any possible sources of stress or anxiety that may be causing the boy's physical symptoms. The nurse can also provide emotional support and guidance to the boy and his parents on how to cope with the school-related challenges.

A school-age child with bronchial asthma has a prescription for albuterol. The child's parent tells the nurse that the medication is used when the child is having difficulty breathing. Which is the best response by the nurse?

Assure the parent that they are using the medication correctly. Rationale: Assuring the parent that they are using the medication correctly is the best response by the nurse. This shows that the nurse understands the purpose and the proper use of albuterol and that the nurse supports the parent's decision to give the medication to the child when needed. The nurse should also educate the parent on how to use the inhaler device correctly, how to monitor the child's symptoms and peak flow, and when to seek medical attention if the child's condition worsens.

The nurse is teaching a client with cancer about skin care for the portal site receiving external beam radiation. Which client action regarding skin care indicates a need for further teaching? A. Applies prescribed lotions to the radiation site. B. Washes the radiation site with antibacterial soap and water. C. Wears clothing to cover the radiation site. D. Dries the area with patting motions after taking a shower.

B. Washes the radiation site with antibacterial soap and water. Explanation Choice B reason: Washing the radiation site with antibacterial soap and water is a bad action for a client with cancer receiving external beam radiation, because it can cause dryness, inflammation, and infection of the skin. The client should use mild soap and water or saline solution to gently cleanse the area without rubbing or scrubbing. Therefore, this choice indicates a need for further teaching.

A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with an upper respiratory infection. Which changes in blood glucose management should the client expect? A. Restriction of caloric intake. B. Fewer fingerstick glucose checks. C. Higher doses of insulin. D. Increased oral fluid intake.

C. Higher doses of insulin. Explanation Choice C reason: Higher doses of insulin are a good change for a client with diabetes mellitus and an upper respiratory infection, because they can help lower blood glucose levels and prevent ketoacidosis. The client needs more insulin to overcome the increased insulin resistance caused by the infection and the stress hormones. Therefore, this choice is correct.

An infant who has a Wilms' tumor is admitted for surgery. Which intervention should the nurse implement during the preoperative period?

Careful bathing and handling that avoids abdominal manipulation. Rationale: Careful bathing and handling that avoids abdominal manipulation is the best intervention that the nurse can implement during the preoperative period. This is because Wilms' tumor is a rare kidney cancer that mainly affects children and can rupture or spread if touched or pressed. The nurse should avoid any unnecessary pressure on the abdomen and use gentle movements when bathing and handling the infant.

The nurse is caring for a child with sickle cell disease who is experiencing a sickle cell crisis. Which finding should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?

Chest pain. Rationale: Chest pain is a sign of acute chest syndrome, which is a life-threatening complication of sickle cell crisis. It occurs when the sickle-shaped red blood cells block the blood vessels in the lungs, causing inflammation, infection, and low oxygen levels. Chest pain may be accompanied by fever, cough, shortness of breath, and wheezes. The nurse should report chest pain to the health care provider immediately and monitor the child's vital signs, oxygen saturation, and respiratory status.

A client with rheumatoid arthritis has an elevated serum rheumatoid factor. Which interpretation of this finding should the nurse make?

Confirmation of the autoimmune disease process. Rationale: Rheumatoid factor is an antibody that is produced by the immune system and can bind to normal tissues, causing inflammation and damage. Rheumatoid factor is a marker of the autoimmune disease process that underlies rheumatoid arthritis, which is a chronic condition that affects the joints and other organs. A high level of rheumatoid factor can confirm the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis and indicate the severity of the disease.

A 9-year-old admitted to the unit with severe abdominal pain and fever is diagnosed with appendicitis and is placed on the surgery schedule for an appendectomy. The child reports to the nurse of experiencing sudden relief in abdominal pain. Which action should the nurse take first?

Contact the healthcare provider. Rationale: Contacting the healthcare provider is the first action that the nurse should take. Sudden relief of pain in a child with appendicitis may indicate a perforation or rupture of the appendix, which is a life-threatening emergency. The nurse should immediately report this finding to the healthcare provider, who may order additional tests or expedite the surgery.

After teaching a client newly diagnosed with cholecystitis about recommended diet changes, the nurse evaluates the client's learning. Which food choices eliminated by the client indicate to the nurse that teaching has been successful? A. Canned vegetables with additional table salt. B. Pasta with herbal butter and no meat sauce. C. Citrus fruit and melon with a salt substitute. D. Whole milk and daily servings of ice cream.

D. Whole milk and daily servings of ice cream. Explanation Choice D reason: Whole milk and daily servings of ice cream are bad choices for someone with cholecystitis, because they are high in fat and cholesterol, which can worsen gallbladder inflammation and increase the risk of gallstone formation. This choice is eliminated by the client, so it indicates successful teaching.

A school-age child with nephrotic syndrome is receiving salt-poor human albumin IV. Which findings indicate to the nurse that the child is manifesting a therapeutic response?

Decreased periorbital edema. Rationale: Decreased periorbital edema is a sign of a therapeutic response. It indicates that the salt-poor human albumin IV is working to restore the blood protein levels and oncotic pressure. This helps to draw fluid back from the tissues into the blood vessels, reducing the swelling around the eyes and other parts of the body. The nurse should assess the child's skin turgor, capillary refill, and blood pressure.

The nurse is assessing a 6-month-old infant. Which response requires further evaluation by the nurse?

Demonstrates startle reflex. Rationale: Demonstrating startle reflex is an abnormal behavior for a 6-month-old infant. The startle reflex, also known as the Moro reflex, is an involuntary response to a sudden loud noise or movement. The infant will extend the arms and legs, arch the back, and then curl the arms and legs inward. This reflex is present at birth and usually disappears by 4 months of age. If the reflex persists beyond 6 months of age, it may indicate a neurological problem or developmental delay. The nurse should request further evaluation by the health care provider.

An adult client, a smoker, has had chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) for twelve years. When conducting discharge teaching, what should the nurse advise the client to avoid in order to prevent exacerbation of COPD?

Excessive physical exertion and respiratory tract infections. Rationale: Excessive physical exertion and respiratory tract infections are the most common triggers that can lead to COPD exacerbation, which is a sudden worsening of symptoms, such as shortness of breath, cough, and mucus production. Physical exertion can increase the oxygen demand and the work of breathing, while respiratory infections can cause inflammation and mucus obstruction in the airways. Therefore, the nurse should advise the client to avoid these factors and to seek medical attention if they occur.

The clinic nurse receives a call from a parent of a 10-year-old who reports that their child just returned from summer camp and has developed an expanding circular red rash on the arm. The parent asks the nurse which over-the-counter (OTC) product is safe to use. How should the nurse respond?

Explain the need for the child to have an immediate medical evaluation. Rationale: Explaining the need for the child to have an immediate medical evaluation is the best response that the nurse can give. This is because a circular rash can be a sign of a serious condition, such as Lyme disease, that requires urgent diagnosis and treatment. The nurse should inform the parent that the rash may not be ringworm, as many people assume, and that it may be caused by a tick bite or another factor. The nurse should also advise the parent to avoid touching or scratching the rash and to keep it clean and dry until the child sees a doctor.

The nurse is providing dietary instructions for a client who is being discharged after passing a calcium oxalate renal stone. Which food should the nurse instruct the client to avoid? A. Sweet potatoes. B. Spinach salad. C. Bananas. D. Fish.

Explanation Choice B reason: Spinach salad is a food that the client should avoid after passing a calcium oxalate renal stone, because it is high in oxalate, which can increase the risk of stone formation. The client should consume foods that are low in oxalate, such as rice, corn, apples, grapes, peaches, and cheese. Therefore, this choice is correct.

A 1-year-old child with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is admitted to the pediatric unit. The nurse observes that the child presents with a fever, rhinorrhea, frequent coughing, and sneezing. Which additional finding should alert the nurse that the child is in acute respiratory distress?

Flaring of the nares. Rationale: Flaring of the nares is a sign of acute respiratory distress in children. It indicates that the child is using the accessory muscles of the nose to breathe, which is a sign of increased work of breathing. Flaring of the nares may be accompanied by other signs of respiratory distress, such as retractions, grunting, or cyanosis. The nurse should report this finding to the health care provider and monitor the child's oxygen saturation, respiratory rate, and level of consciousness.

An infant born 2 days ago has not passed a meconium stool and begins to vomit bilious secretions. Which action should the nurse take first?

Gather supplies for an intravenous (IV) infusion. Rationale: Gathering supplies for an intravenous (IV) infusion is the first action that the nurse should take. This is because the infant is at risk of dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and shock due to vomiting and bowel obstruction. The nurse should prepare to administer IV fluids, antibiotics, and blood products as ordered by the healthcare provider.

The nurse observes a mother giving her 11-month-old ferrous sulfate (iron drops), followed by 2 ounces (60 mL) of orange juice. What should the nurse do next?

Give the mother positive feedback about the way she administered the medication. Rationale: Giving the mother positive feedback about the way she administered the medication is a correct intervention. It reinforces the mother's behavior and encourages her to continue giving the iron drops as prescribed. It also acknowledges the mother's efforts and shows respect and appreciation. Following the iron drops with orange juice is a good practice, as vitamin C in the orange juice can enhance the absorption of iron in the body.

The nurse is assessing a client who has herpes zoster. Which question will allow the nurse to gather further information about this condition?

Has everyone at home already had varicella? Rationale: Varicella is another name for chickenpox, which is caused by the varicella-zoster virus. Herpes zoster, also known as shingles, is a reactivation of the same virus that causes a painful rash along a nerve pathway. People who have had chickenpox are at risk of developing shingles later in life, especially if their immune system is weakened. Asking the client if everyone at home has already had varicella can help the nurse determine the risk of transmission and the need for isolation precautions.

A client asks the nurse for information about how to reduce risk factors for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which information should the nurse provide?

Increase physical activity. Rationale: Increasing physical activity is a beneficial way to reduce risk factors for BPH, as well as to improve overall health and well-being. Physical activity can help maintain a healthy weight, lower blood pressure, reduce inflammation, and enhance blood flow to the pelvic area, which may prevent or delay the development of BPH. The nurse should encourage the client to engage in moderate-intensity aerobic exercise, such as brisk walking, cycling, or swimming, for at least 150 minutes per week, and to include some strength training and flexibility exercises as well.

A client taking antibiotics for three days to treat a Streptococcal throat infection returns to the clinic reporting a feel itchy rash across the chest and arms. The nurse auscultates pulmonary wheezing and an elevated heart rate. Which action should the nurse implement?

Instruct client to stop taking the antibiotics. Rationale: Instructing the client to stop taking the antibiotics is the most important action that the nurse should implement, because it can prevent further exposure to the allergen and reduce the severity of the reaction. The client's symptoms, such as rash, wheezing, and tachycardia, indicate that the client is having an allergic reaction to the antibiotics, which can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition, especially if it progresses to anaphylaxis, a severe systemic reaction that can cause shock, airway obstruction, and organ failure. The nurse should instruct the client to stop taking the antibiotics immediately and notify the doctor.

Two weeks after returning home from traveling, a client presents to the clinic with conjunctivitis and describes a recent loss in the ability to taste and smell. The nurse obtains a nasal swab to test for COVID-19. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

Isolate the client from other clients, family, and healthcare workers not wearing proper PPE. Rationale: Isolating the client from other clients, family, and healthcare workers not wearing proper PPE is the most important action that the nurse should take, because it can prevent the transmission of COVID-19, which is a highly contagious respiratory disease caused by a novel coronavirus. The client has symptoms that are consistent with COVID-19, such as conjunctivitis, loss of taste and smell, and recent travel history, and the nasal swab test can confirm the diagnosis. The nurse should follow the infection control precautions, such as wearing a mask, gloves, gown, and eye protection, and place the client in a private room with negative pressure ventilation, if available.

An adult woman with Grave's disease is admitted with severe dehydration and malnutrition. She is currently restless and refusing to eat. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

Maintain a patent intravenous site. Rationale: Maintaining a patent intravenous site is the most important action that the nurse should implement, given the client's situation. A patent intravenous site can allow the nurse to administer fluids, electrolytes, medications, and nutrients to the client, who is at risk of dehydration, malnutrition, and complications from Grave's disease, such as thyroid storm, cardiac arrhythmias, and infection. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs, fluid intake and output, blood glucose, and thyroid function tests, and adjust the intravenous therapy accordingly.

A client who fractured the right femur from a fall at home is placed in skeletal traction while awaiting surgery. When the client tells the nurse the need to urinate, which intervention should the nurse implement?

Maintain traction while the client uses a urinal. Rationale: Maintaining traction while the client uses a urinal is the correct intervention, as it can prevent the disruption of the fracture stabilization and allow the client to void comfortably and safely. Traction is a force that is applied to the fractured bone to reduce, align, and immobilize it. A urinal is a container that can be used to collect urine from the client, without requiring the client to get out of bed or change position.

When providing care for a child who is in balanced suspension skeletal traction using a Thomas splint and Pearson attachment to the right femur, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Monitor peripheral pulses and sensation in the right leg. Rationale: Monitoring peripheral pulses and sensation in the right leg is the most important intervention that the nurse should implement. This is because the traction and the splint can impair the circulation and nerve function of the affected extremity, leading to complications such as compartment syndrome, ischemia, or nerve damage. The nurse should check the pulses, temperature, color, capillary refill, and sensation of the right leg at least every hour and report any changes or abnormalities to the physician.

A client with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is preparing for discharge following a transurethral needle ablation (TUNA). Which information should the nurse include in the discharge instructions?

Monitor urinary stream for decrease in output. Rationale: Monitoring urinary stream for decrease in output is an important instruction for a client with BPH who underwent TUNA. Urinary output can reflect the kidney function and the effectiveness of the procedure. A decrease in urinary output can indicate urinary retention, infection, or bleeding, which are potential complications of TUNA. The client should report any changes in the urinary stream, such as difficulty, pain, frequency, urgency, or hesitancy, to the health care provider.

While caring for a client with full-thickness burns covering 40% of the body, the nurse observes purulent drainage from the wounds. Before reporting this finding to the health care provider, the nurse should evaluate which laboratory value?

Neutrophil count. Rationale: Neutrophil count is a measure of the body's immune response to infection. Neutrophils are the most abundant type of white blood cells and are the first line of defense against bacterial infections. A high neutrophil count can indicate an acute infection, while a low neutrophil count can indicate a weakened immune system or a chronic infection. Neutrophil count is the most relevant laboratory value to evaluate wound infection.

The mother of a 6-year-old girl is concerned about her child's obesity. The child's weight plots at the 75th percentile, and height at the 25th percentile. The child's body mass index (BMI) is at the 85th percentile for age and gender. Which intervention(s) should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Obtain the child's 3-day diet history based on the mother's input. Determine the child's usual physical activity pattern. Rationale: Obtaining the child's 3-day diet history based on the mother's input is a useful intervention to assess the child's nutritional intake and identify any unhealthy eating habits or patterns. The nurse can use the diet history to provide individualized and evidence-based dietary advice and counseling to the mother and the child, such as reducing the intake of sugar-sweetened beverages, increasing the intake of fruits and vegetables, and limiting the portion sizes. Determining the child's usual physical activity pattern is a beneficial intervention to evaluate the child's energy expenditure and identify any sedentary behaviors or activities. The nurse can use the physical activity pattern to provide individualized and evidence-based physical activity recommendations and guidance to the mother and the child, such as increasing the frequency, intensity, and duration of moderate to vigorous physical activity, reducing the screen time, and engaging in fun and enjoyable physical activities..

A child diagnosed with Kawasaki disease is brought to the clinic. The mother reports that her child is irritable, refuses to eat, and has skin peeling on both hands and feet. Which intervention should the nurse instruct the mother to implement first?

Place the child in a quiet environment. Rationale: Placing the child in a quiet environment is the first intervention that the nurse should instruct the mother to implement. This is because Kawasaki disease causes irritability and sensitivity to light and sound in the child. A quiet environment can help reduce the child's stress and discomfort.

The mother of a one-month-old infant calls the clinic to report that the back of her infant's head is flat. How should the nurse respond?

Position the infant on the stomach occasionally when awake and active. Rationale: Positioning the infant on the stomach occasionally when awake and active is the best response that the nurse can give to the mother. This is because it can help prevent and correct the flat head syndrome, also known as plagiocephaly, by taking pressure off the back of the head and allowing the skull to reshape naturally. It can also promote the infant's motor development and strengthen the neck and shoulder muscles. However, the nurse should also remind the mother to always place the infant on the back when sleeping, as this is the safest position to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) .

A client with sickle cell anemia develops a fever during the last hour of administration of a unit of packed red blood cells. When notifying the healthcare provider, which information should the nurse provide first using the SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation) communication process?

Preface the report by stating the client's name and admitting diagnosis. Rationale: Prefacing the report by stating the client's name and admitting diagnosis is the first information that the nurse should provide, according to the SBAR communication process. This helps to establish the identity and context of the client and the situation.

The nurse is caring for an infant admitted with dehydration, irritability, signs of extreme hunger, and a palpable olive-like mass in the upper right abdominal quadrant. When feeding the infant, the nurse should monitor for which development?

Projectile vomiting. Rationale: Projectile vomiting is the development that the nurse should monitor for. This is a common symptom of pyloric stenosis, a condition that affects about 3 out of 1,000 infants. It occurs when the muscle at the end of the stomach becomes thickened and blocks the passage of food into the small intestine. This causes the infant to vomit forcefully after feeding, leading to dehydration, hunger, and weight loss. The olive-like mass in the upper right abdomen is the enlarged pylorus muscle that can be felt through the skin.

A male client with diabetes mellitus (DM) is transferred from the hospital to a rehabilitation facility following treatment for a stroke with resulting right hemiplegia. The client reports his feet feel uncomfortably cool at night, preventing him from falling asleep. Which action should the nurse implement?

Provide a warming pad (Aqua-pad or K-pad) to feet. Rationale: Providing a warming pad (Aqua-pad or K-pad) to feet is the best option for a client with DM and right hemiplegia, because it can help improve the blood flow and comfort to the feet. The warming pad is a device that circulates warm water or air through a pad that is placed on the skin. The nurse should monitor the temperature and duration of the warming pad, and check the skin for signs of burns or blisters.

An adolescent with a congenital heart defect is admitted for diagnostic testing with surgery scheduled in 3 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement to best support the client's psychosocial needs?

Provide an activity room to spend time with other adolescents. Rationale: Providing an activity room to spend time with other adolescents is the best intervention that the nurse can implement to support the client's psychosocial needs. This intervention can help the client cope with the anxiety and isolation that may result from their condition and hospitalization. It can also provide an opportunity for the client to interact with other adolescents who have similar experiences and challenges, and to engage in fun and meaningful activities that enhance their self-esteem and mood.

A male adolescent arrives at the clinic and reports intense pain in the testicular area that occurred during football practice at high school. The nurse observes the scrotum and identifies significant erythema and swelling. Which action should the nurse take?

Report the findings immediately to the healthcare provider. Rationale: Reporting the findings immediately to the healthcare provider is the appropriate action to take in this situation. Sudden and severe testicular pain and swelling can be a sign of testicular torsion, a medical emergency that occurs when the testicle twists and cuts off its blood supply. Testicular torsion can be caused by trauma, strenuous exercise, or cold temperature. It can lead to permanent damage or loss of the testicle if not treated promptly. The adolescent needs urgent evaluation and possible surgery to untwist the testicle and restore blood flow.

The nurse is teaching the parents about important dietary changes for their child who is newly diagnosed with celiac disease. Which foods should the nurse include in the list of allowed foods for this child?

Rice Rationale: Rice is a gluten-free grain that is safe for people with celiac disease. Rice does not contain the protein gluten that triggers an immune reaction and damages the small intestine in people with celiac disease.

A school-aged child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever. In obtaining a health history from the child's parent, the recent occurrence of which illness is most significant?

Sore throat. Sore throat is the most significant illness that may be associated with acute rheumatic fever. Sore throat can be caused by GAS bacteria, which can also cause strep throat or scarlet fever. If these infections are not properly treated with antibiotics, they can lead to acute rheumatic fever, which is an inflammatory disease that can affect the heart, joints, skin, and brain.

A client is recovering from an episode of urinary tract calculi. During discharge teaching, the client asks about dietary restrictions. In discussing food intake, the nurse should include which type of fluid limitation?

Tea and hot chocolate. Rationale: Tea and hot chocolate should be limited, because they contain oxalates, which can increase the risk of calcium oxalate stones, the most common type of urinary tract calculi. Other foods high in oxalates include spinach, rhubarb, nuts, and chocolate.

To reduce the risk for pulmonary complications for a client with Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS), which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

Teach the client breathing exercises. Perform chest physiotherapy. Encourage use of incentive spirometer. Initiate passive range of motion exercises. Rationale: Teaching the client breathing exercises can help improve lung function, reduce mucus accumulation, and prevent atelectasis and pneumonia. Breathing exercises can include pursed-lip breathing, diaphragmatic breathing, and coughing techniques. Performing chest physiotherapy can help mobilize secretions, improve ventilation, and prevent respiratory infections. Chest physiotherapy can include percussion, vibration, and postural drainage. Encouraging use of incentive spirometer can help increase lung expansion, improve oxygenation, and prevent alveolar collapse. Incentive spirometer is a device that measures the amount of air the client can inhale and exhale. Initiating passive range of motion exercises can help maintain joint mobility, prevent contractures, and improve circulation. Passive range of motion exercises are performed by the nurse or a caregiver who moves the client's limbs through their full range of motion.

The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an infant with heart failure who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarctation of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Which pathophysiologic mechanism supports these findings?

The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of blood flow to the lower extremities. Rationale: The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of blood flow to the lower extremities is the correct pathophysiologic mechanism that supports the findings. This is because coarctation of the aorta is a congenital condition that causes a narrowing of the aorta, usually near the ductus arteriosus. This results in increased resistance to blood flow from the heart to the lower body, leading to higher blood pressure and stronger pulses in the upper extremities and lower blood pressure and weaker pulses in the lower extremities.

The nurse is caring for a one-month-old infant admitted for suspected congenital hypothyroidism. Which diagnostic test results should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

Thyroxine (T4). Rationale: Thyroxine (T4) is the main hormone produced by the thyroid gland and is essential for growth and development. Low levels of T4 indicate hypothyroidism and require treatment with thyroid hormone replacement. High levels of T4 indicate hyperthyroidism and require treatment with anti-thyroid drugs.

A mother brings her preteen daughter to the clinic for her first female examination. During the health assessment, the nurse should implement which technique to determine if the client has reached the age of menarche?

Use the Tanner staging to determine sexual maturity. Rationale: Using the Tanner staging to determine sexual maturity is a valid technique to determine if the client has reached the age of menarche. The Tanner staging is a scale that assesses the development of secondary sexual characteristics, such as breast growth, pubic hair growth, and genital development, in relation to the chronological age of the child. The Tanner staging can help estimate the stage of puberty and the likelihood of menarche, which usually occurs around Tanner stage 3 or 4 in girls.

A preschool-age boy in a daycare facility scratches his head frequently, and the nurse confirms the presence of head lice. The nurse washes the child's hair with permethrin shampoo and calls his parents. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the parents about treatment for head lice?

Wash the child's bed linens and clothing in hot soapy water. Rationale: Washing the child's bed linens and clothing in hot soapy water is a good instruction that the nurse should provide. This is because head lice and their eggs can be transferred to the child's bedding and clothing through direct contact. Washing these items in hot water (at least 130°F or 54°C) and drying them on high heat can kill any remaining lice or eggs. Alternatively, the items can be sealed in plastic bags for two weeks to suffocate the lice.

The nurse is teaching a client with cancer about skin care for the portal site receiving external beam radiation. Which client action about skin care indicates a need for further teaching?

Washes the radiation site with antibacterial soap and water. Rationale: Washing the radiation site with antibacterial soap and water is an incorrect action, as it can dry out, damage, or inflame the skin. The skin in the radiation site is more sensitive and vulnerable to injury and infection. The client should use mild, unscented soap and water to gently cleanse the area once a day, and avoid rubbing or scrubbing the skin.

After teaching a client newly diagnosed with cholecystitis about recommended diet changes, the nurse evaluates the client's learning. Which food choices eliminated by the client indicate to the nurse that teaching has been successful?

Whole milk and daily servings of ice cream. Rationale: Whole milk and ice cream are high in fat, which can trigger the inflammation of the gallbladder (cholecystitis) and the formation of gallstones. The client should avoid foods that are high in fat, such as fried foods, cheese, butter, cream, and fatty meats.