med surg Unit 1 chapter 13-14-15

3.A nurse teaches a client who is being discharged home with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching? a. Avoid carrying your grandchild with the arm that has the central catheter. b. Be sure to place the arm with the central catheter in a sling during the day. c. Flush the peripherally inserted central catheter line with normal saline daily. d. You can use the arm with the central catheter for most activities of daily living.

ANS: A A properly placed PICC (in the antecubital fossa or the basilic vein) allows the client considerable freedom of movement. Clients can participate in most activities of daily living; however, heavy lifting can dislodge the catheter or occlude the lumen. Although it is important to keep the insertion site and tubing dry, the client can shower. The device is flushed with heparin.

10.A nurse responds to an IV pump alarm related to increased pressure. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Check for kinking of the catheter. b. Flush the catheter with a thrombolytic enzyme. c. Get a new infusion pump. d. Remove the IV catheter.

ANS: A Fluid flow through the infusion system requires that pressure on the external side be greater than pressure at the catheter tip. Fluid flow can be slowed for many reasons. A common reason, and one that is easy to correct, is a kinked catheter. If this is not the cause of the pressure alarm, the nurse may have to ascertain whether a clot has formed inside the catheter lumen, or if the pump is no longer functional. Removal of the IV catheter and placement of a new IV catheter should be completed when no other option has resolved the problem.

16.A medical-surgical nurse is concerned about the incidence of complications related to IV therapy, including bloodstream infection. Which intervention should the nurse suggest to the management team to make the biggest impact on decreasing complications? a. Initiate a dedicated team to insert access devices. b. Require additional education for all nurses. c. Limit the use of peripheral venous access devices. d. Perform quality control testing on skin preparation products.

ANS: A The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommends having a dedicated IV team to reduce complications, save money, and improve client satisfaction and outcomes. In-service education would always be helpful, but it would not have the same outcomes as an IV team. Limiting IV starts to the most experienced nurses does not allow newer nurses to gain this expertise. The quality of skin preparation products is only one aspect of IV insertion that could contribute to infection.

9.While assessing a clients peripheral IV site, the nurse observes a streak of red along the vein path and palpates a 4-cm venous cord. How should the nurse document this finding? a. Grade 3 phlebitis at IV site b. Infection at IV site c. Thrombosed area at IV site d. Infiltration at IV site

ANS: A The presence of a red streak and palpable cord indicates grade 3 phlebitis. No information in the description indicates that infection, thrombosis, or infiltration is present.

2. A nurse assesses a client who is experiencing an acid-base imbalance. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 7.32, PaO2 94 mm Hg, PaCO2 34 mm Hg, and HCO3 18 mEq/L. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Reduced deep tendon reflexes b. Drowsiness c. Increased respiratory rate d. Decreased urinary output e. Positive Trousseaus sign

ANS: A, B, C Metabolic acidosis causes neuromuscular changes, including reduced muscle tone and deep tendon reflexes. Clients usually present with lethargy and drowsiness. The respiratory system will attempt to compensate for the metabolic acidosis; therefore, respirations will increase rate and depth. A positive Trousseaus sign is associated with alkalosis. Decreased urine output is not a manifestation of metabolic acidosis

3.A nurse prepares to administer a blood transfusion to a client, and checks the blood label with a second registered nurse using the International Society of Blood Transfusion (ISBT) universal bar-coding system to ensure the right blood for the right client. Which components must be present on the blood label in bar code and in eye-readable format? (Select all that apply.) a. Unique facility identifier b. Lot number related to the donor c. Name of the client receiving blood d. ABO group and Rh type of the donor e. Blood type of the client receiving blood

ANS: A, B, D The ISBT universal bar-coding system includes four components: (1) the unique facility identifier, (2) the lot number relating to the donor, (3) the product code, and (4) the ABO group and Rh type of the donor.

4.A nurse assists with the insertion of a central vascular access device. Which actions should the nurse ensure are completed to prevent a catheter-related bloodstream infection? (Select all that apply.) a. Include a review for the need of the device each day in the clients plan of care. b. Remind the provider to perform hand hygiene prior to starting the procedure. c. Cleanse the preferred site with alcohol and let it dry completely before insertion. d. Ask everyone in the room to wear a surgical mask during the procedure. e. Plan to complete a sterile dressing change on the device every day.

ANS: A, B, D The central vascular access device bundle to prevent catheter-related bloodstream infections includes using a checklist during insertion, performing hand hygiene before inserting the catheter and anytime someone touches the catheter, using chlorhexidine to disinfect the skin at the site of insertion, using preferred sites, and reviewing the need for the catheter every day. The practitioner who inserts the device should wear sterile gloves, gown and mask, and anyone in the room should wear a mask. A sterile dressing change should be completed per organizational policy, usually every 7 days and as needed.

2.A nurse assesses a client who has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). For which complications should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Phlebitis b. Pneumothorax c. Thrombophlebitis d. Excessive bleeding e. Extravasation

ANS: A, C Although the complication rate with PICCs is fairly low, the most common complications are phlebitis, thrombophlebitis, and catheter-related bloodstream infection. Pneumothorax, excessive bleeding, and extravasation are not common complications.

1.A nurse is caring for a client who has just had a central venous access line inserted. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Begin the prescribed infusion via the new access. b. Ensure an x-ray is completed to confirm placement. c. Check medication calculations with a second RN. d. Make sure the solution is appropriate for a central line.

ANS: B A central venous access device, once placed, needs an x-ray confirmation of proper placement before it is used. The bedside nurse would be responsible for beginning the infusion once placement has been verified. Any IV solution can be given through a central line.

4.A nurse is caring for a client who is having a subclavian central venous catheter inserted. The client begins to report chest pain and difficulty breathing. After administering oxygen, which action should the nurse take next? a. Administer a sublingual nitroglycerin tablet. b. Prepare to assist with chest tube insertion. c. Place a sterile dressing over the IV site. d. Re-position the client into the Trendelenburg position.

ANS: B An insertion-related complication of central venous catheters is a pneumothorax. Signs and symptoms of a pneumothorax include chest pain and dyspnea. Treatment includes removing the catheter, administering oxygen, and placing a chest tube. Pain is caused by the pneumothorax, which must be taken care of with a chest tube insertion. Use of a sterile dressing and placement of the client in a Trendelenburg position are not indicated for the primary problem of a pneumothorax.

13.A nurse teaches a client who is prescribed a central vascular access device. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching? a. You will need to wear a sling on your arm while the device is in place. b. There is no risk of infection because sterile technique will be used during insertion. c. Ask all providers to vigorously clean the connections prior to accessing the device. d. You will not be able to take a bath with this vascular access device.

ANS: C Clients should be actively engaged in the prevention of catheter-related bloodstream infections and taught to remind all providers to perform hand hygiene and vigorously clean connections prior to accessing the device. The other statements are incorrect.

2.A nurse assesses a client who has a radial artery catheter. Which assessment should the nurse complete first? a. Amount of pressure in fluid container b. Date of catheter tubing change c. Percent of heparin in infusion container d. Presence of an ulnar pulse

ANS: D An intra-arterial catheter may cause arterial occlusion, which can lead to absent or decreased perfusion to the extremity. Assessment of an ulnar pulse is one way to assess circulation to the arm in which the catheter is located. The nurse would note that there is enough pressure in the fluid container to keep the system flushed, and would check to see whether the catheter tubing needs to be changed. However, these are not assessments of greatest concern. Because of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, heparin is not used in most institutions for an arterial catheter.

6.A nurse assesses a client who had an intraosseous catheter placed in the left leg. Which assessment finding is of greatest concern? a. The catheter has been in place for 20 hours. b. The client has poor vascular access in the upper extremities. c. The catheter is placed in the proximal tibia. d. The clients left lower extremity is cool to the touch

ANS: D Compartment syndrome is a condition in which increased tissue perfusion in a confined anatomic space causes decreased blood flow to the area. A cool extremity can signal the possibility of this syndrome. All other findings are important; however, the possible development of compartment syndrome requires immediate intervention because the client could require amputation of the limb if the nurse does not correctly assess this perfusion problem.

15.A nurse assesses a client who was started on intraperitoneal therapy 5 days ago. The client reports abdominal pain and feeling warm. For which complication of this therapy should the nurse assess this client? a. Allergic reaction b. Bowel obstruction c. Catheter lumen occlusion d. Infection

ANS: D Fever, abdominal pain, abdominal rigidity, and rebound tenderness may be present in the client who has peritonitis related to intraperitoneal therapy. Peritonitis is preventable by using strict aseptic technique in handling all equipment and infusion supplies. An allergic reaction would occur earlier in the course of treatment. Bowel obstruction and catheter lumen occlusion can occur but would present clinically in different ways.

8.A nurse assesses a clients peripheral IV site, and notices edema and tenderness above the site. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Apply cold compresses to the IV site. b. Elevate the extremity on a pillow. c. Flush the catheter with normal saline. d. Stop the infusion of intravenous fluids.

ANS: D Infiltration occurs when the needle dislodges partially or completely from the vein. Signs of infiltration include edema and tenderness above the site. The nurse should stop the infusion and remove the catheter. Cold compresses and elevation of the extremity can be done after the catheter is discontinued to increase client comfort. Alternatively, warm compresses may be prescribed per institutional policy and may help speed circulation to the area.

3. A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) for hypertension. For which acid-base imbalance should the nurse assess to prevent complications of this therapy? a. Respiratory acidosis b. Respiratory alkalosis c. Metabolic acidosis d. Metabolic alkalosis

ANS: D Many diuretics, especially loop diuretics, increase the excretion of hydrogen ions, leading to excess acid loss through the renal system. This situation is an acid deficit of metabolic origin.

6. A nurse is evaluating a client who is being treated for dehydration. Which assessment result should the nurse correlate with a therapeutic response to the treatment plan? a. Increased respiratory rate from 12 breaths/min to 22 breaths/min b. Decreased skin turgor on the clients posterior hand and forehead c. Increased urine specific gravity from 1.012 to 1.030 g/mL d. Decreased orthostatic light-headedness and dizziness

ANS: D The focus of management for clients with dehydration is to increase fluid volumes to normal. When fluid volumes return to normal, clients should perfuse the brain more effectively, therefore improving confusion and decreasing orthostatic light-headedness or dizziness. Increased respiratory rate, decreased skin turgor, and increased specific gravity are all manifestations of dehydration.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing moderate metabolic alkalosis. Which action should the nurse take? a. Monitor daily hemoglobin and hematocrit values. b. Administer furosemide (Lasix) intravenously. c. Encourage the client to take deep breaths. d. Teach the client fall prevention measures.

ANS: D The priority nursing care for a client who is experiencing moderate metabolic alkalosis is providing client safety. Clients with metabolic alkalosis have muscle weakness and are at risk for falling. The other nursing interventions are not appropriate for metabolic alkalosis.

10. A nurse evaluates the following arterial blood gas values in a client: pH 7.48, PaO2 98 mm Hg, PaCO2 28 mm Hg, and HCO3 22 mEq/L. Which client condition should the nurse correlate with these results? a. Diarrhea and vomiting for 36 hours b. Anxiety-induced hyperventilation c. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) d. Diabetic ketoacidosis and emphysema

ANS : B The elevated pH level indicates alkalosis. The bicarbonate level is normal, and so is the oxygen partial pressure. Loss of carbon dioxide is the cause of the alkalosis, which would occur in response to hyperventilation. Diarrhea and vomiting would cause metabolic alterations, COPD would lead to respiratory acidosis, and the client with emphysema most likely would have combined metabolic acidosis on top of a mild, chronic respiratory acidosis.

2.A client is prescribed 250 mL of normal saline to infuse over 4 hours via gravity. The facility supplies gravity tubing with a drip factor of 15 drops/mL. At what rate (drops/min) should the nurse set the infusion to deliver? (Record your answer using a whole number.) _____ drops/min

ANS: 16 drops/min

1.A client is prescribed 1000 mL of normal saline to infuse over 24 hours. At what rate should the nurse set the pump (mL/hr) to deliver this infusion? (Record your answer using a whole number.) ____ mL/hr

ANS: 42 1000 mL 24 hours = 41.6 mL/hr.

10. A nurse is caring for a client who has the following laboratory results: potassium 3.4 mEq/L, magnesium 1.8 mEq/L, calcium 8.5 mEq/L, sodium 144 mEq/L. Which assessment should the nurse complete first? a. Depth of respirations b. Bowel sounds c. Grip strength d. Electrocardiography

ANS: A A client with a low serum potassium level may exhibit hypoactive bowel sounds, cardiac dysrhythmias, and muscle weakness resulting in shallow respirations and decreased handgrips. The nurse should assess the clients respiratory status first to ensure respirations are sufficient. The respiratory assessment should include rate and depth of respirations, respiratory effort, and oxygen saturation. The other assessments are important but are secondary to the clients respiratory status.

12. A nurse is assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client is at risk for hypokalemia? a. Client with pancreatitis who has continuous nasogastric suctioning b. Client who is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor c. Client in a motor vehicle crash who is receiving 6 units of packed red blood cells d. Client with uncontrolled diabetes and a serum pH level of 7.33

ANS: A A client with continuous nasogastric suctioning would be at risk for actual potassium loss leading to hypokalemia. The other clients are at risk for potassium excess or hyperkalemia.

4. A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed a medication that inhibits angiotensin I from converting into angiotensin II (angiotensin-converting enzyme [ACE] inhibitor). For which expected therapeutic effect should the nurse assess? a. Blood pressure decrease from 180/72 mm Hg to 144/50 mm Hg b. Daily weight increase from 55 kg to 57 kg c. Heart rate decrease from 100 beats/min to 82 beats/min d. Respiratory rate increase from 12 breaths/min to 15 breaths/min

ANS: A ACE inhibitors will disrupt the reninangiotensin II pathway and prevent the kidneys from reabsorbing water and sodium. The kidneys will excrete more water and sodium, decreasing the clients blood pressure.

13. A nurse evaluates a clients arterial blood gas values (ABGs): pH 7.30, PaO2 86 mm Hg, PaCO2 55 mm Hg, and HCO3 22 mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Assess the airway. b. Administer prescribed bronchodilators. c. Provide oxygen. d. Administer prescribed mucolytics.

ANS: A All interventions are important for clients with respiratory acidosis; this is indicated by the ABGs. However, the priority is assessing and maintaining an airway. Without a patent airway, other interventions will not be helpful

8. A nurse is assessing clients for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Which client should the nurse assess first for potential hyponatremia? a. A 34-year-old on NPO status who is receiving intravenous D5W b. A 50-year-old with an infection who is prescribed a sulfonamide antibiotic c. A 67-year-old who is experiencing pain and is prescribed ibuprofen (Motrin) d. A 73-year-old with tachycardia who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin)

ANS: A Dextrose 5% in water (D5W) contains no electrolytes. Because the client is not taking any food or fluids by mouth (NPO), normal sodium excretion can lead to hyponatremia. The sulfonamide antibiotic, ibuprofen, and digoxin will not put a client at risk for hyponatremia.

2. A nurse assesses a client who is experiencing an acid-base imbalance. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 7.34, PaO2 88 mm Hg, PaCO2 38 mm Hg, and HCO3 19 mEq/L. Which assessment should the nurse perform first? a. Cardiac rate and rhythm b. Skin and mucous membranes c. Musculoskeletal strength d. Level of orientation

ANS: A Early cardiovascular changes for a client experiencing moderate acidosis include increased heart rate and cardiac output. As the acidosis worsens, the heart rate decreases and electrocardiographic changes will be present. Central nervous system and neuromuscular system changes do not occur with mild acidosis and should be monitored if the acidosis worsens. Skin and mucous membrane assessment is not a priority now, but will change as acidosis worsens.

13. A nurse is assessing a client with hypokalemia, and notes that the clients handgrip strength has diminished since the previous assessment 1 hour ago. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assess the clients respiratory rate, rhythm, and depth. b. Measure the clients pulse and blood pressure. c. Document findings and monitor the client. d. Call the health care provider.

ANS: A In a client with hypokalemia, progressive skeletal muscle weakness is associated with increasing severity of hypokalemia. The most life-threatening complication of hypokalemia is respiratory insufficiency. It is imperative for the nurse to perform a respiratory assessment first to make sure that the client is not in immediate jeopardy. Cardiac dysrhythmias are also associated with hypokalemia. The clients pulse and blood pressure should be assessed after assessing respiratory status. Next, the nurse would call the health care provider to obtain orders for potassium replacement. Documenting findings and continuing to monitor the client should occur during and after potassium replacement therapy.

1. A nurse teaches clients at a community center about risks for dehydration. Which client is at greatest risk for dehydration? a. A 36-year-old who is prescribed long-term steroid therapy b. A 55-year-old receiving hypertonic intravenous fluids c. A 76-year-old who is cognitively impaired d. An 83-year-old with congestive heart failure

ANS: C Older adults, because they have less total body water than younger adults, are at greater risk for development of dehydration. Anyone who is cognitively impaired and cannot obtain fluids independently or cannot make his or her need for fluids known is at high risk for dehydration.

6. A nurse assesses a client who is admitted with an acid-base imbalance. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 7.32, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 34 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take next? a. Assess clients rate, rhythm, and depth of respiration. b. Measure the clients pulse and blood pressure. c. Document the findings and continue to monitor. d. Notify the physician as soon as possible

ANS: A Progressive skeletal muscle weakness is associated with increasing severity of acidosis. Muscle weakness can lead to severe respiratory insufficiency. Acidosis does lead to dysrhythmias (due to hyperkalemia), but these would best be assessed with cardiac monitoring. Findings should be documented, but simply continuing to monitor is not sufficient. Before notifying the physician, the nurse must have more data to report.

8. A nurse is caring for a client who has just experienced a 90-second tonic-clonic seizure. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 6.88, PaO2 50 mm Hg, PaCO2 60 mm Hg, and HCO3 22 mEq/L. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Apply oxygen by mask or nasal cannula. b. Apply a paper bag over the clients nose and mouth. c. Administer 50 mL of sodium bicarbonate intravenously. d. Administer 50 mL of 20% glucose and 20 units of regular insulin

ANS: A The client has experienced a combination of metabolic and acute respiratory acidosis through heavy skeletal muscle contractions and no gas exchange. When the seizures have stopped and the client can breathe again, the fastest way to return acid-base balance is to administer oxygen. Applying a paper bag over the clients nose and mouth would worsen the acidosis. Sodium bicarbonate should not be administered because the clients arterial bicarbonate level is normal. Glucose and insulin are administered together to decrease serum potassium levels. This action is not appropriate based on the information provided.

15. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic emphysema and is receiving oxygen therapy at 6 L/min via nasal cannula. The following clinical data are available: Arterial Blood Gases Vital Signs pH = 7.28 Pulse rate = 96 beats/min PaO2 = 85 mm Hg Blood pressure = 135/45 PaCO2 = 55 mm Hg Respiratory rate = 6 breaths/min HCO3 = 26 mEq/L O2 saturation = 88% Which action should the nurse take first? a. Notify the Rapid Response Team and provide ventilation support. b. Change the nasal cannula to a mask and reassess in 10 minutes. c. Place the client in Fowlers position if he or she is able to tolerate it. d. Decrease the flow rate of oxygen to 2 to 4 L/min, and reassess.

ANS: A The primary trigger for respiration in a client with chronic respiratory acidosis is a decreased arterial oxygen level (hypoxic drive). Oxygen therapy can inhibit respiratory efforts in this case, eventually causing respiratory arrest and death. The nurse could decrease the oxygen flow rate; eventually, this might improve the clients respiratory rate, but the priority action would be to call the Rapid Response Team whenever a client with chronic carbon dioxide retention has a respiratory rate less than 10 breaths/min. Changing the cannula to a mask does nothing to improve the clients hypoxic drive, nor would it address the clients most pressing need. Positioning will not help the client breathe at a normal rate or maintain client safety.

1. A nurse assesses a client with diabetes mellitus who is admitted with an acid-base imbalance. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 7.36, PaO2 98 mm Hg, PaCO2 33 mm Hg, and HCO3 18 mEq/L. Which manifestation should the nurse identify as an example of the clients compensation mechanism? a. Increased rate and depth of respirations b. Increased urinary output c. Increased thirst and hunger d. Increased release of acids from the kidneys

ANS: A This client has metabolic acidosis. The respiratory system compensates by increasing its activity and blowing off excess carbon dioxide. Increased urinary output, thirst, and hunger are manifestations of hyperglycemia but are not compensatory mechanisms for acid-base imbalances. The kidneys do not release acids.

1.A registered nurse (RN) delegates client care to an experienced licensed practical nurse (LPN). Which standards should guide the RN when delegating aspects of IV therapy to the LPN? (Select all that apply.) a. State Nurse Practice Act b. The facilitys Policies and Procedures manual c. The LPNs level of education and experience d. The Joint Commissions goals and criterion e. Client needs and prescribed orders

ANS: A, B The state Nurse Practice Act will have the information the RN needs, and in some states, LPNs are able to perform specific aspects of IV therapy. However, in a client care situation, it may be difficult and timeconsuming to find it and read what LPNs are permitted to do, so another good solution would be for the nurse to check facility policy and follow it.

1. A nurse is planning interventions that regulate acid-base balance to ensure the pH of a clients blood remains within the normal range. Which abnormal physiologic functions may occur if the client experiences an acidbase imbalance? (Select all that apply.) a. Reduction in the function of hormones b. Fluid and electrolyte imbalances c. Increase in the function of selected enzymes d. Excitable cardiac muscle membranes e. Increase in the effectiveness of many drugs

ANS: A, B, E Acid-base imbalances interfere with normal physiology, including reducing the function of hormones and enzymes, causing fluid and electrolyte imbalances, making heart membranes more excitable, and decreasing the effectiveness of many drugs.

2. A nurse is assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which clients are at increased risk for hypophosphatemia? (Select all that apply.) a. A 36-year-old who is malnourished b. A 42-year-old with uncontrolled diabetes c. A 50-year-old with hyperparathyroidism d. A 58-year-old with chronic renal failure e. A 76-year-old who is prescribed antacids

ANS: A, B, E Clients at risk for hypophosphatemia include those who are malnourished, those with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, and those who use aluminum hydroxidebased or magnesium-based antacids. Hyperparathyroidism and chronic renal failure are common causes of hyperphosphatemia.

1. A nurse assesses a client who is admitted for treatment of fluid overload. Which manifestations should the nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.) a. Increased pulse rate b. Distended neck veins c. Decreased blood pressure d. Warm and pink skin e. Skeletal muscle weakness

ANS: A, B, E Manifestations of fluid overload include increased pulse rate, distended neck veins, increased blood pressure, pale and cool skin, and skeletal muscle weakness.

5. A nurse is caring for clients with electrolyte imbalances on a medical-surgical unit. Which clinical manifestations are correctly paired with the contributing electrolyte imbalance? (Select all that apply.) a. Hypokalemia Flaccid paralysis with respiratory depression b. Hyperphosphatemia Paresthesia with sensations of tingling and numbness c. Hyponatremia Decreased level of consciousness d. Hypercalcemia Positive Trousseaus and Chvosteks signs e. Hypomagnesemia Bradycardia, peripheral vasodilation, and hypotension

ANS: A, C Flaccid paralysis with respiratory depression is associated with hypokalemia. Decreased level of consciousness is associated with hyponatremia. Paresthesia with sensations of tingling and numbness is associated with hypophosphatemia or hypercalcemia. Positive Trousseaus and Chvosteks signs are associated with hypocalcemia or hyperphosphatemia. Bradycardia, peripheral vasodilation, and hypotension are associated with hypermagnesemia.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has an electrolyte imbalance related to renal failure. For which potential complications of this electrolyte imbalance should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Electrocardiogram changes b. Slow, shallow respirations c. Orthostatic hypotension d. Paralytic ileus e. Skeletal muscle weakness

ANS: A, D, E Electrolyte imbalances associated with acute renal failure include hyperkalemia and hyperphosphatemia. The nurse should assess for electrocardiogram changes, paralytic ileus caused by decrease bowel mobility, and skeletal muscle weakness in clients with hyperkalemia. The other choices are potential complications of hypokalemia.

4. A nurse assesses a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition. For which adverse effects related to an acid-base imbalance should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Positive Chvosteks sign b. Elevated blood pressure c. Bradycardia d. Increased muscle strength e. Anxiety and irritability

ANS: A, E A client receiving total parenteral nutrition is at risk for metabolic alkalosis. Manifestations of metabolic alkalosis include positive Chvosteks sign, normal or low blood pressure, increased heart rate, skeletal muscle weakness, and anxiety and irritability.

18.A home care nurse prepares to administer intravenous medication to a client. The nurse assesses the site and reviews the clients chart prior to administering the medication: Client: Thomas Jackson DOB: 5/3/1936 Gender: Male January 23 (Today): Right upper extremity PICC is intact, patent, and has a good blood return. Site clean and free from manifestations of infiltration, irritation, and infection. Sue Franks, RN January 20: Purulent drainage from sacral wound. Wound cleansed and dressing changed. Dr. Smith notified and updated on client status. New orders received for intravenous antibiotics. Sue Franks, RN January 13: Client alert and oriented. Sacral wound dressing changed. Sue Franks, RN January 6: Right upper extremity PICC inserted. No complications. Discharged with home health care. Dr. Smith Based on the information provided, which action should the nurse take? a. Notify the health care provider. b. Administer the prescribed medication. c. Discontinue the PICC. d. Switch the medication to the oral route.

ANS: B A PICC that is functioning well without inflammation or infection may remain in place for months or even years. Because the line shows no signs of complications, it is permissible to administer the IV antibiotic. There is no need to call the physician to have the IV route changed to an oral route.

7. A nurse is caring for a client who has the following arterial blood values: pH 7.12, PaO2 56 mm Hg, PaCO2 65 mm Hg, and HCO3 22 mEq/L. Which clinical situation should the nurse correlate with these values? a. Diabetic ketoacidosis in a person with emphysema b. Bronchial obstruction related to aspiration of a hot dog c. Anxiety-induced hyperventilation in an adolescent d. Diarrhea for 36 hours in an older, frail woman

ANS: B Arterial blood gas values indicate that the client has acidosis with normal levels of bicarbonate, suggesting that the problem is not metabolic. Arterial concentrations of oxygen and carbon dioxide are abnormal, with low oxygen and high carbon dioxide levels. Thus, this client has respiratory acidosis from inadequate gas exchange. The fact that the bicarbonate level is normal indicates that this is an acute respiratory problem rather than a chronic problem, because no renal compensation has occurred.

14.A nurse is caring for a client with a peripheral vascular access device who is experiencing pain, redness, and swelling at the site. After removing the device, which action should the nurse take to relieve pain? a. Administer topical lidocaine to the site. b. Place warm compresses on the site. c. Administer prescribed oral pain medication. d. Massage the site with scented oils.

ANS: B At the first sign of phlebitis, the catheter should be removed and warm compresses used to relieve pain. The other options are not appropriate for this type of pain.

5.A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an epidural infusion for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention from the nurse? a. Redness at the catheter insertion site b. Report of headache and stiff neck c. Temperature of 100.1 F (37.8 C) d. Pain rating of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10

ANS: B Complications of epidural therapy include infection, bleeding, leakage of cerebrospinal fluid, occlusion of the catheter lumen, and catheter migration. Headache, neck stiffness, and a temperature higher than 101 F are signs of meningitis and should be reported to the provider immediately. The other findings are important but do not require immediate intervention.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who exhibits dehydration-induced confusion. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Measure intake and output every 4 hours. b. Apply oxygen by mask or nasal cannula. c. Increase the IV flow rate to 250 mL/hr. d. Place the client in a high-Fowlers position.

ANS: B Dehydration most frequently leads to poor cerebral perfusion and cerebral hypoxia, causing confusion. Applying oxygen can reduce confusion, even if perfusion is still less than optimal. Increasing the IV flow rate would increase perfusion. However, depending on the degree of dehydration, rehydrating the client too rapidly with IV fluids can lead to cerebral edema. Measuring intake and output and placing the client in a high-Fowlers position will not address the clients problem.

6. After administering 40 mEq of potassium chloride, a nurse evaluates the clients response. Which manifestations indicate that treatment is improving the clients hypokalemia? (Select all that apply.) a. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min b. Absent deep tendon reflexes c. Strong productive cough d. Active bowel sounds e. U waves present on the electrocardiogram (ECG)

ANS: C, D A strong, productive cough indicates an increase in muscle strength and improved potassium imbalance. Active bowel sounds also indicate treatment is working. A respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min, absent deep tendon reflexes, and U waves present on the ECG are all manifestations of hypokalemia and do not demonstrate that treatment is working.

5. A nurse is assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which adult client should the nurse identify as being at greatest risk for insensible water loss? a. Client taking furosemide (Lasix) b. Anxious client who has tachypnea c. Client who is on fluid restrictions d. Client who is constipated with abdominal pain

ANS: B Insensible water loss is water loss through the skin, lungs, and stool. Clients at risk for insensible water loss include those being mechanically ventilated, those with rapid respirations, and those undergoing continuous GI suctioning. Clients who have thyroid crisis, trauma, burns, states of extreme stress, and fever are also at increased risk. The client taking furosemide will have increased fluid loss, but not insensible water loss. The other two clients on a fluid restriction and with constipation are not at risk for fluid loss.

3. After teaching a client who is being treated for dehydration, a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement indicates the client correctly understood the teaching? a. I must drink a quart of water or other liquid each day. b. I will weigh myself each morning before I eat or drink. c. I will use a salt substitute when making and eating my meals. d. I will not drink liquids after 6 PM so I wont have to get up at night.

ANS: B One liter of water weighs 1 kg; therefore, a change in body weight is a good measure of excess fluid loss or fluid retention. Weight loss greater than 0.5 lb daily is indicative of excessive fluid loss. The other statements are not indicative of practices that will prevent dehydration.

9. After teaching a client who was malnourished and is being discharged, a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement indicates the client correctly understood teaching to decrease risk for the development of metabolic acidosis? a. I will drink at least three glasses of milk each day. b. I will eat three well-balanced meals and a snack daily. c. I will not take pain medication and antihistamines together. d. I will avoid salting my food when cooking or during meals.

ANS: B Starvation or a diet with too few carbohydrates can lead to metabolic acidosis by forcing cells to switch to using fats for fuel and by creating ketoacids as a by-product of excessive fat metabolism. Eating sufficient calories from all food groups helps reduce this risk.

14. A nurse is planning care for a client who is hyperventilating. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 7.30, PaO2 94 mm Hg, PaCO2 31 mm Hg, and HCO3 26 mEq/L. Which question should the nurse ask when developing this clients plan of care? a. Do you take any over-the-counter medications? b. You appear anxious. What is causing your distress? c. Do you have a history of anxiety attacks? d. You are breathing fast. Is this causing you to feel light-headed?

ANS: B The nurse should assist the client who is experiencing anxiety-induced respiratory alkalosis to identify causes of the anxiety. The other questions will not identify the cause of the acid-base imbalance.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis and is at risk for an acid-base imbalance. For which manifestation of this acid-base imbalance should the nurse assess? a. Agitation b. Kussmaul respirations c. Seizures d. Positive Chvosteks sign

ANS: B The pancreas is a major site of bicarbonate production. Pancreatitis can cause a relative metabolic acidosis through underproduction of bicarbonate ions. Manifestations of acidosis include lethargy and Kussmaul respirations. Agitation, seizures, and a positive Chvosteks sign are manifestations of the electrolyte imbalances that accompany alkalosis.

16. A nurse is caring for a client who has a serum calcium level of 14 mg/dL. Which provider order should the nurse implement first? a. Encourage oral fluid intake. b. Connect the client to a cardiac monitor. c. Assess urinary output. d. Administer oral calcitonin (Calcimar).

ANS: B This client has hypercalcemia. Elevated serum calcium levels can decrease cardiac output and cause cardiac dysrhythmias. Connecting the client to a cardiac monitor is a priority to assess for lethal cardiac changes. Encouraging oral fluids, assessing urine output, and administering calcitonin are treatments for hypercalcemia, but are not the highest priority.

12. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing excessive diarrhea. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 7.28, PaO2 98 mm Hg, PaCO2 45 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. Which provider order should the nurse expect to receive? a. Furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg intravenous push b. Sodium bicarbonate 100 mEq diluted in 1 L of D5W c. Mechanical ventilation d. Indwelling urinary catheter

ANS: B This clients arterial blood gas values represent metabolic acidosis related to a loss of bicarbonate ions from diarrhea. The bicarbonate should be replaced to help restore this clients acid-base balance. Furosemide would cause an increase in acid fluid and acid elimination via the urinary tract; although this may improve the clients pH, the client has excessive diarrhea and cannot afford to lose more fluid. Mechanical ventilation is used to treat respiratory acidosis for clients who cannot keep their oxygen saturation at 90%, or who have respirator muscle fatigue. Mechanical ventilation and an indwelling urinary catheter would not be prescribed for this client.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who is anxious and irritable. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 7.30, PaO2 96 mm Hg, PaCO2 43 mm Hg, and HCO3 19 mEq/L. Which questions should the nurse ask the client and spouse when developing the plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Are you taking any antacid medications? b. Is your spouses current behavior typical? c. Do you drink any alcoholic beverages? d. Have you been experiencing any vomiting? e. Are you experiencing any shortness of breath?

ANS: B, C This clients symptoms of anxiety and irritability are related to a state of metabolic acidosis. The nurse should ask the clients spouse or family members if the clients behavior is typical for him or her, and establish a baseline for comparison with later assessment findings. The nurse should also assess for alcohol intake because alcohol can change a clients personality and cause metabolic acidosis. The other options are not causes of metabolic acidosis.

7. After teaching a client who is prescribed a restricted sodium diet, a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which food choice for lunch indicates the client correctly understood the teaching? a. Slices of smoked ham with potato salad b. Bowl of tomato soup with a grilled cheese sandwich c. Salami and cheese on whole wheat crackers d. Grilled chicken breast with glazed carrots

ANS: D Clients on restricted sodium diets generally should avoid processed, smoked, and pickled foods and those with sauces and other condiments. Foods lowest in sodium include fish, poultry, and fresh produce. The ham, tomato soup, salami, and crackers are often high in sodium.

3. A nurse is assessing clients who are at risk for acid-base imbalance. Which clients are correctly paired with the acid-base imbalance? (Select all that apply.) a. Metabolic alkalosis Young adult who is prescribed intravenous morphine sulfate for pain b. Metabolic acidosis Older adult who is following a carbohydrate-free diet c. Respiratory alkalosis Client on mechanical ventilation at a rate of 28 breaths/min d. Respiratory acidosis Postoperative client who received 6 units of packed red blood cells e. Metabolic alkalosis Older client prescribed antacids for gastroesophageal reflux disease

ANS: B, C, E Respiratory acidosis often occurs as the result of underventilation. The client who is taking opioids, especially IV opioids, is at risk for respiratory depression and respiratory acidosis. One cause of metabolic acidosis is a strict low-calorie diet or one that is low in carbohydrate content. Such a diet increases the rate of fat catabolism and results in the formation of excessive ketoacids. A ventilator set at a high respiratory rate or tidal volume will cause the client to lose too much carbon dioxide, leading to an acid deficit and respiratory alkalosis. Citrate is a substance used as a preservative in blood products. It is not only a base, it is also a precursor for bicarbonate. Multiple units of packed red blood cells could cause metabolic alkalosis. Sodium bicarbonate antacids may increase the risk of metabolic alkalosis.

7. A nurse develops a plan of care for a client who has a history of hypocalcemia. What interventions should the nurse include in this clients care plan? (Select all that apply.) a. Encourage oral fluid intake of at least 2 L/day. b. Use a draw sheet to reposition the client in bed. c. Strain all urine output and assess for urinary stones. d. Provide nonslip footwear for the client to use when out of bed. e. Rotate the client from side to side every 2 hours.

ANS: B, D Clients with long-standing hypocalcemia have brittle bones that may fracture easily. Safety needs are a priority. Nursing staff should use a draw sheet when repositioning the client in bed and have the client wear nonslip footwear when out of bed to prevent fractures and falls. The other interventions would not provide safety for this client.

3. A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed a medication that inhibits aldosterone secretion and release. For which potential complications should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Urine output of 25 mL/hr b. Serum potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L c. Urine specific gravity of 1.02 g/mL d. Serum sodium level of 128 mEq/L e. Blood osmolality of 250 mOsm/L

ANS: B, E Aldosterone is a naturally occurring hormone of the mineralocorticoid type that increases the reabsorption of water and sodium in the kidney at the same time that it promotes excretion of potassium. Any drug or condition that disrupts aldosterone secretion or release increases the clients risk for excessive water loss (increased urine output), increased potassium reabsorption, decreased blood osmolality, and increased urine specific gravity. The client would not be at risk for sodium imbalance.

11. A nurse cares for a client who has a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L and is exhibiting cardiovascular changes. Which prescription should the nurse implement first? a. Prepare to administer sodium polystyrene sulfate (Kayexalate) 15 g by mouth. b. Provide a heart healthy, low-potassium diet. c. Prepare to administer dextrose 20% and 10 units of regular insulin IV push. d. Prepare the client for hemodialysis treatment.

ANS: C A client with a high serum potassium level and cardiac changes should be treated immediately to reduce the extracellular potassium level. Potassium movement into the cells is enhanced by insulin by increasing the activity of sodium-potassium pumps. Insulin will decrease both serum potassium and glucose levels and therefore should be administered with dextrose to prevent hypoglycemia. Kayexalate may be ordered, but this therapy may take hours to reduce potassium levels. Dialysis may also be needed, but this treatment will take much longer to implement and is not the first prescription the nurse should implement. Decreasing potassium intake may help prevent hyperkalemia in the future but will not decrease the clients current potassium level.

11. After providing discharge teaching, a nurse assesses the clients understanding regarding increased risk for metabolic alkalosis. Which statement indicates the client needs additional teaching? a. I dont drink milk because it gives me gas and diarrhea. b. I have been taking digoxin every day for the last 15 years. c. I take sodium bicarbonate after every meal to prevent heartburn. d. In hot weather, I sweat so much that I drink six glasses of water each day.

ANS: C Excessive oral ingestion of sodium bicarbonate and other bicarbonate-based antacids can cause metabolic alkalosis. Avoiding milk, taking digoxin, and sweating would not lead to increased risk of metabolic alkalosis.

14. After teaching a client to increase dietary potassium intake, a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which dietary meal selection indicates the client correctly understands the teaching? a. Toasted English muffin with butter and blueberry jam, and tea with sugar b. Two scrambled eggs, a slice of white toast, and a half cup of strawberries c. Sausage, one slice of whole wheat toast, half cup of raisins, and a glass of milk d. Bowl of oatmeal with brown sugar, a half cup of sliced peaches, and coffee

ANS: C Meat, dairy products, and dried fruit have high concentrations of potassium. Eggs, breads, cereals, sugar, and some fruits (berries, peaches) are low in potassium. The menu selection of sausage, toast, raisins, and milk has the greatest number of items with higher potassium content.

9. A nurse teaches a client who is at risk for mild hypernatremia. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching? a. Weigh yourself every morning and every night. b. Check your radial pulse twice a day. c. Read food labels to determine sodium content. d. Bake or grill the meat rather than frying it.

ANS: C Most prepackaged foods have a high sodium content. Teaching clients how to read labels and calculate the sodium content of food can help them adhere to prescribed sodium restrictions and can prevent hypernatremia. Daily self-weighing and pulse checking are methods of identifying manifestations of hypernatremia, but they do not prevent it. The addition of substances during cooking, not the method of cooking, increases the sodium content of a meal.

15. A client at risk for developing hyperkalemia states, I love fruit and usually eat it every day, but now I cant because of my high potassium level. How should the nurse respond? a. Potatoes and avocados can be substituted for fruit. b. If you cook the fruit, the amount of potassium will be lower. c. Berries, cherries, apples, and peaches are low in potassium. d. You are correct. Fruit is very high in potassium.

ANS: C Not all fruit is potassium rich. Fruits that are relatively low in potassium and can be included in the diet include apples, apricots, berries, cherries, grapefruit, peaches, and pineapples. Fruits high in potassium include bananas, kiwi, cantaloupe, oranges, and dried fruit. Cooking fruit does not alter its potassium content.

12.A nurse delegates care to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which statement should the nurse include when delegating hygiene for a client who has a vascular access device? a. Provide a bed bath instead of letting the client take a shower. b. Use sterile technique when changing the dressing. c. Disconnect the intravenous fluid tubing prior to the clients bath. d. Use a plastic bag to cover the extremity with the device.

ANS: D The nurse should ask the UAP to cover the extremity with the vascular access device with a plastic bag or wrap to keep the dressing and site dry. The client may take a shower with a vascular device. The nurse should disconnect IV fluid tubing prior to the bath and change the dressing using sterile technique if necessary. These options are not appropriate to delegate to the UAP.

11.A nurse prepares to insert a peripheral venous catheter in an older adult client. Which action should the nurse take to protect the clients skin during this procedure? a. Lower the extremity below the level of the heart. b. Apply warm compresses to the extremity. c. Tap the skin lightly and avoid slapping. d. Place a washcloth between the skin and tourniquet.

ANS: D To protect the clients skin, the nurse should place a washcloth or the clients gown between the skin and tourniquet. The other interventions are methods to distend the vein but will not protect the clients skin.

7.A nurse is assessing clients who have intravenous therapy prescribed. Which assessment finding for a client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) requires immediate attention? a. The initial site dressing is 3 days old. b. The PICC was inserted 4 weeks ago. c. A securement device is absent. d. Upper extremity swelling is noted.

ANS: D Upper extremity swelling could indicate infiltration, and the PICC will need to be removed. The initial dressing over the PICC site should be changed within 24 hours. This does not require immediate attention, but the swelling does. The dwell time for PICCs can be months or even years. Securement devices are being used more often now to secure the catheter in place and prevent complications such as phlebitis and infiltration. The IV should have one, but this does not take priority over the client whose arm is swollen.

What responses does the nurse expect as a result of infusing 500 mL liter of a 3% saline intravenous solution into a client over a 1 hour time period? A. Plasma volume osmolarity increases; blood pressure increases B. Plasma volume osmolarity decreases; blood pressure increases C. Plasma volume osmolarity increases; blood pressure decreases D. B. Plasma volume osmolarity decreases; blood pressure decreases

Answer: A Rationale: A 3% saline solution is hypertonic to body fluids and would immediately increase the osmolarity of the plasma volume, making it somewhat hypertonic to other body fluids. Not only does the 500 mL increase the plasma volume to raise blood pressure, the increased osmolarity of the plasma would cause the interstitial fluid to move into the plasma volume, contributing to blood pressure increase.

14-1. How does the corresponding increase in carbon dioxide levels that occurs when arterial pH drops assist in maintaining acid-base balance? A. Carbon dioxide loss through exhalation can raise arterial pH levels. B. Carbon dioxide retention during exhalation can lower arterial pH levels. C. Carbon dioxide is a base that can convert free hydrogen ions into a neutral substance. D. Carbon dioxide is a buffer that can bind free hydrogen ions and form a neutral substance.

Answer: A Rationale: Carbon dioxide is a gas that can be eliminated during exhalation, and this action is important for acid-base balance. When any condition causes the blood free hydrogen ion concentration to increase, extra CO2 is produced in the same proportion. This extra CO2 is eliminated during exhalation, helping to bring the hydrogen ion concentration down to normal and raising the pH, indicating that fewer free hydrogen ions are present. Whenever the CO2 level changes, the pH changes to the same degree, in the opposite direction.

The primary healthcare provider has prescribed 1 liter of D5NS to infuse at a rate of 125 ml/hour. The nurse begins the infusion at 0700 (7am). When will the nurse anticipate completion of the infusion? A. 1300 hours (1pm) B. 1500 hours (3pm) C. 1900 hours (7pm) D. 2100 hours (9pm)

Answer: B Rationale: The nurse will anticipate completion of the infusion at 1500 hours (or 3 pm). To calculate this the nurse will take the total volume of 1000 mls and divide by the rate 125 ml/hr which equals 8. Thus, the infusion will be complete in 8 hours. If the nurse begins the infusion at 0700, in 8 hours it will be 1500 hours (or 3 pm). 1000 ml __________ = 8 hours 125 ml/hr

Which normal physiologic process contributes most to the need for acid-base balance? A. Continuous organ production of bicarbonate from carbonic acid B. Continuous alveolar exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide C. Continuous metabolic production of free hydrogen ions D. Continuous kidney formation of urine from blood

Answer: C Rationale: All normal metabolism results in the removal of hydrogen ions from more complex compounds to use in the generation of cellular energy. Normal alveolar exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide actually are part of acid-base balance mechanisms and do not contribute to imbalance. No normal or pathologic condition causes the excess formation of bicarbonate. Normal kidney formation of urine from blood is part of the balance mechanisms and does not contribute to the need for balance

An older adult client receiving an infusion of 5% dextrose in 0.9% normal saline at 150 mL/hour has developed shortness of breath with a decrease in oxygen saturation to 86%. What is the priority nursing intervention? A. Notify the health care provider B. Place the client on oxygen C. Sit the client upright in bed D. Assess the client's lung sounds

Answer: C Rationale: Because the client is short of breath, the priority action that can be done immediately is to sit the client upright in bed. Assessing the lung sounds can occur after sitting the client upright. Use of oxygen and contacting the healthcare provider will follow the priority action. The rate of infusion is likely too fast for an older adult client which has created fluid build-up. The nurse will anticipate fine crackles in the lung bases and decrease in the IV flow rate and notify the health care provider.

In reviewing the electrolytes of a client the nurse notes the serum potassium level has increased from 4.6 mEq/L (mmol/L) to 6.1 mEq/L (mmol/L). Which assessment does the nurse perform first to prevent harm? A. Deep tendon reflexes B. Oxygen saturation C. Pulse rate and rhythm D. Respiratory rate and depth

Answer: C Rationale: Electrical conduction through the heart is reduced with any degree of hyperkalemia and the condition can lead to heart block or lethal dysrhythmias. It is the most important assessment to perform for a client with an elevated serum potassium level. Respiratory rate and depth are more affected by hypokalemia because of the accompanying muscle weakness. The reduction then affects oxygen saturation. Although deep tendon reflexes may be increased with hyperkalemia, cardiac changes are more critical.

The client who is confined to bed in the recumbent position has gained 5 lb (2.3 kg) in the past 24 hours. In which area does the nurse assess skin turgor for accurate determination of dependent edema? A. Foot and ankle A. Forehead B. Sacrum C. Chest

Answer: C Rationale: In a client who is confined to bed, the most dependent area is the sacrum. This is the area that will show skin turgor changes first for dependent edema. The forehead, chest, and feet are not dependent what a client is in a recumbent position.

A client had a 20-gauge short peripheral catheter (SPC) inserted for antibiotic administration 48 hours ago. Which nursing intervention is appropriate? A. Discontinue the SPC. B. Relocate the SPC for infection control. C. Assess the SPC for redness, swelling, or pain. D. Change the occlusive dressing covering the SPC.

Answer: C Rationale: It is important for the nurse to assess the SPC for signs of infection or infiltration which include redness, swelling, and pain. The nurse would not discontinue the SPC as there is no indication in the stem that the client has concluded IV therapy. It is no longer common practice to relocate SPCs based on a 48-hour time frame. If the site assessed is free from signs of infection or infiltration, relocating the site is not warranted. Changing the dressing should only be done when relocating an IV or when the dressing is visible soiled.

14-2. The handgrasp strength of a client with metabolic acidosis has diminished since the previous assessment one hour ago. What is the nurse's best first action? A. Measure the client's pulse and blood pressure B. Apply humidified oxygen by nasal cannula C. Assess the client's oxygen saturation D. Notify the Rapid Response Team

Answer: C Rationale: Progressive skeletal muscle weakness is associated with increasing severity of the acidosis. Muscle weakness can lead to severe respiratory insufficiency. Measuring pulse and blood pressure are appropriate but do not need to be done first. Applying oxygen is not going to help reduce a metabolic acidosis. Calling the rapid response team is needed if the client's gas exchange status is impaired.

A client with severe diarrhea reports tingling lips and foot cramps. What is the nurse's best first action to prevent harm? A. Hold the next dose of the prescribed antidiarrheal drug B. Assess bowel sounds in all four abdominal quadrants C. Assess the client's response to the Chvostek test D. Increase the IV flow rate of the normal saline infusion

Answer: C Rationale: Severe diarrhea can cause excessive calcium loss and result in hypocalcemia. Symptoms of hypocalcemia include tingling of the lips and mouth, muscle cramps (especially in the presence of hypoxia), positive responses to the Trousseaus' and Chvostek's test, and seizures. It is critical to identify whether the client has hypocalcemia before the condition progresses to seizures. Holding the drug may make the hypocalcemia worse. Listening to bowel sounds will no provide new information. Increasing the IV flow rate of normal saline will not help identify the problem or improve the serum calcium level.

With which client does the nurse remain alert for and assess most frequently for signs and symptoms of hypokalemia? A. 72-year-old taking the diuretic spironolactone for control of hypertension B. 62-year-old receiving an IV solution of Ringer's lactate at a rate of 200 mL/hour C. 42-year-old trauma victim receiving a third infusion of packed red blood cells in 12 hours D. 22-year-old receiving an IV infusion of regular insulin to manage an episode of ketoacidosis

Answer: D Rationale: Insulin increases the activity of the sodium-potassium pump and forces more potassium from the extracellular fluid into the intracellular fluid. Although this is a desired response when managing hyperkalemia, the drug can cause hypokalemia in a client whose serum potassium level is initially normal. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that has the potential to raise serum potassium levels, not lower them. Ringer's lactate contains potassium and would not dilute serum potassium below normal. Infusions of red blood cells usually raise serum potassium levels, not lower them, because some blood cells are damaged during the infusion and release intracellular potassium.

Which set of client arterial blood gas (ABG) values indicates to the nurse that some mechanisms are working to partially compensate for an acid-base imbalance? A. pH 7.42; PaO2 92 mm Hg; CO2 41 mm Hg; HCO3− 28 mEq/L (mmol/L) B. pH 7.46; PaO2 98 mm Hg; CO2 38 mm Hg; HCO3− 30 mEq/L (mmol/L) C. pH 7.22; PaO2 60 mm Hg; CO2 80 mm Hg; HCO3− 22 mEq/L (mmol/L) D. pH 7.29; PaO2 78 mm Hg; CO2 82 mm Hg; HCO3− 36 mEq/L (mmol/L)

Answer: D Rationale: The ABG values listed for D indicate chronic respiratory acidosis with partial compensation. The PaO2 is low and the PaCO2 is quite high, which would lower the pH. However, the pH is not as low as would be expected by these values because the HCO3− level is elevated to compensate. This compensation is only partial because the pH is still below normal, indicating acidosis is still present. The values listed in C indicate an acute respiratory acidosis (low pH, low PaO2 and high PaCO2 coupled with a normal bicarbonate level) in which no compensation has occurred. The values listed in A are all totally normal showing no imbalance and no compensation. The values listed in B show a slight metabolic alkalosis (elevated pH) with normal oxygen and carbon dioxide values accompanied by a slightly elevated bicarbonate level

A client receiving gentamycin intravenously reports that the peripheral IV insertion site has become painful and reddened. What is the priority nursing action? A. Contact the primary health care provider. B. Document findings in the electronic health record. C. Change the IV site to a new location. D. Stop the infusion of the drug.

Answer: D Rationale: The nurse needs to stop the infusion of the drug first because the IV site is likely infiltrated. Then documentation, notifying the primary health care provider, and starting a new IV can occur.

13-1. Which electrolytes are most detrimentally affected by low magnesium levels? Select all that apply. A. Calcium B. Chloride C. Hydrogen D. Potassium E. Sodium F. Sulfate

Answers: A, D Rationale: Within cells and the blood, magnesium levels are related to the levels of potassium and calcium and help maintain proper balance of these electrolytes

Which clinical indicators are most relevant for the nurse to monitor during IV fluid replacement for a client with dehydration? Select all that apply. A. Blood pressure B. Deep tendon reflexes C. Hand-grip strength D. Pulse rate and quality E. Skin turgor F. Urine output

Answers: A, D, F Rationale: The most important body fluid compartment to maintain for function is the plasma volume of circulating blood. The most reliable indicators for effectiveness of IV fluid replacement to increase this volume are blood pressure and pulse. Urine output is also very sensitive to changes in plasma volume and is a reliable indicator of adequacy of fluid replacement therapy. Skin turgor changes do not occur quickly enough to use for evaluation of fluid replacement adequacy. Hand-grip strength and deep tendon reflex changes are less reliable and are affected by other factors.

With which clients does the nurse remain alert for the possibility of metabolic alkalosis? Select all that apply. A. Client who has been NPO for 36 hours without fluid replacement B. Client receiving a rapid infusion of normal saline C. Client who has been self-managing indigestion with chronic ingestion of bicarbonate D. Client who has had continuous gastric suction for 48 hours E. Client having a sudden and severe asthma attack F. Client with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

Answers: C, D Rationale: Metabolic alkalosis is caused by a loss of hydrogen ions and/or excessive bicarbonate ions. With continuous gastric suction, hydrochloric acid is removed, and the concentration of free hydrogen ions can get too low. Clients who ingest sodium bicarbonate daily are at risk for having metabolic alkalosis from excess bicarbonate. Being NPO for 36 hours can lead to ketoacidosis, as can uncontrolled diabetes mellitus rather than alkalosis. A severe asthma attack would result in respiratory acidosis, not alkalosis. Receiving a rapid infusion of normal saline could cause fluid overload but not alkalosis.

17. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is admitted with moderate dehydration. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent injury while in the hospital? a. Ask family members to speak quietly to keep the client calm. b. Assess urine color, amount, and specific gravity each day. c. Encourage the client to drink at least 1 liter of fluids each shift.

d. Dangle the client on the bedside before ambulating. ANS: D An older adult with moderate dehydration may experience orthostatic hypotension. The client should dangle on the bedside before ambulating. Although dehydration in an older adult may cause confusion, speaking quietly will not help the client remain calm or decrease confusion. Assessing the clients urine may assist with the diagnosis of dehydration but would not prevent injury. Clients are encouraged to drink fluids, but 1 liter of fluid each shift for an older adult may cause respiratory distress and symptoms of fluid overload, especially if the client has heart failure or renal insufficiency.