Micro bio test

Which of the following is false concerning infection with chlamydia trachomatis

Most infected females and males are symptomatic (have symptoms)

which of the following is false concerning SCHISTOSOMIASIS

it is caused by a nematode (roundworm)

which of the following is mismatched concerning innate defense of the body organs or system

none are false

exotoxins is mismatched

none of the above is mismatched

Simple (passive) diffusion differs from facilitated diffusion, active transport, and group translocation in that it is:

not saturable.

What were the major causes of death in the US at the beginning of the 20th century?

#1- Influenza and Pneumonia #2- Tuberculosis #3- Gastrointestinal Infections #4- heart disease #5- Cerebrovascular disease (stroke)

Assuming that you are the first ti treat a serious archaeal infection, which of the following would work

(none) or ergosterol if found in cell wall

The largest living organism in the world is:

A humongous fungus Armillaria ostoyae in Oregon's Blue Mountains

DDJ

1. D 2. E, 3. C, 4. E, 5. B

Urine samples (one microliter volume) are commonly spread onto blood agar and MacConkey agar. A mid-stream urine sample with more than 100,000 organisms/ml (100 colonies on the plate) is considered indicative of infection. If a urine sample containing 2,000 bacteria/ml with a generation time of 20 minutes, sits for 2 hours on a warm back of a toilet before finally being sent refrigerated to the lab and assayed, how many bacteria will then be present/ml?

128,000 (2,000)*(2^6)

Which of the following are examples of antigen-presenting cells (APC) 1-neutrophil, 2 b-cell, 3 t-cell, 4 macrophage, 5 dendritic cell

2, 4, 5

Which of the following places the steps of the Gram stain in the correct order?1-Alcohol-acetone; 2-Crystal violet; 3-Safranin; 4-Iodine

2-4-1-3

If process kills 90% of organisms per minute, how many minutes would it take to kill all organism when starting with 100,000

6 mins

If a process kills 90% of the organisms per minute, how many minutes would it take to kill all organisms when starting with 10,000,000 organisms?

8 minutes (10,000,000x0.1^8)

Which of the following patterns of pathogenesis: (1). Adherence, (2). Colonization, (3). Exotoxin Production, (4). Invasion, (5). Invasion and Exotoxin Production, is characterized by Staph food poisoning, Botulism in adults, and Aminita mushrooms?

A 1,2,3,4,5 B 1,2,3 C 1,2,4 D 1,2,5 E None of the above

Which of the following is not true of bacterial ribosomes?

A 70S (30S and 50S subunits) B Site of selective toxicity C Macrolides target 50S subunit D Aminoglycosides target 30S subunit [E] FALSE The Domain Archaea are sensitive to macrolides and aminoglycosides

Which is false concerning superantigens?

A A type of exotoxin; Strep Pyrogenic Exotoxin & Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin. B They stimulate many T cells by "clamping onto" (cross linking) the APC MHC II-T cell receptor complex. C The stimulated T cells cause APCs to release cytokines like IL-1, IL-6 and TNFα. [D] FLASE They are very large epitopes that stimulate B cell proliferation and lots of protective antibody against the superantigen. E They have symptoms similar to endotoxin.

What of the following is false concerning Exotoxins?

A A-B, Membrane Disrupting & Superantigens [B] FLASE All of them produce fever. C Chromosomal, plasmid, or phage genes direct synthesis. D Some can be converted to toxoids. E All of the above are true.

The TCA cycle produces all of the following except:

A ATP (GTP). B NADH C FADH2 D CO2. E it produces all of the above. (NO CORRECT ANSWER)

Which of the following is mismatched concerning innate and adaptive immunity?

A Adaptive::Specific response to microbe [B] (FALSE) Innate::Has memory and tolerance C Innate::Includes "first line" of defenses D Adaptive::Slower to respond E Innate::Phagocytic cells

Which of the following is mismatched concerning innate and adaptive immunity?

A Adaptive::Specific response to microbe [B] FALSE Innate::Has memory and tolerance C Innate::Includes "first line" of defenses D Adaptive::Slower to respond E Innate::Phagocytic cells

With respect to the action of physical/chemical agents, which of the following is false?

A Alcohols and heat coagulate proteins. B Oxidizing agents and metals may oxidize and remove free sulfhydryl groups. C It take just as long to kill the last organism in a population of one million as it did to kill the first 900,000. [D] FALSE The presence of extraneous excess organic matter increases the effectiveness of killing. E All of the above are true.

Which of the following is false concerning bacterial biofilms?

A Allows bacteria to interact and share nutrients. [B] FALSE Makes it easier for phagocytic cells to engulf and destroy because of microbial clustering. C Shelters microbes from removal by flow. D Examples are plaque on teeth, slime in the sink and toilet, slime on rocks from ponds. E Complicates (reduces effectiveness of) antimicrobial therapy.

XIV Which of the following is false concerning viruses?

A Animal viruses differ from bacterial viruses in their need for uncoating. B DS DNA viruses are more common than SS DNA viruses; SS RNA viruses are more common than DS RNA viruses. C) CORECT CHOICE According to the CDC, an estimated 3,500 new HPV-associated cancers and approximately 35,000 new cases of anogenital warts occur yearly associated with HPV infection based on data from 2009. D Antigenic shift, with major changes in N & H of the influenza virus, results from two or more different influenza viruses (e.g., avian and human) infecting a different host (e.g., pig perhaps infected with different flu virus) at the same time with recombination of the viral genomes. E Chronic phage infection is called lysogeny, whereas chronic animal virus infection is termed latency.

Which of the following is mismatched concerning the early great microbiologists?

A Anton van Leeuwenhoek = First observations of the microbial world B Paul Erlich = Father of chemotherapy, worked on soluble substances in blood (i.e., antibodies), stained mycobacteria, discovered Salvarsan 606 for syphilis C Joseph Lister = Antiseptic surgical practice [D] (FALSE) Dmitri Iwanowski = Role of phagocytosis in combating bacterial infections E None of the above is mismatched.

Which of the following is false concerning the fungi?

A Ascomycetes have sexual spores that develop in an ascus (sac), thus the "sac fungi." B Basidiomycetes have sexual spores on ends of club-like structures, i.e, "club fungi." C Zymogycetes have sexual spores called zygospores whiuch develop when two mating types of hyphae come together, thus the "conjugation fungi." D Deuteromycetes are the "imperfect fungi" with no observed sexual spores. [E] CORECT CHOICE All of the above are true.

During maturation or function of immune cells associated with adaptive immunity, certain activities are associated with specificity of those cells or tolerance (prevention of autoimmunity); which of the following is false?

A B cell progenitors with BCRs that react with autoantigen are eliminated (through apoptosis) or undergo editing or anergy in the bone marrow (i.e., clonal deletion). B T cell progenitors undergo negative selection in the thymus eliminating those reacting with "self" peptides by apoptosis. C B cells following binding of protein antigens "confirm" the foreign (not self) nature through interaction with a T Helper (TH) cell, & if foreign the TH will provide signals to the B cell for division (clonal expansion) and differentiation into antibody-producing p plasma cells and memory cells. D T cell progenitors undergo positive selection in the thymus for ability to bind MHC (I or II). [E] CORECT CHOICE All of the above are true.

Which of the following is false concerning vaccines?

A BCG and MMR are examples of "living" attenuated vaccines. [B] FALSE Endotoxin can be toxoided for vaccines. C Killed (or inactivated) vaccines include Salk polio and conventional influenza. D Recombinant subunit vaccines include hepatitis B and HPV. E All of the above are true.

Which of the following is false concerning B or T cells.

A CD8+ cells recognize peptides presented by MHC I. [B] FALSE TCRs recognize 3D structural antigens or epitopes & BCRs recognize linear 2D epitopes. C CD4+ cells recognize peptides presented by MHC II. D BCRs are membrane-bound versions of the specific antibody the B cell is programed to make. E Potentially billions of BCRs can be generated by RAG gene rearrangements, random point mutations, deletions and insertions.

Which of the following is false concerning replication of viruses?

A Certain bacteriophages may insert the phage genome into the host chromosome. B (CORRECT ANSWER CHOICE) If A occurs, the phage genome is referred to as a lytic phage.

Which of the following is false concerning the acquired immunodeficiency AIDS?

A Characterized by opportunistic infections (C. albicans oral thrush, TB, various diarrheas, Pneumocystis pneumonia, Cryptococcus, etc.), Kaposi's sarcoma, etc. B HIV infects CD4+ T helper cells. [C] FALSE HIV is a DS DNA virus that thus can integrate (using an integrase) into the host chromosome. D When T helper cells fall below a critical level (<200mm3) symptoms occur. E HIV is an STD (anal sex greater risk), also transmitted by blood & from infected mother to fetus.

Which of the following is mismatched concerning growth?

A Chemo(litho)autotroph::"Black Smoker" bacteria of thermal vents [B] THIS ONE Photoautotroph::Plants, fungi and algae C Psychrophiles::Artic and Antartic D Psychrotroph::Grows in refrigerator E Halophiles::Grow in high salt

Which of the following is false concerning protozoans?

A Cryptosporidium produces a diarrhea that is self-limited in individuals with normal host defenses, but prolonged and severe in AIDS. B Malarial parasites belong to the genus Plasmodium and are transmitted by the female Anopheles mosquito. C Leishmania species transmitted by the sand fly cause cutaneous, visceral and mucosal leishmaniasis. D Pregnant females should always avoid the cat litter box to prevent congenital ` infection of their developing fetus and consequent birth defects due to Toxoplasma gondii. [E] TRUE All of the above are true.

XII Concerning fungi, which of the following is false?

A Dermatophytes (Microsporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton) cause infections of skin, nails and hair. B Amanita phalloides is the "death cap" mushroom responsible for killing some famous persons throughout history. C Different tineas refer to the locations of different dermatophytic infections. D Yeast infections include Candida albicans oral and vaginal "thrush" and Cryptococcus neoformans and Cryptococcus gattii pneumonia and brain infections. (E) CORECT CHOICE All of the above are true.

Which of the following is not a function of the cell membrane or membrane-associated proteins in bacteria?

A Detecting changes (e.g., temperature, pH) telling a pathogen it is inside a host. B Secreting toxins to counteract host defenses. C Transfer of modulators of behavior of host cells permitting microbial attachment, entry, and actin-based motility. [D] FALSE Production of proteins by membrane associated ribosomes in rough ER. E Import and export of molecules.

Which of the following is false regarding mycoplasmas?

A Domain Bacteria, but lack peptidoglycan and cell wall. B Sterols in membrane. C Cause "walking pneumonia" and nongonococcal urethritis (NGU). [D] FALSE Acid fast. E They are so small they can pass through bacterial filters.

Which of the following is false concerning Escherichia coli?

A EPEC and EHEC associate by attaching and effacing lesions. B ETEC attach via fimbria/pili adhesin CFAs to the unaltered microvilli. C ETEC causes traveler's diarrhea due to ST/LT. D EHEC cause colitis and bloody diarrhea & HUS due to Shiga toxin. [E] TRUE All of the above are true.

XII Concerning protozoans, which of the following is false?

A Entamoeba histolytica causes amoebic dysentery with blood and pus in stools. B Apicomplexans have complex life cycles and the apical complex for penetrating. C) CORECT CHOICE May have active (cyst) and inactive more resistant (trophozoites) forms. D Free-living amoeba in stagnant waters may enter the brain via the nose of swimmers to produce fatal encephalitis. E Giardia lamblia causes water-borne acute or chronic foul-smelling diarrhea.

XII Which of the following is false?

A Enterobius vermicularis is the common pinworm causing pruritis ani. B The hookworms Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale cause anemia (and mucosal damage) that can lead to cognitive and growth retardation. C The giant roundworm Ascaris lumbricoides can make "worm balls" that can cause intestinal obstruction. D The small dog tapeworm Echinococcus granulosis may cause hydatid cysts in the brain or other organs in humans. (E) CORECT CHOICE All of the above are true.

Which of the following is false concerning immunoglobulin IgM?

A First immunoglobulin class made in immunological response. B Pentamer. C Activates complement by the classical complement pathway. D Best agglutinating antoibody. [E] FALSE All of the above are true of IgM.

Which of the following is false regarding infections?

A Helicobacter pylori causes duodenal and gastric ulcers and gastric cancer. B Minor changes in the influenza virus (H&N) result from mistakes due to lack of fidelity in replication of the RNA genome. C Campylobacter jejuni produces diarrhea and dysentery resembling shigellosis. [D] FALSE Helicobacter and Campylobacter are facultative anaerobes like E. coli. E Brucella, a select agent, produces undulant fever and can be acquired from unpasteurized milk.

With respect to vaccines and infections, which of the following is false?

A Hepatitis is caused by multiple types of virus; vaccines for Type A & B. B Measles (rubiola) causes encephalitis in 1 in 1000 and death in 1 in 3000. [C] FALSE Vaccinia (smallpox) virus was eliminated through global immunization with the cowpox (variola) virus. D A resurgence of pertussis ("whooping cough") in children (including San Antonio) is a result of under and non-immunized individuals. E The recombinant hepatitis B vaccine also protects against hepatitis D; however, a hepatitis C vaccine is needed because perhaps 1 in 100 in the US is infected resulting in perhaps more deaths than due to AIDS.

XIII Which of the following is false concerning Clostridium?

A Infants may get an infection with C. botulinum if honey (with spores) is put into formula or milk because of inadequate protective gut microbiota. B C. perfringens produces gas gangrene. C Flaccid paralysis (C. botulinum) and spastic paralysis (C. tetani). D C. difficile produces antibiotic associated pseudomembranous colitis. E) CORECT CHOICE All of the above are true.

Which of the following is an example of passive immunization?

Mother nursing a baby

Which of the following is found in the wall of Mycobacterium tuberculosis but not most other bacterial walls.

Mycolic acids

Among the smallest living & filterable cells are:

Mycoplasmas.

which of the following is false concerning endotoxin

NOt sure, either activates complex via the alternate pathway

Which is the mode of action of C. perfringens α—toxin?

Phospholipase activity killing cells by disrupting membranes

XIV All of the following are true of viral infections except

A) CORCET CHOICE Polio virus is transmitted by the respiratory route and results in paralysis of most infected recipients. B Yellow fever is a viral disease, with liver damage, that is transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito. C The common cold is caused by multiple rhinoviruses, adenoviruses and coronaviruses. D The mumps virus infects parotid glands causing swelling and orchitis (swelling of the testes) in post-pubertal males E The recent large Ebola outbreak originated from "bush meat" (bats) and there were problems with lack of adequate PPE in field hospitals & with transmission (because the virus is present in the vomit, diarrheal fluid and blood from different body orifices) in absence of proper PPE.

XIII Which of the following is false concerning the family Enterobacteriaceae?

A) CORECT CHOICE All members are motile with polar flagella. B Gram - rods. C Facultative anaerobes that ferment sugars. D Oxidase negative. E All of the above are true.

XII Which of the following is false concerning Streptoccus pneumoniae?

A) CORECT CHOICE Beta hemolytic. B Gram + diplococcus. C About 90 different polysaccharide capsules (major virulence factor); that are anti-phagocytic. D Lobar pneumonia, Otitis media, Meningitis, Sinusitis. E Predisposing factors include smoking, alcohol, splenectomy.

XIII Which of the following is false concerning Staphylococcus aureus.

A) CORECT CHOICE CONS B Produces a spectrum of infections. C Toxic shock syndrome with new brand of tampon; Scalded skin syndrome in babies. D Enterotoxins produced by growth in foods cause rapid onset projectile vomiting (and diarrhea). E Catalase +

Which of the following is false concerning special stains for external bacterial structure?

A-TRUE Capsules are antiphagocytic & can be visualized by negative staining (e.g., India Ink). B-TRUE Capsules are antiphagocytic & can be visualized with specific antibody (Quellung). C-TRUE Flagellar filaments are too thin to be visualized by the light microscope. D-TRUE Flagellar stains adhere to & coat flagella making them thicker & visible by light microscopy. E [CORRECT ANSWER] All of the above are true.

Which of the following is not true of entry of agents causing necrotizing fasciitis?

A. Entry through cut or wound. B. Often results from extension from a primary skin lesion that is often minor C. Initial skin foci include abrasions and puncture wounds, insect bites, minor skin abscess, injection sites of i.v. drug users. D. Can be a complication of surgical procedures and child birth [E.] TRUE All of the above are true

Concerning the avian-adapted, highly pathogenic strain of H5N1 (called HPAI A(H5N1), for "highly pathogenic avian influenza virus of type A of subtype H5N1"), which of the following is false:

A. causes "avian influenza" or simply "bird flu" B. has resulted in death of many millions of chickens and birds [C] FALSE. has resulted in recent deaths of many hundred thousands of exposed humans D. endemic in many bird populations E. all of the above are true

Which of the following is not true of influenza viruses?

A. family Orthomyxoviridae, SS RNA, − strand, with multiple RNA strands B. H mediates attachment to host receptors, N is involved in replication & release C. influenza viruses are enveloped making hand disinfection easily possible. [D] FALSE. influenza vaccines commonly consist of a mixture of attenuated "live" viruses grown in adult chickens. E. The 2017/2018 influenza vaccine reportedly was perhaps 36% effective in the US, but much less effective in the southern hemisphere.

Which of the following is not true of influenza viruses?

A. the influenza A virus undergoes minor changes (antigenic drift) in H & N spikes due to replication errors. B. the influenza virus undergoes major changes (antigenic shift) in H and N when different viruses (e.g., human, avian, pig) infect the same host cell and recombine C. influenza killed more than 1 million in the US and greater than 50 million worldwide in 1918. D. pneumonia and influenza were the number one cause of death in the US at the start of the 20th century [E] (CORECT CHOICE). all of the above are true

Which of the following is false concerning genital warts?

According to CDC, an estimated 3,500 new HPV-associated cancers and approximately 35,000 new cases of anogenital warts were associated with HPV in 2009.

Which of the following is false concerning the immune system of your body?

Adaptive immunity is essentially "hard wired" and present at birth.

Which of the following is the mode of action of tetanus toxin?

Spastic paralysis

Antibodies produced against "self" (autoantibodies) are produced when:

T and B cells that are autoreactive to the same epitope both escaped negative selection.

Which of the following plays a role in promoting autoimmunity such as MS

TH17 cells

The stimulation of B cells (i.e., through certain cytokines) to divide (clonal expansion) and mature into antibody producing plasma cells generally is provided by:

TH2 and Tfh cells.

Pregnant women may receive any licensed inactivated or subunit influenza vaccine.

TRUE

Relenza (zanamivir) and Tamiflu (oscltamivir phosphate) are antiviral medications used to treat flu symptoms caused by influenza virus in patients who have had symptoms for less than 2 days. Relenza and Tamiflu may also be given to prevent influenza in people who may be exposed but do not yet have symptoms.

TRUE

The 2017-18 influenza season was a high severity, A(H3N2)-predominant season. Influenza activity indicators were notable for the volume and intensity of influenza cases that occurred in most of the country at the same time. Record hospitalization rates and high numbers of influenza-associated pediatric deaths also were reported.

TRUE

Which of the following is false concerning the Acid Fast Stain?

TRUE- Mycoplasma species have a high content of waxy lipids in their cell wall, thus AFBs. TRUE-The waxy lipids in the wall of AFBs make them difficult to stain. TRUE-Heat is used to drive carbol fuchsin (red dye) into cells- everything stained red. TRUE-After washing, acid alcohol is used to destain everything but AFBs, followed by counterstaining with methylene blue (everything blue except red AFBs). (ALL ARE TRUE)

which of the following is false about exotoxins

They are more resistant than endotoxin to heat and other forms of denaturation

These cells may shut down T-cell immunity at the end of immune responses and suppress auto-reactive T cells that may have escaped selection helping to prevent mounting responses against "self":

Treg cells.

Which of the following is false concerning Herpes simple virus (HSV) 1 and 2 infection?

True-Cold sores are caused by HSV-1 and up to 90% are infected by older ages. True-HSV-1 remains latent in the trigeminal nerve ganglia with recurrences with stress, illness, etc True- Genital herpes is generally caused by HSV-2 and about 1 in 5 in the US are infected. True-HSV-2 remains latent in sacral nerve ganglia with recurrences with stress, illness, etc. NONE OF ABOVE ARE FALSE

Which of the following hypersensitive is antibody independent?

Type IV

Which of the following is false concerning viral replication?

With a single stranded - (negative) strand RNA virus, the viral genome can act directly as an mRNA.

Concerning "Ancient biotechnology" which of the following is false?

[A] (FALSE) Depends on the activities of the yeast Candida albicans. B (TRUE) Has been practiced for thousands of years. C (TRUE) Lactic acid bacteria are used in cheese and yogurt production, sauerkraut, pickles and production of dry and semidry sausages. D (TRUE) Wine and bread making E All of the above are true.

Which protein mediated transport process does not require expenditure of energy?

[A] CORECT CHOICE Facilitated diffusion. B Group Translocation. C ABC transporters. D Symport using a proton gradient. E Antiport using a proton gradient.

Concerning the antigens of Gram negative bacteria (e.g., E. coli), which of the following is false?

[A] FALSE H antigens are pili (fimbrial) antigens. B O antigens are associated with the wall. C H antigens are flagellar antigens. D K antigens are capsule antigens. E Capsules are often polysaccharide

Which of the following is false concerning the association of autism and vaccines in the 1998 Lancet article of Wakefield, et al.?

[A] FALSE Of the 13 original authors including Andrew Wakefield, all but one (i.e., 12) continue to support the findings that vaccines cause autism. B The paper was withdrawn by the journal Lancet. C Certain prominent celebrities support the association. D The primary author (Wakefiel) had his license to practice medicine revoked. E Based on this paper and Wakefield's interviews, the tabloid press went wild in their coverage of this revelation with many parents globally refusing to vaccinate their children.

Concerning infections, which of the following is false?

[A] FALSE Staphylococcus epidermidis causes 10-20% of UTIs in young women. B Staphylococcus epidermidis is a CONS. C UPEC attach to the bladder by Type I fimbriae and to kidney by P fimbriae producing cystitis and pyelonephritis. D Bordatella pertussis adhesins attach to ciliated epithelial cells. E Mycoplasma pneumoniae adheres to respiratory epithelium and produces atypical or walking pneumonia.

Which of the following is false concerning cytotoxic T/Tc or cytotoxic T lymphocyte cells?

[A] FALSE They are CD4+ B They recognize peptides that are bound to MHC I proteins. C They release perforin which makes pores in membranes. D Granzymes pass through pores and activate pathways (enzymes) responsible for apoptosis and cell death. E They can kill cancer cells and virus infected cells.

Which is false concerning how enzymes speed up reactions?

[A] FALSE raising activation energy. B bringing reactants close together. C putting the reactants in the proper orientation for the reaction to occur D creating a microenvironment facilitating the reaction. E all of the above are true.

Which of the following is is not true of characteristics of necrotizing fasciitis

[A] false Hyperbaric oxygen is not recommended for treatment as it promotes microbial growth b Predisposition factors include smoking, alcoholism, diabetes, obesity, chronic liver kidney disease, peripheral artery disease, malignancy, and other severe immunosuppressive conditions, and open wound exposed to dirty water, pool water or seawater c in absence of early treatment (surgery and combined antibiotics) the risk of death can approach 100% D amputation my be required

Which of the following is not true of characteristics of necrotizing fasciitis?

a Rapid progression to shock despite antibiotic therapy is another indication of necrotizing fasciitis [b] false commonly seen on the chest, less common on the extremities c can result from streptococcus pyogenes (GAS) pharyngitis (strep throat) d necrotizing changes affecting the groin are known as fournier gangrene

Which of the following is not true of necrotizing fasciitis?

a so called "flesh eating disease" with necrosis (death) of soft tissue b sudden onset, rapid spread [C] false Easily treatable with appropriate antibiotic determined after isolation of agent d severe pain, inflammation, fever, tissue becomes progressively swollen, discolored, with blisters (bullae)

which of the following is not true of causes of necrotizing fasciitis

a vibrio vulnificus from exposure to sea water b Streptococcus pyogenes (group A strep) alone or in combination with Staphylococcus aureus (and MRSA) c mixture of bacteria types at sites of gut penetration, abscess, surgery or trauma. d clostridium perfringes gas gangrene (clostridium myonecrosis) [E] TRUE all of the above are true

which of the following is false concerning the net atp yeild/ glucos

a. 2 in kreb b. 34 in electron transport c. 2 in ferm d. 2 in glycolyis [E.] all are true

Which of the following is false concerning the STDs chlamydia, gonorrhea and syphilis?

a.) They are on the rise in the US with the greates # of combined reported cases ever b.) Symptoms of routine chlamydial/gonococcal infectious in males/females are similar. c.) FALSE Babies are infected in utero with all three and are born with the disease. d.) Syphilis occurs in 3 stages primary (chancre), secondary (maculopapular rash), tertiary (dementia, aortic aneurisms, destructive gummas) and has to be treated before tertiary stage. e.) All of the above are true of these STDs.

which of the following is false concerning EHEC (STEC)

adhere to microvilli of enterocytes??

oxygen serves as the final electron acceptor in

aerobic respiration

which of the following is false concerning immunoglobulin IgM

all are true

which of the following is false concerning rickettsias

all are true

which of the following is not a true entry of agents causing necrotizing fasciitis

all are true

which of the following is false concerning viruses

all are ture

which of the following is false concerning mycobacterium tuberculosis

all of the above

Which of the following is not a symptom of both chlamydia and gonnorrhoeae

all of the above are symptoms common to both diseases

false concerning Candida albicans

all of the above are true

which is false about streptococcus pneumoniae

all of the above are true

which of the following is false concerning IgE and immunity

all of the above are true

membrane and he[a filtration are used to sterilize liquids and air respectively

answer is not known

which of the following is mismatched concerning

antivirals :: aminoglycopeptides, macrolides

which is not true of necrotizing fasciitis

commonly seen on the chest, less commonly on extremities [FALSE]

Which microscope is best used to rapidly observe the agent of syphilis in a wet mount aspirate of a chancre?

darkfield microscope

which of the following is false concerning syphilis

diagnosis is by cultivation on appropriate selective media

Which microscope type would be best used to rapidly and specifically identify a particular microbe in a mixed microbial specimen on a slide?

direct fluorescent antibody microscopy

The primary mechanism of drug resistance due to drug-resistance plasmids is:

enzymatic alteration (inactivation) of the drug.

In the growth curve of a bacterial population, the bacteria are most susceptible to antibiotics and other inhibitors in the

exponential (log) phase.

"Twitching motility" involves:

extension and retraction of pili (fimbriae).

which of the following is false concerning infections

helicobacter and campylobacter are obligate anaerobes

Which of the following is false concerning viral replication?

in the uncoating step of viruses, there is enzymatic removal of capsid proteins and the capsid outside of animal cells prior to entry of animal virus nucleic acid by injection.

which of the following is the specific mode of action of diphtheria toxin and endotoxin A of Pseudomonas aeruginosa

inactivation of elongation factor EF2

which of the following is the specific mode of action of shiga toxin

inactivation of the 60s ribosomal subunit, bloody colitis and HUS

Concerning protozoans and helminthes, which of the following is not true?

A Ingestion of the eggs of the pork tapeworm can cause systemic spread (cystercercosis) of the pathogen to the brain. [B] FALSE Enterobius vemicularis is the giant intestinal roundworm associated with obstruction of the gut and bile ducts with "worm balls." C Trichomonas is a protozoan that is responsible for vaginitis that generally is a STD. D The practice of winding the "Guinea worm" Dracunculus medinensis on a stick for removal from cutaneous lesions was probably responsible for the symbol (Caduceus) of the medical profession. E Giardia is a common cause of water-borne outbreaks of diarrhea and Cryptosporidium caused a huge outbreak of water-borne diarrheas in Milwalkee involving about ½ million people.

Which of the following is false concerning the net ATP (ATP equivalent) yield/glucose?

A It is 2 in the Kreb's cycle. B It is 34 in the electron transport system + oxidative phosphorylation processes in bacteria. [C] FALSE It is 4 in fermentation. D It is 2 in glycolysis. E All of the above are true.

XII Which of the following is false concerning Gambierdiscus toxicus?

A It is a toxic dinoflagellate. (B) CORECT CHOICE It causes Cigar poisoning, so common in Cuba. C It produces unusual sensations such as itching skin, aching teeth, numbness of mouth and lips, reversal of hot-cold sensations, etc. D Symptoms may last for days, weeks, or months+. E All of the above are true.

XII Which of the following is false concerning Shistosoma mansoni?

A It is a trematode. B It is called the "blood fluke" and "master of disquise". C It confuses host defenses by acquisition of a mask of host antigens soon after it penetrates; adult female & male worms may consequently die of old age. D Liver damage is due to granulomas around eggs which, unlike the worms, are recognized as foreign. (E) CORECT CHOICE All of the above are true.

XIII Which of the following is false concerning Streptococcus pyogenes?

A It is the Group A strep (GAS) B Causes impetigo, erysipelas, cellulitis, scarlet fever and necrotizing fasciitis C Catalase negative and Beta hemolytic D Has about 100 different M proteins that are anti-phagocytic and aid in adhesion; thus the possibility for multiple "strep throat" infections. E) CORECT CHOICE None of the above is false.

Which of the following is not true of horizontal gene transfer (HGT)?

A It is the primary reason for antimicrobial drug resistance. B Transformation is the uptake of free DNA by competent bacteria using Type IV pili. C Generalized transducing phages come from virulent phages as a "packaging error," whereas specialized transducing phages come from temperate phages when the prophage becomes imperfectly detached pulling an adjacent gene. [D] FALSE Transformation in animal cells is the uptake of free DNA. E In F+ X F- matings the F- becomes F+ because a copy of the fertility plasmid is passed, whereas in Hfr X F- matings the F- remains F- but copies of chromosomal genes are passed.

Which of the following is false concerning treatment of the following infections?

A Ivemectin is used to treat head lice, scabies, and "river blindness" due to a nematode. [B] FALSE Niclosamide is used to effectively treat pinworms and roundworms. C Metronidazole (Flagyl) is used to treat giardiasis, trichomoniasis, amoebic dysentery and certain anaerobic bacterial infections. D Praziquantel is used in treatment of schistosomiasis and infections with the liver fluke. E Chloroquine and Primaquine are used to treat malaria.

XIII Which of the following is false concerning the following food-borne pathogens?

A Listeria monocytogenes can kill a developing fetus (or both mother and fetus) when the mother consumes unpasteurized dairy products. B) CORECT CHOICE Vibrio parahemolyticus produces severe skin lesions, enteritis and death. C Yersinia enterocolitica is a food-borne pathogen producing symptoms of appendicitis. D Most Salmonella enterica serovars produce enterocolitis (gastroenteritis). E Q fever caused by Coxiella burnetii, a select agent, can be acquired from ingestion of unpasteurized milk and dairy products.

XII Which of the following is false concerning protozoans?

A Naegleria foweleri are free-living "brain eating amoeba" with very high fatality rates, and Acanthamoeba can infect the cornea producing blindness. B Malarial parasites belong to the genus Plasmodium and are transmitted by the female Anopheles mosquito. C) CORECT CHOICE Trypanasoma brucei causes Chaga's disease which is transmitted by the sand fly. D Pregnant females should always avoid the cat litter box to prevent congenital infection of their developing fetus and consequent birth defects due to Toxoplasma gondii. E Cryptosporidium produces a diarrhea that is self-limited in individuals with normal host defenses, but prolonged and severe in AIDS

Which of the following is false concerning pathogenic bacteria?

A Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a Gram - diplococcus causing acute urethritis in males, PID in females, and opthalmia neonatorum in the eyes of newborns. B Bacteroides fragilis is an obligate anaerobic G- rod, a very common component of the gut microbiota, but causes mixed infections (e.g., with facultatively anaerobic E. coli that uses up available oxygen in aerobic metabolism making conditions suitable for the growth of the obligate anaerobe) if displaced (gut injury, appendicitis, etc.) into the peritoneum. C Failure to treat Streptococcus pyogenes pharyngitis can lead to the serious sequelae of rheumatic fever or acute glomerulonephritis (AGN). [D] FALSE Most chlamydial and gonococcal infections in females are symptomatic (they have symptoms). E There is concern about drug resistance in the gonococcus, such that the CDC now recommends dual therapy with i.m. Ceftriaxone and oral Azithromycin for treatment of gonorrhea.

XIII Which of the following is false regarding the cyanobacteria?

A Nitrogen fixing forms have the simplest nutritional requirements. B They are the relatives of chloroplasts. C) CORCET CHOICE They have a less complete metabolism than spirochetes of syphilis (Treponema pallidum) which can't be grown in vitro. D Produce oxygen and previously called "blue green algae." E They may form symbiotic associations with fungi called lichens.

Which of the following is not an innate defense mechanism associated with the respiratory tract:

A Nose hairs, nasal and pharyngeal mucus. B Mucociliary escalator. [C] FALSE Secretory IgA against different pneumococcal polysaccharides in a vaccine. D Alveolar macrophages. E All of the above are innate defense mechanisms.

XII Concerning dinoflagellates, which of the following is false?

A One particularly bad dinoflagellate causes skin ulcers and hemorrhages. (B) CORECT CHOICE Red dinoflagellates are the source of agar for bacteriological media. C Consumption of fish or shellfish that have ingested dinoflagellates often produces neurological effects. D They are responsible for dense blooms called red tides. E Symptoms may occur other than by ingestion (such as respiratory effects from walking along a heavily contaminated beach).

Results of antigen-antibody binding include all of the following except:

A Opsonization. B Neutralization. [C] FALSE Lysis (MAC) via activation by IgG and IgM of Complement in all 3 pathways (Classical, Alternate and MBL Pathways) of complement activation. D Agglutination. E Antibody dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity.

Comparing aerobic respiration (AR) with photosynthesis (P) as carried out by a cyanobacterium, which of the following is false?

A P makes oxygen, AR consumes oxygen B AR makes water, P splits water [C] FALSE AR reduces carbon, P oxidizes carbon D P uses NADP, AR uses NAD E All of the above are true

Which of the following statements about phagocytosis is false?

A Phagocytes move toward an area of infection by a process termed chemotaxis. B The vacuole in which the engulfed microbe is exposed to hydrolytic degradative enzymes is called a phagolysosome. [C] FALSE Macrophages are more numerous than neutrophiles, arrive first and die after phagocytosing bacteria. D Phagocytes have receptors that recognize complement protein bound to bacteria. E Phagocytes have receptors that recognize antibody bound to bacteria.

Concerning obligate anaerobes, which of the following is false?

A Poisoned by oxygen in the air. B Can be grown in a GasPak. C Lack catalase and superoxide dismutase. [D] FLASE Can be grown in a candle jar. E Best grown in an anaerobic glove box.

Which of the following is false concerning viruses?

A Polio virus is transmitted by the fecal oral route and can result in paralysis. B Rotavirus is one of the most common causes of gastroenteritis. C Cold sore virus (HSV1) and genital herpes virus (HSV2) produce latent infections. D Post-exposure immunization with rabies vaccine works because of the "window" between replication starting at the bite site and spread to the brain. [E] FALSE All of the above are true.

Which of the following is not a capsular vaccine?

A Prevnar and Pneumovax [B] FALSE DTaP C Hemophilus influenzae type b D Meningococcal E All of the above are capsular vaccines.

Which of the following is false concerning Bacillus anthrasis?

A Protein capsule and anthrax toxin [B] FALSE No vaccine C Cutaneous anthrax ("black eschar") D Pulmonary anthrax ("woolsorter's disease") E Select agent

XIII Which of the following is false concerning the following microbial pathogens?

A Proteus mirabilis exhibts "swarming" motility and causes renal infection stones as a result of strong urease production (B) CORECT CHOICE Haemophilus ducreyi causes "pink eye." C Pseudomonas aeruginosa infects wounds and burns producing "blue pus" and serious respiratory infections in cystic fibrosis patients. D Haemophilus influenzae is a fastidious pathogen requiring X and V factors and producing meningitis in unvaccinated children. E Klebsiella pneumoniae is a nonmotile, slime-forming coliform that can produce severe pneumonia, as well as urinary tract infections.

Which of the following is false concerning Biosafety Levels?

A Requirements for facilities increase from BSL-1 to BSL-4. B PPE increases from BSL-1 to BSL-4. C BSL-4 agents have no vaccines and treatments and include Ebola and Marburg viruses. [D] FALSE BSL-3 agents include Vibrio cholerae, Corynebacterium diphtheriae & Borrelia burdorferi. E all of the above are true.

Which of the following is false concerning viral vaccines?

A Rubella (German measles) protects those "yet to be born" against congential defects from infection of pregnant females. B MMP is attenuated ('live") vaccine. C The first vaccine for rabies was developed by Pasteur. D Rotavirus vaccine protects against a common cause of diarrhea and death in children. [E] CORECT CHICE All of the above are true.

XII Which of the following is false concerning fungi?

A Saccharomyces cerevisiae is the bread, beer and wine yeast. B Truffels, used in gourmet cooking, are subterranean mushrooms. C The organism Coccidiodes immitis responsible for "dessert rheumatism" is geographically located in the Southwestern (CA, NM, AZ, west TX) USA. (D)CORECT CHOICE "Cave" or "Spelunker's" disease from soil enriched in bat droppings is due to Aspergillosis flavus. E Cryptococcus neoformans, as well as TB, are major causes of death in AIDS

Which of the following is false concerning Salmonella and Shigella.

A Salmonella Typhi causes typhoid fever with serious systemic spread. B There is a capsule and an attenuated live vaccine for typhoid fever. C Shigella cause bacillary dysentery. [D] FALSE Shigella are HS + and motile, Salmonella are HS - and nonmotile. E Shigella dysenteriae produces the most severe form of shigellosis and may lead to HUS and kidney damage due to production of Shiga toxin.

XII Which of the following is false concerning fungi?

A Sexual (nature of sexual stage can be used to divide into groups) and asexual fungal spores are propagules. B Most antifungals target ergosterol in the fungal membrane. C Septate or non-septate hypha. (D) correct choice Most serious systemic fungal infections are acquired from people. E Walls composed of glucans, mannans and chitin.

XIV Which of the following is false concerning chickenpox?

A Shingles is a consequence of being infected earlier in life with chickenpox. B Chickenpox is caused by Varicella zoster virus, a Herpes virus. C Following chickenpox the virus remains latent in nerves of the dorsal root ganglion. D) CORECT CHOICE Reactivation of the virus occurs with age and a weakened immune system, with lesions (shingles) exactly like the original chickenpox lesions. E Prevention of chickenpox is with a "live" attenuated vaccine and symptoms of shingles can be modulated with adult Shingles vaccine.

Which of the following is false concerning the elemental requirements of bacteria?

A Some bacteria, but not eukaryotes, can utilize (and "fix") atmospheric nitrogen gas. B Molybdenum is a component of nitrogenase in nitrogen fixation. [C] THIS ONE All bacteria require sodium and calcium as major nutrients. D Trace elements are required for the proper activity of many enzymes. E Manganese is a component of superoxide dismutase.

XIV Concerning enzymes found in viruses, which of the following is false?

A Some bacteriophages have lysozyme, which aids in penetration of the peptidoglycan. B) CORCET CHOICE Viruses commonly have enzymes for at least some metabolic pathways, such as glycolysis. C Retroviruses have reverse transcriptase which allows DNA to be made on an RNA template, integrase for insertion as a pro-virus, and protease. D Neuraminidase is an enzyme associated with influenza virus. E All of the above are true.

XIV Which of the following is false concerning bacteriophages?

A Some of them are temperate, others are virulent (lytic) B) CORECT CHOICE A transducing bacteriophage has only the phage genome in its capsid. C They are bacterial viruses. D Temperate viral genomes may integrate into the chromosome as a prophage and give a bacterium new properties such as production of an exotoxin. E They are associated with the genetic exchange mechanism called transduction.

Which of the following is false concerning PRRs, the pathogen recognition system of phagocytes?

A Some recognize DAMPs associated with cell damage. [B] FALSE NOD-like and Rig-like receptors are located on the surface of phagocytes to detect pathogens before the cell membrane is ever breached. C Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) is bound by a TLR (TLR-4) setting into play signaling pathways leading to proinflammatory cytokine production. D Proinflammatory cytokiones include IL-1, IL-6 and TNFα. E Different TLRs detect various microbial components (flagellin, peptidoglycan, etc.).

Concerning Domain Bacteria bacterial cell walls, which of the following is false?

A The G- wall consists of thin peptidoglycan with an outer membrane. [B] FALSE Both the G- and G+ walls contain lipopolysaccharide (LPS). C The G+ consists of a thick 3-D peptidoglycan with teichoic and lipoteichoic acids. D G- bacteria have "whiskers" called "O" antigens. E Differences in wall structure are responsible for the differential Gram staining.

Which of the following is false concerning microbial pathogenesis?

A The Type 3 Secretion System (T3SS) is a syringe-like injectisome. [B] FALSE Staphylokinase and DNase enzymes stop (prevent) spread of Staphylococcus aureus. C In rheumatic fever, heart and valve cells coated with antibody are attacked by NK cells (ADCC) and through the MAC of classical complement activation. D UPEC that cause urinary tract infections have special adhesins (e.g., Type 1 and P fimbriae/pili). E In acute glomerulonephritis, antigen-antibody complexes are deposited in nephrons.

XII Concerning helminthes, which of the following is false?

A The symbol of the medical profession, the Caduceus, may have come from the practice of winding Dracunculus medinensis (Guinea worm) on a stick to extract it from the skin ulcers produced by the worm. B Consumption of the eggs of the pork tapeworm Taenia solium can cause systemic spread (cystercercosis) of resulting larva to the brain & other organs. C Certain nematodes (Wucheria bancrofti) may produce larval forms, following injection by a mosquito, that may grow in and block lymphatics leading to elephantiasis. D) CORECT CHOICE Ascaris lumbricoides the hookworm can cause cognitive /growth retardation. E Diphyllobothrium latum the broad fish tapeworm is destroyed by freezing.

Which of the following false concerning aerobic respiration of one glucose molecule?

A There are 3 proton pumping steps for each NAD reduced with 3 ATPs made for each in OP. [B] FALSE CO_2 is produced in glycolysis, the transition (intermediate) step of Kreb's cycle and in the Kreb's cycle. C The number of FAD reduced produced are glycolysis-0, the transition (intermediate) step-0 in the Kreb's cycle-2. D There are 2 proton pumping steps for each FAD reduced with 2 ATPs made for each in OP. E The number of NAD reduced produced are glycolysis-2, the transition (intermediate) step-2 in the Kreb's cycle-6.

Which of the following is false concerning helper T (TH) cells?

A They are CD4+ B They recognize peptides that are bound to MHC II proteins. C TH cells can participate in humoral immunity. D TH cells can provide a helper function in cell-mediated immunity. [E] CORECT CHOICE All of the above are true

Which of the following is not true of plasmids?

A They are circular DNA molecules. [B] FALSE They are dependent on the bacterial chromosome for replication. C Some are conjugative (allow conjugation to occur). D They give bacteria new properties. E They may carry genes for new metabolic activities, for drug resistance, and for toxins and adhesins.

Which of the following is true of prions?

A They are destroyed by most proteases. B They are destroyed by antiseptics and disinfectants. [C] FALSE Abnormal prion protein involves a change from alpha helical to beta pleated sheet. D They are destroyed by boiling. E They are commonly diagnosed by antibody and cell mediated immune responses.

Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally FALSE?

A They are more potent than endotoxins. B They are composed of proteins. [C] FALSE They are resistant to heat and other forms of denaturation. D They have specific methods of action. E They may be produced by Gram+ & Gram- bacteria.

Concerning, pathogenic vibrios, which of the following is false?

A They can be selectively isolated on TCBS agar which has high pH and bile. B They are Gram - and comma shaped with polar flagella. C Vibrio cholerae causes an acute explosive diarrhea due to cholera toxin which acts like LT of ETEC. D The mortality rate was markedly reduced with the introduction of oral rehydration therapy with balanced electrolytes and sugar. [E] FALSE All of the above are true.

XIV Concerning recently discovered huge viruses, which of the following is false?

A They don't fit the original description of viruses as "filterable infectious agents." B Pithovirus sibericum, a huge virus, was recently isolated from 34,000 year old Siberian permafrost. C They have huge genomes, larger than some bacteria. The Pandora virus has an unusually large number (~2,500) of genes. D) CORECT CHOICE Enveloped viruses also have unusually large viral genomes (>500 genes), like influenza virus to code for the many different HA and N antigens that they may produce, although not the size of the megaviruses. E Mimivirus ("microbe mimicking") was originally thought to be a bacterium until examined under the TEM.

Which is false concerning the cephalosporins?

A They inhibit transpeptidation (cross-linking) of peptidoglycan. B The different generations have different spectrums of activity. C First generation cephalosporins were primarily active against G+ (plus limited G- activity). [D] FALSE They include chloramphenicol, cefoxitin, ciprofloxacin, and ceftriaxone. E All are true.

XIV All of the following are true of prions except:

A They produce "mad cow" disease and scrapie. B They are concentrated in tissues of the central (and enteric) nervous system. C A prion disease in humans resulted from cannibalism. D) CORECT CHOICE Prion diseases of animals are not transmissible to humans. E Prions are difficult to inactivate by conventional chemical/physical means.

XIV Which of the following is false concerning prions.

A They produce spongioform encephalopathies ("holes" in the brain). B They have long incubation periods. C) CORECT CHOICE Because they are proteins, they are destroyed by proteases, disinfectants, and autoclaving at 121C 15 min. D Symptoms are loss of muscle control, tremors, dementia, and death. E Abnormal prion protein involves a change from alpha helical to beta pleated sheet.

Which of the following is false of the spirochetes?

A Treponema, Borrelia, Leptospira B Flexible wall [C] FALSE Motile by external flagella D Axial filaments E All of the above are true

XIII Which of the following is false concerning the Archaea?

A Unusual membranes with branched chained isoprene polymers with ether linkages to glycerol. B They, like eukaryotes, have EF-2 and their cell free systems are susceptible to diphtheria toxin C Methanogens, halophiles, thermophiles and cold-dwelling D No established pathogens. E) CORECT CHOICE None of the above is false.

Which of the following is false regarding vaccines for Streptoccus pneumoniae and pneumonia?

A Vaccines are isolated polysccharides (e.g., PV13, PV23). B Conjugated with protein for children (Prevnar) and in Adult Prevnar. C They induce oposonizing antibodies that will coat invading pneumococci of the same types as in the vaccine. [D] FALSE The vaccine may produce pneumococcal pneumonia in some recipients. E Opsonins coat microbes facilitating phagocytosis (via Fc receptors) and destruction.

Which of the following statements about viruses is not true?

A Viruses contain either ds or ss DNA or RNA B The nucleic acid is surrounded by a protein coat (capsid) composed of capsomeres. [C] FALSE Viruses multiply inside living cells using their own viral ribosomes, mRNA, and tRNAs. D Some viruses are enveloped, some are helical, polyhedral, or complex in morphology. E Some viruses have enzymes.

Ways by which pathogens may antagonize host defenses include all of the following except:

A acquiring a mask of host antigens after penetrating the host (e.g., schistosomes). B antigenic heterogeneity (e.g., multiple O, K, and H antigens as in E. coli). C capsules which are antiphagocytic. D antigenic variation (like trypanosomes) during infection in a host. [E] FALSE all of the above are ways pathogens antagonize host defences.

All of these result directly from the activation of complement except:

A chemotaxin (C5a) that attracts phagocytic cells B byproducts (C3a &C5a) that elicit an inflammatory response [C] FALSE antibody synthesis D a membrane attack complex (MAC) that can lyse bacteria E opsonin production that promotes phagocytosis

C3b is involved in

A enhancement of phagocytes by opsonization.

XIII All of the following are true of mycobacteria except:

A have a high content of lipids and waxes in the wall and thus acid fast. B produce granulomas in affected tissues. C M. bovis is a cause of TB, associated with unpasteurized milk. D perhaps 1/3 of the world population is infected with M. tuberculosis. (E) CORECT CHOICE all of the above are true.

XIV All of the following are true about viruses except:

A have icosahedral (spherical), helical, and complex morphologies. B have a protein capsid composed of capsomeres. C) CORECT CHOICE they are single-celled organisms. D may have a phospholipid envelope. E a single virus is called a virion.

XIV Which of the following is false concerning viroids?

A low molecular weight naked RNA B infectious nucleic acid C) CORECT CHOICE infect plants and the animals that eat them D some have catalytic ability E all of the above are true

An ideal antimicrobial against agent X would meet all of the following criteria except:

A narrow spectrum of activity (acts against X, but not normal microbiota). B cidal rather than static. C selective toxicity (high therapeutic index). D lack of drug resistance. [E] FALSE broad spectrum killing many organisms including normal microbiota.

Toll-like receptors are likely to be triggered by all of the following except?

A peptidoglycan and flagellin [B] FALSE glycolysis and Krebs (TCA cycle) intermediates C LPS and LTA (lipoteichoic acid) D bacterial and viral nucleic acids E mycoplasmal components.

Which of the following characteristics of the 3 domains of living things (which all have the characteristic) exclude viruses, viroids and prions?

A proteins [B] CORECT CHOICE ribosomes C mitochondria D nucleic acid E mitosis

Which of the following is false concerning the Calvin Benson Cycle

A utilizes both NADPH and ATP. B requires ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase. C is responsible for the fixation of carbon dioxide. [D] FALSE oxidizes carbons. E all of the above are true.

In the argument about spontaneous generation, what always was the argument of the believers against those who tried to disprove it?

A (FALSE) they are too small to come from other living things B (FALSE) microbes can't have parents because they can't have sex C (FALSE) there are no male and female microbes [D] (TRUE) the experiments against spontaneous generation altered the vital forces in air required for life E (FALSE) microbes are not multicellular

The normal (indigenous) microbiota of an animal body does all of the following except:

A (TRUE) Antagonizes pathogens. B (TRUE) Helps in training and development of the host immune system. C (TRUE) Contributes to nutrition and normal physiology. D (TRUE) Contributes to normal anatomy. E (CORECT CHOICE) The indigenous microbiota does all of the above.

All of the following are true of Louis Pasteur except:

A (TRUE) Contributed to development of the "germ theory of disease." B (TRUE) Developed "Pasteurization." C (TRUE) Studies of fermentations and anaerobic life. D (TRUE) First to develop multiple ways to make pathogens into vaccines. E (CORECT CHOICE) All of the above are true.

Comparing bacterial exotoxins and endotoxins, which of the following is false?

A (TRUE) Exotoxins are more potent (lower LD) than endotoxins. [B] (FALSE) Both exotoxins and endotoxins have been converted to toxoids and both exo- and endo-toxin toxoids are commonly used today for vaccines. C (TRUE) Exotoxins are proteins. D (TRUE) Endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides (LPS). E (TRUE) Endotoxins only G-, whereas exotoxins may be produced by G+ & G- bacteria.

Which statement is false about membrane transport processes?

A (TRUE) Group translocation is a method of sugar transport in bacteria. B (TRUE) The phosphotransferase system phosphorylates sugars as they cross the membrane from outside to inside in group translocation. C (TRUE) The major facilitator superfamily uses proton gradients as the source of energy. D (TRUE) ABC transporters use ATP as the source of energy. E (CORECT CHOICE) All of the above are true.

Concerning fungi, which of the following is false?

A (TRUE) Include single cell yeasts, "hairy" molds, and "fleshy" fungi (e.g., mushrooms). B (TRUE) Dermatophytes (Microsporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton) cause infections of skin, nails and hair. C (TRUE) Different tineas refer to the locations of different dermatophytic infections. D (TRUE) Yeast infections include Candida albicans oral and vaginal "thrush." E (CORECT CHOICE) All of the above are true.

Concerning "Industrial Microbiology" Biotechnology, which of the following is false?

A (TRUE) Involves large scale "fermenters" (bioreactors) with special control of microbial growth parameters. B (TRUE) Microbes creating industrial products in mass quantities. C (TRUE) Production of antibiotics by microbes. D (TRUE) Using microorganisms to synthesis vitamins, amino acids and organic solvents. E (CORECT CHOICE) All of the above are true.

What is false concerning iron as a nutrient?

A (TRUE) It is abundant, but often not in a form easily utilized by bacteria, so they "go shopping" for it with siderophores (hydroxamates and phenolates). B (TRUE) In the body, siderophores steal iron from iron-binding proteins transferrin & lactoferrin. C (TRUE) Another mechanism to steal iron from the host is hemolysins which break RBCs releasing hemoglobin (iron containing oxygen transporter of vertebrates). D (TRUE) Bacteria (like us) require iron for catalase and cytochromes. E (CORECT ANSWER CHOICE) All of the above are true of iron.

Which of the following molecules are not associated with cell walls of bacteria?

A (TRUE) N-acetyl muramic acid B (TRUE) D-form amino acids C (TRUE) L-form amino acids D (TRUE) N-acetyl glucosamine E (CORECT CHOICE) all of the above are associated.

Concerning helminthes, which of the following is false?

A (TRUE) Nematodes have a body cavity, digestive tube ending in anus, males and females. B (TRUE) Cestodes have no body cavity, no digestive tube, and are hermaphroditic. C (TRUE) They are all chemoheterotrophs. D (TRUE) Trematodes have no body cavity, have digestive tract ending in cecum. E (CORECT CHOICE) None of the above is false.

Concerning "New Biotechnology", which of the following is false?

A (TRUE) New Biotechnology is also called genetic engineering. B (TRUE) Facilitated by restriction endonucleases, PCR and other microbiological "tools." C (FLASE) Commonly uses the bacterium Escherichia coli and the yeast Candida albicans to produce useful gene products. D (TRUE) Human insulin, blood clotting factors (for hemophilia), etc. are produced by microbes. E All of the above are true.

Concerning bacterial defenses against bacterial viruses, which of the following is false?

A (TRUE) Restriction-Modification systems provide a mechanism analogous to an innate defense. B (TRUE) Bacteria have many restriction enzymes (also used in recombinant DNA technology) that recognize and cut specific nucleotide sequences of incoming phage DNA; Modification enzymes methylate bacterial (host) sequences normally recognized by restriction enzymes and protect the bacterial DNA. C (TRUE) CRISPR system provides a mechanism somewhat analogous to an adaptive response. D (TRUE) Incoming phage DNA is cut into fragments by Cas protein and short phage spacer DNA segments are inserted into CRISPR array on the host DNA providing a record. The surviving bacterium transcribes the CRISPR array and after RNA processing the different crRNAs complex with Cas protein and newly invading phage DNA, if recognized, is inactivated by the Cas-crRNA complex. E (CORECT ANSWER CHOICE) All of the above are true

Which of the following false concerning fungi?

A (TRUE) Sexual and asexual spores. B (TRUE) Most antifungals target ergosterol in the fungal membrane. C (TRUE) septate or non-septate hypha. D (FALSE) most systemic fungal infections are acquired from people. E (TRUE) fungal spores are propagules for spread & reproduction.

Which of the following is false concerning the cyanobacteria?

A (TRUE) Single and multicellular forms. B (TRUE) Major producers of oxygen. [C] (FALSE) They are algae. D (TRUE) Chloroplasts were derived from their relatives. E (TRUE) Some are nitrogen fixing with the simplest nutritional requirement of organisms.

Which of the following is false concerning the detrimental effects of microbes?

A (TRUE) TB was the second major cause (after #1 pneumonia and influenza) of death at the start of the 20 century. [B] (FALSE) TB is no longer an important or significant worldwide cause of disease and death. C (TRUE) Influenza (the "Spanish flu") in 1918 killed more than 1million in the US and greater than 50 million worldwide. D (TRUE) Almost ½ of children <10 years of age died of infectious diseases prior to the 20 century. E (TRUE) Plague destroyed more than 50% of the European population in the 14 century.

Which of the following is false concerning NASA's interest in a possibility of Martian life?

A (TRUE) The interest was originally sparked by internal features of meteorite ALH 84001(the oldest of about 50 known mars-derived meteorites). B (TRUE) These features included bacterial fossil-like structures, complex organics, and magnetite structures like that produced by magnetotactic bacteria on earth. C (TRUE) NASA recently announced discovery of organics in >3 billion y/o "mudstone." D (TRUE) They also reported "seasonal" spikes in methane above the ancient crater lake-bed. E (CORECT CHOICE) All of the above are true.

Examples of innate host defenses are all of the following except:

A (TRUE) The muco-ciliary escalator. [B] (FLASE) Cytotoxic and Helper T cells. C (TRUE) Phagocytic cells such as neutrophils and macrophages. D (TRUE) Intact skin and mucous membranes. E (TRUE) The normal microbiota.

Which of the following is false concerning the unique properties of microbes?

A (TRUE) The oldest fossils are microbes. B (FALSE) The smallest living cells are viruses. C (TRUE) Bacteria may be chemoheterotrophs, photoheterotrophs, photoautotrophs, or chemolithoautotrophs. D (TRUE) The oldest living organisms are certain microbes. E All of the above are true.

Which is false concerning microbes?

A (TRUE) They are found at extremes of temperatures, pH, and high concentrations of salt. B (TRUE) In deep drillings into the earth and high altitudes above earth. C (TRUE) They produce fuels (e.g., methane and ethanol) D (TRUE) They produce recombinant human proteins and vaccines. E (CORECT CHOICE) All of the above are true of microbes.

Which of the following is false concerning biofilms?

A (TRUE) They are polymer encased communities of microorganisms growing together. B (TRUE) They are more susceptible to host defenses and antimicrobials because the microbes are together rather than spread out. C (TRUE) Dental plaque is an example of a complex biofilm. D (TRUE) Biofilms would also be important in industry where their accumulation in pipes, drains, etc., could interfere with processes and damage equipment. E (CORRECT ANSWER CHOICE) All of the above are true.

Which of the following is false concerning bacterial endospores?

A (TRUE) They are resistant to antiseptics and commonly used disinfectants. B (TRUE) Autoclaving (121C, 15 min) kills. C (TRUE) Dry heat at 180C for 2 hr kills. D (TRUE) They contain a high content of calcium dipicolinate. E (CORECT CHOICE) All of the above are true.

Which of the following is false concerning prions.

A (TRUE) They produce spongioform encephalopathies ("holes" in the brain). B (TRUE) They have long incubation periods [C] (FALSE) Because they are proteins, they are very easily destroyed by proteases, disinfectants, boiling and normal autoclaving procedures. D (TRUE) Symptoms are loss of muscle control, tremors, dementia, and death. E (TRUE) Abnormal prion protein involves a change from alpha helical to beta pleated sheet.

Sulfur is required for all of the following except:

A (TRUE) Thiamine B (TRUE) Cysteines that make disulfide bonds. C (TRUE) Methionine [D] (FALSE) Phospholipids E (TRUE) Biotin

Which of the following is false concerning noncyclic photophosphorylation?

A (TRUE) Water is split as a source of electrons. B (TRUE) Oxygen is produced. C (TRUE) ATP is produced D (TRUE) NADPH is produced E (CORECT ANSWER) All of the above are true.

Which of the following is false concerning the use of metals as agents to control microbes?

A (TRUE) before modern medicine mercury was often used B (TRUE) silver+sulfadiazine is used as a cream on burns and woiunds C (TRUE) copper sulfate is used as an algicide D (TRUE) silver nitrate drops have been used to prevent eye infection of the newborn by the gonococcus E (CORECT CHOICE) all of them above are true

Which of the following is false concerning monomeric antibody structure?

A (TRUE) has two long (i.e., heavy, specific for class) and two short (i.e., light) chains B (TRUE) the four polypeptide chains are held together by disulfide bonds C (TRUE) the Fc region binds to receptors on phagocytic cells, & also activates complement D (TRUE) the end of the variable region (paratope) is associated with antigen (epitope) binding E (CORECT CHOICE) all of the above are true of antibody structure.

Which of the following is false concerning Escherichia coli?

A (TRUE) indicator of fecal pollution in water quality testing. B (TRUE) most common cause of urinary tract infections. C (TRUE) common cause of neonatal meningitis D (TRUE) modern geneticists prokaryotic tool and used to produce recombinant proteins. E (CORECT CHOICE) all of the above are true

Which of the following is false concerning viroids?

A (TRUE) infectious "naked" RNA B (TRUE) pathogens of plants [C] (FALSE) humans become infected by consumption of infected plants D (TRUE) requires a host RNA-dependent (redirected DNA dependent) RNA polymerase E all of the above are true

What is false concerning capnophiles?

A (TRUE) mammalian cells in culture B (TRUE) Neisseria C (TRUE) have a requirement for increased carbon dioxide D (TRUE) Hemophilus E (CORRECT ANSWER CHOICE) all of the above are true

The capsule

A (TRUE) may be used for protection as in a biofilm. B (TRUE) may be used to help the bacterium adhere to surfaces. C (FALSE) may be involved in movement. D (TRUE) may be antiphagocytic. E (CORECT CHOICE) a , b and d

Which of the following is false concerning Glycolysis?

A (TRUE) may occur under anaerobic or aerobic conditions. B (TRUE) NADH. C (TRUE) ATP. D (TRUE) pyruvate. E (CORECT CHOICE) all of the above are true

In which of the following situations would you not expect a lag phase?

A (TRUE) old cells used as an inoculum B (TRUE) damaged cells used as an inoculum C (TRUE) log phase cells transferred to the same medium D (TRUE) cells transferred from a rich to a nutritionally poor medium E (CORRECT ANSWER) a lag phase would occur in all of the above situations

Concerning strictly applying Koch's postulates, all of the following would be a problem in application today except?

A (TRUE) opportunistic pathogens B (TRUE) mixed infections C (TRUE) inability to culture in vitro D (TRUE) lack of a suitable animal test model E (CORECT CHOICE) all of the above would be problems

Which of the following is false concerning differences in prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

A (TRUE) prokaryotes lack nuclei, ER, Golgi, lysosomes and mitochondria. [B] (FALSE) eukaryotes have circular chromosomes; prokaryotes linear with histones. C (TRUE) chemolithoautrophs are bacteria that utilize inorganic sources of energy and fix CO into organic compounds D (TRUE) plants and algae are photoautotrophs; the other eukaryotes are chemoheterotrophs. E (TRUE) oxygenic photosynthesis, including cyanobacteria, plants and algae, produces oxygen (required for our life) by splitting water.

Which of the following is false concerning the domain Archaea?

A (TRUE) prokaryotes. B (TRUE) lack peptidoglycan. C (FALSE) includes pathogens that are hard to treat because of antibiotic insensitivity. D (TRUE) membranes with ether linkages between glycerol & branched chain carbon (isoprene polymer) compounds. E (TRUE) includes methanogens found in the gut, thermophiles, acidothermophiles and extreme halophiles.

Which of the following is false concerning facultative anaerobes?

A (TRUE) superoxide dismutase B (TRUE) catalase [C] (FLASE) grow better anaerobically D (TRUE) examples are members of the family Enterobacteriaceae E all of the above are true

Which of the following does not affect enzyme activity?

A (TRUE) temperature B (TRUE) pH C (TRUE) concentration of the substrate D (TRUE) inhibitors E (CORECT ANSWER) all of the above may affect enzyme activity.

The term "glycocalyx" is used with bacteria for

A (TRUE) the outer coating found on some bacteria. B (TRUE) also known as a capsule. C (TRUE) also known as a slime layer. D a rigid wall, giving the bacteria its shape. E (CORECT CHOICE) a, b, c

Which of the following is most closely associated with a β—Lactam ring?

A (True) cephalosporins B (False) vancomycin C (true) penicillins D (False) tetracyclines E (Corect answer) A & C

which is false concerning Q fever Coxiella brunetii

All of the above are true

Which of the following is not a B-lactamase resistant penicillin?

Ampicillin

Which of the following is false concerning carbon flow in the different pathways of energy- yielding metabolism?

Carbon flow is from organic compounds to carbon dioxide in aerobic metabolism B Carbon flow is from organic compounds to fermentation products in the anaerobic process of fermentation. [C] FLASE Carbon flow is from organic compounds to fermentation products in anaerobic respiration. D Carbon flow is from carbon dioxide to organic compounds in lithotrophic (chemolithoautotrophic or chemoautotrophic) metabolism. E Carbon flow is from carbon dioxide to organic compounds in photoautotrophic metabolism.

Which organelle originated from a bacterium?

Chloroplast

Which of the following is the target of penicillins and cephalosporins?

Cross-linking of peptidoglycan.

Which of the following are examples of antigen-presenting cells (APCs)?(1- Neutrophil, 2- B cell, 3- Macrophage, 4- T cell, 5- Dendritic cell)

D 2, 3, 5

The four primary signs of inflammation are:

D redness, heat, swelling, pain

which of the following is false concerning vaccines

Endotoxin can be toxoided for vaccines

In the United States, flu season occurs in the fall and winter. The peak of flu season generally occurs between December and February, but activity can persist through May.

FALSE

It can be difficult to distinguish between the common cold and influenza in the early stages of infection. However, colds can be identified by a high fever with sudden onset, headache, body/muscle aches, and extreme fatigue, whereas flu is slow onset cough, runny nose, and sore throat most often with diarrhea

FALSE

Two major targets for antibiotics against bacterial pathogens are the peptidoglycan and 70S ribosomes. True or False: 70S inhibiting antibiotics (e.g., chloramphenicol, tetracycline, aminoglycosides, macrolides) would be effective against the influenza viruses.

FALSE

The variable regions of antibodies are located in the:

Fab region.

Which protein mediated transport process does not require expenditure of energy?

Facilitated diffusion.

Two major targets for antibiotics against bacterial pathogens are the peptidoglycan and 70S ribosomes. True or False: Peptidoglycan inhibiting antibiotics (e.g. penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, and the carbapenems) would be effective against the influenza viruses.

False

which is false about immunoglobulin IgA

First immunoglobulin class made in immunological response

Which of the following would be the most effective for sterilizing newly produced plastic Petri plates and pipette tips, while still retaining the materials in a useable state for sale to laboratories?

Gamma radiation

which is false concerning bacterial horizontal gene transfer

Generalized transducing Phages contain foreign (previous host) DNA

What would be a suitable method for disinfecting expensive medical instruments (e.g., cytoscopes, endoscopes) between patients?

Glutaraldehyde - Cidex

Which of the following would be the most effective for sterilizing air in a hospital surgical suite during an operation?

HEPA filtration

which of the following immunoglobulins crosses the placenta from mother to baby and activates complement via the classical pathway

IgG

Antibiotics that inhibit translation may have some side effects:

on the 70S ribosome in eukaryotic mitochondria.

The "roadblock" to continued oxidation of glucose in fermentations is bypassed through production of fermentation products for the purpose of

oxidation of NADH back to NAD+.

comparatively greater energy is released (ATPs produced) when

oxygen is the final electron acceptor

which of the following microscopic techniques :: applications is mismatched

phase contrast :: visualization of viruses and their morphologies

Which of the following items functions most like an autoclave?

pressure cooker

Which of the following is the correct decreasing order in resistance to heat and chemicals?

prions-endospores-mycobacteria - protozoan cysts-fungi-E. coli - enveloped viruses

Which of the following microscope types would be most useful in viewing different components, and their interactions with each other and surroundings, of the microbial population on a piece of small intestine with bacterial overgrowth?

scanning electron microscope

which of the following is false concerning viral infections

shingles is a consequence of being infected earlier in life with chicken pox; there is no vaccine for either

unlike promiscuous sex in bacteria, higher organism successfully mate between

species

which of the following is false concerning microbial pathogenesis

the higher the LD50 the greater the virulence, the lower the LD50 the less virulence

false concerning cytotoxic T

they are CD+

You have discovered a microbe that is about 2 micrometers in length and 500 nanometers in diameter, but you are not sure if it is a virus, eukaryote or prokaryote cell: what microscope type would give you the best answer, including internal ultrastructure?

transmission electron microscope

which of the following is false concerning fungi

truffles

which of the following is false concerning gonorrhpeae

unlike chlamydia, does not infect eyes of newborns

MRSAs are sensitive to

vancomycin

a 38 year old man

vibrio vulnificus? or Lep. inter

which of the following is false concerning obligate intracellular parasites

viruses are single celled organism

Which of the following would be the most effective for sterilizing tubes containing liquid growth media for bacteriological studies, while still retaining the materials in a useable state?

Autoclaving

Which of the following patterns of pathogenesis: (1). Adherence, (2). Colonization, (3). Exotoxin Production, (4). Invasion, (5). Invasion and Exotoxin Production, is characterized by Vibrio cholerae, ETEC and STEC/EHEC?

B 1,2,3

Which of the following patterns of pathogenesis: (1). Adherence, (2). Colonization, (3). Exotoxin Production, (4). Invasion, (5). Invasion and Exotoxin Production, is characterized by Salmonella, Streptococcus pneumoniae and Vibrio vulnificus?

C 1,2,4

Fluoroquinolones, like Ciprofloxacin and Moxifloxacin, inhibit:

DNA gyrase.

which of the following is not a capsular vaccine

DTaP

which of the following scientists of the golden age of microbiology is mismatched

Developed ways to attenuate pathogens making them vaccines: jenner

which of the following is false concerning syphilis

Diagnosis is by cultivation on appropriate selective media

Which part of a Gram negative bacterium contains the electron transport chain and ATP synthetase?

Inner membrane.

Which of the following elements is critical for the electron transport process?

Iron

Which of the following is mismatched concerning microscopy.

Limit of resolution human eye: 0.2 mm; conventional light microscopy: [2 nm] ITS SUPPOSED TO BE 0.2NM.

Which component of endotoxin is associated with toxicity?

Lipid A

Which marker is found on all nucleated cells?

MHC class I molecules

Which of the following elements is critical for the water splitting system in oxygenic photosynthesis?

Manganeses

Which of the following would be the most likely and available choice for sterilizing heat labile liquids in different research and teaching labs at UTSA, while still retaining the materials in a usuable state?

Membrane filtration

The target of antifungal polyenes and imidazoles is:

Membrane synthesis or function

which of the following patterns of pathogenesis is chatachterized by Staph food poisoning, Amanita "death cap" poisoning and red tide dinoflagellate poisoning

None of the above

Which of the following is false concerning Herpes simplex virus (HSV) 1 and 2 infection?

None of the above is false.

which of the following is false concerning congenital syphilis (CS)?

On the rise in the US with an 5% increase from 2014

Which of the following is false concerning chickenpox?

Reactivation of the virus occurs with age, due to weakened immune system, with shingles lesions which are exactly like the original chickenpox lesions.

Which of the following media would you use to selectively isolate fungi?

Sabouraud's Dextrose agar

Which of the following is false concerning the nucleic acids of viruses?

Single stranded DNA viruses are more common than double stranded DNA viruses.

Which of the following is false concerning genital warts?

The strains of HPV that can cause genital warts usually are the same as those that cause warts on other parts of the body, such as the hands, feet, and inner thighs.

which is false concerning aids

The virus is a DS DNA virus that can integrate (using integrase) into host chromosome

Which of the following is false concerning physical methods of controlling microbes.

UV irradiation sterilizes better than ionizing (Cobalt 60 or gamma) irradiation.

false about physical methods of controlling microbes

UV irradiation sterilizes better than ionizing (cobalt60 or gama) irradiation [FALSE]

which of the following is false concerning immunity

WRONG ANSWER IS NOT oxygen- dependent killing mechanisms of phagocytes, associated with respiratory boost. perhaps T regulatory helper cells can regulate immune response