Media lab hematology and urinalysis
b. Acute Monocytic Leukemia
A 41-year-old male arrived at the clinic with complaints of fatigue, malaise, and overall discomfort. Upon testing, the patient's CBC results were notably abnormal with 30% blasts present along with anemia and thrombocytopenia. Bone marrow and cytochemical staining were subsequently performed. The cytochemical stains noted negative reactions to Myeloperoxidase and Sudan Black B but a positive reaction to alpha-naphthyl acetate. Which of the following conditions is most likely seen? a. Acute Erythroleukemia b. Acute Monocytic Leukemia c. Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia d. Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia
a. L-arginine
Nitric oxide is associated with the prevention of vaso-occlusion by decreasing cellular adherence to endothelium. Which amino acid is decreased in patients with sickle cell disease and is needed as a substrate to produce nitric oxide? a. L-arginine b. L-glutamine c. L-lysine d. L-tyrosine
b. Lymphocytes
Normal adult CSF may have 0-5 white blood cells (WBCs)/µL. Which of the following cell types account for 60-100% of these WBCs? a. Neutrophils b. Lymphocytes c. Monocytes d. Eosinophils
d. beta thalassemia major
Nucleated RBCs are most likely to be seen in the peripheral blood of which type of beta thalassemia? a. beta thalassemia minima b. beta thalassemia minor c. beta thalassemia intermedia d. beta thalassemia major
a. Drepanocyte
Observe the peripheral blood smear image to the right. Several types of poikilocytes are seen. All of the following are seen in the image EXCEPT? a. Drepanocyte b. Burr cell c. Target cell d. Spherocyte
b. Refractometer SG would be higher than Dipstick SG.
On a patient that has a large amount of glucose in their urine, what would be the expected specific gravity (SG) taken from a refractometer in comparison to the dipstick SG? a. Refractometer SG would be lower than dipstick SG. b. Refractometer SG would be higher than Dipstick SG. c. Dipstick SG would be the same as refractometer SG. d. Unable to determine.
b. 200 ng/mL
A serum ferritin above what level would be suggestive of iron overload and possibly hereditary hemochromatosis (HH) in a pre-menopausal woman? a. 100 ng/mL b. 200 ng/mL c. 300 ng/mL d. 400 ng/mL
c. Hemolytic disease of the newborn
A spectrophotometric scan of amniotic fluid may be valuable in the determination of which of the following conditions: a. Neural tube defects b. Maternal hypertension c. Hemolytic disease of the newborn d. maternal diabetes
b. Mesothelial cells mesothelial cells as they are lining cells for serous fluids.
A typical Bronchoalveolar lavage differential contains all the cells EXCEPT: a. Ciliated lining cells b. Mesothelial cells c. Macrophages d. Lymphocytes
b. The pH may become more alkaline.
A urine specimen was collected at 6:00 a.m. and remained at room temperature until it was received in the laboratory at 3:30 p.m. How may the pH of the specimen be affected by the extended time at room temperature if bacteria are present in the specimen? a. The pH may become more acidic. b. The pH may become more alkaline. c. The pH will become neutral. d. The pH would probably not be affected.
a. Xanthochromia
A yellow coloration found in fresh cerebrospinal fluid supernatant is termed: a. Xanthochromia b. Hemolysis c. Jaundice d. Hyperlipidemia
c. lysis
All of the following activities are associated with platelets EXCEPT: a. aggregation b. adhesion c. lysis d. release of granules
c. Sulfosalicyclic acid precipitation
All of the following are quantitative methods for the determination of albumin EXCEPT? a. Serum protein electrophoresis b. Nephelometry c. Sulfosalicyclic acid precipitation d. Colorimetric spectrophotometry
d. Leucine
All of the following crystals are found in normal urine, EXCEPT? a. Triple phosphate b. Ammonium biurate c. Calcium oxalate d. Leucine
a. Calcium oxalate
All of the following normal urine crystals are most often found in a urine specimen that has a pH > 7 EXCEPT: a. Calcium oxalate b. Triple phosphate c. Ammonium biurate d. Calcium carbonate
c. fructose level
All of the following tests are part of the routine semen analysis, EXCEPT: a. pH b. motility c. fructose level d. morphology
d. lymphocytes
All of the following white blood cells would produce a positive leukocyte esterase test on the urine chemical reagent strip, EXCEPT? a. neutrophils b. eosinophils c. basophils d. lymphocytes
b. A column which has 11 heavy-staining bands.
An SDS-agarose gel electrophoresis for determining different multimer sizes of von Willebrand factor (vWF) is performed on a group of patients. Which of the following would indicate a patient who does not have von Willebrand Disease (vWD)? a. A column which has two heavy-staining bands and two light-staining bands (meaning a large quantity of two different multimers, and a small quantity of two other multimers). b. A column which has 11 heavy-staining bands. c. A column which has 10 light-staining bands. d. A column which has three light-staining bands.
d. Hb H
An alpha thalassemia patient is diagnosed as having three of their four genes deleted which code for alpha hemoglobin chains. Which one of the following types of hemoglobin is abnormal and would be found in such a patient? a. Hb A b. Hb S c. Hb F d. Hb H
a. Dehydration
An example of a cause of a "relative erythrocytosis" is: a. Dehydration b. Increased erythropoietin production c. High oxygen affinity hemoglobinopathy d. Genetic polycythemia
c. Factor Deficiency
An increased D-Dimer can be associated with all of the following EXCEPT: a. Pulmonary Embolism b. DIC c. Factor Deficiency d. Deep Vein Thrombosis
b. Hematuria
An increased number of the cells seen in the image, upon microscopic examination of urine is termed: a. Glycosuria b. Hematuria c. Uremia d. Normal urine
b. nephrotic syndrome
Bence-Jones proteinuria can be seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT: a. amyloidosis b. nephrotic syndrome c. multiple myeloma d. macroglobulinemia
b. Pernicious anemia
Bence-Jones proteinuria is associated with all of the following conditions EXCEPT: a. Macroglobulinemia b. Pernicious anemia c. Multiple myeloma d. Amyloidosis
b. an increased number of lymphocytes in a CSF when compared to a normal sample
CSF pleocytosis can refer to: a. decrease number of lympohcytes in a CSF when compared to a normal sample b. an increased number of lymphocytes in a CSF when compared to a normal sample c. an increased number of myeloblasts in a CSF when compared to a normal sample d. a decreased number of monocytes in a CSF when compared to a normal sample
c. Tube #3
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) specimens are usually collected by lumbar puncture and placed in numbered tubes starting with the first tube collected. If four tubes are collected, which tube would be used for a cell count and differential? a. Tube #1 b. Tube #2 c. Tube #3 d. Tube #4
b. Eosinophils
Charcot-Leyden crystals in stool may be associated with an immune response and are thought to be the breakdown products of: a. Neutrophils b. Eosinophils c. Monocytes d. Lymphocytes
c. Precursor of hormone synthesis
Cholesterol is used by the body for which of the following functions? a. Carrying dietary triglycerides to the cells through the blood b. Maintaining acid-base balance c. Precursor of hormone synthesis d. Major source of fuel for the body
d. Fluid leak
Conditions that produce elevated CSF protein levels include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Meningitis b. Multiple sclerosis c. Hemorrhage d. Fluid leak
b. Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)
Detecting the BCR/ABL1 mutation by molecular techniques is useful in the diagnosis of which of the following diseases/conditions? a. Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH) b. Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) c. Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL) d. Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA)
b. Monoblasts from myeloblasts
Esterase stains are used to help differentiate which of the following? a. Myeloblasts from lymphoblasts b. Monoblasts from myeloblasts c. Monoblasts from lymphoblasts d. Erythroblasts from lymphoblasts
d. Brown/black
Homogentisic acid in urine will cause urine to be which of the following colors? a. Green b. Pink c. Port-wine d. Brown/black
a. Specific gravity increases as ionic concentration increases.
How does ion concentration in the urine relate to specific gravity? a. Specific gravity increases as ionic concentration increases. b. Specific gravity decreases as ionic concentration increases. c. There is no relationship between SG and ionic concentration. d. Specific gravity stays the same regardless of the ionic concentration.
a. Positive for bilirubin
How should the production of a blue or purple color on the test pad of an Ictotest® be interpreted? a. Positive for bilirubin b. Positive for ketones c. Negative for bilirubin d. Negative for ketones
a. nucleated red blood cells
Identify the predominant nucleated cell in this cerebrospinal fluid cytospin differential. a. nucleated red blood cells b. neutrophils c. metamyelocyte d. tumor cells
b. Fatty cast
Identify the urine sediment element: a. WBC cast b. Fatty cast c. Waxy cast d. Granular cast
c. Hb H disease
If a patient has three inactive alpha-globin genes, which of the four alpha (a) thalassemia classifications would they have? a. Alpha thalassemia trait b. Hydrops fetalis c. Hb H disease d. Silent carrier
d. Select an aliquot from the last tube collected
In order to avoid falsely elevated spinal fluid cell counts one should: a. Use an aliquot only from the first tube collected b. Use only those specimens showing no turbidity c. Centrifuge all specimens before counting d. Select an aliquot from the last tube collected
b. B
Select the letter representing the cell that contains histamine and heparin responsible for immediate hypersensitivity reactions. a. A b. B c. C d. D
d. Dehydration
Serous fluid effusions may result from all of the following EXCEPT: a. Congestive heart failure b. Infection and inflammation c. Malnutrition d. Dehydration
c. Ferrous iron is oxidized to ferric iron to form methemoglobin
In the hemoglobin methodology using potassium ferricyanide the following measurable reaction occurs: a. Carboxyhemoglobin is formed b. Iron remains in the ferrous state c. Ferrous iron is oxidized to ferric iron to form methemoglobin d. Acid hematin is formed
d. Anisotropic cholesterol droplets
Substances found in urinary sediment that are more easily distinguished by the use of a polarized microscope are: a. WBC b. RBC c. Waxy casts d. Anisotropic cholesterol droplets
a. Protein
Sulfosalicylic acid (SSA) can be used to confirm the result of which of the following tests included on a urine reagent strip? a. Protein b. Glucose c. Bilirubin d. Urobilinogen
c. Fibrinolysis
The D-dimer is useful in detecting activity in which aspect of hemostasis? a. Primary hemostasis b. Secondary hemostasis c. Fibrinolysis d. Quaternary hemostasis
b. White blood cells and platelets
The buffy coat includes which of the following constituents of the blood? a. Red blood cells and white blood cells b. White blood cells and platelets c. Platelets and red blood cells d. Plasma and red blood cells
c. Myelin basic protein (MBP)
The course of multiple sclerosis can be monitored by measuring which of the following in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analytes? a. Glucose b. Lactate c. Myelin basic protein (MBP) d. Glutamine
b. Elimination of metabolic waste products
The exocrine functions of the kidneys include which of the following? a. Regulation of hormone production b. Elimination of metabolic waste products c. Maintenance of blood pressure d. Production of red blood cells
d. Red to brown
The oxidation of hemoglobin to methemoglobin in acidic urine after several hours may cause which of the following color to produce? a. White b. Yellow c. Blue to green d. Red to brown
a. Renal disease
The presence of increased protein levels in the urine may be an early indicator of which of the following conditions? a. Renal disease b. Diabetes c. Hepatitis d. Pharyngitis
d. Provide microbicidal action.
The primary purpose of neutrophil granules is to: a. Facilitate nuclear maturation. b. Help distinguish neutrophils from lymphocytes. c. Prepare cells for removal from circulation. d. Provide microbicidal action.
b. Proximal convoluted tubule
The primary site of reabsorption of glomerular filtrate is the: a. Loop of Henle b. Proximal convoluted tubule c. Distal convoluted tubule d. Collecting duct
a. Concentration at which a substance in the blood spills into the urine
The renal threshold is best described as: a. Concentration at which a substance in the blood spills into the urine b. Concentration at which reabsorption first occurs c. Concentration at which kidney can no longer filter the blood d. Concentration at which kidney failure begins
d. May-Hegglin anomaly
This image is of a peripheral blood smear from a patient with what condition? a. Toxic granulation caused by bacterial infection b. Pelger Huet anomaly c. Acute myeloid leukemia with an Auer rod. d. May-Hegglin anomaly
a. Mix one part patient plasma and one part normal pooled plasma and repeat the aPTT
To determine if an elevated aPTT is caused by a factor deficiency or a factor inhibitor when the PT is normal, the FIRST step would be: a. Mix one part patient plasma and one part normal pooled plasma and repeat the aPTT b. Mix one part patient plasma and one part normal aged plasma and repeat the aPTT c. Perform a Factor IX assay to see if it is a Factor IX deficiency d. Perform a test for a lupus anticoagulant
a. Cholesterol crystals
Urine crystals of radiographic contrast media will appear similar to which of the following? a. Cholesterol crystals b. Amorphous crystals c. Calcium Oxalate crystals d. Triple Phosphate crystals
a. The bacteria may make the pH more alkaline.
What effect may bacterial contamination have on urine pH? a. The bacteria may make the pH more alkaline. b. The bacteria may make the pH more acidic. c. The bacteria would not affect urine pH. d. The bacteria will keep the pH neutral.
a. Testing family members of persons with HH
What is an appropriate use for molecular (DNA) tests for mutations of the HFE gene, the gene found in the majority of patients diagnosed with hereditary hemochromatosis (HH)? a. Testing family members of persons with HH b. Screening of all newborns c. Predicting the severity of iron overload d. Identifying persons with iron overload
a. G-6-PD deficiency
What is the MOST likely cause of a patient who developed a severe hemolytic episode after taking anti-malarial drugs, and red cell inclusions caused by denatured hemoglobin were seen on the differential smear? a. G-6-PD deficiency b. Thalassemia major c. Pyruvate kinase deficiency d. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
b. Urinary tract infection
What is the MOST probable condition when a clean-catch urine specimen gave these results:Appearance = cloudy, amber pH 5.0Specific Gravity = 1.015,Protein = 1+Glucose = negativeOccult Blood = traceNitrite = positive Microscopic = many bacteria and 30 - 40 WBC/HPF. a. Nephrosis b. Urinary tract infection c. Renal calculus d. Nephritis
a. Toxic granulation
What is the identity of the white blood cell inclusions present in this image? a. Toxic granulation b. May-Hegglin bodies c. Auer rods d. Barr bodies
d. Provide NADPH and reduced glutathione to prevent oxidation of hemoglobin
What is the main function of the hexose monophosphate shunt in red blood cells (RBC's)? a. Regulate the level of 2,3-DPG b. Protect hemoglobin from oxidation via NADH c. Provide ATP d. Provide NADPH and reduced glutathione to prevent oxidation of hemoglobin
c. detect small urinary concentrations of albumin before there is irreparable renal damage
What is the role of albuminuria testing? a. monitor diabetic patient carbohydrate management b. detect serum albumin levels in early renal disease c. detect small urinary concentrations of albumin before there is irreparable renal damage d. diagnose renal failure in a type 1 diabetic patient
a. Schistocytes
When assessing the RBC morphology on a peripheral blood smear, which would be an expected finding on a patient with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)? a. Schistocytes b. Target cells c. Acanthocytes d. Echinocytes
b. #1 Chemistry, #2 Microbiology, #3 Hematology
When three tubes of cerebrospinal fluid are received in the laboratory they should be distributed to the various laboratory sections as follows: a. #1 Hematology, #2 Chemistry, #3 Microbiology b. #1 Chemistry, #2 Microbiology, #3 Hematology c. #1 Microbiology, #2 Hematology, #3 Chemistry d. #1 Chemistry, #2 Hematology, #3 Microbiology
choroid plexus
Where does most cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) originate? a. Cerebral arachnoid space b. Choroid plexus c. Ventricles d. Lumbar region
a. Alder-Reilly neutrophils
Which morphologic term describes this slide? a. Alder-Reilly neutrophils b. Auer rods c. Döhle bodies, bacteria, toxic granulation d. Pelgeroid neutrophils
c. Hyposegmented neutrophils
Which of the following are seen in Pelger-Huet anomaly? a. Dark, abundant neutrophil granules b. Neutrophils with at least 3 nuclear lobes c. Hyposegmented neutrophils d. Decreased platelets
a. L-Dopa metabolites
Which of the following can cause a false positive result for ketones? a. L-Dopa metabolites b. Lightly pigmented urine c. Using a freshly collected urine specimen d. Presence of bacteria
b. CD55 and CD59
Which of the following cell markers are useful in the diagnosis of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)? a. CD4 and CD8 b. CD55 and CD59 c. CD56 and CD57 d. CD14 and CD15
b. Mesothelial cells
Which of the following cells are lining cells that could be seen in a peritoneal fluid? a. Choroidal cells b. Mesothelial cells c. Ependymal cells d. Squamous epithelial cells
a. Small lymphocyte
Which of the following cells is characterized by a thin rim of cytoplasm around the nucleus? a. Small lymphocyte b. Large lymphocyte c. Monocyte d. Segmented neutrophil
a. G6PD deficiency
Which of the following conditions is associated with the defective erythrocytes that are indicated by the arrows in this image? a. G6PD deficiency b. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia c. Abetalipoproteinemia d. Beta thalassemia
d. Hemoglobin
Which of the following hematology tests is used to indicate anemic conditions? a. Platelet count b. White blood cell count c. White blood cell differential d. Hemoglobin
c. Howell-Jolly bodies
Which of the following inclusions may be observed on a Wright-stained peripheral blood smear if a patient has had a splenectomy? a. Reticulocytes b. Basophilic stippling c. Howell-Jolly bodies d. Schistocytes
c. Frame C- primary myelofibrosis
Which of the following is a correct pairing of cell type in the image and a disease state associated with that type of cell? All cells are from a Wright stained peripheral blood smear. a. Frame A - acute lymphoblastic leukemia b. Frame B- polycythemia vera c. Frame C- primary myelofibrosis d. Frame D- infectious mononucleosis
c. Enzyme immunoassay
Which of the following is a quantitative test which is commonly available to determine Protein C and Protein S antigen levels? a. Modified partial thromboplastin time (PTT) b. Factor V Leiden assay c. Enzyme immunoassay d. Molecular test
c. Hydroxyurea
Which of the following is an FDA-approved therapeutic agent for treating sickle cell patients? a. Butyric acid b. Erythropoietin c. Hydroxyurea d. Nitric oxide
a. Leukocyte count greater than 1,000 WBC/µL
Which of the following is characteristic of an exudate effusion? a. Leukocyte count greater than 1,000 WBC/µL b. Clear appearance c. Protein concentration less than 3.0 g/dL d. Absence of fibrinogen
a. Wright
Which of the following is considered to be the stain of choice for evaluation of a peripheral blood smear to include red cell morphology as well as a white cell differential count? a. Wright b. Brilliant cresyl blue c. New methylene blue d. Prussian blue
a. Intrinsic factor
Which of the following is necessary for the absorption of Vitamin B12: a. Intrinsic factor b. Folic acid c. Gastrin d. Insulin
a. Precipitates between 40° and 60°C but redissolves at 100°C
Which of the following is true about Bence-Jones protein when performing the heat precipitation test? a. Precipitates between 40° and 60°C but redissolves at 100°C b. Precipitates between 60° and 80°C but redissolves at 100°C c. Is dissolved between 40° and 60°C but precipitates around 100°C d. Is dissolved between 60° and 80°C but precipitates around 100°C
c. The CSF glucose should be about 60 to 70% of the plasma glucose level.
Which of the following is true of glucose levels in the CSF of an otherwise healthy individual? a. There is no glucose in the CSF of a healthy person. b. The CSF glucose should be about 20 to 30% of the plasma glucose level. c. The CSF glucose should be about 60 to 70% of the plasma glucose level. d. The CSF glucose should be the same as the plasma glucose level.
c. Prolonged PT, decreased fibrinogen, decreased platelet count, increased FDP
Which of the following laboratory results would be seen in a patient with acute Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)? a. Prolonged PT, decreased fibrinogen, elevated platelet count, increased FDP b. Normal PT, decreased fibrinogen, decreased platelet count, decreased FDP c. Prolonged PT, decreased fibrinogen, decreased platelet count, increased FDP d. Normal PT, increased fibrinogen, decreased platelet count, decreased FDP
c. Lymphocyte
Which of the following major cellular elements does not develop solely in the bone marrow? a. Monocyte b. Neutrophil c. Lymphocyte d. Macrophage
d. High urine glucose
Which of the following may be associated with acidic urinary pH? a. Metabolic alkalosis b. Renal tubular acidosis c. Vegetarian diet d. High urine glucose
a. Immunoelectrophoresis
Which of the following methods may be employed to definitively identify Bence-Jones proteins? a. Immunoelectrophoresis b. Sulfosalicyclic acid precipitation c. Heat precipitation at 40-60 degrees C d. Urine dipstick
c. Iontophoresis
Which of the following methods would be employed to collect sweat for chloride analysis: a. Electrophoresis b. Counter electrophoresis c. Iontophoresis d. Isoelectric focusing
d. L3-L4
Which of the following sites is used most often for CSF collection? a. Ventricles b. L1-L2 c. Subarachnoid d. L3-L4
d. Rapid and immediate vasoconstriction by contraction of smooth muscles.
Which of the following statements is true regarding primary hemostatic process resulting from vascular damage? a. Inhibition of platelet function by interaction with collagen. b. Platelet adhesion through Weibel-Palade bodies. c. Platelet aggregation through interaction of von Willebrand factor and glycoprotein IIb/IIIa. d. Rapid and immediate vasoconstriction by contraction of smooth muscles.
b. Quantitative fecal fat
Which of the following tests require a 72-hour stool (fecal) collection? a. Occult blood b. Quantitative fecal fat c. Ova and Parasite (O&P) d. Stool culture
a. Albumin
Which one of the following proteins in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is used to monitor the integrity of the blood-brain barrier? a. Albumin b. Prealbumin c. Transferrin d. IgG
d. Immunologic fibrinogen level
Which test result will be normal in a patient with dysfibrinogenemia? a. Thrombin time b. Reptilase test c. Clot based - fibrinogen assay d. Immunologic fibrinogen level
c. Fern test
Which test uses a vaginal fluid specimen to differentiate amniotic fluid from urine and other body fluids? a. Optical density (OD) of bilirubin b. Osmolality c. Fern test d. Amine (Whiff) test
c. Albumin, which leaks through damaged kidney glomeruli and appears first in the urine
A 51-year-old woman with Type 2 Diabetes and high blood pressure has recently started noticing foaming in the toilet bowl following urination. She typically has her urine checked for abnormalities every 3 months. Recently, urinalysis indicates an abnormally large concentration of protein in her urine. Given the patient's history, which of the following proteins will likely be found in the urine upon analysis in the laboratory? a. Beta amyloids, because of the damage inflicted on the kidneys by renal disease b. Gamma globulins, because of the body's reaction to renal disease c. Albumin, which leaks through damaged kidney glomeruli and appears first in the urine d. IgG heavy chains, indicated by an "M-spike" during a routine urinalysis
c. Essential Thrombocythemia
A CBC is done on a patient admitted for a severe hemorrhage. The patient has a high platelet count and the blood smear can be seen on the right. A bone marrow exam is performed and a proliferation of megakaryocytes is noted. Molecular analysis shows a JAK 2 mutation. This patient most likely has: a. Reactive thrombocytosis b. Iron deficiency anemia c. Essential Thrombocythemia d. Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
b. Stained smear of a cytocentrifuged specimen
A WBC differential count on CSF should be performed using the following technique: a. Wet mount of sample from collection tube b. Stained smear of a cytocentrifuged specimen c. Directly from hemocytometer chamber count d. Directly from stained hemocytometer count
a. Cryptococcus neoformans
A cerebrospinal fluid sample from a possible meningitis patient demonstrated a round, budding yeast of variable size on Gram stain. The specimen was cultured to routine fungal media without cycloheximide. The organism rapidly produced urease and demonstrated brown pigmented colonies on niger seed agar. The organism identification is: a. Cryptococcus neoformans b. Candida albicans c. Malassezia furfur d. Trichosporan species
a. Reducing substances
A copper reduction method (e.g. Clinitest® or Benedict's) is performed on pediatric specimens in order to check for the presence of: a. Reducing substances b. Aspirin c. Protein d. Ketones
b. Von Willebrand factor
A defect in which of the following factors causes impaired platelet adhesion and aggregation? a. Stuart-Prower factor b. Von Willebrand factor c. Hageman factor d. Fletcher factor
c. The presence of a non-glucose reducing sugar such as galactose
A negative glucose oxidase test and a positive test for reducing sugars in urine indicate: a. True glycosuria b. A false-negative glucose oxidation reaction c. The presence of a non-glucose reducing sugar such as galactose d. These results are normal
b. four heme and four globin chains
A normal hemoglobin molecule is comprised of the following: a. Ferrous iron and four globin chains b. four heme and four globin chains c. four heme and one globin chains d. one heme and four globin chains
d. Factor IX
A patient presents to the ER with prolonged bleeding. PT and aPTT tests both come back prolonged. After running Factor assays, it was determined the patient has Hemophilia B, also known as Christmas disease, a deficiency of which factor? a. Factor VII b. Factor VIII c. Factor X d. Factor IX
b. Factor IX deficiency A deficiency of factor IX would cause an abnormal initial aPTT because the aPTT detects coagulation proteins of the intrinsic and common pathways, and factor IX is a coagulation factor in the intrinsic system.
A patient with a history of frequent mild bleeding episodes has the following results: Normal PTProlonged aPTT corrected by normal plasma during mixing studies Which of the following could be a possible cause of the initial aPTT prolongation? a. Factor VII deficiency b. Factor IX deficiency c. Factor X deficiency d. A circulating inhibitor is present
a. Reactive Lymphocyte
A patient with an infectious mononucleosis infection presents in the emergency room. Physicians order a spinal tap, which is immediately sent to the laboratory for review. What is the cell in the image below from this patient's cerebrospinal fluid sample? a. Reactive Lymphocyte b. Monocyte c. Macrophage d. Mesothelial Cell
d. Plasma cells
A patient with suspected intraabdominal malignancy had a paracentesis procedure performed. The fluid was then sent to the laboratory for examination and fluid differential. Which cells predominate in this cytospin field from the patient's sample? a. Monocytes b. Atypical lymphocytes c. Blasts d. Plasma cells
