Med surge test two part one

A patient with cancer of the bladder has just returned to the unit from the PACU after surgery to create an ileal conduit. The nurse is monitoring the patients urine output hourly and notifies the physician when the hourly output is less than what? A) 30 mL B) 50 mL C) 100 mL D) 125 mL

A) 30 mL A urine output below 30 mL/hr may indicate dehydration or an obstruction in the ileal conduit, with possible backflow or leakage from the ureteroileal anastomosis.

The nurse is planning patient teaching for a patient with ESKD who is scheduled for the creation of a fistula. The nurse would include which of the following in teaching the patient about the fistula? A) A vein and an artery in your arm will be attached surgically. B) The arm should be immobilized for 4 to 6 days. C) One needle will be inserted into the fistula for each dialysis treatment. D) The fistula can be used 2 days after the surgery for dialysis treatment

A) A vein and an artery in your arm will be attached surgically. The fistula joins an artery and a vein, either side-to-side or end-to-end. This access will need time, usually 2 to 3 months, to mature before it can be used. The patient is encouraged to perform exercises to increase the size of the affected vessels (e.g., squeezing a rubber ball for forearm fistulas). Two needles will be inserted into the fistula for each dialysis treatment.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has returned to the postsurgical suite after post-anesthetic recovery from a nephrectomy. The nurses most recent hourly assessment reveals a significant drop in level of consciousness and BP as well as scant urine output over the past hour. What is the nurses best response? A) Assess the patient for signs of bleeding and inform the physician. B) Monitor the patients vital signs every 15 minutes for the next hour. C) Reposition the patient and reassess vital signs. D) Palpate the patients flanks for pain and inform the physician.

A) Assess the patient for signs of bleeding and inform the physician. Bleeding may be suspected when the patient experiences fatigue and when urine output is less than 30 mL/h. The physician must be made aware of this finding promptly. Palpating the patients flanks would cause intense pain that is of no benefit to assessment

The nurse is caring for a patient postoperative day 4 following a kidney transplant. When assessing for potential signs and symptoms of rejection, what assessment should the nurse prioritize? A) Assessment of the quantity of the patients urine output B) Assessment of the patients incision C) Assessment of the patients abdominal girth D) Assessment for flank or abdominal pain

A) Assessment of the quantity of the patients urine output After kidney transplantation, the nurse should perform all of the listed assessments. However, oliguria is considered to be more suggestive of rejection than changes to the patients abdomen or incision.

The nurse is caring for a patient in metabolic alkalosis. The patient has an NG tube to low intermittent suction for a diagnosis of bowel obstruction. What drug would the nurse expect to find on the medication orders? A) Cimetidine B) Maalox C) Potassium chloride elixir D) Furosemide

A) Cimetidine H2 receptor antagonists, such as cimetidine (Tagamet), reduce the production of gastric HCl, thereby decreasing the metabolic alkalosis associated with gastric suction. Maalox is an oral simethicone used to break up gas in the GI system and would be of no benefit in treating a patient in metabolic alkalosis. KCl would only be given if the patient were hypokalemic, which is not stated in the scenario. Furosemide (Lasix) would only be given if the patient were fluid overloaded, which is not stated in the scenario

A gerontologic nurse is teaching students about the high incidence and prevalence of dehydration in older adults. What factors contribute to this phenomenon? Select all that apply. A) Decreased kidney mass B) Increased conservation of sodium C) Increased total body water D) Decreased renal blood flow E) Decreased excretion of potassium

A) Decreased kidney mass D) Decreased renal blood flow E) Decreased excretion of potassium Dehydration in the elderly is common as a result of decreased kidney mass, decreased glomerular filtration rate, decreased renal blood flow, decreased ability to concentrate urine, inability to conserve sodium, decreased excretion of potassium, and a decrease of total body water

A patient with ESKD is scheduled to begin hemodialysis. The nurse is working with the patient to adapt the patients diet to maximize the therapeutic effect and minimize the risks of complications. The patients diet should include which of the following modifications? Select all that apply. A) Decreased protein intake B) Decreased sodium intake C) Increased potassium intake D) Fluid restriction E) Vitamin D supplementation

A) Decreased protein intake B) Decreased sodium intake D) Fluid restriction Restricting dietary protein decreases the accumulation of nitrogenous wastes, reduces uremic symptoms, and may even postpone the initiation of dialysis for a few months. Restriction of fluid is also part of the dietary prescription because fluid accumulation may occur. As well, sodium is usually restricted to 2 to 3 g/day. Potassium intake is usually limited, not increased, and there is no particular need for vitamin D supplementation

The nurse is assessing a patient admitted with renal stones. During the admission assessment, what parameters would be priorities for the nurse to address? Select all that apply. A) Dietary history B) Family history of renal stones C) Medication history D) Surgical history E) Vaccination history

A) Dietary history B) Family history of renal stones C) Medication history Dietary and medication histories and family history of renal stones are obtained to identify factors predisposing the patient to stone formation. When caring for a patient with renal stones it would not normally be a priority to assess the vaccination history or surgical history, since these factors are not usually related to the etiology of kidney stones.

The nurse is providing care for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. When describing the process of respiration the nurse explains how oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged between the pulmonary capillaries and the alveoli. The nurse is describing what process? A) Diffusion B) Osmosis C) Active transport D) Filtration

A) Diffusion Diffusion is the natural tendency of a substance to move from an area of higher concentration to one of lower concentration. It occurs through the random movement of ions and molecules. Examples of diffusion are the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the pulmonary capillaries and alveoli and the tendency of sodium to move from the ECF compartment, where the sodium concentration is high, to the ICF, where its concentration is low. Osmosis occurs when two different solutions are separated by a membrane that is impermeable to the dissolved substances; fluid shifts through the membrane from the region of low solute concentration to the region of high solute concentration until the solutions are of equal concentration. Active transport implies that energy must be expended for the movement to occur against a concentration gradient. Movement of water and solutes occurring from an area of high hydrostatic pressure to an area of low hydrostatic pressure is filtration.

You are caring for a patient admitted with a diagnosis of acute kidney injury. When you review your patients most recent laboratory reports, you note that the patients magnesium levels are high. You should prioritize assessment for which of the following health problems? A) Diminished deep tendon reflexes B) Tachycardia C) Cool, clammy skin D) Acute flank pain

A) Diminished deep tendon reflexes To gauge a patients magnesium status, the nurse should check deep tendon reflexes. If the reflex is absent, this may indicate high serum magnesium. Tachycardia, flank pain, and cool, clammy skin are not typically associated with hypermagnesemia

You are the nurse caring for a patient who is to receive IV daunorubicin, a chemotherapeutic agent. You start the infusion and check the insertion site as per protocol. During your most recent check, you note that the IV has infiltrated so you stop the infusion. What is your main concern with this infiltration? A) Extravasation of the medication B) Discomfort to the patient C) Blanching at the site D) Hypersensitivity reaction to the medication

A) Extravasation of the medication Irritating medications, such as chemotherapeutic agents, can cause pain, burning, and redness at the site. Blistering, inflammation, and necrosis of tissues can occur. The extent of tissue damage is determined by the medication concentration, the quantity that extravasated, infusion site location, the tissue response, and the extravasation duration. Extravasation is the priority over the other listed consequences.

Renal failure can have prerenal, renal, or postrenal causes. A patient with acute kidney injury is being assessed to determine where, physiologically, the cause is. If the cause is found to be prerenal, which condition most likely caused it? A) Heart failure B) Glomerulonephritis C) Ureterolithiasis D) Aminoglycoside toxicity

A) Heart failure By causing inadequate renal perfusion, heart failure can lead to prerenal failure. Glomerulonephritis and aminoglycoside toxicity are renal causes, and ureterolithiasis is a postrenal cause.

The nurse is assessing a patient suspected of having developed acute glomerulonephritis. The nurse should expect to address what clinical manifestation that is characteristic of this health problem? A) Hematuria B) Precipitous decrease in serum creatinine levels C) Hypotension unresolved by fluid administration D) Glucosuria

A) Hematuria The primary presenting feature of acute glomerulonephritis is hematuria (blood in the urine), which may be microscopic (identifiable through microscopic examination) or macroscopic or gross (visible to the eye). Proteinuria, primarily albumin, which is present, is due to increased permeability of the glomerular membrane. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels may rise as urine output drops. Some degree of edema and hypertension is noted in most patients

A football player is thought to have sustained an injury to his kidneys from being tackled from behind. The ER nurse caring for the patient reviews the initial orders written by the physician and notes that an order to collect all voided urine and send it to the laboratory for analysis. The nurse understands that this nursing intervention is important for what reason? A) Hematuria is the most common manifestation of renal trauma and blood losses may be microscopic, so laboratory analysis is essential. B) Intake and output calculations are essential and the laboratory will calculate the precise urine output produced by this patient. C) A creatinine clearance study may be ordered at a later time and the laboratory will hold all urine until it is determined if the test will be necessary. D) There is great concern about electrolyte imbalances and the laboratory will monitor the urine for changes in potassium and sodium concentrations.

A) Hematuria is the most common manifestation of renal trauma and blood losses may be microscopic, so laboratory analysis is essential. Hematuria is the most common manifestation of renal trauma; its presence after trauma suggests renal injury. Hematuria may not occur, or it may be detectable only on microscopic examination. All urine should be saved and sent to the laboratory for analysis to detect RBCs and to evaluate the course of bleeding. Measuring intake and output is not a function of the laboratory. The laboratory does not save urine to test creatinine clearance at a later time. The laboratory does not monitor the urine for sodium or potassium concentrations.

A 45-year-old man with diabetic nephropathy has ESKD and is starting dialysis. What should the nurse teach the patient about hemodialysis? A) Hemodialysis is a treatment option that is usually required three times a week. B) Hemodialysis is a program that will require you to commit to daily treatment. C) This will require you to have surgery and a catheter will need to be inserted into your abdomen. D) Hemodialysis is a treatment that is used for a few months until your kidney heals and starts to produce urine again.

A) Hemodialysis is a treatment option that is usually required three times a week. Hemodialysis is the most commonly used method of dialysis. Patients receiving hemodialysis must undergo treatment for the rest of their lives or until they undergo successful kidney transplantation. Treatments usually occur three times a week for at least 3 to 4 hours per treatment.

A patient is undergoing diagnostic testing for a suspected urinary obstruction. The nurse should know that incomplete emptying of the bladder due to bladder outlet obstruction can cause what? A) Hydronephrosis B) Nephritic syndrome C) Pylonephritis D) Nephrotoxicity

A) Hydronephrosis If voiding dysfunction goes undetected and untreated, the upper urinary system may become compromised. Chronic incomplete bladder emptying from poor detrusor pressure results in recurrent bladder infection. Incomplete bladder emptying due to bladder outlet obstruction, causing high-pressure detrusor contractions, can result in hydronephrosis from the high detrusor pressure that radiates up the ureters to the renal pelvis. This problem does not normally cause nephritic syndrome or pyelonephritis. Nephrotoxicity results from chemical causes.

A nurse knows that specific areas in the ureters have a propensity for obstruction. Prompt management of renal calculi is most important when the stone is located where? A) In the ureteropelvic junction B) In the ureteral segment near the sacroiliac junction C) In the ureterovesical junction D) In the urethra

A) In the ureteropelvic junction The three narrowed areas of each ureter are the ureteropelvic junction, the ureteral segment near the sacroiliac junction, and the ureterovescial junction. These three areas of the ureters have a propensity for obstruction by renal calculi or stricture. Obstruction of the ureteropelvic junction is most serious because of its close proximity to the kidney and the risk of associated kidney dysfunction. The urethra is not part of the ureter

A nurse is working with a patient who will undergo invasive urologic testing. The nurse has informed the patient that slight hematuria may occur after the testing is complete. The nurse should recommend what action to help resolve hematuria? A) Increased fluid intake following the test B) Use of an OTC diuretic after the test C) Gentle massage of the lower abdomen D) Activity limitation for the first 12 hours after the test

A) Increased fluid intake following the test Drinking fluids can help to clear hematuria. Diuretics are not used for this purpose. Activity limitation and massage are unlikely to resolve this expected consequence of testing.

The nurse is providing pre-procedure teaching about an ultrasound. The nurse informs the patient that in preparation for an ultrasound of the lower urinary tract the patient will require what? A) Increased fluid intake to produce a full bladder B) IV administration of radiopaque contrast agent C) Sedation and intubation D) Injection of a radioisotope

A) Increased fluid intake to produce a full bladder Ultrasonography requires a full bladder; therefore, fluid intake should be encouraged before the procedures. The administration of a radiopaque contrast agent is required to perform IV urography studies, such as an IV pyelogram. Ultrasonography is a quick and painless diagnostic test and does not require sedation or intubation. The injection of a radioisotope is required for nuclear scan and ultrasonography is not in this category of diagnostic studies.

You are the nurse evaluating a newly admitted patients laboratory results, which include several values that are outside of reference ranges. Which of the following would cause the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? A) Increased serum sodium B) Decreased serum potassium C) Decreased hemoglobin D) Increased platelets

A) Increased serum sodium Increased serum sodium causes increased thirst and the release of ADH by the posterior pituitary gland. When serum osmolality decreases and thirst and ADH secretions are suppressed, the kidney excretes more water to restore normal osmolality. Levels of potassium, hemoglobin, and platelets do not directly affect ADH release.

A patient with ESKD receives continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. The nurse observes that the dialysate drainage fluid is cloudy. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Inform the physician and assess the patient for signs of infection. B) Flush the peritoneal catheter with normal saline. C) Remove the catheter promptly and have the catheter tip cultured. D) Administer a bolus of IV normal saline as ordered.

A) Inform the physician and assess the patient for signs of infection. Peritonitis is the most common and serious complication of peritoneal dialysis. The first sign of peritonitis is cloudy dialysate drainage fluid, so prompt reporting to the primary care provider and rapid assessment for other signs of infection are warranted. Administration of an IV bolus is not necessary or appropriate and the physician would determine whether removal of the catheter is required. Flushing the catheter does not address the risk for infection.

The nurse and urologist have both been unsuccessful in catheterizing a patient with a prostatic obstruction and a full bladder. What approach does the nurse anticipate the physician using to drain the patients bladder? A) Insertion of a suprapubic catheter B) Scheduling the patient immediately for a prostatectomy C) Application of warm compresses to the perineum to assist with relaxation D) Medication administration to relax the bladder muscles and reattempting catheterization in 6 hours

A) Insertion of a suprapubic catheter When the patient cannot void, catheterization is used to prevent overdistention of the bladder. In the case of prostatic obstruction, attempts at catheterization by the urologist may not be successful, requiring insertion of a suprapubic catheter. A prostatectomy may be necessary, but would not be undertaken for the sole purpose of relieving a urethral obstruction. Delaying by applying compresses or administering medications could result in harm

The nurse has identified the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in a patient who undergoes peritoneal dialysis. What nursing action best addresses this risk? A) Maintain aseptic technique when administering dialysate. B) Wash the skin surrounding the catheter site with soap and water prior to each exchange. C) Add antibiotics to the dialysate as ordered. D) Administer prophylactic antibiotics by mouth or IV as ordered.

A) Maintain aseptic technique when administering dialysate Aseptic technique is used to prevent peritonitis and other infectious complications of peritoneal dialysis. It is not necessary to cleanse the skin with soap and water prior to each exchange. Antibiotics may be added to dialysate to treat infection, but they are not used to prevent infection

You are doing discharge teaching with a patient who has hypophosphatemia during his time in hospital. The patient has a diet ordered that is high in phosphate. What foods would you teach this patient to include in his diet? Select all that apply. A) Milk B) Beef C) Poultry D) Green vegetables E) Liver

A) Milk C) Poultry E) Liver If the patient experiences mild hypophosphatemia, foods such as milk and milk products, organ meats, nuts, fish, poultry, and whole grains should be encouraged.

A patient has questioned the nurses administration of IV normal saline, asking whether sterile water would be a more appropriate choice than saltwater. Under what circumstances would the nurse administer electrolyte-free water intravenously? A) Never, because it rapidly enters red blood cells, causing them to rupture. B) When the patient is severely dehydrated resulting in neurologic signs and symptoms C) When the patient is in excess of calcium and/or magnesium ions D) When a patients fluid volume deficit is due to acute or chronic renal failure

A) Never, because it rapidly enters red blood cells, causing them to rupture. IV solutions contain dextrose or electrolytes mixed in various proportions with water. Pure, electrolytefree water can never be administered by IV because it rapidly enters red blood cells and causes them to rupture

The nurse has tested the pH of urine from a patients newly created ileal conduit and obtained a result of 6.8. What is the nurses best response to this assessment finding? A) Obtain an order to increase the patients dose of ascorbic acid. B) Administer IV sodium bicarbonate as ordered. C) Encourage the patient to drink at least 500 mL of water and retest in 3 hours. D) Irrigate the ileal conduit with a dilute citric acid solution as ordered.

A) Obtain an order to increase the patients dose of ascorbic acid Because severe alkaline encrustation can accumulate rapidly around the stoma, the urine pH is kept below 6.5 by administration of ascorbic acid by mouth. An increased pH may suggest a need to increase ascorbic acid dosing. This is not treated by administering bicarbonate or citric acid, nor by increasing fluid intake

The nurse is caring for a patient status after a motor vehicle accident. The patient has developed AKI. What is the nurses role in caring for this patient? Select all that apply. A) Providing emotional support for the family B) Monitoring for complications C) Participating in emergency treatment of fluid and electrolyte imbalances D) Providing nursing care for primary disorder (trauma) E) Directing nutritional interventions

A) Providing emotional support for the family B) Monitoring for complications C) Participating in emergency treatment of fluid and electrolyte imbalances D) Providing nursing care for primary disorder (trauma) The nurse has an important role in caring for the patient with AKI. The nurse monitors for complications, participates in emergency treatment of fluid and electrolyte imbalances, assesses the patients progress and response to treatment, and provides physical and emotional support. Additionally, the nurse keeps family members informed about the patients condition, helps them understand the treatments, and provides psychological support. Although the development of AKI may be the most serious problem, the nurse continues to provide nursing care indicated for the primary disorder (e.g., burns, shock, trauma, obstruction of the urinary tract). The nurse does not direct the patients nutritional status; the dietician and the physician normally collaborate on directing the patients nutritional status.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has just returned to the post-surgical unit following renal surgery. When assessing the patients output from surgical drains, the nurse should assess what parameters? Select all that apply. A) Quantity of output B) Color of the output C) Visible characteristics of the output D) Odor of the output E) pH of the output

A) Quantity of output B) Color of the output C) Visible characteristics of the output Urine output and drainage from tubes inserted during surgery are monitored for amount, color, and type or characteristics. Odor and pH are not normally assessed.

A patient who is being treated for pneumonia starts complaining of sudden shortness of breath. An arterial blood gas (ABG) is drawn. The ABG has the following values: pH 7.21, PaCO2 64 mm Hg, HCO3 = 24 mm Hg. What does the ABG reflect? A) Respiratory acidosis B) Metabolic alkalosis C) Respiratory alkalosis D) Metabolic acidosis

A) Respiratory acidosis The pH is below 7.40, PaCO2 is greater than 40, and the HCO3 is normal; therefore, it is a respiratory acidosis, and compensation by the kidneys has not begun, which indicates this was probably an acute event. The HCO3 of 24 is within the normal range so it is not metabolic alkalosis. The pH of 7.21 indicates an acidosis, not alkalosis. The pH of 7.21 indicates it is an acidosis but the HCO3 of 24 is within the normal range, ruling out metabolic acidosis.

The nurse on a urology unit is working with a patient who has been diagnosed with oxalate renal calculi. When planning this patients health education, what nutritional guidelines should the nurse provide? A) Restrict protein intake as ordered. B) Increase intake of potassium-rich foods. C) Follow a low-calcium diet. D) Encourage intake of food containing oxalates.

A) Restrict protein intake as ordered. Protein is restricted to 60 g/d, while sodium is restricted to 3 to 4 g/d. Low-calcium diets are generally not recommended except for true absorptive hypercalciuria. The patient should avoid intake of oxalatecontaining foods and there is no need to increase potassium intake.

The nurse who is leading a wellness workshop has been asked about actions to reduce the risk of bladder cancer. What health promotion action most directly addresses a major risk factor for bladder cancer? A) Smoking cessation B) Reduction of alcohol intake C) Maintenance of a diet high in vitamins and nutrients D) Vitamin D supplementation

A) Smoking cessation People who smoke develop bladder cancer twice as often as those who do not smoke. High alcohol intake and low vitamin intake are not noted to contribute to bladder cancer

The nurse is preparing to collect an ordered urine sample for urinalysis. The nurse should be aware that this test will include what assessment parameters? Select all that apply. A) Specific gravity of the patients urine B) Testing for the presence of glucose in the patients urine C) Microscopic examination of urine sediment for RBCs D) Microscopic examination of urine sediment for casts E) Testing for BUN and creatinine in the patients urine

A) Specific gravity of the patients urine B) Testing for the presence of glucose in the patients urine C) Microscopic examination of urine sediment for RBCs D) Microscopic examination of urine sediment for casts

A patient with kidney stones is scheduled for extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL). What should the nurse include in the patients post-procedure care? A) Strain the patients urine following the procedure. B) Administer a bolus of 500 mL normal saline following the procedure. C) Monitor the patient for fluid overload following the procedure. D) Insert a urinary catheter for 24 to 48 hours after the procedure.

A) Strain the patients urine following the procedure Following ESWL, the nurse should strain the patients urine for gravel or sand. There is no need to administer an IV bolus after the procedure and there is not a heightened risk of fluid overload. Catheter insertion is not normally indicated following ESWL

A 42-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of occasional urinary incontinence when she sneezes. The clinic nurse should recognize what type of incontinence? A) Stress incontinence B) Reflex incontinence C) Overflow incontinence D) Functional incontinence

A) Stress incontinence Stress incontinence is the involuntary loss of urine through an intact urethra as a result of sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure. Reflex incontinence is loss of urine due to hyperreflexia or involuntary urethral relaxation in the absence of normal sensations usually associated with voiding. Overflow incontinence is an involuntary urine loss associated with overdistension of the bladder. Functional incontinence refers to those instances in which the function of the lower urinary tract is intact, but other factors (outside the urinary system) make it difficult or impossible for the patient to reach the toilet in time for voiding reach the toilet in time for voiding

You are the nurse caring for a 77-year-old male patient who has been involved in a motor vehicle accident. You and your colleague note that the patients labs indicate minimally elevated serum creatinine levels, which your colleague dismisses. What can this increase in creatinine indicate in older adults? A) Substantially reduced renal function B) Acute kidney injury C) Decreased cardiac output D) Alterations in ratio of body fluids to muscle mass

A) Substantially reduced renal function Normal physiologic changes of aging, including reduced cardiac, renal, and respiratory function, and reserve and alterations in the ratio of body fluids to muscle mass, may alter the responses of elderly people to fluid and electrolyte changes and acidbase disturbances. Renal function declines with age, as do muscle mass and daily exogenous creatinine production. Therefore, high-normal and minimally elevated serum creatinine values may indicate substantially reduced renal function in older adults. Acute kidney injury is likely to cause a more significant increase in serum creatinine.

A nurse on the renal unit is caring for a patient who will soon begin peritoneal dialysis. The family of the patient asks for education about the peritoneal dialysis catheter that has been placed in the patients peritoneum. The nurse explains the three sections of the catheter and talks about the two cuffs on the dialysis catheter. What would the nurse explain about the cuffs? Select all that apply. A) The cuffs are made of Dacron polyester. B) The cuffs stabilize the catheter. C) The cuffs prevent the dialysate from leaking. D) The cuffs provide a barrier against microorganisms. E) The cuffs absorb dialysate

A) The cuffs are made of Dacron polyester. B) The cuffs stabilize the catheter. C) The cuffs prevent the dialysate from leaking. D) The cuffs provide a barrier against microorganisms. Most of these catheters have two cuffs, which are made of Dacron polyester. The cuffs stabilize the catheter, limit movement, prevent leaks, and provide a barrier against microorganisms. They do not absorb dialysate.

The nurse is assessing a patients bladder by percussion. The nurse elicits dullness after the patient has voided. How should the nurse interpret this assessment finding? A) The patients bladder is not completely empty. B) The patient has kidney enlargement. C) The patient has a ureteral obstruction. D) The patient has a fluid volume deficit.

A) The patients bladder is not completely empty. Dullness to percussion of the bladder following voiding indicates incomplete bladder emptying. Enlargement of the kidneys can be attributed to numerous conditions such as polycystic kidney disease or hydronephrosis and is not related to bladder fullness. Dehydration and ureteral obstruction are not related to bladder fullness; in fact, these conditions result in decreased flow of urine to the bladder.

The nurse is working with a patient who has been experiencing episodes of urinary retention. What assessment finding would suggest that the patient is experiencing retention? A) The patients suprapubic region is dull on percussion. B) The patient is uncharacteristically drowsy. C) The patient claims to void large amounts of urine 2 to 3 times daily. D) The patient takes a beta adrenergic blocker for the treatment of hypertension.

A) The patients suprapubic region is dull on percussion. Dullness on percussion of the suprapubic region is suggestive of urinary retention. Patients retaining urine are typically restless, not drowsy. A patient experiencing retention usually voids frequent, small amounts of urine and the use of beta-blockers is unrelated to urinary retention.

A patient asks the nurse why kidney problems can cause gastrointestinal disturbances. What relationship should the nurse describe? A) The right kidneys proximity to the pancreas, liver, and gallbladder B) The indirect impact of digestive enzymes on renal function C) That the peritoneum encapsulates the GI system and the kidneys D) The left kidneys connection to the common bile duct

A) The right kidneys proximity to the pancreas, liver, and gallbladder The proximity of the right kidney to the colon, duodenum, head of the pancreas, common bile duct, liver, and gallbladder may cause GI disturbances. The proximity of the left kidney to the colon (splenic flexure), stomach, pancreas, and spleen may also result in intestinal symptoms. Digestive enzymes do not affect renal function and the left kidney is not connected to the common bile duct.

A female patient has been prescribed a course of antibiotics for the treatment of a UTI. When providing health education for the patient, the nurse should address what topic? A) The risk of developing a vaginal yeast infection as a consequent of antibiotic therapy B) The need to expect a heavy menstrual period following the course of antibiotics C) The risk of developing antibiotic resistance after the course of antibiotics D) The need to undergo a series of three urine cultures after the antibiotics have been completed

A) The risk of developing a vaginal yeast infection as a consequent of antibiotic therapy Yeast vaginitis occurs in as many as 25% of patients treated with antimicrobial agents that affect vaginal flora. Yeast vaginitis can cause more symptoms and be more difficult and costly to treat than the original UTI. Antibiotics do not affect menstrual periods and serial urine cultures are not normally necessary. Resistance is normally a result of failing to complete a prescribed course of antibiotics

A patient with elevated BUN and creatinine values has been referred by her primary physician for further evaluation. The nurse should anticipate the use of what initial diagnostic test? A) Ultrasound B) X-ray C) Computed tomography (CT) D) Nuclear scan

A) Ultrasound Ultrasonography is a noninvasive procedure that passes sound waves into the body through a transducer to detect abnormalities of internal tissues and organs. Structures of the urinary system create characteristic ultrasonographic images. Because of its sensitivity, ultrasonography has replaced many other diagnostic tests as the initial diagnostic procedure.

A nurse is preparing a patient diagnosed with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) for a lower urinary tract cystoscopic examination. The nurse informs the patient that the most common temporary complication experienced after this procedure is what? A) Urinary retention B) Bladder perforation C) Hemorrhage D) Nausea

A) Urinary retention After a cystoscopic examination, the patient with obstructive pathology may experience urine retention if the instruments used during the examination caused edema. The nurse will carefully monitor the patient with prostatic hyperplasia for urine retention. Post-procedure, the patient will experience some hematuria, but is not at great risk for hemorrhage. Unless the condition is associated with another disorder, nausea is not commonly associated with this diagnostic study. Bladder perforation is rare.

A nurse is caring for a 73-year-old patient with a urethral obstruction related to prostatic enlargement. When planning this patients care, the nurse should be aware of the consequent risk of what complication? A) Urinary tract infection B) Enuresis C) Polyuria D) Proteinuria

A) Urinary tract infection An obstruction of the bladder outlet, such as in advanced benign prostatic hyperplasia, results in abnormally high voiding pressure with a slow, prolonged flow of urine. The urine may remain in the bladder, which increases the potential of a urinary tract infection. Older male patients are at risk for prostatic enlargement, which causes urethral obstruction and can result in hydronephrosis, renal failure, and urinary tract infections

The nurse is working on the renal transplant unit. To reduce the risk of infection in a patient with a transplanted kidney, it is imperative for the nurse to do what? A) Wash hands carefully and frequently. B) Ensure immediate function of the donated kidney. C) Instruct the patient to wear a face mask. D) Bar visitors from the patients room.

A) Wash hands carefully and frequently. The nurse ensures that the patient is protected from exposure to infection by hospital staff, visitors, and other patients with active infections. Careful handwashing is imperative; face masks may be worn by hospital staff and visitors to reduce the risk for transmitting infectious agents while the patient is receiving high doses of immunosuppressants. Visitors may be limited, but are not normally barred outright. Ensuring kidney function is vital, but does not prevent infection.

The nurse is caring for a patient recently diagnosed with renal calculi. The nurse should instruct the patient to increase fluid intake to a level where the patient produces at least how much urine each day? A) 1,250 mL B) 2,000 mL C) 2,750 mL D) 3,500 mL

B) 2,000 mL Unless contraindicated by renal failure or hydronephrosis, patients with renal stones should drink at least eight 8-ounce glasses of water daily or have IV fluids prescribed to keep the urine dilute. A urine output exceeding 2 L a day is advisable.

The nurse caring for a patient with suspected renal dysfunction calculates that the patients weight has increased by 5 pounds in the past 24 hours. The nurse estimates that the patient has retained approximately how much fluid? A) 1,300 mL of fluid in 24 hours B) 2,300 mL of fluid in 24 hours C) 3,100 mL of fluid in 24 hours D) 5,000 mL of fluid in 24 hours

B) 2,300 mL of fluid in 24 hours An increase in body weight commonly accompanies edema. To calculate the approximate weight gain from fluid retention, remember that 1 kg of weight gain equals approximately 1,000 mL of fluid. Five lbs = 2.27 kg = 2,270 mL.

A nurse is caring for a patient with impaired renal function. A creatinine clearance measurement has been ordered. The nurse should facilitate collection of what samples? A) A fasting serum potassium level and a random urine sample B) A 24-hour urine specimen and a serum creatinine level midway through the urine collection process C) A BUN and serum creatinine level on three consecutive mornings D) A sterile urine specimen and an electrolyte panel, including sodium, potassium, calcium, and phosphorus values

B) A 24-hour urine specimen and a serum creatinine level midway through the urine collection process To calculate creatinine clearance, a 24-hour urine specimen is collected. Midway through the collection, the serum creatinine level is measured.

A nurse on a busy medical unit provides care for many patients who require indwelling urinary catheters at some point during their hospital care. The nurse should recognize a heightened risk of injury associated with indwelling catheter use in which patient? A) A patient whose diagnosis of chronic kidney disease requires a fluid restriction B) A patient who has Alzheimers disease and who is acutely agitated C) A patient who is on bed rest following a recent episode of venous thromboembolism D) A patient who has decreased mobility following a transmetatarsal amputation

B) A patient who has Alzheimers disease and who is acutely agitated Patients who are confused and agitated risk trauma through the removal of an indwelling catheter which has the balloon still inflated. Recent VTE, amputation, and fluid restriction do not directly create a risk for injury or trauma associated with indwelling catheter use.

The nurse coming on shift on the medical unit is taking a report on four patients. What patient does the nurse know is at the greatest risk of developing ESKD? A) A patient with a history of polycystic kidney disease B) A patient with diabetes mellitus and poorly controlled hypertension C) A patient who is morbidly obese with a history of vascular disorders D) A patient with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

B) A patient with diabetes mellitus and poorly controlled hypertension Systemic diseases, such as diabetes mellitus (leading cause); hypertension; chronic glomerulonephritis; pyelonephritis; obstruction of the urinary tract; hereditary lesions, such as in polycystic kidney disease; vascular disorders; infections; medications; or toxic agents may cause ESKD. A patient with more than one of these risk factors is at the greatest risk for developing ESKD. Therefore, the patient with diabetes and hypertension is likely at highest risk for ESKD.

The nurse is caring for a patient scheduled for renal angiography following a motor vehicle accident. What patient preparation should the nurse most likely provide before this test? A) Administration of IV potassium chloride B) Administration of a laxative C) Administration of Gastrografin D) Administration of a 24-hour urine test

B) Administration of a laxative Before the procedure, a laxative may be prescribed to evacuate the colon so that unobstructed x-rays can be obtained. A 24-hour urine test is not necessary prior to the procedure. Gastrografin and potassium chloride are not administered prior to renal angiography.

The nurse is caring for a patient with acute glomerular inflammation. When assessing for the characteristic signs and symptoms of this health problem, the nurse should include which assessments? Select all that apply. A) Percuss for pain in the right lower abdominal quadrant. B) Assess for the presence of peripheral edema. C) Auscultate the patients apical heart rate for dysrhythmias. D) Assess the patients BP. E) Assess the patients orientation and judgment.

B) Assess for the presence of peripheral edema D) Assess the patients BP. Most patients with acute glomerular inflammation have some degree of edema and hypertension. Dysrhythmias, RLQ pain, and changes in mental status are not among the most common manifestations of acute glomerular inflammation.

The nurse has implemented a bladder retraining program for an older adult patient. The nurse places the patient on a timed voiding schedule and performs an ultrasonic bladder scan after each void. The nurse notes that the patient typically has approximately 50 mL of urine remaining in her bladder after voiding. What would be the nurses best response to this finding? A) Perform a straight catheterization on this patient. B) Avoid further interventions at this time, as this is an acceptable finding. C) Place an indwelling urinary catheter. D) Press on the patients bladder in an attempt to encourage complete emptying.

B) Avoid further interventions at this time, as this is an acceptable finding. In adults older than 60 years of age, 50 to 100 mL of residual urine may remain after each voiding because of the decreased contractility of the detrusor muscle. Consequently, further interventions are not likely warranted.

The nurse is reviewing the electronic health record of a patient with a history of incontinence. The nurse reads that the physician assessed the patients deep tendon reflexes. What condition of the urinary/renal system does this assessment address? A) Renal calculi B) Bladder dysfunction C) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) D) Recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs)

B) Bladder dysfunction The deep tendon reflexes of the knee are examined for quality and symmetry. This is an important part of testing for neurologic causes of bladder dysfunction, because the sacral area, which innervates the lower extremities, is in the same peripheral nerve area responsible for urinary continence. Neurologic function does not directly influence the course of renal calculi, BPH or UTIs.

The physician has ordered a peripheral IV to be inserted before the patient goes for computed tomography. What should the nurse do when selecting a site on the hand or arm for insertion of an IV catheter? A) Choose a hairless site if available. B) Consider potential effects on the patients mobility when selecting a site. C) Have the patient briefly hold his arm over his head before insertion. D) Leave the tourniquet on for at least 3 minutes.

B) Consider potential effects on the patients mobility when selecting a site. Ideally, both arms and hands are carefully inspected before choosing a specific venipuncture site that does not interfere with mobility. Instruct the patient to hold his arm in a dependent position to increase blood flow. Never leave a tourniquet in place longer than 2 minutes. The site does not necessarily need to be devoid of hair

A 52-year-old patient is scheduled to undergo ileal conduit surgery. When planning this patients discharge education, what is the most plausible nursing diagnosis that the nurse should address? A) Impaired mobility related to limitations posed by the ileal conduit B) Deficient knowledge related to care of the ileal conduit C) Risk for deficient fluid volume related to urinary diversion D) Risk for autonomic dysreflexia related to disruption of the sacral plexus

B) Deficient knowledge related to care of the ileal conduit The patient will most likely require extensive teaching about the care and maintenance of a new urinary diversion. A diversion does not create a serious risk of fluid volume deficit. Mobility is unlikely to be impaired after the immediate postsurgical recovery. The sacral plexus is not threatened by the creation of a urinary diversion.

The nurse caring for a patient post colon resection is assessing the patient on the second postoperative day. The nasogastric tube (NG) remains patent and continues at low intermittent wall suction. The IV is patent and infusing at 125 mL/hr. The patient reports pain at the incision site rated at a 3 on a 0-to-10 rating scale. During your initial shift assessment, the patient complains of cramps in her legs and a tingling sensation in her feet. Your assessment indicates decreased deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) and you suspect the patient has hypokalemia. What other sign or symptom would you expect this patient to exhibit? A) Diarrhea B) Dilute urine C) Increased muscle tone D) Joint pain

B) Dilute urine Manifestations of hypokalemia include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, muscle weakness, leg cramps, decreased bowel motility, paresthesias (numbness and tingling), and dysrhythmias. If prolonged, hypokalemia can lead to an inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine, causing dilute urine (resulting in polyuria, nocturia) and excessive thirst. Potassium depletion suppresses the release of insulin and results in glucose intolerance. Decreased muscle strength and DTRs can be found on physical assessment. You would expect decreased, not increased, muscle strength with hypokalemia. The patient would not have diarrhea following bowel surgery, and increased bowel motility is inconsistent with hypokalemia

A patient has undergone the creation of an Indiana pouch for the treatment of bladder cancer. The nurse identified the nursing diagnosis of disturbed body image. How can the nurse best address the effects of this urinary diversion on the patients body image? A) Emphasize that the diversion is an integral part of successful cancer treatment. B) Encourage the patient to speak openly and frankly about the diversion. C) Allow the patient to initiate the process of providing care for the diversion. D) Provide the patient with detailed written materials about the diversion at the time of discharge

B) Encourage the patient to speak openly and frankly about the diversion. Allowing the patient to express concerns and anxious feelings can help with body image, especially in adjusting to the changes in toileting habits. The nurse may have to initiate dialogue about the management of the diversion, especially if the patient is hesitant. Provision of educational materials is rarely sufficient to address a sudden change and profound change in body image. Emphasizing the role of the diversion in cancer treatment does not directly address the patients body image.

A patient is being treated for AKI and the patient daily weights have been ordered. The nurse notes a weight gain of 3 pounds over the past 48 hours. What nursing diagnosis is suggested by this assessment finding? A) Imbalanced nutrition: More than body requirements B) Excess fluid volume C) Sedentary lifestyle D) Adult failure to thrive

B) Excess fluid volume If the patient with AKI gains or does not lose weight, fluid retention should be suspected. Short-term weight gain is not associated with excessive caloric intake or a sedentary lifestyle. Failure to thrive is not associated with weight gain.

A patient with a history of progressively worsening fatigue is undergoing a comprehensive assessment which includes test of renal function relating to erythropoiesis. When assessing the oxygen transport ability of the blood, the nurse should prioritize the review of what blood value? A) Hematocrit B) Hemoglobin C) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) D) Serum creatinine

B) Hemoglobin Although historically hematocrit has been the blood test of choice when assessing a patient for anemia, use of the hemoglobin level rather than hematocrit is currently recommended, because that measurement is a better assessment of the oxygen transport ability of the blood. ESR and creatinine levels are not indicative of oxygen transport ability

Resection of a patients bladder tumor has been incomplete and the patient is preparing for the administration of the first ordered instillation of topical chemotherapy. When preparing the patient, the nurse should emphasize the need to do which of the following? A) Remain NPO for 12 hours prior to the treatment. B) Hold the solution in the bladder for 2 hours before voiding. C) Drink the intravesical solution quickly and on an empty stomach. D) Avoid acidic foods and beverages until the full cycle of treatment is complete

B) Hold the solution in the bladder for 2 hours before voiding. The patient is allowed to eat and drink before the instillation procedure. Once the bladder is full, the patient must retain the intravesical solution for 2 hours before voiding. The solution is instilled through the meatus; it is not consumed orally. There is no need to avoid acidic foods and beverages during treatment.

You are the surgical nurse caring for a 65-year-old female patient who is postoperative day 1 following a thyroidectomy. During your shift assessment, the patient complains of tingling in her lips and fingers. She tells you that she has an intermittent spasm in her wrist and hand and she exhibits increased muscle tone. What electrolyte imbalance should you first suspect? A) Hypophosphatemia B) Hypocalcemia C) Hypermagnesemia D) Hyperkalemia

B) Hypocalcemia Tetany is the most characteristic manifestation of hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia. Sensations of tingling may occur in the tips of the fingers, around the mouth, and, less commonly, in the feet. Hypophosphatemia creates central nervous dysfunction, resulting in seizures and coma. Hypermagnesemia creates hypoactive reflexes and somnolence. Signs of hyperkalemia include paresthesias and anxiety

A patient has been successfully treated for kidney stones and is preparing for discharge. The nurse recognizes the risk of recurrence and has planned the patients discharge education accordingly. What preventative measure should the nurse encourage the patient to adopt? A) Increasing intake of protein from plant sources B) Increasing fluid intake C) Adopting a high-calcium diet D) Eating several small meals each day

B) Increasing fluid intake Increased fluid intake is encouraged to prevent the recurrence of kidney stones. Protein intake from all sources should be limited. Most patients do not require a low-calcium diet, but increased calcium intake would be contraindicated for all patients. Eating small, frequent meals does not influence the risk for recurrence.

A 71-year-old patient with ESKD has been told by the physician that it is time to consider hemodialysis until a transplant can be found. The patient tells the nurse she is not sure she wants to undergo a kidney transplant. What would be an appropriate response for the nurse to make? A) The decision is certainly yours to make, but be sure not to make a mistake. B) Kidney transplants in patients your age are as successful as they are in younger patients. C) I understand your hesitancy to commit to a transplant surgery. Success is comparatively rare D) Have you talked this over with your family?

B) Kidney transplants in patients your age are as successful as they are in younger patients. Although there is no specific age limitation for renal transplantation, concomitant disorders (e.g., coronary artery disease, peripheral vascular disease) have made it a less common treatment for the elderly. However, the outcome is comparable to that of younger patients. The other listed options either belittle the patient or give the patient misinformation.

A nurse who provides care in a long-term care facility is aware of the high incidence and prevalence of urinary tract infections among older adults. What action has the greatest potential to prevent UTIs in this population? A) Administer prophylactic antibiotics as ordered. B) Limit the use of indwelling urinary catheters. C) Encourage frequent mobility and repositioning. D) Toilet residents who are immobile on a scheduled basis.

B) Limit the use of indwelling urinary catheters. when indwelling catheters are used, the risk of UTI increases dramatically. Limiting their use significantly reduces an older adults risk of developing a UTI. Regular toileting promotes continence, but has only an indirect effect on the risk of UTIs. Prophylactic antibiotics are not normally administered. Mobility does not have a direct effect on UTI risk.

The community health nurse is performing a home visit to an 84-year-old woman recovering from hip surgery. The nurse notes that the woman seems uncharacteristically confused and has dry mucous membranes. When asked about her fluid intake, the patient states, I stop drinking water early in the day because it is just too difficult to get up during the night to go to the bathroom. What would be the nurses best response? A) I will need to have your medications adjusted so you will need to be readmitted to the hospital for a complete workup. B) Limiting your fluids can create imbalances in your body that can result in confusion. Maybe we need to adjust the timing of your fluids. C) It is normal to be a little confused following surgery, and it is safe not to urinate at night. D) If you build up too much urine in your bladder, it can cause you to get confused, especially when your body is under stress.

B) Limiting your fluids can create imbalances in your body that can result in confusion. Maybe we need to adjust the timing of your fluids. In elderly patients, the clinical manifestations of fluid and electrolyte disturbances may be subtle or atypical. For example, fluid deficit may cause confusion or cognitive impairment in the elderly person. There is no mention of medications in the stem of the question or any specific evidence given for the need for readmission to the hospital. Confusion is never normal, common, or expected in the elderly. Urinary retention does normally cause confusion.

You are caring for a patient with a diagnosis of pancreatitis. The patient was admitted from a homeless shelter and is a vague historian. The patient appears malnourished and on day 3 of the patients admission total parenteral nutrition (TPN) has been started. Why would you know to start the infusion of TPN slowly? A) Patients receiving TPN are at risk for hypercalcemia if calories are started too rapidly. B) Malnourished patients receiving parenteral nutrition are at risk for hypophosphatemia if calories are started too aggressively. C) Malnourished patients who receive fluids too rapidly are at risk for hypernatremia. D) Patients receiving TPN need a slow initiation of treatment in order to allow digestive enzymes to accumulate

B) Malnourished patients receiving parenteral nutrition are at risk for hypophosphatemia if calories are started too aggressively. The nurse identifies patients who are at risk for hypophosphatemia and monitors them. Because malnourished patients receiving parenteral nutrition are at risk when calories are introduced too aggressively, preventive measures involve gradually introducing the solution to avoid rapid shifts of phosphorus into the cells. Patients receiving TPN are not at risk for hypercalcemia or hypernatremia if calories or fluids are started to rapidly. Digestive enzymes are not a relevant consideration.

A patient is brought to the renal unit from the PACU status post resection of a renal tumor. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse prioritize in the care of this patient? A) Increasing oral intake B) Managing postoperative pain C) Managing dialysis D) Increasing mobility

B) Managing postoperative pain The patient requires frequent analgesia during the postoperative period and assistance with turning, coughing, use of incentive spirometry, and deep breathing to prevent atelectasis and other pulmonary complications. Increasing oral intake and mobility are not priority nursing actions in the immediate postoperative care of this patient. Dialysis is not necessary following kidney surgery.

A nurse in the neurologic ICU has orders to infuse a hypertonic solution into a patient with increased intracranial pressure. This solution will increase the number of dissolved particles in the patients blood, creating pressure for fluids in the tissues to shift into the capillaries and increase the blood volume. This process is best described as which of the following? A) Hydrostatic pressure B) Osmosis and osmolality C) Diffusion D) Active transport

B) Osmosis and osmolality Osmosis is the movement of fluid from a region of low solute concentration to a region of high solute concentration across a semipermeable membrane. Hydrostatic pressure refers to changes in water or volume related to water pressure. Diffusion is the movement of solutes from an area of greater concentration to lesser concentration; the solutes in an intact vascular system are unable to move so diffusion normally should not be taking place. Active transport is the movement of molecules against the concentration gradient and requires adenosine triphosphate (ATP) as an energy source; this process typically takes place at the cellular level and is not involved in vascular volume changes.

A patient is scheduled for diagnostic testing to address prolonged signs and symptoms of genitourinary dysfunction. What signs and symptoms are particularly suggestive of urinary tract disease? Select all that apply. A) Petechiae B) Pain C) Gastrointestinal symptoms D) Changes in voiding E) Jaundice

B) Pain C) Gastrointestinal symptoms D) Changes in voiding Dysfunction of the kidney can produce a complex array of symptoms throughout the body. Pain, changes in voiding, and gastrointestinal symptoms are particularly suggestive of urinary tract disease. Jaundice and petechiae are not associated with genitourinary health problems.

A patient is scheduled for a CT scan of the abdomen with contrast. The patient has a baseline creatinine level of 2.3 mg/dL. In preparing this patient for the procedure, the nurse anticipates what orders? A) Monitor the patients electrolyte values every hour before the procedure. B) Preprocedure hydration and administration of acetylcysteine C) Hemodialysis immediately prior to the CT scan D) Obtain a creatinine clearance by collecting a 24-hour urine specimen.

B) Preprocedure hydration and administration of acetylcysteine Radiocontrast-induced nephropathy is a major cause of hospital-acquired acute kidney injury. Baseline levels of creatinine greater than 2 mg/dL identify the patient as being high risk. Preprocedure hydration and prescription of acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) the day prior to the test is effective in prevention. The nurse would not monitor the patients electrolytes every hour preprocedure. Nothing in the scenario indicates the need for hemodialysis. A creatinine clearance is not necessary prior to a CT scan with contrast.

A patient with recurrent urinary tract infections has just undergone a cystoscopy and complains of slight hematuria during the first void after the procedure. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Administer a STAT dose of vitamin K, as ordered. B) Reassure the patient that this is not unexpected and then monitor the patient for further bleeding. C) Promptly inform the physician of this assessment finding. D) Position the patient supine and insert a Foley catheter, as ordered.

B) Reassure the patient that this is not unexpected and then monitor the patient for further bleeding. Some burning on voiding, blood-tinged urine, and urinary frequency from trauma to the mucous membranes can be expected after cystoscopy. The nurse should explain this to the patient and ensure that the bleeding resolves. No clear need exists to report this finding and it does not warrant insertion of a Foley catheter or vitamin K administration.

A patient on the critical care unit is postoperative day 1 following kidney transplantation from a living donor. The nurses most recent assessments indicate that the patient is producing copious quantities of dilute urine. What is the nurses most appropriate response? A) Assess the patient for further signs or symptoms of rejection. B) Recognize this as an expected finding. C) Inform the primary care provider of this finding. D) Administer exogenous antidiuretic hormone as ordered.

B) Recognize this as an expected finding A kidney from a living donor related to the patient usually begins to function immediately after surgery and may produce large quantities of dilute urine. This is not suggestive of rejection and treatment is not warranted. There is no obvious need to report this finding.

A patient is scheduled for a diagnostic MRI of the lower urinary system. What pre-procedure education should the nurse include? A) The need to be NPO for 12 hours prior to the test B) Relaxation techniques to apply during the test C) The need for conscious sedation prior to the test D) The need to limit fluid intake to 1 liter in the 24 hours before the test

B) Relaxation techniques to apply during the test Patient preparation should include teaching relaxation techniques because the patient needs to remain still during an MRI. The patient does not normally need to be NPO or fluid-restricted before the test and conscious sedation is not usually implemented

A patient with chronic kidney disease is completing an exchange during peritoneal dialysis. The nurse observes that the peritoneal fluid is draining slowly and that the patients abdomen is increasing in girth. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Advance the catheter 2 to 4 cm further into the peritoneal cavity. B) Reposition the patient to facilitate drainage. C) Aspirate from the catheter using a 60-mL syringe. D) Infuse 50 mL of additional dialysate.

B) Reposition the patient to facilitate drainage. If the peritoneal fluid does not drain properly, the nurse can facilitate drainage by turning the patient from side to side or raising the head of the bed. The catheter should never be pushed further into the peritoneal cavity. It would be unsafe to aspirate or to infuse more dialysate.

A patient with a longstanding diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder presents to the emergency room. The triage nurse notes upon assessment that the patient is hyperventilating. The triage nurse is aware that hyperventilation is the most common cause of which acidbase imbalance? A) Respiratory acidosis B) Respiratory alkalosis C) Increased PaCO2 D) CNS disturbances

B) Respiratory alkalosis The most common cause of acute respiratory alkalosis is hyperventilation. Extreme anxiety can lead to hyperventilation. Acute respiratory acidosis occurs in emergency situations, such as pulmonary edema, and is exhibited by hypoventilation and decreased PaCO2. CNS disturbances are found in extreme hyponatremia and fluid overload.

A patient with renal failure secondary to diabetic nephropathy has been admitted to the medical unit. What is the most life-threatening effect of renal failure for which the nurse should monitor the patient? A) Accumulation of wastes B) Retention of potassium C) Depletion of calcium D) Lack of BP control

B) Retention of potassium Retention of potassium is the most life-threatening effect of renal failure. Aldosterone causes the kidney to excrete potassium, in contrast to aldosterones effects on sodium described previously. Acidbase balance, the amount of dietary potassium intake, and the flow rate of the filtrate in the distal tubule also influence the amount of potassium secreted into the urine. Hypocalcemia, the accumulation of wastes, and lack of BP control are complications associated with renal failure, but do not have same level of threat to the patients well-being as hyperkalemia.

A patient with a diagnosis of respiratory acidosis is experiencing renal compensation. What function does the kidney perform to assist in restoring acidbase balance? A) Sequestering free hydrogen ions in the nephrons B) Returning bicarbonate to the bodys circulation C) Returning acid to the bodys circulation D) Excreting bicarbonate in the urine

B) Returning bicarbonate to the bodys circulation The kidney performs two major functions to assist in acidbase balance. The first is to reabsorb and return to the bodys circulation any bicarbonate from the urinary filtrate; the second is to excrete acid in the urine. Retaining bicarbonate will counteract an acidotic state. The nephrons do not sequester free hydrogen ions.

A patient with a sacral pressure ulcer has had a urinary catheter inserted. As a result of this new intervention, the nurse should prioritize what nursing diagnosis in the patients plan of care? A) Impaired physical mobility related to presence of an indwelling urinary catheter B) Risk for infection related to presence of an indwelling urinary catheter C) Toileting self-care deficit related to urinary catheterization D) Disturbed body image related to urinary catheterization

B) Risk for infection related to presence of an indwelling urinary catheter Catheters create a high risk for UTIs. Because of this acute physiologic threat, the patients risk for infection is usually prioritized over functional and psychosocial diagnoses.

The clinic nurse is preparing a plan of care for a patient with a history of stress incontinence. What role will the nurse have in implementing a behavioral therapy approach? A) Provide medication teaching related to pseudoephedrine sulfate. B) Teach the patient to perform pelvic floor muscle exercises. C) Prepare the patient for an anterior vaginal repair procedure. D) Provide information on periurethral bulking

B) Teach the patient to perform pelvic floor muscle exercises Pelvic floor muscle exercises (sometimes called Kegel exercises) represent the cornerstone of behavioral intervention for addressing symptoms of stress, urge, and mixed incontinence. None of the other listed interventions has a behavioral approach.

A medical nurse educator is reviewing a patients recent episode of metabolic acidosis with members of the nursing staff. What should the educator describe about the role of the kidneys in metabolic acidosis? A) The kidneys retain hydrogen ions and excrete bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. B) The kidneys excrete hydrogen ions and conserve bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. C) The kidneys react rapidly to compensate for imbalances in the body. D) The kidneys regulate the bicarbonate level in the intracellular fluid.

B) The kidneys excrete hydrogen ions and conserve bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. The kidneys regulate the bicarbonate level in the ECF; they can regenerate bicarbonate ions as well as reabsorb them from the renal tubular cells. In respiratory acidosis and most cases of metabolic acidosis, the kidneys excrete hydrogen ions and conserve bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. In respiratory and metabolic alkalosis, the kidneys retain hydrogen ions and excrete bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. The kidneys obviously cannot compensate for the metabolic acidosis created by renal failure. Renal compensation for imbalances is relatively slow (a matter of hours or days).

A patient on the medical unit has a documented history of polycystic kidney disease (PKD). What principle should guide the nurses care of this patient? A) The disease is self-limiting and cysts usually resolve spontaneously in the fifth or sixth decade of life. B) The patients disease is incurable and the nurses interventions will be supportive. C) The patient will eventually require surgical removal of his or her renal cysts. D) The patient is likely to respond favorably to lithotripsy treatment of the cysts.

B) The patients disease is incurable and the nurses interventions will be supportive. PKD is incurable and care focuses on support and symptom control. It is not self-limiting and is not treated surgically or with lithotripsy.

The nurse is teaching a health class about UTIs to a group of older adults. What characteristic of UTIs should the nurse cite? A) Men over age 65 are equally prone to UTIs as women, but are more often asymptomatic. B) The prevalence of UTIs in men older than 50 years of age approaches that of women in the same age group. C) Men of all ages are less prone to UTIs, but typically experience more severe symptoms. D) The prevalence of UTIs in men cannot be reliably measured, as men generally do not report UTIs.

B) The prevalence of UTIs in men older than 50 years of age approaches that of women in the same age group. The antibacterial activity of the prostatic secretions that protect men from bacterial colonization of the urethra and bladder decreases with aging. The prevalence of infection in men older than 50 years of age approaches that of women in the same age group. Men are not more likely to be asymptomatic and are not known to be reluctant to report UTIs.

Dipstick testing of an older adult patients urine indicates the presence of protein. Which of the following statements is true of this assessment finding? A) This finding needs to be considered in light of other forms of testing. B) This finding is a risk factor for urinary incontinence. C) This finding is likely the result of an age-related physiologic change. D) This result confirms that the patient has diabetes. Select all that apply.

B) This finding is a risk factor for urinary incontinence. C) This finding is likely the result of an age-related physiologic change. D) This result confirms that the patient has diabetes. A dipstick examination, which can detect from 30 to 1000 mg/dL of protein, should be used as a screening test only, because urine concentration, pH, hematuria, and radiocontrast materials all affect the results. Proteinuria is not diagnostic of diabetes and it is neither an age-related change nor a risk factor for incontinence

The nurse is caring for a patient who describes changes in his voiding patterns. The patient states, I feel the urge to empty my bladder several times an hour and when the urge hits me I have to get to the restroom quickly. But when I empty my bladder, there doesnt seem to be a great deal of urine flow. What would the nurse expect this patients physical assessment to reveal? A) Hematuria B) Urine retention C) Dehydration D) Renal failure

B) Urine retention Increased urinary urgency and frequency coupled with decreasing urine volumes strongly suggest urine retention. Hematuria may be an accompanying symptom, but is likely related to a urinary tract infection secondary to the retention of urine. Dehydration and renal failure both result in a decrease in urine output, but the patient with these conditions does not have normal urine production and decreased or minimal flow of urine to the bladder. The symptoms of urgency and frequency do not accompany renal failure and dehydration due to decreased urine production.

A nurse is caring for a female patient whose urinary retention has not responded to conservative treatment. When educating this patient about self-catheterization, the nurse should encourage what practice? A) Assuming a supine position for self-catheterization B) Using clean technique at home to catheterize C) Inserting the catheter 1 to 2 inches into the urethra D) Self-catheterizing every 2 hours at home

B) Using clean technique at home to catheterize The patient may use a clean (nonsterile) technique at home, where the risk of cross-contamination is reduced. The average daytime clean intermittent catheterization schedule is every 4 to 6 hours and just before bedtime. The female patient assumes a Fowlers position and uses a mirror to help locate the urinary meatus. The nurse teaches her to catheterize herself by inserting a catheter 7.5 cm (3 inches) into the urethra, in a downward and backward direction.

The staff educator is giving a class for a group of nurses new to the renal unit. The educator is discussing renal biopsies. In what patient would the educator tell the new nurses that renal biopsies are contraindicated? A) A 64-year-old patient with chronic glomerulonephritis B) A 57-year-old patient with proteinuria C) A 42-year-old patient with morbid obesity D) A 16-year-old patient with signs of kidney transplant rejection

C) A 42-year-old patient with morbid obesity There are several contraindications to a kidney biopsy, including bleeding tendencies, uncontrolled hypertension, a solitary kidney, and morbid obesity. Indications for a renal biopsy include unexplained acute renal failure, persistent proteinuria or hematuria, transplant rejection, and glomerulopathies.

An 84-year-old woman diagnosed with cancer is admitted to the oncology unit for surgical treatment. The patient has been on chemotherapeutic agents to decrease the tumor size prior to the planned surgery. The nurse caring for the patient is aware that what precipitating factors in this patient may contribute to AKI? Select all that apply. A) Anxiety B) Low BMI C) Age-related physiologic changes D) Chronic systemic disease E) NPO status

C) Age-related physiologic changes D) Chronic systemic disease Changes in kidney function with normal aging increase the susceptibility of elderly patients to kidney dysfunction and renal failure. In addition, the presence of chronic, systemic diseases increases the risk of AKI. Low BMI and anxiety are not risk factors for acute renal disease. NPO status is not a risk, provided adequate parenteral hydration is administered.

A patient is complaining of genitourinary pain shortly after returning to the unit from a scheduled cystoscopy. What intervention should the nurse perform? A) Encourage mobilization. B) Apply topical lidocaine to the patients meatus, as ordered. C) Apply moist heat to the patients lower abdomen. D) Apply an ice pack to the patients perineum

C) Apply moist heat to the patients lower abdomen Following cystoscopy, moist heat to the lower abdomen and warm sitz baths are helpful in relieving pain and relaxing the muscles. Ice, lidocaine, and mobilization are not recommended interventions.

A nurse is working with a female patient who has developed stress urinary incontinence. Pelvic floor muscle exercises have been prescribed by the primary care provider. How can the nurse best promote successful treatment? A) Clearly explain the potential benefits of pelvic floor muscle exercises. B) Ensure the patient knows that surgery will be required if the exercises are unsuccessful. C) Arrange for biofeedback when the patient is learning to perform the exercises. D) Contact the patient weekly to ensure that she is performing the exercises consistently.

C) Arrange for biofeedback when the patient is learning to perform the exercises Research shows that written or verbal instruction alone is usually inadequate to teach an individual how to identify and strengthen the pelvic floor for sufficient bladder and bowel control. Biofeedback-assisted pelvic muscle exercise (PME) uses either electromyography or manometry to help the individual identify the pelvic muscles as he or she attempts to learn which muscle group is involved when performing PME. This objective assessment is likely superior to weekly contact with the patient. Surgery is not necessarily indicated if behavioral techniques are unsuccessful.

The nurse is preparing to insert a peripheral IV catheter into a patient who will require fluids and IV antibiotics. How should the nurse always start the process of insertion? A) Leave one hand ungloved to assess the site. B) Cleanse the skin with normal saline. C) Ask the patient about allergies to latex or iodine. D) Remove excessive hair from the selected site.

C) Ask the patient about allergies to latex or iodine. Before preparing the skin, the nurse should ask the patient if he or she is allergic to latex or iodine, which are products commonly used in preparing for IV therapy. A local reaction could result in irritation to the IV site, or, in the extreme, it could result in anaphylaxis, which can be life threatening. Both hands should always be gloved when preparing for IV insertion, and latex-free gloves must be used or the patient must report not having latex allergies. The skin is not usually cleansed with normal saline prior to insertion. Removing excessive hair at the selected site is always secondary to allergy inquiry.

The nurse is performing a focused genitourinary and renal assessment of a patient. Where should the nurse assess for pain at the costovertebral angle? A) At the umbilicus and the right lower quadrant of the abdomen B) At the suprapubic region and the umbilicus C) At the lower border of the 12th rib and the spine D) At the 7th rib and the xyphoid process

C) At the lower border of the 12th rib and the spine The costovertebral angle is the angle formed by the lower border of the 12th rib and the spine. Renal dysfunction may produce tenderness over the costovertebral angle.

A nurse educator is reviewing peripheral IV insertion with a group of novice nurses. How should these nurses be encouraged to deal with excess hair at the intended site? A) Leave the hair intact. B) Shave the area. C) Clip the hair in the area. D) Remove the hair with a depilatory

C) Clip the hair in the area Hair can be a source of infection and should be removed by clipping; it should not be left at the site. Shaving the area can cause skin abrasions, and depilatories can irritate the skin.

A patient is admitted to the ICU after a motor vehicle accident. On the second day of the hospital admission, the patient develops acute kidney injury. The patient is hemodynamically unstable, but renal replacement therapy is needed to manage the patients hypervolemia and hyperkalemia. Which of the following therapies will the patients hemodynamic status best tolerate? A) Hemodialysis B) Peritoneal dialysis C) Continuous venovenous hemodialysis (CVVHD) D) Plasmapheresis

C) Continuous venovenous hemodialysis (CVVHD) CVVHD facilitates the removal of uremic toxins and fluid. The hemodynamic effects of CVVHD are usually mild in comparison to hemodialysis, so CVVHD is best tolerated by an unstable patient. Peritoneal dialysis is not the best choice, as the patient may have sustained abdominal injuries during the accident and catheter placement would be risky. Plasmapheresis does not achieve fluid removal and electrolyte balance.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is in the diuresis phase of AKI. The nurse should closely monitor the patient for what complication during this phase? A) Hypokalemia B) Hypocalcemia C) Dehydration D) Acute flank pain

C) Dehydration The diuresis period is marked by a gradual increase in urine output, which signals that glomerular filtration has started to recover. The patient must be observed closely for dehydration during this phase; if dehydration occurs, the uremic symptoms are likely to increase. Excessive losses of potassium and calcium are not typical during this phase, and diuresis does not normally result in pain.

Diagnostic testing of an adult patient reveals renal glycosuria. The nurse should recognize the need for the patient to be assessed for what health problem? A) Diabetes insipidus B) Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) C) Diabetes mellitus D) Renal carcinoma

C) Diabetes mellitus Renal glycosuria can occur on its own as a benign condition. It also occurs in poorly controlled diabetes, the most common condition that causes the blood glucose level to exceed the kidneys reabsorption capacity. Glycosuria is not associated with SIADH, diabetes insipidus, or renal carcinoma

A female patient has been experiencing recurrent urinary tract infections. What health education should the nurse provide to this patient? A) Bathe daily and keep the perineal region clean. B) Avoid voiding immediately after sexual intercourse. C) Drink liberal amounts of fluids. D) Void at least every 6 to 8 hours.

C) Drink liberal amounts of fluids. The patient is encouraged to drink liberal amounts of fluids (water is the best choice) to increase urine production and flow, which flushes the bacteria from the urinary tract. Frequent voiding (every 2 to 3 hours) is encouraged to empty the bladder completely because this can significantly lower urine bacterial counts, reduce urinary stasis, and prevent reinfection. The patient should be encouraged to shower rather than bathe.

The nurse is caring for a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter. The nurse is aware that what nursing action helps prevent infection in a patient with an indwelling catheter? A) Vigorously clean the meatus area daily. B) Apply powder to the perineal area twice daily. C) Empty the drainage bag at least every 8 hours. D) Irrigate the catheter every 8 hours with normal saline.

C) Empty the drainage bag at least every 8 hours To reduce the risk of bacterial proliferation, the nurse should empty the collection bag at least every 8 hours through the drainage spout, and more frequently if there is a large volume of urine. Vigorous cleaning of the meatus while the catheter is in place is discouraged, because the cleaning action can move the catheter, increasing the risk of infection. The spout (or drainage port) of any urinary drainage bag can become contaminated when opened to drain the bag. Irrigation of the catheter opens the closed system, increasing the likelihood of infection.

The nurse is caring for a patient suspected of having renal dysfunction. When reviewing laboratory results for this patient, the nurse interprets the presence of which substances in the urine as most suggestive of pathology? A) Potassium and sodium B) Bicarbonate and urea C) Glucose and protein D) Creatinine and chloride

C) Glucose and protein The various substances normally filtered by the glomerulus, reabsorbed by the tubules, and excreted in the urine include sodium, chloride, bicarbonate, potassium, glucose, urea, creatinine, and uric acid. Within the tubule, some of these substances are selectively reabsorbed into the blood. Glucose is completely reabsorbed in the tubule and normally does not appear in the urine. However, glucose is found in the urine if the amount of glucose in the blood and glomerular filtrate exceeds the amount that the tubules are able to reabsorb. Protein molecules are also generally not found in the urine because amino acids are also filtered at the level of the glomerulus and reabsorbed so that it is not excreted in the urine.

The nurse in the medical ICU is caring for a patient who is in respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation. What diagnosis could the patient have that could cause inadequate ventilation? A) Endocarditis B) Multiple myeloma C) Guillain-Barr syndrome D) Overdose of amphetamines

C) Guillain-Barr syndrome Respiratory acidosis is always due to inadequate excretion of CO2 with inadequate ventilation, resulting in elevated plasma CO2 concentrations and, consequently, increased levels of carbonic acid. Acute respiratory acidosis occurs in emergency situations, such as acute pulmonary edema, aspiration of a foreign object, atelectasis, pneumothorax, overdose of sedatives, sleep apnea, administration of oxygen to a patient with chronic hypercapnia (excessive CO2 in the blood), severe pneumonia, and acute respiratory distress syndrome. Respiratory acidosis can also occur in diseases that impair respiratory muscles, such as muscular dystrophy, myasthenia gravis, and Guillain-Barr syndrome. The other listed diagnoses are not associated with respiratory acidosis.

One day after a patient is admitted to the medical unit, you note that the patient is oliguric. You notify the acute-care nurse practitioner who orders a fluid challenge of 200 mL of normal saline solution over 15 minutes. This intervention will achieve which of the following? A) Help distinguish hyponatremia from hypernatremia B) Help evaluate pituitary gland function C) Help distinguish reduced renal blood flow from decreased renal function D) Help provide an effective treatment for hypertension-induced oliguria

C) Help distinguish reduced renal blood flow from decreased renal function If a patient is not excreting enough urine, the health care provider needs to determine whether the depressed renal function is the result of reduced renal blood flow, which is a fluid volume deficit (FVD or prerenal azotemia), or acute tubular necrosis that results in necrosis or cellular death from prolonged FVD. A typical example of a fluid challenge involves administering 100 to 200 mL of normal saline solution over 15 minutes. The response by a patient with FVD but with normal renal function is increased urine output and an increase in blood pressure. Laboratory examinations are needed to distinguish hyponatremia from hypernatremia. A fluid challenge is not used to evaluate pituitary gland function. A fluid challenge may provide information regarding hypertension-induced oliguria, but it is not an effective treatment

A patient has been admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of ureteral colic secondary to urolithiasis. When planning the patients admission assessment, the nurse should be aware of the signs and symptoms that are characteristic of this diagnosis? Select all that apply. A) Diarrhea B) High fever C) Hematuria D) Urinary frequency E) Acute pain

C) Hematuria D) Urinary frequency E) Acute pain Stones lodged in the ureter (ureteral obstruction) cause acute, excruciating, colicky, wavelike pain, radiating down the thigh and to the genitalia. Often, the patient has a desire to void, but little urine is passed, and it usually contains blood because of the abrasive action of the stone. This group of symptoms is called ureteral colic. Diarrhea is not associated with this presentation and a fever is usually absent due to the noninfectious nature of the health problem.

You are called to your patients room by a family member who voices concern about the patients status. On assessment, you find the patient tachypnic, lethargic, weak, and exhibiting a diminished cognitive ability. You also find 3+ pitting edema. What electrolyte imbalance is the most plausible cause of this patients signs and symptoms? A) Hypocalcemia B) Hyponatremia C) Hyperchloremia D) Hypophosphatemia

C) Hyperchloremia The signs and symptoms of hyperchloremia are the same as those of metabolic acidosis: hypervolemia and hypernatremia. Tachypnea; weakness; lethargy; deep, rapid respirations; diminished cognitive ability; and hypertension occur. If untreated, hyperchloremia can lead to a decrease in cardiac output, dysrhythmias, and coma. A high chloride level is accompanied by a high sodium level and fluid retention. With hypocalcemia, you would expect tetany. There would not be edema with hyponatremia. Signs or symptoms of hypophosphatemia are mainly neurologic

The nurse is caring for a patient in acute kidney injury. Which of the following complications would most clearly warrant the administration of polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)? A) Hypernatremia B) Hypomagnesemia C) Hyperkalemia D) Hypercalcemia

C) Hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia, a common complication of acute kidney injury, is life-threatening if immediate action is not taken to reverse it. The administration of polystyrene sulfonate reduces serum potassium levels.

The nurse is assessing the patient for the presence of a Chvosteks sign. What electrolyte imbalance would a positive Chvosteks sign indicate? A) Hypermagnesemia B) Hyponatremia C) Hypocalcemia D) Hyperkalemia

C) Hypocalcemia You can induce Chvosteks sign by tapping the patients facial nerve adjacent to the ear. A brief contraction of the upper lip, nose, or side of the face indicates Chvosteks sign. Both hypomagnesemia and hypocalcemia may be tested using the Chvosteks sign.

You are performing an admission assessment on an older adult patient newly admitted for end-stage liver disease. What principle should guide your assessment of the patients skin turgor? A) Overhydration is common among healthy older adults. B) Dehydration causes the skin to appear spongy. C) Inelastic skin turgor is a normal part of aging. D) Skin turgor cannot be assessed in patients over 70.

C) Inelastic skin turgor is a normal part of aging. Inelastic skin is a normal change of aging. However, this does not mean that skin turgor cannot be assessed in older patients. Dehydration, not overhydration, causes inelastic skin with tenting. Overhydration, not dehydration, causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy.

You are making initial shift assessments on your patients. While assessing one patients peripheral IV site, you note edema around the insertion site. How should you document this complication related to IV therapy? A) Air emboli B) Phlebitis C) Infiltration D) Fluid overload

C) Infiltration Infiltration is the administration of nonvesicant solution or medication into the surrounding tissue. This can occur when the IV cannula dislodges or perforates the wall of the vein. Infiltration is characterized by edema around the insertion site, leakage of IV fluid from the insertion site, discomfort and coolness in the area of infiltration, and a significant decrease in the flow rate. Air emboli, phlebitis, and fluid overload are not indications of infiltration.

A patient has had her indwelling urinary catheter removed after having it in place for 10 days during recovery from an acute illness. Two hours after removal of the catheter, the patient informs the nurse that she is experiencing urinary urgency resulting in several small-volume voids. What is the nurses best response? A) Inform the patient that urgency and occasional incontinence are expected for the first few weeks post-removal. B) Obtain an order for a loop diuretic in order to enhance urine output and bladder function. C) Inform the patient that this is not unexpected in the short term and scan the patients bladder following each void. D) Obtain an order to reinsert the patients urinary catheter and attempt removal in 24 to 48 hours.

C) Inform the patient that this is not unexpected in the short term and scan the patients bladder following each void. Immediately after the indwelling catheter is removed, the patient is placed on a timed voiding schedule, usually every 2 to 3 hours. At the given time interval, the patient is instructed to void. The bladder is then scanned using a portable ultrasonic bladder scanner; if the bladder has not emptied completely, straight catheterization may be performed. An indwelling catheter would not be reinserted to resolve the problem and diuretics would not be beneficial. Ongoing incontinence is not an expected finding after catheter removal.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone creation of a urinary diversion. Forty-eight hours postoperatively, the nurses assessment reveals that the stoma is a dark purplish color. What is the nurses most appropriate response? A) Document the presence of a healthy stoma. B) Assess the patient for further signs and symptoms of infection. C) Inform the primary care provider that the vascular supply may be compromised. D) Liaise with the wound-ostomy-continence (WOC) nurse because the ostomy appliance around the stoma may be too loose.

C) Inform the primary care provider that the vascular supply may be compromised. A healthy stoma is pink or red. A change from this normal color to a dark purplish color suggests that the vascular supply may be compromised. A loose ostomy appliance and infections do not cause a dark purplish stoma

The nurse is creating an education plan for a patient who underwent a nephrectomy for the treatment of a renal tumor. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan? A) The importance of increased fluid intake B) Signs and symptoms of rejection C) Inspection and care of the incision D) Techniques for preventing metastasis

C) Inspection and care of the incision The nurse teaches the patient to inspect and care for the incision and perform other general postoperative care, including activity and lifting restrictions, driving, and pain management. There would be no need to teach the signs or symptoms of rejection as there has been no transplant. Increased fluid intake is not normally recommended and the patient has minimal control on the future risk for metastasis

The nurse is creating an the nurse include in the teaching plan?education plan for a patient who underwent a nephrectomy for the treatment of a renal tumor. What should A) The importance of increased fluid intake B) Signs and symptoms of rejection C) Inspection and care of the incision D) Techniques for preventing metastasis

C) Inspection and care of the incision The nurse teaches the patient to inspect and care for the incision and perform other general postoperative care, including activity and lifting restrictions, driving, and pain management. There would be no need to teach the signs or symptoms of rejection as there has been no transplant. Increased fluid intake is not normally recommended and the patient has minimal control on the future risk for metastasis.

The nurse is caring for a patient after kidney surgery. The nurse is aware that bleeding is a major complication of kidney surgery and that if it goes undetected and untreated can result in hypovolemia and hemorrhagic shock in the patient. When assessing for bleeding, what assessment parameter should the nurse evaluate? A) Oral intake B) Pain intensity C) Level of consciousness D) Radiation of pain

C) Level of consciousness Bleeding is a major complication of kidney surgery. If undetected and untreated, this can result in hypovolemia and hemorrhagic shock. The nurses role is to observe for these complications, to report their signs and symptoms, and to administer prescribed parenteral fluids and blood and blood components. Monitoring of vital signs, skin condition, the urinary drainage system, the surgical incision, and the level of consciousness is necessary to detect evidence of bleeding, decreased circulating blood, and fluid volume and cardiac output. Bleeding is not normally evidenced by changes in pain or oral intake.

You are caring for a 65-year-old male patient admitted to your medical unit 72 hours ago with pyloric stenosis. A nasogastric tube placed upon admission has been on low intermittent suction ever since. Upon review of the mornings blood work, you notice that the patients potassium is below reference range. You should recognize that the patient may be at risk for what imbalance? A) Hypercalcemia B) Metabolic acidosis C) Metabolic alkalosis D) Respiratory acidosis

C) Metabolic alkalosis Probably the most common cause of metabolic alkalosis is vomiting or gastric suction with loss of hydrogen and chloride ions. The disorder also occurs in pyloric stenosis in which only gastric fluid is lost. Vomiting, gastric suction, and pyloric stenosis all remove potassium and can cause hypokalemia. This patient would not be at risk for hypercalcemia; hyperparathyroidism and cancer account for almost all cases of hypercalcemia. The nasogastric tube is removing stomach acid and will likely raise pH. Respiratory acidosis is unlikely since no change was reported in the patients respiratory status

The nurse is caring for a patient who underwent percutaneous lithotripsy earlier in the day. What instruction should the nurse give the patient? A) Limit oral fluid intake for 1 to 2 days. B) Report the presence of fine, sand like particles through the nephrostomy tube. C) Notify the physician about cloudy or foul-smelling urine. D) Report any pink-tinged urine within 24 hours after the procedure.

C) Notify the physician about cloudy or foul-smelling urine. The patient should report the presence of foul-smelling or cloudy urine since this is suggestive of a UTI. Unless contraindicated, the patient should be instructed to drink large quantities of fluid each day to flush the kidneys. Sand like debris is normal due to residual stone products. Hematuria is common after lithotripsy.

A patient with a recent history of nephrolithiasis has presented to the ED. After determining that the patients cardiopulmonary status is stable, what aspect of care should the nurse prioritize? A) IV fluid administration B) Insertion of an indwelling urinary catheter C) Pain management D) Assisting with aspiration of the stone

C) Pain management The patient with kidney stones is often in excruciating pain, and this is a high priority for nursing interventions. In the short term, this would supersede the patients need for IV fluids or for catheterization. Kidney stones cannot be aspirated

A nurse is aware of the high incidence and prevalence of fluid volume deficit among older adults. What related health education should the nurse provide to an older adult? A) If possible, try to drink at least 4 liters of fluid daily. B) Ensure that you avoid replacing water with other beverages. C) Remember to drink frequently, even if you dont feel thirsty. D) Make sure you eat plenty of salt in order to stimulate thirst.

C) Remember to drink frequently, even if you dont feel thirsty. The nurse emphasizes the need to drink throughout the day even if the patient does not feel thirsty, because the thirst stimulation is decreased. Four liters of daily fluid intake is excessive and fluids other than water are acceptable in most cases. Additional salt intake is not recommended as a prompt for increased fluid intake.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a nursing diagnosis of deficient fluid volume. The nurses assessment reveals a BP of 98/52 mm Hg. The nurse should recognize that the patients kidneys will compensate by secreting what substance? A) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B) Aldosterone C) Renin D) Angiotensin

C) Renin When the vasa recta detect a decrease in BP, specialized juxtaglomerular cells near the afferent arteriole, distal tubule, and efferent arteriole secrete the hormone renin. Renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II. The vasoconstriction causes the BP to increase. The adrenal cortex secretes aldosterone in response to stimulation by the pituitary gland, which in turn is in response to poor perfusion or increasing serum osmolality. The result is an increase in BP.

The nurse is providing a health education workshop to a group of adults focusing on cancer prevention. The nurse should emphasize what action in order to reduce participants risks of renal carcinoma? A) Avoiding heavy alcohol use B) Control of sodium intake C) Smoking cessation D) Adherence to recommended immunization schedules

C) Smoking cessation Tobacco use is a significant risk factor for renal cancer, surpassing the significance of high alcohol and sodium intake. Immunizations do not address an individuals risk of renal cancer

A patient has a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 43 mL/min/1.73 m2. Based on this GFR, the nurse interprets that the patients chronic kidney disease is at what stage? A) Stage 1 B) Stage 2 C) Stage 3 D) Stage 4

C) Stage 3 Stages of chronic renal failure are based on the GFR. Stage 3 is defined by a GFR in the range of 30 to 59 mL/min/1.73 m2. This is considered a moderate decrease in GFR.

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving hemodialysis three times weekly. The patient has had surgery to form an arteriovenous fistula. What is most important for the nurse to be aware of when providing care for this patient? A) Using a stethoscope for auscultating the fistula is contraindicated B) The patient feels best immediately after the dialysis treatment. C) Taking a BP reading on the affected arm can damage the fistula. D) The patient should not feel pain during initiation of dialysis.

C) Taking a BP reading on the affected arm can damage the fistula. When blood flow is reduced through the access for any reason (hypotension, application of BP cuff/tourniquet), the access site can clot. Auscultation of a bruit in the fistula is one way to determine patency. Typically, patients feel fatigued immediately after hemodialysis because of the rapid change in fluid and electrolyte status. Although the area over the fistula may have some decreased sensation, a needle stick is still painful

A patient who has recently undergone ESWL for the treatment of renal calculi has phoned the urology unit where he was treated, telling the nurse that he has a temperature of 101.1F (38.4C). How should the nurse best respond to the patient? A) Remind the patient that renal calculi have a noninfectious etiology and that a fever is unrelated to their recurrence. B) Remind the patient that occasional febrile episodes are expected following ESWL. C) Tell the patient to report to the ED for further assessment. D) Tell the patient to monitor his temperature for the next 24 hours and then contact his urologists office.

C) Tell the patient to report to the ED for further assessment. Following ESWL, the development of a fever is abnormal and is suggestive of a UTI; prompt medical assessment and treatment are warranted. It would be inappropriate to delay further treatment

The nurse is caring for a patient who had a brush biopsy 12 hours ago. The presence of what assessment finding should prompt the nurse to notify the physician? A) Scant hematuria B) Renal colic C) Temperature 100.2F orally D) Infiltration of the patients intravenous catheter

C) Temperature 100.2F orally Hematuria and renal colic are common and expected findings after the performance of a renal brush biopsy. The physician should be notified of the patients body temperature, which likely indicates the onset of an infectious process. IV infiltration does not warrant notification of the primary care physician

A nurse is planning care for a nephrology patient with a new nursing graduate. The nurse states, A patient in renal failure partially loses the ability to regulate changes in pH. What is the cause of this partial inability? A) The kidneys regulate and reabsorb carbonic acid to change and maintain pH. B) The kidneys buffer acids through electrolyte changes. C) The kidneys regenerate and reabsorb bicarbonate to maintain a stable pH. D) The kidneys combine carbonic acid and bicarbonate to maintain a stable pH

C) The kidneys regenerate and reabsorb bicarbonate to maintain a stable pH. The kidneys regulate the bicarbonate level in the ECF; they can regenerate bicarbonate ions as well as reabsorb them from the renal tubular cells. In respiratory acidosis and most cases of metabolic acidosis, the kidneys excrete hydrogen ions and conserve bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. The lungs regulate and reabsorb carbonic acid to change and maintain pH. The kidneys do not buffer acids through electrolyte changes; buffering occurs in reaction to changes in pH. Carbonic acid works as the chemical medium to exchange O2 and CO2 in the lungs to maintain a stable pH whereas the kidneys use bicarbonate as the chemical medium to maintain a stable pH by moving and eliminating H+.

The nurse is caring for acutely ill patient. What assessment finding should prompt the nurse to inform the physician that the patient may be exhibiting signs of acute kidney injury (AKI)? A) The patient is complains of an inability to initiate voiding. B) The patients urine is cloudy with a foul odor. C) The patients average urine output has been 10 mL/hr for several hours. D) The patient complains of acute flank pain.

C) The patients average urine output has been 10 mL/hr for several hour Oliguria (<500 mL/d of urine) is the most common clinical situation seen in AKI. Flank pain and inability to initiate voiding are not characteristic of AKI. Cloudy, foul-smelling urine is suggestive of a urinary tract infection.

Results of a patients 24-hour urine sample indicate osmolality of 510 mOsm/kg, which is within reference range. What conclusion can the nurse draw from this assessment finding? A) The patients kidneys are capable of maintaining acidbase balance. B) The patients kidneys reabsorb most of the potassium that the patient ingests. C) The patients kidneys can produce sufficiently concentrated urine. D) The patients kidneys are producing sufficient erythropoietin

C) The patients kidneys can produce sufficiently concentrated urine. Osmolality is the most accurate measurement of the kidneys ability to dilute and concentrate urine. Osmolality is not a direct indicator of renal function as it relates to erythropoietin synthesis or maintenance of acidbase balance. It does not indicate the maintenance of healthy levels of potassium, the vast majority of which is excreted

A patient has been admitted to the postsurgical unit following the creation of an ileal conduit. What should the nurse measure to determine the size of the appliance needed? A) The circumference of the stoma B) The narrowest part of the stoma C) The widest part of the stoma D) Half the width of the stoma

C) The widest part of the stoma The correct appliance size is determined by measuring the widest part of the stoma with a ruler. The permanent appliance should be no more than 1.6 mm (1/8 inch) larger than the diameter of the stoma and the same shape as the stoma to prevent contact of the skin with drainage.

A patient admitted to the medical unit with impaired renal function is complaining of severe, stabbing pain in the flank and lower abdomen. The patient is being assessed for renal calculi. The nurse recognizes that the stone is most likely in what anatomic location? A) Meatus B) Bladder C) Ureter D) Urethra

C) Ureter Ureteral pain is characterized as a dull continuous pain that may be intense with voiding. The pain may be described as sharp or stabbing if the bladder is full. This type of pain is inconsistent with a stone being present in the bladder. Stones are not normally situated in the urethra or meatus.

The care team is considering the use of dialysis in a patient whose renal function is progressively declining. Renal replacement therapy is indicated in which of the following situations? A) When the patients creatinine level drops below 1.2 mg/dL (110 mmol/L) B) When the patients blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is above 15 mg/dL C) When approximately 40% of nephrons are not functioning D) When about 80% of the nephrons are no longer functioning

D) When about 80% of the nephrons are no longer functioning When the total number of functioning nephrons is less than 20%, renal replacement therapy needs to be considered. Dialysis is an example of a renal replacement therapy. Prior to the loss of about 80% of the nephron functioning ability, the patient may have mild symptoms of compromised renal function, but symptom management is often obtained through dietary modifications and drug therapy. The listed creatinine and BUN levels are within reference ranges.

A kidney biopsy has been scheduled for a patient with a history of acute renal failure. The patient asks the nurse why this test has been scheduled. What is the nurses best response? A) A biopsy is routinely ordered for all patients with renal disorders. B) A biopsy is generally ordered following abnormal x-ray findings of the renal pelvis. C) A biopsy is often ordered for patients before they have a kidney transplant. D) A biopsy is sometimes necessary for diagnosing and evaluating the extent of kidney disease.

D) A biopsy is sometimes necessary for diagnosing and evaluating the extent of kidney disease. Biopsy of the kidney is used in diagnosing and evaluating the extent of kidney disease. Indications for biopsy include unexplained acute renal failure, persistent proteinuria or hematuria, transplant rejection, and glomerulopathies

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a fluid volume deficit. When evaluating this patients urinalysis results, what should the nurse anticipate? A) A fluctuating urine specific gravity B) A fixed urine specific gravity C) A decreased urine specific gravity D) An increased urine specific gravity

D) An increased urine specific gravity Urine specific gravity depends largely on hydration status. A decrease in fluid intake will lead to an increase in the urine specific gravity. With high fluid intake, specific gravity decreases. In patients with kidney disease, urine specific gravity does not vary with fluid intake, and the patients urine is said to have a fixed specific gravity.

A patient with chronic kidney disease has been hospitalized and is receiving hemodialysis on a scheduled basis. The nurse should include which of the following actions in the plan of care? A) Ensure that the patient moves the extremity with the vascular access site as little as possible. B) Change the dressing over the vascular access site at least every 12 hours. C) Utilize the vascular access site for infusion of IV fluids. D) Assess for a thrill or bruit over the vascular access site each shift.

D) Assess for a thrill or bruit over the vascular access site each shift. The bruit, or thrill, over the venous access site must be evaluated at least every shift. Frequent dressing changes are unnecessary and the patient does not normally need to immobilize the site. The site must not be used for purposes other than dialysis.

What nursing action should the nurse perform when caring for a patient undergoing diagnostic testing of the renal-urologic system? A) Withhold medications until 12 hours post-testing. B) Ensure that the patient knows the importance of temporary fluid restriction after testing. C) Inform the patient of his or her medical diagnosis after reviewing the results. D) Assess the patients understanding of the test results after their completion.

D) Assess the patients understanding of the test results after their completion. The nurse should ensure that the patient understands the results that are presented by the physician. Informing the patient of a diagnosis is normally the primary care providers responsibility. Withholding fluids or medications is not normally required after testing.

The nurse is collaborating with the wound-ostomy-continence (WOC) nurse to teach a patient how to manage her new ileal conduit in the home setting. To prevent leakage or skin breakdown, the nurse should encourage which of the following practices? A) Empty the collection bag when it is between one-half and two-thirds full. B) Limit fluid intake to prevent production of large volumes of dilute urine. C) Reinforce the appliance with tape if small leaks are detected. D) Avoid using moisturizing soaps and body washes when cleaning the peristomal area.

D) Avoid using moisturizing soaps and body washes when cleaning the peristomal area The patient is instructed to avoid moisturizing soaps and body washes when cleaning the area because they interfere with the adhesion of the pouch. To maintain skin integrity, a skin barrier or leaking pouch is never patched with tape to prevent accumulation of urine under the skin barrier or faceplate. Fluids should be encouraged, not limited, and the collection bag should not be allowed to become more than one-third full.

A patients most recent laboratory results show a slight decrease in potassium. The physician has opted to forego drug therapy but has suggested increasing the patients dietary intake of potassium. Which of the following would be a good source of potassium? A) Apples B) Asparagus C) Carrots D) Bananas

D) Bananas Bananas are high in potassium. Apples, carrots, and asparagus are not high in potassium.

A patient has presented with signs and symptoms that are characteristic of acute kidney injury, but preliminary assessment reveals no obvious risk factors for this health problem. The nurse should recognize the need to interview the patient about what topic? A) Typical diet B) Allergy status C) Psychosocial stressors D) Current medication use

D) Current medication use The kidneys are susceptible to the adverse effects of medications because they are repeatedly exposed to substances in the blood. Nephrotoxic medications are a more likely cause of AKI than diet, allergies, or stress.

The baroreceptors, located in the left atrium and in the carotid and aortic arches, respond to changes in the circulating blood volume and regulate sympathetic and parasympathetic neural activity as well as endocrine activities. Sympathetic stimulation constricts renal arterioles, causing what effect? A) Decrease in the release of aldosterone B) Increase of filtration in the Loop of Henle C) Decrease in the reabsorption of sodium D) Decrease in glomerular filtration

D) Decrease in glomerular filtration Sympathetic stimulation constricts renal arterioles; this decreases glomerular filtration, increases the release of aldosterone, and increases sodium and water reabsorption. None of the other listed options occurs with increased sympathetic stimulation

A geriatric nurse is performing an assessment of body systems on an 85-year-old patient. The nurse should be aware of what age-related change affecting the renal or urinary system? A) Increased ability to concentrate urine B) Increased bladder capacity C) Urinary incontinence D) Decreased glomerular filtration rate

D) Decreased glomerular filtration rate Many age-related changes in the renal and urinary systems should be taken into consideration when taking a health history of the older adult. One change includes a decreased glomerular surface area resulting in a decreased glomerular filtration rate. Other changes include the decreased ability to concentrate urine and a decreased bladder capacity. It also should be understood that urinary incontinence is not a normal age-related change, but is common in older adults, especially in women because of the loss of pelvic muscle tone.

A patient has a flaccid bladder secondary to a spinal cord injury. The nurse recognizes this patients high risk for urinary retention and should implement what intervention in the patients plan of care? A) Relaxation techniques B) Sodium restriction C) Lower abdominal massage D) Double voiding

D) Double voiding To enhance emptying of a flaccid bladder, the patient may be taught to double void. After each voiding, the patient is instructed to remain on the toilet, relax for 1 to 2 minutes, and then attempt to void again in an effort to further empty the bladder. Relaxation does not affect the neurologic etiology of a flaccid bladder. Sodium restriction and massage are similarly ineffective.

An adult patient has been hospitalized with pyelonephritis. The nurses review of the patients intake and output records reveals that the patient has been consuming between 3 L and 3.5 L of oral fluid each day since admission. How should the nurse best respond to this finding? A) Supplement the patients fluid intake with a high-calorie diet. B) Emphasize the need to limit intake to 2 L of fluid daily. C) Obtain an order for a high-sodium diet to prevent dilutional hyponatremia. D) Encourage the patient to continue this pattern of fluid intake.

D) Encourage the patient to continue this pattern of fluid intake Unless contraindicated, 3 to 4 L of fluids per day is encouraged to dilute the urine, decrease burning on urination, and prevent dehydration. No need to supplement this fluid intake with additional calories or sodium.

A patient admitted with nephrotic syndrome is being cared for on the medical unit. When writing this patients care plan, based on the major clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome, what nursing diagnosis should the nurse include? A) Constipation related to immobility B) Risk for injury related to altered thought processes C) Hyperthermia related to the inflammatory process D) Excess fluid volume related to generalized edema

D) Excess fluid volume related to generalized edema The major clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome is edema, so the appropriate nursing diagnosis is Excess fluid volume related to generalized edema. Edema is usually soft, pitting, and commonly occurs around the eyes, in dependent areas, and in the abdomen

Diagnostic testing has been ordered to differentiate between normal anion gap acidosis and high anion gap acidosis in an acutely ill patient. What health problem typically precedes normal anion gap acidosis? A) Metastases B) Excessive potassium intake C) Water intoxication D) Excessive administration of chloride

D) Excessive administration of chloride Normal anion gap acidosis results from the direct loss of bicarbonate, as in diarrhea, lower intestinal fistulas, ureterostomies, and use of diuretics; early renal insufficiency; excessive administration of chloride; and the administration of parenteral nutrition without bicarbonate or bicarbonate-producing solutes (e.g., lactate). Based on these facts, the other listed options are incorrect.

You are caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Your patients plan of care includes assessment of specific gravity every 4 hours. The results of this test will allow the nurse to assess what aspect of the patients health? A) Nutritional status B) Potassium balance C) Calcium balance D) Fluid volume status

D) Fluid volume status A specific gravity will detect if the patient has a fluid volume deficit or fluid volume excess. Nutrition, potassium, and calcium levels are not directly indicated.

A patient with a history of incontinence will undergo urodynamic testing in the physicians office. Because voiding in the presence of others can cause situational anxiety, the nurse should perform what action? A) Administer diuretics as ordered. B) Push fluids for several hours prior to the test. C) Discuss possible test results as the patient voids. D) Help the patient to relax before and during the test.

D) Help the patient to relax before and during the test. Voiding in the presence of others can frequently cause guarding, a natural reflex that inhibits voiding due to situational anxiety. Because the outcomes of these studies determine the plan of care, the nurse must help the patient relax by providing as much privacy and explanation about the procedure as possible. Diuretics and increased fluid intake would not address the patients anxiety. It would be inappropriate and anxiety-provoking to discuss test results during the performance of the test.

When planning the care of a patient with a fluid imbalance, the nurse understands that in the human body, water and electrolytes move from the arterial capillary bed to the interstitial fluid. What causes this to occur? A) Active transport of hydrogen ions across the capillary walls B) Pressure of the blood in the renal capillaries C) Action of the dissolved particles contained in a unit of blood D) Hydrostatic pressure resulting from the pumping action of the heart

D) Hydrostatic pressure resulting from the pumping action of the heart An example of filtration is the passage of water and electrolytes from the arterial capillary bed to the interstitial fluid; in this instance, the hydrostatic pressure results from the pumping action of the heart. Active transport does not move water and electrolytes from the arterial capillary bed to the interstitial fluid, filtration does. The number of dissolved particles in a unit of blood is concerned with osmolality. The pressure in the renal capillaries causes renal filtration

You are caring for a patient who is being treated on the oncology unit with a diagnosis of lung cancer with bone metastases. During your assessment, you note the patient complains of a new onset of weakness with abdominal pain. Further assessment suggests that the patient likely has a fluid volume deficit. You should recognize that this patient may be experiencing what electrolyte imbalance? A) Hypernatremia B) Hypomagnesemia C) Hypophosphatemia D) Hypercalcemia

D) Hypercalcemia

You are working on a burns unit and one of your acutely ill patients is exhibiting signs and symptoms of third spacing. Based on this change in status, you should expect the patient to exhibit signs and symptoms of what imbalance A) Metabolic alkalosis B) Hypermagnesemia C) Hypercalcemia D) Hypovolemia

D) Hypovolemia Third-spacing fluid shift, which occurs when fluid moves out of the intravascular space but not into the intracellular space, can cause hypovolemia. Increased calcium and magnesium levels are not indicators of third-spacing fluid shift. Burns typically cause acidosis, not alkalosis.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is going to have an open renal biopsy. What would be an important nursing action in preparing this patient for the procedure? A) Discuss the patients diagnosis with the family. B) Bathe the patient before the procedure with antiseptic skin wash. C) Administer antivirals before sending the patient for the procedure. D) Keep the patient NPO prior to the procedure.

D) Keep the patient NPO prior to the procedure Preparation for an open biopsy is similar to that for any major abdominal surgery. When preparing the patient for an open biopsy you would keep the patient NPO. You may discuss the diagnosis with the family, but that is not a preparation for the procedure. A pre-procedure wash is not normally ordered and antivirals are not administered in anticipation of a biopsy.

You are an emergency-room nurse caring for a trauma patient. Your patient has the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.26, PaCO2 28, HCO3 11 mEq/L. How would you interpret these results? A) Respiratory acidosis with no compensation B) Metabolic alkalosis with a compensatory alkalosis C) Metabolic acidosis with no compensation D) Metabolic acidosis with a compensatory respiratory alkalosis

D) Metabolic acidosis with a compensatory respiratory alkalosis A low pH indicates acidosis (normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45). The PaCO3 is also low, which causes alkalosis. The bicarbonate is low, which causes acidosis. The pH bicarbonate more closely corresponds with a decrease in pH, making the metabolic component the primary problem.

The ICU nurse is caring for a patient who experienced trauma in a workplace accident. The patient is complaining of having trouble breathing with abdominal pain. An ABG reveals the following results: pH 7.28, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, HCO3 23 mEq/L. The nurse should recognize the likelihood of what acidbase disorder? A) Respiratory acidosis B) Metabolic alkalosis C) Respiratory alkalosis D) Mixed acidbase disorder

D) Mixed acidbase disorder Patients can simultaneously experience two or more independent acidbase disorders. A normal pH in the presence of changes in the PaCO2 and plasma HCO3 concentration immediately suggests a mixed disorder, making the other options incorrect.

The nurse performing the health interview of a patient with a new onset of periorbital edema has completed a genogram, noting the health history of the patients siblings, parents, and grandparents. This assessment addresses the patients risk of what kidney disorder? A) Nephritic syndrome B) Acute glomerulonephritis C) Nephrotic syndrome D) Polycystic kidney disease (PKD)

D) Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) PKD is a genetic disorder characterized by the growth of numerous cysts in the kidneys. Nephritic syndrome, acute glomerulonephritis, and nephrotic syndrome are not genetic disorders.

A patient being treated in the hospital has been experiencing occasional urinary retention. What nursing action should the nurse take to encourage a patient who is having difficulty voiding? A) Use a slipper bedpan. B) Apply a cold compress to the perineum. C) Have the patient lie in a supine position. D) Provide privacy for the patient.

D) Provide privacy for the patient. Nursing measures to encourage normal voiding patterns include providing privacy, ensuring an environment and body position conducive to voiding, and assisting the patient with the use of the bathroom or bedside commode, rather than a bedpan, to provide a more natural setting for voiding. Most people find supine positioning not conducive to voiding.

A patient is postoperative day 3 following the creation of an ileal conduit for the treatment of invasive bladder cancer. The patient is quickly learning to self-manage the urinary diversion, but expresses concern about the presence of mucus in the urine. What is the nurses most appropriate response? A) Report this finding promptly to the primary care provider. B) Obtain a sterile urine sample and send it for culture. C) Obtain a urine sample and check it for pH. D) Reassure the patient that this is an expected phenomenon.

D) Reassure the patient that this is an expected phenomenon. Because mucous membrane is used in forming the conduit, the patient may excrete a large amount of mucus mixed with urine. This causes anxiety in many patients. To help relieve this anxiety, the nurse reassures the patient that this is a normal occurrence after an ileal conduit procedure. Urine testing for culture or pH is not required

A patient has experienced excessive losses of bicarbonate and has subsequently developed an acidbase imbalance. How will this lost bicarbonate be replaced? A) The kidneys will excrete increased quantities of acid. B) Bicarbonate will be released from the adrenal medulla. C) Alveoli in the lungs will synthesize new bicarbonate. D) Renal tubular cells will generate new bicarbonate.

D) Renal tubular cells will generate new bicarbonate. To replace any lost bicarbonate, the renal tubular cells generate new bicarbonate through a variety of chemical reactions. This newly generated bicarbonate is then reabsorbed by the tubules and returned to the body. The lungs and adrenal glands do not synthesize bicarbonate. Excretion of acid compensates for a lack of bicarbonate, but it does not actively replace it.

An older adult has experienced a new onset of urinary incontinence and family members identify this problem as being unprecedented. When assessing the patient for factors that may have contributed to incontinence, the nurse should prioritize what assessment? A) Reviewing the patients 24-hour food recall for changes in diet B) Assessing for recent contact with individuals who have UTIs C) Assessing for changes in the patients level of psychosocial stress D) Reviewing the patients medication administration record for recent changes

D) Reviewing the patients medication administration record for recent changes Many medications affect urinary continence in addition to causing other unwanted or unexpected effects. Stress and dietary changes could potentially affect the patients continence, but medications are more frequently causative of incontinence. UTIs can cause incontinence, but these infections do not result from contact with infected individuals

You are caring for a patient with a secondary diagnosis of hypermagnesemia. What assessment finding would be most consistent with this diagnosis? A) Hypertension B) Kussmaul respirations C) Increased DTRs D) Shallow respirations

D) Shallow respirations If hypermagnesemia is suspected, the nurse monitors the vital signs, noting hypotension and shallow respirations. The nurse also observes for decreased DTRs and changes in the level of consciousness. Kussmaul breathing is a deep and labored breathing pattern associated with severe metabolic acidosis, particularly diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), but also renal failure. This type of patient is associated with decreased DTRs, not increased DTRs.

A 15-year-old is admitted to the renal unit with a diagnosis of postinfectious glomerular disease. The nurse should recognize that this form of kidney disease may have been precipitated by what event? A) Psychosocial stress B) Hypersensitivity to an immunization C) Menarche D) Streptococcal infection

D) Streptococcal infection Postinfectious causes of postinfectious glomerular disease are group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the throat that precedes the onset of glomerulonephritis by 2 to 3 weeks. Menarche, stress, and hypersensitivity are not typical causes.

A 73-year-old man comes into the emergency department (ED) by ambulance after slipping on a small carpet in his home. The patient fell on his hip with a resultant fracture. He is alert and oriented; his pupils are equal and reactive to light and accommodation. His heart rate is elevated, he is anxious and thirsty, a Foley catheter is placed, and 40 mL of urine is present. What is the nurses most likely explanation for the low urine output? A) The man urinated prior to his arrival to the ED and will probably not need to have the Foley catheter kept in place. B) The man likely has a traumatic brain injury, lacks antidiuretic hormone (ADH), and needs vasopressin. C) The man is experiencing symptoms of heart failure and is releasing atrial natriuretic peptide that results in decreased urine output D) The man is having a sympathetic reaction, which has stimulated the reninangiotensinaldosterone system that results in diminished urine output.

D) The man is having a sympathetic reaction, which has stimulated the reninangiotensinaldosterone system that results in diminished urine output. Renin is released by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidneys in response to decreased renal perfusion. Angiotensin-converting enzyme converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II, with its vasoconstrictor properties, increases arterial perfusion pressure and stimulates thirst. As the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, aldosterone is released in response to an increased release of renin, which decreases urine production. Based on the nursing assessment and mechanism of injury, this is the most likely causing the lower urine output. The man urinating prior to his arrival to the ED is unlikely; the fall and hip injury would make his ability to urinate difficult. No assessment information indicates he has a head injury or heart failure.

A patients most recent laboratory findings indicate a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 58 mL/min. The nurse should recognize what implication of this diagnostic finding? A) The patient is likely to have a decreased level of blood urea nitrogen (BUN). B) The patient is at risk for hypokalemia C) The patient is likely to have irregular voiding patterns. D) The patient is likely to have increased serum creatinine levels

D) The patient is likely to have increased serum creatinine levels. The adult GFR can vary from a normal of approximately 125 mL/min (1.67 to 2.0 mL/sec) to a high of 200 mL/min. A low GFR is associated with increased levels of BUN, creatinine, and potassium.

A gerontologic nurse is assessing a patient who has numerous comorbid health problems. What assessment findings should prompt the nurse to suspect a UTI? Select all that apply. A) Food cravings B) Upper abdominal pain C) Insatiable thirst D) Uncharacteristic fatigue E) New onset of confusion

D) Uncharacteristic fatigue The most common subjective presenting symptom of UTI in older adults is generalized fatigue. The most common objective finding is a change in cognitive functioning. Food cravings, increased thirst, and upper abdominal pain necessitate further assessment and intervention, but none is directly suggestive of a UTI.

A nurses colleague has applied an incontinence pad to an older adult patient who has experienced occasional episodes of functional incontinence. What principle should guide the nurses management of urinary incontinence in older adults? A) Diuretics should be promptly discontinued when an older adult experiences incontinence. B) Restricting fluid intake is recommended for older adults experiencing incontinence. C) Urinary catheterization is a first-line treatment for incontinence in older adults with incontinence. D) Urinary incontinence is not considered a normal consequence of aging.

D) Urinary incontinence is not considered a normal consequence of aging. Nursing management is based on the premise that incontinence is not inevitable with illness or aging and that it is often reversible and treatable. Diuretics cannot always be safely discontinued. Fluid restriction and catheterization are not considered to be safe, first-line interventions for the treatment of incontinence.

A female patients most recent urinalysis results are suggestive of bacteriuria. When assessing this patient, the nurses data analysis should be informed by what principle? A) Most UTIs in female patients are caused by viruses and do not cause obvious symptoms. B) A diagnosis of bacteriuria requires three consecutive positive results. C) Urine contains varying levels of healthy bacterial flora. D) Urine samples are frequently contaminated by bacteria normally present in the urethral area.

D) Urine samples are frequently contaminated by bacteria normally present in the urethral area. Because urine samples (especially in women) are commonly contaminated by the bacteria normally present in the urethral area, a bacterial count exceeding 105 colonies/mL of clean-catch, midstream urine is the measure that distinguishes true bacteriuria from contamination. A diagnosis does not require three consecutive positive results and urine does not contain a normal flora in the absence of a UTI. Most UTIs have a bacterial etiology.

A newly graduated nurse is admitting a patient with a long history of emphysema. The new nurses preceptor is going over the patients past lab reports with the new nurse. The nurse takes note that the patients PaCO2 has been between 56 and 64 mm Hg for several months. The preceptor asks the new nurse why they will be cautious administering oxygen. What is the new nurses best response? A) The patients calcium will rise dramatically due to pituitary stimulation. B) Oxygen will increase the patients intracranial pressure and create confusion. C) Oxygen may cause the patient to hyperventilate and become acidotic. D) Using oxygen may result in the patient developing carbon dioxide narcosis and hypoxemia.

D) Using oxygen may result in the patient developing carbon dioxide narcosis and hypoxemia When PaCO2 chronically exceeds 50 mm Hg, it creates insensitivity to CO2 in the respiratory medulla, and the use of oxygen may result in the patient developing carbon dioxide narcosis and hypoxemia. No information indicates the patients calcium will rise dramatically due to pituitary stimulation. No feedback system that oxygen stimulates would create an increase in the patients intracranial pressure and create confusion. Increasing the oxygen would not stimulate the patient to hyperventilate and become acidotic; rather, it would cause hypoventilation and acidosis.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus who has been recently diagnosed with end-stage kidney disease (ESKD). The patient has an elevated phosphorus level and has been prescribed calcium acetate to bind the phosphorus. The nurse should teach the patient to take the prescribed phosphorus-binding medication at what time? A) Only when needed B) Daily at bedtime C) First thing in the morning D) With each meal

D) With each meal Both calcium carbonate and calcium acetate are medications that bind with the phosphate and assist in excreting the phosphate from the body, in turn lowering the phosphate levels. Phosphate-binding medications must be administered with food to be effective