Med Surg II Exam 1

The nurse is presenting information to a community group on safer sex practices. The nurse should teach that which sexual practice is the riskiest? a. Anal intercourse b. Masturbation c. Oral sex d. Vaginal intercourse

A Rationale: Anal intercourse is the riskiest sexual practice because the fragile anal tissue can ear, creating a portal of entry for human immune deficiency virus.

A 28-year-old client is diagnosed with endometriosis and is experiencing severe symptoms. Which actions by the nurse are the most appropriate at this time? (Select all that apply.) a. Reduce the pain by low-level heat. b. Discuss the high risk of infertility with this diagnosis. c. Relieve anxiety by relaxation techniques and education. d. Discuss in detail the side effects of laparoscopic surgery. e. Suggest resources such as the Endometriosis Association.

A, C, E Rationale: With endometriosis, pain is the predominant symptom, with anxiety occurring because of the diagnosis. Interventions should be directed to pain and anxiety relief, such as low-level heat, relaxation techniques, and education about the pathophysiology and possible treatment of endometriosis. The nurse could suggest resources to give more information about the diagnosis. Discussion of the possibility of the infertility and side effects of laparoscopic surgery is premature and may increase the anxiety.

The nurse is doing preoperative teaching for a client who is scheduled for removal of cervical polyps in the office. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the procedure? a. I hope that I do not have cancer of the cervix. b. There should be little or no discomfort during the procedure. c. There may be a lot of bleeding after the polyp is removed. d. This may prevent me from having any more children.

B Rationale: Polyp removal is a simple office procedure with the client feeling no pain. The other responses are incorrect. Cervical polyps are the most common benign growth of the cervix. Cautery is used to stop any bleeding, and there is no evidence that cervical polyps have a relationship to childbearing.

A client has recently been diagnosed with stage III endometrial cancer and asks the nurse for an explanation. What response by the nurse is correct about the staging of the cancer? a. The cancer has spread to the mucosa of the bowel and bladder. b. It has reached the vagina or lymph nodes. c. The cancer now involves the cervix. d. It is contained in the endometrium of the cervix

B Rationale: Stage III of endometrial cancer reaches the vagina of lymph nodes. Stage I is confined to the endometrium. Stage II involves the cervix, and stage IV spreads to the bowel or bladder mucosa and/or beyond the pelvis.

A client has a recurrent Bartholin cyst. What is the nurses priority action? a. Apply an ice pack to the area. b. Administer a prophylactic antibiotic. c. Obtain a fluid sample for laboratory analysis. d. Suggest moist heat such as a sitz bath.

C Rationale: A major cause of an obstructed duct forming a cyst is infection. The laboratory specimen is a priority since a culture is needed in order to prescribe sensitive antibiotics.

A client has undergone a vaginal hysterectomy with a bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy. She is concerned about a loss of libido. What intervention by the nurse would be best? a. Suggest increasing vitamins and supplements daily. b. Discuss the value of a balanced diet and exercise. c. Reinforce that weight gain may be inevitable. d. Teach that estrogen cream inserted vaginally may help.

D Rationale: Use of vaginal estrogen cream and gentle dilation can help with vaginal changes and loss of libido. Weight gain and masculinization are misperceptions after a vaginal hysterectomy. Vitamins, supplements, a balanced diet, and exercise are helpful for healthy living, but are not necessarily going to increase libido.

The nurse is teaching an uncircumcised 65-year-old client about self-management of a urinary catheter in preparation for discharge to his home. What statement indicates a lack of understanding by the client? a. I only have to wash the outside of the catheter once a week. b. I should take extra time to clean the catheter site by pushing the foreskin back. c. The drainage bag needs to be changed at least once a week and as needed. d. I should pour a solution of vinegar and water through the tubing and bag.

A Rationale: The first few inches of the catheter must be washed daily starting at the penis and washing outward with soap and water. The other options are correct for self-management of the urinary catheter in the home setting.

A nurse is caring for four clients who have immune disorders. After receiving the hand-off report, which client should the nurse assess first? a. Client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome with a CD4+ cell count of 210/mm3 and a temp of 102.4 F (39.1 C) b. Client with Brutons agammaglobulinemia who is waiting for discharge teaching c. Client with hypogammaglobulinemia who is 1 hour post immune serum globulin infusion d. Client with selective immunoglobulin A deficiency who is on IV antibiotics for pneumonia

A Rationale: A client who is this immunosuppressed and who has this high of a fever is critically ill and needs to be assessed first. The client who is post immunoglobulin infusion should have had all infusion-related vital signs and assessments completed and should be checked next. The client receiving antibiotics should be seen third, and the client waiting for discharge teaching is the lowest priority. Since discharge teaching can take time, the nurse may want to delegate this task to someone else while attending to the most seriously ill client.

A 34-year-old client comes to the clinic with concerns about an enlarged left testicle and heaviness in his lower abdomen. Which diagnostic test would the nurse expect to be ordered to confirm testicular cancer? a. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) b. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) c. Prostate acid phosphatase (PAP) d. C-reactive protein (CRP)

A Rationale: AFP is a glycoprotein that is elevated in testicular cancer. PSA and PAP testing is used in the screening of prostate cancer. CRP is a diagnostic for inflammatory conditions.

The nurse providing direct client care uses specific practices to reduce the chance of acquiring infection with human immune deficiency virus (HIV) from clients. Which practice is most effective? a. Consistent use of Standard Precautions b. Double-gloving before body fluid exposure c. Labeling charts and armbands HIV+ d. Wearing a mask within 3 feet of the client

A Rationale: According to the Joint Commission, the most effective preventative measure to avoid HIV exposure is consistent use of Standard precautions. Double-gloving is not necessary. Labeling charts and armbands in this fashion is a violation of the Health Information Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). Wearing a mask within 3 feet of the client is part of Airborne Precautions and is not necessary with every client contact.

A 23-year-old female has been diagnosed with genital warts. Which action by the nurse is best? a. Encourage the client to have an annual Papanicolaou (Pap) test. b. Recommend an over-the-counter wart treatment for genital tissue. c. Report the case to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). d. Discuss popular options for contraception.

A Rationale: An annual Pap test is recommended (due to the strong relationship between genital warts and the development of dysplasia of the cervix) until three normal Pap smears are obtained. The Pap smear can detect any malignancies of the cervix. Prescribed cream or gel such as podofilox (Condylomata) is the recommended treatment, but not OTC treatments. Genital warts, of condylomata acuminata, do not have to be reported to the CDC in all states. Pregnancy is not contraindicated with genital warts.

A nurse is assessing an older client for the presence of infection. The clients temperature is 97.6 F (36.4 C). What response by the nurse is best? a. Assess the client for more specific signs. b. Conclude that an infection is not present. c. Document findings and continue to monitor. d. Request that the provider order blood cultures.

A Rationale: Because older adults have decreased immune function, including reduced neutrophil function, fever may not be present during an episode of infection. The nurse should assess the client for specific signs of infection. Documentation needs to occur, but a more thorough assessment comes first. Blood cultures may or may not be needed depending on the results of further assessment.

A 26-year-old client with multiple sexual partners is being assessed for symptoms of dysuria and vaginal discharge. Because the results from the culture of the cervical cells are not available, the client will be treated for both Chlamydia and gonorrhea. Which explanation by the nurse is best? a. This early treatment will prevent obstruction to the fallopian tubes. b. Only azithromycin (Zithromax) is prescribed for both sexually transmitted diseases. c. The treatment will prevent aortic valve disease and aneurysms. d. Oral antibiotic treatment will prevent frequent occurrences of meningitis.

A Rationale: Both gonorrhea and Chlamydia can cause pelvic inflammatory disease and scarring of the fallopian tubes, resulting in infertility problems. Azithromycin is the treatment of choice for both sexually transmitted diseases, but ceftriaxone (Rocephin) is also recommended for treatment of gonorrhea. Aortic valve disease and aneurysms usually occur with tertiary syphilis. Meningitis occurs rarely with a gonorrhea infection and is usually treated with intravenous antibiotic therapy in the hospital setting.

The nurse is conducting a history on a male client to determine the severity of symptoms associated with prostate enlargement. Which finding is cause for prompt action by the nurse? a. Cloudy urine b. Urinary hesitancy c. Post-void dribbling d. Weak urinary stream

A Rationale: Cloudy urine can indicate infection due to possible urine retention and should be a priority action. Common symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia are urinary hesitancy, post-void dribbling, and a weak urinary system due to the enlarged prostate causing bladder outlet obstruction.

The nurse is teaching a 45-year-old woman about her fibrocystic breast condition. Which statement by the client indicates a lack of understanding? a. This condition will become malignant over time. b. I should refrain from using hormone replacement therapy. c. One cup of coffee in the morning should be enough for me. d. This condition makes it more difficult to examine my breasts.

A Rationale: Fibrocystic breast condition does not increase a woman's chance of developing breast cancer. Hormone replacement therapy is not indicated since the additional estrogen may aggravate the condition. Limiting caffeine intake may give relief for tender breasts. The fibrocystic changes to the breasts make it more difficult to examine the breasts because of fibrotic changes and lumps.

A client has returned from the postanesthesia care unit after a vaginoplasty. What comfort measure does the nurse provide for this client? a. Apply ice to the perineum. b. Elevate the legs on pillows. c. Position the client on the left side. d. Raise the head of the bed

A Rationale: Ice is applied to the perineum to reduce pain and discomfort. Elevating the legs on pillows is not recommended after a lengthy procedure in the lithotomy position, which predisposes the client to venous thromboembolism. Positioning the client on the left side and raising the head of the bed are no comfort measures related to this procedure.

A client is diagnosed with metastatic prostate cancer. The client asks the nurse the purpose of his treatment with the luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LH-RH) agonist leuprolide (Lupron) and the bisphosphonate pamidronate (Aredia). Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate? a. The treatment reduces testosterone and prevents bone fractures. b. The medications prevent erectile dysfunction and increase libido. c. There is less gynecomastia and osteoporosis with this drug regimen. d. These medications both inhibit tumor progression by blocking androgens.

A Rationale: Lupron, an LH-RH agonist, stimulates the pituitary gland to release luteinizing hormone (LH) to the point that the gland is depleted of LH and testosterone production is lessened. This may decrease the prostate cancer since it is hormone dependent. Lupron can cause osteoporosis, which results in the need for Aredia to prevent bone loss. Erectile dysfunction, decreased libido, and gynecomastia are side effects of the LH-RH medications. Antiandrogen drugs inhibit tumor progression by blocking androgens at the site of the prostate.

A clinic nurse is working with an older adult. What assessment is most important for preventing infections in this client? a. Assessing vaccination records for booster shot needs. b. Encouraging the client to eat a nutritious diet. c. Instructing the client to wash minor wounds carefully. d. Teaching hand hygiene to prevent the spread of microbes.

A Rationale: Older adults may have sufficient antibodies that have already been produced against microbes to which they have been exposed. Therefore, older adults need booster shots for many vaccinations they received as younger people. A nutritious diet, proper wound care, and hand hygiene are relevant for all populations.

A client is taking prednisone to prevent transplant rejection. What instruction by the nurse is most important? a. Avoid large crowds and people who are ill. b. Check over-the-counter meds for acetaminophen. c. Take this medicine exactly as prescribed. d. You have a higher risk of developing cancer.

A Rationale: Prednisone, like all steroids, decreases immune function. The client should be advised to avoid large crowds and people who are ill. Prednisone does not contain acetaminophen. All clients should be taught to take medications exactly as prescribed. A higher risk for cancer is seen with drugs from the calcineurin inhibitor category, such as tacrolimus (Prograf).

A client with human immune deficiency virus infection is hospitalized for an unrelated condition, and several medications are prescribed in addition to the regimen already being used. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Consult with the pharmacy about drug interactions. b. Ensure that the client understands the new medications. c. Give the new drugs without considering the old ones. d. Schedule all medications at standard times.

A Rationale: THe drug regimen for someone with HIV/AIDS is complex and consists of many medications that must be given at specific times of the day, and that have many interactions with other drugs. The should consult with a pharmacist about possible interactions. Client teaching is important but does not take priority over ensuring the medications do not interfere with each other, which could lead to drug resistance or a resurgence of symptoms.

The nurse is educating a client on the prevention of toxic shock syndrome (TSS). Which statement by the client indicates a lack of understanding? a. I need to change my tampon every 8 hours during the day. b. At night, I should use a feminine pad rather than a tampon. c. If I don't use tampons, I should not get TSS. d. It is best if I wash my hands before inserting the tampon.

A Rationale: Tampons need to be changed every 3 to 6 hours to avoid infection by such organisms as Staphylococcus aureus. All of the other responses are correct: use of feminine pads at night, not using tampons at all, and washing hands before tampon insertion are all strategies to prevent TSS.

A nursing student learning about antibody-mediated immunity learns that the cell with the most direct role in this process begins development in which tissue or organ? a. Bone marrow b. Spleen c. Thymus d. Tonsils

A Rationale: The B cell is the primary cell in antibody-mediated immunity and is released from the bone marrow. These cells then travel to other organs and tissues, known as the secondary lymphoid tissues for B cells.

A nurse is talking with a client about a negative enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test for human immune deficiency virus (HIV) antibodies. The test is negative and the client states Whew! I was really worried about that result. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Assess the clients sexual activity and patterns. b. Express happiness over the test result. c. Remind the client about safer sex practices. d. Tell the client to be retested in 3 months.

A Rationale: The ELISA test can be falsely negative if testing occurs after the client has become infected but prior to making antibodies to HIV. This period of time is known as the window period and can last up to 36 months. The nurse needs to assess the clients sexual behavior further to determine the proper response. The other actions are not the most important, but discussing safer sex practices is always appropriate.

A nurse is providing health teaching to a middle-aged male-to-female (MtF) client who has undergone gender reassignment surgery. What information is most important to this client? a. Be sure to have an annual prostate examination. b. Continue your normal health screenings. c. Try to avoid being around people who are ill. d. You should have an annual flu vaccination

A Rationale: The MtF client retains the prostate, so annual screening examinations for prostate cancer remain important. The other statements are good general health teaching ideas for any client.

A women diagnosed with breast cancer had these laboratory tests performed at an office visit: Alkaline phosphatase 125 U/L Total calcium 12 mg/dL Hematocrit 39% Hemoglobin 14 g/dL Which test results indicate to the nurse that some further diagnostics are needed? a. Elevated alkaline phosphatase and calcium suggests bone involvement. b. Only alkaline phosphatase is decreased, suggesting liver metastasis. c. Hematocrit and hemoglobin are decreased, indicating anemia. d. The elevated hematocrit and hemoglobin indicate dehydration.

A Rationale: The alkaline phosphate (normal value 30-120 U/L) and total calcium (normal value 9-10.5 mg/dL) levels are both elevated, suggesting bone metastasis. Both the hematocrit and hemoglobin are within normal limits for females.

A client is discharged to home after a modified radical mastectomy with two drainage tubes. Which statement by the client would indicate that further teaching is needed? a. I am glad that these tubes will fall out at home when I finally shower. b. I should measure the drainage each day to make sure it is less than an ounce. c. I should be careful how I lie in bed so that I will not kink the tubing. d. If there is a foul odor from the drainage, I should contact my doctor.

A Rationale: The drainage tubes (such as a JP drain) lie just under the skin but need to be removed by the health care professional in about 1 to 3 weeks at an office visit. Drainage should be less than 25 mL in a days time. The client should be aware of her positioning to prevent kinking of the tubing. A foul odor from the drainage may indicate an infection; the doctor should be contacted immediately.

The nurse is teaching a client with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What statement indicates a lack of understanding by the client? a. There should be no problem with a glass of wine with dinner each night. b. I am so glad that I weaned myself off of coffee about a year ago. c. I need to inform my allergist that I cannot take my normal decongestant. d. My normal routine of drinking a quart of water during exercise needs to change.

A Rationale: This client did not associate wine with the avoidance of alcohol, and requires additional teaching. The nurse must teach a client with BPH to avoid alcohol, caffeine, and large quantities of fluid in a short amount of urine to prevent overdistention of the bladder. Decongestants also need to be avoided to lower the chance of urinary retention.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with human immune deficiency virus. The clients CD4+ cell count is 399/mm3. What action by the nurse is best? a. Counsel the client on safer sex practices/abstinence b. Encourage the client to abstain from alcohol c. Facilitate genetic testing for CD4+CCR5/CXCR4 co-receptors d. Help the client plan high-protein/iron meals

A Rationale: This client is in the CDC and Prevention stage 2 case definition group. He or she remains highly infectious and should be counseled on either safer sex practices or abstinence. Abstaining from alcohol is healthy but not required. Genetic testing is not commonly done, but an alteration on the CCR5/CXCR4 co-receptors is seen in long-term nonprogressors. High protein/iron meals are important for people who are immunosuppressed, but helping to plan them does not take priority over stopping the spread of the disease.

A client has just been diagnosed with human immune deficiency virus (HIV). The client is distraught and does not know what to do. What intervention by the nurse is best? a. Assess the client for support systems. b. Determine if a clergy member would help. c. Explain legal requirements to tell sex partners. d. Offer to tell the family for the client.

A Rationale: This client needs the assistance of support systems. The nurse should help the client identify them and what role they play in supporting him or her. A clergy member may or mat not be welcome. Legal requirements about disclosing HIV status vary by state. Telling the family for the client is enabling, and the client may not want the family to know.

An HIV-negative client who has an HIV-positive partner asks the nurse about receiving Truvada (emtricitabine and tenofovir). What information is most important to teach the client about this drug? a. Truvada does not reduce the need for safe sex practices. b. This drug has been taken off the market due to increases in cancer. c. Truvada reduces the number of HIV tests you will need. d. This drug is only used for post-exposure prophylaxis.

A Rationale: Truvada is a new drug used of pre-exposure prophylaxis and appears to reduce transmission of HIV from known HIV-positive people to HIV-negative people. The drug does not reduce the need for practicing safe sex. Since the drug can lead to drug resistance if used, clients will still need HIV testing every 3 months. This drug has not been taken off the market and is not used for post-exposure prophylaxis.

A student nurse is learning about the health care needs of lesbian, gay, bisexual, transgender, and queer/questioning (LGBTQ) clients. Which terms are correctly defined? (Select all that apply.) a. Gender dysphoria Distress caused by incongruence between natal sex and gender identity b. Gender queer A label used when gender identity does not conform to male or female c. Natal sex The sex one is born with or is assigned to at birth d. Transgender A person who dresses in the clothing of the opposite sex e. Transition The time between questioning and establishing a sexual identity

A, B, C Rationale: Gender dysphoria is emotional distress caused by the incongruence between natal sex (sex assigned at birth) and gender identity. Gender queer is a label sometimes used by people whose gender identity does not fit the established categories of male or female. Natal sex describes the gender a person is born with or is assigned to at birth. Transgender is an adjective to describe a person who crosses or transcends culturally defined categories of gender. Transition is the period of time when transgender individuals change from the gender role associated with their sex to a different gender role.

For a person to be immunocompetent, which processes need to be functional and interact appropriately with each other? (Select all that apply.) a. Antibody-mediated immunity b. Cell-mediated immunity c. Inflammation d. Red blood cells e. White blood cells

A, B, C Rationale: The three processes that need to be functional and interact with each other for a person to be immunocompetent are antibody-mediated immunity, cell-mediated immunity, and inflammation. Red and white blood cells are not processes.

A primary care clinic sees some clients with sexually transmitted diseases. Which clients would the nurse be required to report to the local authority in every state, according to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention? (Select all that apply.) a. Client with Chlamydia b. Woman with gonorrhea c. Man with syphilis d. Client with human immune deficiency virus e. Female with pelvic inflammatory disease

A, B, C, D Rationale: Chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis, chancroid, human immune deficiency virus (HIV), and acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) are all reportable to local authorities in every state. Pelvic inflammatory disease does not need to be reported.

A nurse works with many transgender clients. What routine monitoring is important for the nurse to facilitate in this population? (Select all that apply.) a. Lipid profile b. Liver function tests c. Mammograms if breast tissue is present d. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) for natal males e. Renal profile

A, B, C, D Rationale: Common routine monitoring for this population includes lipid and liver panels, mammograms if any breast tissue is present, and PSA for natal males as the prostate is not removed during a vaginoplasty/penectomy. Renal profiles are not required based on treatment options for this population.

A student nurse is learning about human immune deficiency virus (HIV) infection. Which statements about HIV infection are correct? (Select all that apply.) a. CD4+ cells begin to create new HIV virus particles. b. Antibodies produced are incomplete and do not function well. c. Macrophages stop functioning properly. d. Opportunistic infections and cancer are leading causes of death. e. People with stage 1 HIV disease are not infectious to others.

A, B, C, D Rationale: In HIV, CD4+ cells begin to create new HIV particles. Antibodies the client produces are incomplete and do not function well. Macrophages also stop functioning properly. Opportunistic infections and cancer are the two leading causes of death in clients with HIV infection. People infected with HIV are infectious in all stages of the disease.

A nurse is traveling to a third-world country with a medical volunteer group to work with people who are infected with human immune deficiency virus (HIV). The nurse should recognize that which of the following might be a barrier to the prevention of perinatal HIV transmission? (Select all that apply.) a. Clean drinking water b. Cultural beliefs about illness c. Lack of antiviral medication d. Social stigma e. Unknown transmission routes

A, B, C, D Rationale: Treatment and prevention of HIV complex, and in third-world countries barriers exist that one might not otherwise think of. Mothers must have access to clean drinking water if they are to mix formula. Cultural beliefs about illness, lack of available medications, and social stigma are also possible barriers. Perinatal transmission is well known to occur across the placenta during birth, from exposure to blood and body fluids during birth, and through breast-feeding.

A client came to the clinic with erectile dysfunction. What are some possible causes of this condition that the nurse could discuss with the client during history taking? (Select all that apply.) a. Recent prostatectomy b. Long-term hypertension c. Diabetes mellitus d. Hour-long exercise sessions e. Consumption of beer each night

A, B, C, E Rationale: Organic erectile dysfunction can be caused by surgical procedures, hypertension and its treatment, diabetes mellitus, and alcohol consumption. There is no evidence the exercise is related to this problem.

Which risk factors would the nurse teach a 23-year-old client about to prevent pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? (Select all that apply.) a. Having multiple sexual partners b. Using an intrauterine device (IUD) c. Smoking d. Drinking two alcoholic beverages per day e. Having a history of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)

A, B, C, E Rationale: Some of the same factors that place women at risk for STDs also place women at risk for PID: sexually active women of age younger than 26 years, multiple sexual partners, use of IUD, smoking, and history of STDs. Alcohol consumption does not impact a woman's risk for PID.

Which findings are AIDS-defining characteristics? (Select all that apply.) a. CD4+ cell count less than 200/mm3 or less than 14% b. Infection with Pneumocystis jiroveci c. Positive enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test for human immune deficiency virus (HIV) d. Presence of HIV wasting syndrome e. Taking antiretroviral medications

A, B, D Rationale: A diagnosis of AIDS requires that the person be HIV positive and have either CD4+ T-cell count of less than 200 cells/mm3 or less than 14% (even if the total CD4+ count is above 200 cells/mm3) or an opportunistic infection such a Pneumocystisis jiroveci and HIV wasting syndrome. Having a positive ELISA test and taking antiretroviral medications are not AIDS-defining characteristics.

The nurse is reviewing possible complications from a phalloplasty. What factors does the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Infection of donor site b. Necrosis of the neopenis c. Rectal perforation d. Urinary tract stenosis e. Vaginal infections

A, B, D Rationale: Complications from phalloplasty include infection or scarring of the donor site, necrosis, and stenosis of the urinary tract. Rectal perforation can occur with vaginoplasty, as can infections.

The nurse is teaching a client who is taking an oral antibiotic for treatment of a sexually transmitted disease (STD). Which statements by the client indicate a correct understanding of the treatment? (Select all that apply.) a. I need to drink at least 8 glasses of fluid each day with my antibiotic. b. I should read the instructions to see if I can take the medication with food. c. Antacids should not interfere with the effectiveness of the antibiotic. d. I need to wait 7 days after the last dose of the antibiotic to engage in intercourse. e. It should not matter if I skip a couple of doses of the antibiotic.

A, B, D Rationale: When a client is being treated with an oral antibiotic for an STD, 8 to 10 glasses of fluid should be routine, medication instructions should be reviewed, and at least a week break should occur between the last dose of the antibiotic and sexual intercourse to allow for the medications full effects. Use of antacids and missing doses could decrease the effectiveness of the antibiotic.

A nurse wants to reduce the risk potential for transmission of chlamydia and gonorrhea with a female client diagnosed with both diseases. Which items should be included in the clients teaching plan? (Select all that apply.) a. Expedited partner therapy b. Abstinence until therapy is completed c. Use of internal uterine devices d. Proper use of condoms e. Re-screening for infection f. Use of oral contraception

A, B, D, E Rationale: As part of client/partner education, the nurse should explain the expedited partner therapy (practice of treating both sexual partners by providing medication to the client for the partner). The nurse should also emphasize the need for abstinence from sexual intercourse until treatment is finished, proper use of condoms, and re-screening for re-infection 3 to 12 months after treatment. The use of an intrauterine device and oral contraception is not part of the plan.

A client being treated for syphilis visits the office with a possible allergic reaction to benzathine penicillin G. Which abnormal findings would the nurse expect to document? (Select all that apply.) a. Red rash b. Shortness of breath c. Heart irregularity d. Chest tightness e. Anxiety

A, B, D, E Rationale: The nurse should keep all clients at the office for at least 30 minutes after the administration of benzathine penicillin G. Allergic manifestations consist of rash, shortness of breath, chest tightness, and anxiety, depicting anaphylaxis and serum sickness. Heart irregularity is not seen as an allergic reaction.

Which are steps in the process of making an antigen-specific antibody? (Select all that apply.) a. Antibody-antigen binding b. Invasion c. Opsonization d. Recognition e. Sensitization

A, B, D, E Rationale: The seven steps in the process of making antigen-specific antibodies are: exposure/invasion, antigen recognition, sensitization, antibody production and release, antigen-antibody binding, antibody binding actions, and sustained immunity. Opsonization is the adherence of an antibody to the antigen, marking it for destruction.

The nurse is administering finasteride (Proscar) and doxazosin (Cardura) to a 67-year-old client with benign prostatic hyperplasia. What precautions are related to the side effects of these medications? (Select all that apply.) a. Assessing for blood pressure changes when lying, sitting, and arising from the bed b. Immediately reporting any change in the alanine aminotransferase laboratory test c. Teaching the client about the possibility of increased libido with these medications d. Taking the clients pulse rate for a minute in anticipation of bradycardia e. Asking the client to report any weakness, light-headedness, or dizziness

A, B, E Rationale: Both the 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor (5-ARI) and the alpha1-selective blocking agents can cause orthostatic hypotension and liver dysfunction. The 5-ARI agent (Proscar) can cause a decreased libido rather than an increased sexual drive. The alpha-blocking drug (Cardura) can cause tachycardia rather then bradycardia.

The nurse is taking a history of a 68-year-old woman. What assessment findings would indicate a high risk for the development of breast cancer? (Select all that apply.) a. Age greater than 65 years b. Increased breast density c. Osteoporosis d. Multiparity e. Genetic factors

A, B, E Rationale: The high risk factors for breast cancer are age greater than 65 with the risk increasing until age 80; an increase in breast density because of ore glandular and connective tissue; and inherited mutations of BRCA1 and/or BRCA2 genes. Osteoporosis and multiparity are not risk factors for breast cancer. A high postmenopausal bone density and nulliparity are moderate and low increased risk factors, respectively.

A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome and esophagitis due to Candida fungus is scheduled for an endoscopy. What actions by the nurse are most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Assess the clients mouth and throat. b. Determine if the client has a stiff neck. c. Ensure that the consent form is on the chart. d. Maintain NPO status as prescribed. e. Percuss the clients abdomen

A, C, D Rationale: Oral Candida fungal infections can lead to esophagitis. This is diagnosed with an endoscopy and biopsy. The nurse assesses the clients mouth and throat beforehand, ensures valid consent is on the chart, and maintains the client in NPO status as prescribed. A stiff neck and abdominal percussion are not related to this diagnostic procedure.

The student nurse is learning about the functions of different antibodies. Which principles does the student learn? (Select all that apply.) a. IgA is found in high concentrations in secretions from mucous membranes. b. IgD is present in the highest concentrations in mucous membranes. c. IgE is associated with antibody-mediated hypersensitivity reactions. d. IgG comprises the majority of the circulating antibody population. e. IgM is the first antibody formed by a newly sensitized B cell.

A, C, D, E Rationale: Immunoglobulin A (IgA) is found in high concentrations in secretions from mucous membranes. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is associated with antibody-mediated hypersensitivity reactions. The majority of the circulating antibody population consists of immunoglobulin G (IgG). The first antibody formed by newly sensitized B cell is immunoglobulin M (IgM). Immunoglobulin D (IgD) is typically present in low concentrations.

A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is hospitalized with Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia and is started on the drug of choice for this infection. What laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider as a priority? (Select all that apply.) a. Aspartate transaminase, alanine transaminase: elevated b. CD4+ cell count: 180/mm3 c. Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL d. Platelet count: 80,000/mm3 e. Serum sodium: 120 mEq/L

A, D, E Rationale: The drug of choice to treat Pneumocystisis jiroveci pneumonia is trimethoprim with sulfamethoxazole (Septra). Side effects of this drug include hepatitis, hyponatremia, and thrombocytopenia. The elevated liver enzymes, low platelet count, and low sodium should all be reported. The CD4+ cell count is within the expected range for a client with an AIDS-defining infection. The creatinine level is normal.

The nurse assesses clients for the cardinal signs of inflammation. Which signs/symptoms does this include? (Select all that apply.) a. Edema b. Pulselessness c. Pallor d. Redness e. Warmth

A, D, E Rationale: The five cardinal signs of inflammation include redness, warmth, pain, swelling, and decreased function.

A client is interested in learning about the risk factors for prostate cancer. Which factors does the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Family history of prostate cancer b. Smoking c. Obesity d. Advanced age e. Eating too much red meat f. Race

A, D, E, F Rationale: Advanced family history of prostate cancer, age, a diet high in animal fat, and race are all risk factors for prostate cancer.

A client with human immune deficiency virus (HIV) has had a sudden decline in status with a large increase in viral load. What action should the nurse take first? a. Ask the client about travel to any foreign countries. b. Assess the client for adherence to the drug regimen. c. Determine if the client has any new sexual partners. d. Request information about new living quarters or pets.

B Rationale: Adherence to the complex drug regimen for HIV treatment can be daunting. Clients must take their medications on time and correctly at a minimum of 90% of the time. Since this clients viral load has increased dramatically, the nurse should first assess this factor. After this, the other assessments may or may not be needed.

The nurse is administering sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Bactrim) to a client diagnosed with bacterial prostatitis. Which finding causes the nurse to question this medication for this client? a. Urinary tract infection b. Allergy to sulfa medications c. Hematuria d. Elevated serum white blood cells

B Rationale: Before administering sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim, the nurse must assess if the client is allergic to sulfa drugs. Urinary tract infection, hematuria, and elevated serum white blood cells are common problems associated with bacterial prostatitis that require long-term antibiotic therapy.

A male client is diagnosed with primary syphilis. Which question by the nurse is a priority at this time? a. Have you been using latex condoms? b. Are you allergic to penicillin? c. When was your last sexual encounter? d. Do you have a history of sexually transmitted disease?

B Rationale: Benzathine penicillin G is the evidence-based treatment for primary syphilis. The client needs to be assessed for allergies before treatment. The other questions would be helpful in the clients history of sexually transmitted diseases but not as important as knowing whether the client is allergic to penicillin.

A client has returned from a transurethral resection of the prostate with a continuous bladder irrigation. Which action by the nurse is a priority if bright red urinary drainage and clots are noted 5 hours after the surgery? a. Review the hemoglobin and hematocrit as ordered. b. Take vital signs and notify the surgeon immediately. c. Release the traction on the three-way catheter. d. Remind the client not to pull on the catheter.

B Rationale: Bright red drainage with clots may indicate arterial bleeding. Vital signs should be taken and the surgeon notified. The traction on the 3-way catheter should not be released since it places pressure at the surgical site to avoid bleeding. The nurses review of hemoglobin and hematocrit and reminding the client not to pull on the catheter are good choices, but not the priority at this time.

A client had a vaginoplasty under epidural anesthetic. Which action by the nurse is most important? a. Ensure that the urinary catheter is securely attached to the leg. b. Instruct the client not to try to get out of bed unassisted. c. Monitor the clients dressings and wound drainage. d. Position the Jackson-Pratt drain to the contralateral side.

B Rationale: Epidural anesthesia will cause the client to not be able to move (or feel) the legs for several hours. It is important for client safety that adequate help is available prior to this client to get out of bed. Securing the catheter to the leg and monitoring dressings and drainage are important for any client after surgery. Positioning the drain to the contralateral side is not needed.

A 19-year-old college student seeks information from the schools nurse about how to avoid sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) without abstinence as a choice. Which statement by the nurse is best? a. Urinating after intercourse will eliminate the risk of infection. b. A vaccine can prevent genital warts caused by some strains of the human papilloma virus (HPV). c. Oral contraception can prevent pregnancy and STDs. d. Good handwashing helps prevent infection associated with STDs

B Rationale: Gardasil is used to provide immunity for HPV types 6, 11, 16, and 18 that are high risk for cervical cancer and genital warts. While there is some truth that urination after intercourse may decrease the risk of infection by flushing out organisms, it does not eliminate the risk of contaminating bacteria traveling up the urethra. The other statements are not accurate

The nurse is teaching a transgender client about the medication goserelin (Zoladex). What action by the client indicates good understanding? a. Takes a manual blood pressure b. Administers a subcutaneous injection c. Prepares an implanted port for IV insertion d. States that the axillary area will be clothed

B Rationale: Goserelin is administered via subcutaneous injection. The other actions are not related to self-management while on this medication.

A client is concerned about the risk of lymphedema after a mastectomy. Which response by the nurse is best? a. You do not need to worry about lymphedema since you did not have radiation therapy. b. A risk factor for lymphedema is infection, so wear gloves when gardening outside. c. Numbness, tingling, and swelling are common sensations after a mastectomy. d. The risk for lymphedema is a real threat and can be very self-limiting.

B Rationale: Infection can create lymphedema; therefore, the client needs to be cautious with activities using the affected arm, such as gardening. Radiation therapy is just one of the factors that could cause lymphedema. Other risk factors include obesity and the presence of axillary disease. The symptoms of lymphedema are heaviness, aching, fatigue, numbness, tingling, and swelling, and are not common after the surgery. Women with lymphedema live fulfilling lives.

A client is preparing for gender reassignment surgery and will transition from male to female. The client is worried about the voice not sounding feminine enough. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask if the client has considered vocal cord surgery to change the voice. b. Refer the client for vocal therapy with speech-language pathology. c. Teach the client that there will be no effect on the clients voice. d. Tell the client that the use of hormones will eventually change the voice

B Rationale: Male-to-female clients can consult with a speech-language pathologist for vocal training to help with intonation and pitch. While vocal surgery is possible, it may not be the best first option due to cost and invasiveness. Telling the client there will be no change to the voice does not give the client information to address the concern. While the hormones this client is taking will not affect the voice, simply stating the fact does not help the client manage this issue.

A 68-year-old male client is embarrassed about having bilateral breast enlargement. Which statement by the nurse is the most appropriate? a. Breast cancer in men is quite rare. b. It is good that you came to be carefully evaluated. c. Gynecomastia usually comes from overeating. d. When you get older, the male breast always enlarges.

B Rationale: The most appropriate statement is the one that is supportive of the client. A breast mass should be carefully evaluated for breast cancer, even if it is not common. Gynecomastia as a symptom can be related to antiandrogen agents, aging, obesity, estrogen excess, or lack of androgens.

An African-American female with blisters on the vagina is being treated with acyclovir (Zovirax) for genital herpes. She is angry at her partner for transmitting the infection. Which action by the nurse is best? a. Encourage the client to engage in sexual activity since she is on medication. b. Be sensitive to the clients feelings and refer her to a support group. c. Reinforce that the disease can no longer be spread to other partners. d. Reassure the client that sexual activity will not be painful while on acyclovir

B Rationale: The nurse needs to be sensitive and supportive of the client since the infected clients may feel angry, lonely, and isolated. Allow the client to verbalize her feelings and refer her to a local support group, such as the National Herpes Resource Center. Sexual activity should not occur while the lesions are present because of discomfort and viral transmission. Genital herpes is an incurable viral disease, and the antiviral drugs minimize the infection but does not cure it. Condoms should be used to avoid the spread of the disease.

A 70-year-old client returned from a transurethral resection of the prostate 8 hours ago with a continuous bladder irrigation. The nurse reviews his laboratory results as follows: Sodium 128 mEq/L Hemoglobin 14 g/dL Hematocrit 42% Red blood cell count 4.5 What action by the nurse is the most appropriate? a. Consider starting a blood transfusion. b. Slow down the bladder irrigation if the urine is pink. c. Report the findings to the surgeon immediately. d. Take the vital signs every 15 minutes.

B Rationale: The serum sodium is decreased due to large-volume bladder irrigation. By slowing the irrigation, there will be less fluid overload and sodium dilution. The hemoglobin and hematocrit values are a low normal, with a slight decrease in red blood cell count. Therefore, a blood transfusion or frequent vital signs should not be necessary. Immediate report to the surgeon is not necessary.

A client is admitted to the emergency department with toxic shock syndrome. Which action by the nurse is the most important? a. Administer IV fluids to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance. b. Remove the tampon as the source of infection. c. Collect a blood specimen for culture and sensitivity. d. Transfuse the client to manage low blood count.

B Rationale: The source of the infection should be removed first. All of the other answers are possible interventions depending on the clients symptoms and vital signs, but removing the tampon is the priority.

The nurse is taking the history of a client who is scheduled for breast augmentation surgery. The client reveals that she took two aspirin this morning for a headache. Which action by nurse is best? a. Take the clients vital signs and record them in the chart. b. Notify the surgeon about the aspirin ingestion by the client. c. Warn the client that health insurance may not pay for the procedure. d. Teach the client about avoiding twisting above the waist after the operation.

B Rationale: The surgeon must be notified immediately since the aspirin could cause increased bleeding during the procedure. Vital signs should be recorded and postop teaching should be completed in the preop time frame, but these are not the priority since the procedure may be rescheduled. The warning about the clients health insurance is not appropriate at this time.

A student nurse is learning about the types of different cells involved in the inflammatory response. Which principles does the student learn? (Select all that apply.) a. Basophils are only involved in the general inflammatory process. b. Eosinophils increase during allergic reactions and parasitic invasion. c. Macrophages can participate in many episodes of phagocytosis. d. Monocytes turn into macrophages after they enter body tissues. e. Neutrophils can only take part in one episode of phagocytosis.

B, C, D, E Rationale: Eosinophils do increase during allergic and parasitic invasion. Macrophages participate in many episodes of phagocytosis. Monocytes turn into macrophages after they enter body tissues. Neutrophils only take part in one episode of phagocytosis. Basophils are involved in both the general inflammatory response and allergic or hypersensitivity responses.

A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome is in the hospital with severe diarrhea. What actions does the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Assessing the clients fluid and electrolyte status b. Assisting the client to get out of bed to prevent falls c. Obtaining a bedside commode if the client is weak d. Providing gentle perianal cleansing after stools e. Reporting any perianal abnormalities

B, C, D, E Rationale: The UAP can assist the client with getting out of bed, obtain a bedside commode for the clients use, cleanse the clients perianal area after bowel movements, and report any abnormal observations such as redness or open areas. The nurse assesses fluid and electrolyte status.

A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome has oral thrush and difficulty eating. What actions does the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Apply oral anesthetic gels before meals. b. Assist the client with oral care every 2 hours. c. Offer the client frequent sips of cool drinks. d. Provide the client with alcohol-based mouthwash. e. Remind the client to use only a soft toothbrush.

B, C, E Rationale: The UAP can help the client with oral care, offer fluids, and remind the client of things the nurse (or other professional) has already taught. Applying medications is performed by the nurse. Alcohol-based mouthwashes are harsh and drying and should not be used.

A client has just returned from a right radical mastectomy. Which action by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) would the nurse consider unsafe? a. Checking the amount of urine in the urine catheter collection bag b. Elevating the right arm on a pillow c. Taking the blood pressure on the right arm d. Encouraging the client to squeeze a rolled washcloth

C Rationale: Health care professionals need to avoid the arm on the right side of the surgery for blood pressure measurement, injections, or blood draws. Since lymph nodes are removed, lymph drainage would be compromised. The pressure from the blood pressure cuff could promote swelling. Infection could occur with injections and blood draws. Checking urine output, elevation of the affected arm on a pillow, and encouraging beginning exercises are all safe postoperative interventions.

With a history of breast cancer in the family, a 48-year-old female client is interested in learning about the modifiable risk factors for breast cancer. After the nurse explains this information, which statement made by the client indicates that more teaching is needed? a. I am fortunate that I breast-fed each of my three children for 12 months. b. It looks as though I need to start working out at the gym more often. c. I am glad that we can still have wine with every evening meal. d. When I have menopausal symptoms, I must avoid hormone replacement therapy.

C Rationale: Modifiable risk factors can help prevent breast cancer. The client should lessen alcohol intake and not have wine 7 days a week. Breast-feeding, regular exercise, and avoiding hormone replacement are also strategies for breast cancer prevention.

The nurse understands that which type of immunity is the longest acting? a. Artificial active b. Inflammatory c. Natural active d. Natural passive

C Rationale: Natural active immunity is the most effective and longest acting type of immunity. Artificial and natural passive do not last as long. Inflammatory is not a type of immunity.

What comfort measure can only be performed by a nurse, as opposed to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), for a client who returned from a left modified radical mastectomy 4 hours ago? a. Placing the head of bed at 30 degrees b. Elevating the left arm on a pillow c. Administering morphine for pain at a 4 on a 0-to-10 scale d. Supporting the left arm while initially ambulating the client

C Rationale: Only the nurse is authorized to give medications, but the UAP could inform the nurse about the rating of pain by the client. The UAP could position the bed to 30 degrees and elevate the clients arm on a pillow to facilitate lymphatic fluid drainage return. The clients arm should be supported while walking at first but then allowed to hang straight by the side. The UAP could support the arm while walking the client.

A 55-year-old male client is admitted to the emergency department with symptoms of a myocardial infarction. Which question by the nurse is the most appropriate before administering nitroglycerin? a. On a scale from 0 to 10, what is the rating of your chest pain? b. Are you allergic to any food or medications? c. Have you taken any drugs like Viagra recently? d. Are you light-headed or dizzy right now?

C Rationale: Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors such as sildenafil (Viagra) relax smooth muscles to increase blood flow to the penis for treatment of erectile dysfunction. In combination with nitroglycerin, there can be extreme hypotension with reduction of blood flow to the vital organs. The other questions are appropriate but not the highest priority before administering nitroglycerin.

A client with HIV is admitted to the hospital with fever, night sweats, and severe cough. Laboratory results include a CD4+ cell count of 180/mm3 and a negative TB skin test 4 days ago. What action should the nurse take first? a. Initiate Droplet precautions b. Notify the provider about the CD4+ results c. Place the client under Airborne Precautions d. Use Standard Precautions to provide care

C Rationale: Since this clients CD4+ cell count is low, he or she may have anergy, or the inability to mount an immune response to the TB test. The nurse should first place the client on Airborne Precautions to prevent the spread of TB if it is present. Next the nurse notifies the provider about the low CD4+ count and requests alternative testing for TB. Droplet Precautions are not used for TB. Standard Precautions are not adequate in this case.

A 25-year-old client has recently been diagnosed with testicular cancer and is scheduled for radiation therapy. Which intervention by the nurse is best? a. Ask the client about his support system of friends and relatives. b. Encourage the client to verbalize his fears about sexual performance. c. Explore with the client the possibility of sperm collection. d. Provide privacy to allow time for reflection about the treatment.

C Rationale: Sperm collection is a viable option for a client diagnosed with testicular cancer and should ne completed before radiation therapy, chemotherapy, or radical lymph node dissection. The other options would promote psychosocial support but are not the priority intervention.

A transgender client taking spironolactone (Aldactone) is in the internal medicine clinic reporting heart palpitations. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Draw blood to test serum potassium. b. Have the client lie down. c. Obtain a STAT electrocardiogram (ECG). d. Take a set of vital signs

C Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, and hyperkalemia can cause cardiac dysrhythmias. The nurses priority is to obtain an ECG, then to facilitate a serum potassium level being drawn. Having the client lie down and obtaining vital signs are also important care measures, but do not take priority.

A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with stage III breast cancer. She seems to be extremely anxious. What action by the nurse is best? a. Encourage the client to search the Internet for information tonight. b. Ask the client if sexuality has been a problem with her partner. c. Explore the idea of a referral to a breast cancer support group. d. Assess whether there has been any mental illness in her past.

C Rationale: Support for the diagnosis would be best with a referral to a breast cancer support group. The Internet may be a good source of information, but the day of diagnosis would be too soon. The nurse could assess the frequency and satisfaction of sexual relations but should not assume that there is a problem in the area. Assessment of mental illness is not an appropriate action.

A client is starting hormonal therapy with tamoxifen (Nolvadex) to lower the risk for breast cancer. What information needs to be explained by the nurse regarding the action of this drug? a. It blocks the release of luteinizing hormone. b. It interferes with cancer cell division. c. It selectively blocks estrogen in the breast. d. It inhibits DNA synthesis in rapidly dividing cells.

C Rationale: Tamoxifen (Nolvadex) reduces the estrogen available to breast tumors to stop or prevent growth. This drug does not block the release of luteinizing hormone to prevent the ovaries from producing estrogen; leuprolide (Lupron) does this. Chemotherapy agents such as ixabepilone (Ixempra) interfere with cancer cell division, and doxorubicin (Adriamycin) inhibits DNA synthesis in susceptible cells.

A nurse is assessing a client who presents with a scaly rash over the palms and soles of the feet and the feeling of muscle aches and malaise. The nurse suspects syphilis. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? a. Reassure the client that this stage is not infectious unless she is pregnant. b. Assess the client for hearing loss and generalized weakness. c. Don gloves and further assess the clients lesions. d. Take a history regarding any cardiovascular symptom.

C Rationale: The client is displaying symptoms similar to secondary syphilis, with flu-like symptoms and rash due to the spirochetes circulating throughout the bloodstream. Therefore, the nurse needs to further assess the clients lesions with gloves since the client is highly contagious at this stage. Late latent syphilis is not infectious except to a fetus. Tertiary syphilis may display in the form of cardiovascular or CNS symptoms.

A woman is admitted to the hospital for antibiotic therapy for pelvic inflammatory disease. She is in pain, with a rating of 7 on a scale of 0 to 10. What comfort measure can the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Administer Tylenol #3 immediately. b. Apply a heating pad to the lower abdomen. c. Position the client in a semi-Fowlers position. d. Teach the client to increase intake of fluids.

C Rationale: The client with pelvic inflammatory disease usually experiences lower abdominal tenderness. The UAP can position the client. Only the nurse can administer medications, initially apply heat to the clients abdomen, and perform teaching.

The nurse is examining a woman's breast and notes multiple small mobile lumps. Which question would be the most appropriate for the nurse to ask? a. When was your last mammogram at the clinic? b. How many cans of caffeinated soda do you drink in a day? c. Do the small lumps seem to change with your menstrual period? d. Do you have a first-degree relative who has breast cancer?

C Rationale: The most appropriate question would be one that relates to benign lesions that usually change in response to hormonal changes within a menstrual cycle. Reduction of caffeine in the diet has been shown to give relief in fibrocystic breast conditions, but research has not found that it has a significant impact. Questions related to the clients last mammogram or breast cancer history are not related to the nurses assessment.

A nurse is reviewing the chart of a new client in the family medicine clinic and notes the client is identified as George Smith. The nurse enters the room and finds a woman in a skirt. What action by the nurse is best? a. Apologize and declare confusion about the client. b. Ask Mrs. Smith where her husband is right now. c. Ask the client about preferred forms of address. d. Explain that the chart must contain an error.

C Rationale: The nurse may encounter transgender clients whose outward appearance does not match their demographic data. In this case, the nurse should greet the client and ask the client to explain his or her preferred forms of address. Lengthy apologies can often create embarrassment. The nurse should not assume the client is not present in the room. The chart may or may not contain errors, but that is not related to determining how the client prefers to be addressed.

A 55-year-old African-American client is having a visit with his health care provider. What test should the nurse discuss with the client as an option to screen for prostate cancer, even though screening is not routinely recommended? a. Complete blood count b. Culture and sensitivity c. Prostate-specific antigen d. Cystoscopy

C Rationale: The prostate-specific antigen test should be discussed as an option for prostate cancer screening . A complete blood count and culture and sensitivity lab test will be ordered if infection is suspected. A cystoscopy would be performed to assess the effect of a bladder neck obstruction.

The student nurse learns that the most important function of inflammation and immunity is which purpose? a. Destroying bacteria before damage occurs b. Preventing any entry of foreign material c. Providing protection against invading organisms d. Regulating the process of self-tolerance

C Rationale: The purpose of inflammation and immunity is to provide protection to the body against invading organisms, whether they are bacterial, viral, protozoal, or fungal. These systems eliminate, destroy, or neutralize the offending agents. The cells of the immune system are the only cells that can distinguish self from non-self. This function is generalized and incorporates destroying bacteria, preventing entry of foreign invaders, and regulating self-tolerance.

A female client returned to the clinic with a yellow vaginal discharge after being treated for Chlamydia infection 3 weeks ago. Which statement by the client alerts the nurse that there may be a recurrence of the infection? a. I did practice abstinence while taking the medication. b. I took doxycycline two times a day for a week. c. I never told my boyfriend about the infection. d. I did drink wine when taking the medication for Chlamydia.

C Rationale: There is a good possibility that the boyfriend re-infected the client after the medication regimen was finished. Both the client and the boyfriend need to be treated. The other statements were in compliance with the recommendations of abstinence and the usual medication regimen with doxycycline. Wine should not interfere with the treatment.

During dressing changes, the nurse assesses a client who has had breast reconstruction. Which finding would cause the nurse to take immediate action? a. Slightly reddened incisional area b. Blood pressure of 128/75 mm Hg c. Temperature of 99 F (37.2 C) d. Dusky color of the flap

D Rationale: A dusky color of the breast flap could indicate poor tissue perfusion and decreased capillary refill. The nurse should notify the surgeon to preserve the tissue. It is normal to have a slightly reddened incision as the skin heals. The blood pressure is within normal limits and the temperature is slightly elevated but should be monitored.

A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome is hospitalized and has weeping Kaposis sarcoma lesions. The nurse dresses them with sterile gauze. When changing these dressings, which action is most important? a. Adhering to Standard Precautions b. Assessing tolerance to dressing changes c. Performing hand hygiene before and after care d. Disposing of soiled dressings properly

D Rationale: All of the actions are important, but due to the infectious nature of this illness, ensuring proper disposal of soiled dressings is vital.

A client is diagnosed with a fibrocystic breast condition while in the hospital and is experiencing breast discomfort. What comfort measure would the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Aid in the draining of the cysts by needle aspiration. b. Teach the client to wear a supportive bra to bed. c. Administer diuretics to decrease breast swelling. d. Obtain a cold pack to temporarily relieve the pain.

D Rationale: All of the options would be comfort measures for a client with a fibrocystic breast condition. The UAP can obtain the cold or heat therapy. Only the nursed should aid the healthcare provider with a needle aspiration, teach, and administer medications.

A client with pelvic inflammatory disease is seen by the nurse 72 hours after starting oral antibiotics. Which finding leads the nurse to take immediate action? a. Feelings of anger that her partner infected her b. Loose stools over the last 2 days c. Anorexia and nausea d. Chills and a temperature of 101 F

D Rationale: Chills and fever could indicate a persistent infection and the immediate need to alter the dose or type of antibiotic. Anger is a normal reaction to a sexually transmitted disease and the pain of pelvic inflammatory disease. Gastrointestinal symptoms are common side effects of antibiotics but not an immediate cause for intervention.

An older adult has a mild temperature, night sweats, and productive cough. The clients tuberculin test comes back negative. What action by the nurse is best? a. Recommend a pneumonia vaccination. b. Teach the client about viral infections. c. Tell the client to rest and drink plenty of fluids. d. Treat the client as if he or she has tuberculosis (TB).

D Rationale: Due to an age-related decrease in circulating T lymphocytes, the older adult may have a falsely negative TB test. With sign and symptoms of TB, the nurse treats the client as if he or she does have TB. A pneumonia vaccination is not warranted at this time. TB is not a viral infection. The client should rest and drink plenty of fluids, but this is not the best answer as it does not address the possibility that the clients TB test could be a false negative.

A client is diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia and seems sad and irritable. After assessing the clients behavior, which statement by the nurse would be the most appropriate? a. The urine incontinence should not prevent you from socializing. b. You seem depressed and should seek more pleasant things to do. c. It is common for men at your age to have changes in mood. d. Nocturia could cause interruption of your sleep and cause changes in mood.

D Rationale: Frequent visits to the bathroom uring the night could cause sleep interruptions and affect the clients mood and mental status. Incontinence could cause the client to feel embarrassment and cause him to limit his activities outside the home. The social isolation could lead to clinical depression and should be treated professionally. The nurse should not give advice before exploring the clients response to change his behavior. The statement about age has no validity.

A 19-year-old female is asking the nurse about the vaccine for human papilloma virus (HPV). Which statement by the nurse is accurate? a. Gardasil protects against all HPV strains. b. You are too young to receive the vaccine. c. Only females can receive the vaccine. d. This will lower your risk for cervical cancer.

D Rationale: Gardasil is used to provide immunity for HPV types 6, 11, 16, and 18 that are high risk for cervical cancer and warts. The vaccine is recommended for people ages 10-26 years.

After a vaginoplasty, what instruction by the nurse is most important? a. Avoid vaginal douching to prevent infection. b. Do not have sexual intercourse for at least 6 months. c. Use oil-based lubricants with the vaginal dilators. d. You must dilate the vagina several times a day for months.

D Rationale: Self-care management for this client includes instructions to dilate the new vagina several times a day for months after the procedure, using water-based lubricant. The client also needs to douche regularly, especially after intercourse, to avoid infections. Sexual intercourse is another way to keep the vagina dilated.

While evaluating a male client for treatment of gonorrhea, which question is the most important for the nurse to ask? a. Do you have a history of sexually transmitted disease? b. When was your last sexual encounter? c. When did your symptoms begin? d. What are the names of your recent sexual partners?

D Rationale: Sexual partners, as well as the client, should be tested and treated for gonorrhea. Asking about sexually transmitted disease history, last sexual encounter, and onset of symptoms would be helpful with the history taking, but the priority is treating the clients sexual partners to limit the spread of the disease.

The nurse working with clients who have autoimmune diseases understands that what component of cell- mediated immunity is the problem? a. CD4+ cells b. Cytotoxic T cells c. Natural killer cells d. Suppressor T cells

D Rationale: Suppressor T cells help prevent hypersensitivity to ones own cells, which is the basis for autoimmune disease. CD4+ cells are also known as helper/inducer cells, which secrete cytokines. Natural killer cells have direct cytotoxic effects on some non-self cells without first being sensitized. Suppressor T cells have an inhibitory action on the immune system. Cytotoxic T cells are effective against self cells infected by parasites such as viruses or protozoa.

A nurse and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are caring for a client with an open radical prostatectomy. Which comfort measure could the nurse delegate to the UAP? a. Administering an antispasmodic for bladder spasms b. Managing pain through patient-controlled analgesia c. Applying ice to a swollen scrotum and penis d. Helping the client transfer from the bed to the chair

D Rationale: The UAP could aid the client in transferring from the bed to the chair and with ambulation. The nurse would be responsible for medication administration, assessment of swelling, and the application of ice if needed.

The nurse teaches a client with genital herpes about effective comfort measures. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching by the nurse? a. I can apply warm towels or ice packs to the lesions. b. Sitz baths three times a day may help ease the pain. c. I understand there are anesthetic sprays and ointments. d. I really should try to limit urination due to the pain.

D Rationale: The client should urinate frequently, not limit voiding. Voiding while in the shower or tub should lessen the discomfort. Warm compress, ice packs, sitz baths, and anesthetic sprays and ointments are all effective comfort measures that can be used with genital herpes.

A 37-year-old Nigerian woman is at high risk for breast cancer and is considering a prophylactic mastectomy and oophorectomy. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Discourage this surgery since the woman is still of childbearing age. b. Reassure the client that reconstructive surgery is as easy as breast augmentation. c. Inform the client that this surgery removes all mammary tissue and cancer risk. d. Include support people, such as the male partner, in the decision making.

D Rationale: The cultural aspects of decision making need to be considered. In the Nigerian culture, the man often makes the decisions for care of the female. Women with a high risk for breast cancer can consider prophylactic surgery. If reconstructive surgery is considered, the procedure is more complex and will have more complications compared to a breast augmentation. There is a small risk that breast cancer can still develop in the remaining mammary tissue.

A client with HIV wasting syndrome has inadequate nutrition. What assessment finding by the nurse best indicates that goals have been met for this client problem? a. Chooses high-protein food b. Has decreased oral discomfort c. Eats 90% of meals and snacks d. Has a weight gain of 2 pounds/1 month

D Rationale: The weight gain is the best indicator that goals for this client problem have been met because it demonstrates that the client not only is eating well but also is able to absorb the nutrients.

A nurse instructor is teaching a student nurse about the factors that have increased the number of people with sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) seen in practice. Which statement by the student indicates a lack of understanding? a. There are improved techniques to diagnose an STD used in practice. b. There is increased incidence of sexual abuse and sexual trafficking. c. Females feel safe using oral agents rather than a condom as contraception. d. The organisms causing STDs are all becoming more virulent.

D Rationale: There is no evidence that the organisms that cause STDs are becoming more virulent, but a client may need to use another anti-infective if allergic if allergic of the protocol was not effective. Extensive histories are taken in the clinic of clients of all ages, as well as assessment of laboratory data such as cervical, urethral, oral, or rectal specimens and lesion samples for microbiology and virology. There are changes in sexual attitudes and practices, cultural factors, migration, and international travel. Women often think that the oral contraceptives protect them from an STD.

Which action would the nurse teach to help the client prevent vulvovaginitis? a. Wipe back to front after urination. b. Cleanse the inner labial mucosa with soap and water. c. Use feminine hygiene sprays to avoid odor. d. Wear loose cotton underwear

D Rationale: To prevent vulvovaginitis, the client should wear cotton underwear. The client should wipe front to back after urination, not back to front. The client should cleanse the inner labial mucosa with water only, and avoid using feminine hygiene sprays.

A nurse is caring for four postoperative clients who each had a total abdominal hysterectomy. Which client should the nurse assess first upon initial rounding? a. Client who has had two saturated perineal pads in the last 2 hours b. Client with a temperature of 99 F and blood pressure of 115/73 mm Hg c. Client who has pain of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10 d. Client with a urinary catheter output of 150 mL in the last 3 hours

A Rationale: Normal vaginal bleeding should be less than one saturated perineal pad in 4 hours. Two saturated pads in such a short time could indicate hemorrhage, which is a priority. The other clients also have needs, but the client with excessive bleeding should be assessed first.

The nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client who had a total abdominal hysterectomy. Which statements by the client indicate a need for further teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. I should not have any problems driving to see my mother, who lives 3 hours away. b. Now that I have time off from work, I can return to my exercise routine next week. c. My granddaughter weighs 23 pounds, so I need to refrain from picking her up. d. I will have to limit the times that I climb our stairs at home to morning and night. e. For 1 month, I will need to refrain from sexual intercourse.

A, B Rationale: Driving and sitting for extended periods of time should be avoided until the surgeon gives permission. For 2 to 6 weeks, exercise participation should also be avoided. All of the other responses demonstrate adequate knowledge for discharge. The client should not lift anything heavier than 10 pounds, should limit stair climbing, and should refrain from sexual intercourse.

The nurse is taking the history of a 24-year-old client diagnosed with cervical cancer. What possible risk factors would the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Smoking b. Multiple sexual partners c. Poor diet d. Nulliparity e. Younger than 18 at first intercourse

A, B, C, E Rationale: Smoking, multiple sexual partners, poor diet, and age less than 18 for first intercourse are all risk factors for cervical cancer. Nulliparity is a risk factor for endometrial cancer.

A 20-year-old client is interested in protection from the human papilloma virus (HPV) since she may become sexually active. Which response from the nurse is the most accurate? a. You are too old to receive an HPV vaccine. b. Either Gardasil or Cervarix can provide protection. c. You will need to have three injections over a span of 1 year. d. The most common side effect of the vaccine is itching at the injection site.

B Rationale: Current HPV vaccines are Gardasil and Cervarix, which should be given before the first sexual contact to protect against the highest risk of HPV types associated with cervical cancer. The client is not too old since it is recommended that young women up to 26 years should receive an HPV vaccine. The entire series consists of three injections over 6 months, not 1 year. Local pain and redness surrounding the injection site are very common, but this does not include itching.

A client has a leg wound that is in the second stage of the inflammatory response. For what manifestation does the nurse assess? a. Noticeable rubor b. Purulent drainage c. Swelling and pain d. Warmth at the site

B Rationale: During the second phase of the inflammatory response, neutrophilia occurs, producing pus. Rubor (redness), swelling, pain, and warmth are cardinal signs of the general inflammatory process.

A transgender client is taking transdermal estrogen (Climara). What assessment finding does the nurse report immediately to the provider? a. Breast tenderness b. Headaches c. Red, swollen calf d. Swollen ankles

C Rationale: A red, swollen calf could be a manifestation of deep vein thrombosis, a known side effect of estrogen. The nurse reports this finding immediately. The other manifestations are also side effects of estrogen, but do not need to be reported as a priority.

A 55-year-old post-menopausal woman is assessed by the nurse with a history of dyspareunia, backache, pelvis pressure, urinary tract infections, and a frequent urinary urgency. Which condition does the nurse suspect? a. Ovarian cyst b. Rectocele c. Cystocele d. Fibroid

C Rationale: Dyspareunia, backache, pelvis pressure, urinary tract infections, and urinary urgency are all symptoms of a cystocelea protrusion of the bladder through the vaginal wall. Ovarian cysts are rare after menopause. A rectocele is associated with constipation, hemorrhoids, and fecal impaction. Fibroids are associated with heavy bleeding.

Which finding in a female client by the nurse would receive the highest priority of further diagnostics? a. Tender moveable masses throughout the breast tissue b. A 3-cm firm, defined mobile mass in the lower quadrant of the breast c. Nontender immobile mass in the upper outer quadrant of the breast d. Small, painful mass under warm reddened skin

C Rationale: Malignant lesions are hard, nontender, and usually located in the upper outer quadrant of the breast and would be the priority for further diagnostic study. The other lesions are benign breast disorders. The tender moveable masses throughout the breast tissue could be fibrocystic breast condition. A firm, defined mobile mass in the lower quadrant of the breast is fibroadenoma, and a panful mass under warm reddened skin could be a local abscess or ductal ectasia.

A client with HIV/AIDS asks the nurse why gabapentin (Neurontin) is part of the drug regimen when the client does not have a history of seizures. What response by the nurse is best? a. Gabapentin can be used as an antidepressant too. b. I have no idea why you should be taking this. c. This drug helps treat the pain from nerve irritation. d. You are at risk for seizures due to fungal infections.

C Rationale: Many classes of medications are used for neuropathic pain, including tricyclic antidepressants such as gabapentin. It is not being used as an antidepressant or to prevent seizures from fungal infections. If the nurse does not know the answer, he or she should find out for the client.

The client is emotionally upset about the recent diagnosis of stage IV endometrial cancer. Which action by the nurse is best? a. Let the client alone for a long period of reflection time. b. Ask friends and relatives to limit their visits. c. Tell the client that an emotional response is unacceptable. d. Create an atmosphere of acceptance and discussion.

D Rationale: Discussion of the clients concerns about the presence of cancer and the potential for reoccurrence will provide emotional support and allay fears. Coping behaviors are encouraging with the support of friends and relatives. An emotional response should be accepted.

A client has just returned from a total abdominal hysterectomy and needs postoperative nursing care. What action can the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Assess heart, lung, and bowel sounds. b. Check the hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. c. Evaluate the dressing for drainage. d. Empty the urine from the urinary catheter bag.

D Rationale: The UAP is able to empty the urinary output from the catheter. The nurse would assess the heart, lung, and bowel sounds; check the hemoglobin and hematocrit levels; and evaluate the drainage on the dressing.