Micro Chapter 15
Which lymphocytes lack specificity for antigen and attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells? A. Delayed hypersensitivity T cells B. Natural killer (NK) cells C. Suppressor T cells D. Helper T cells E. Cytotoxic T cells
b
12. Class I MHC genes code for A. self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes. B. all HLA antigens. C. receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells. D. certain secreted complement components.
a
14. MHC molecules are found on all of the following cells except ______. A. red blood cells B. epithelial cells C. eosinophils D. islet of Langerhans cells E. leukocytes
a
22. Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed ______. A. haptens B. antigen binding sites C. epitopes D. variable regions
a
24. Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called ______. A. allergens B. autoantigens C. superantigens D. heterophilic antigens
a
32. Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis? A. Opsonization B. Agglutination C. Anamnestic response D. Neutralization E. Complement fixation
a
47. Specific immunity provides long-lasting protection through the production of _____. A. memory cells B. plasma cells C. T helper cells D. antibodies E. phagocytotic cells
a
5. Helper T cells A. activate B cells and other T cells. B. suppress immune reactions. C. function in allergic reactions. D. directly destroy target cells. E. secrete antibodies.
a
51. An example of artificial active immunity would be A. chickenpox vaccine triggering extended immunity to chickenpox. B. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. C. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. D. chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong immunity.
a
52. An example of natural active immunity would be A. chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong immunity. B. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. C. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. D. chickenpox vaccine triggering extended immunity to chickenpox
a
56. Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by A. treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation. B. removal of virulence genes from the microbe. C. passage of the pathogen through unnatural hosts or tissue culture. D. long-term subculturing of the microbe
a
63. During which response to the antigen do we display a latent period of no secretory antibody synthesis? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Quaternary
a
75. A cytotoxic T lymphocyte, having been activated against a particular viral antigen, "sees" this same antigen displayed on the surface of a host cell. What will happen? A. The cytotoxic T cell will produce proteins that cause the host body cell to die. B. The cytotoxic body cell will activate B cells which then produce antibody against the antigen. C. The antigen will move inside of the host body cell, thereby hiding from the cytotoxic T cell. D. The cytotoxic T cell will produce antibodies against the antigen
a
82. The adaptive immune response differs from the innate response in that A. the adaptive immune response targets specific immunogens and remembers them, mounting an even stronger response on subsequent encounters, whereas the innate response is nonspecific and has no memory. B. B and T lymphocytes can each target multiple proteins, whereas the innate response targets only a single type of antigen. C. the adaptive immune response involves physical barriers and nonspecific processes, whereas the innate immune response relies on the actions of B and T lymphocytes. D. the innate immune response targets a specific immunogen and remembers it to mount an even stronger response on subsequent encounters with that immunogen, whereas the adaptive response is nonspecific and has no memory.
a
87. Which of the following statements does not represent the role of a cell marker in the third line of defense? A. They serve as transcription factors to initiate antibody production. B. They serve as recognition factors for self and nonself molecules. C. They are attachment sites for foreign molecules. They receive and transmit signals to coordinate the immune response
a
High titers of specific antibodies are characteristic of A. specific immune globulin (SIG). B. gamma globulin. C. toxoids. D. immune serum globulin (ISG). E. attenuated vaccines.
a
The antibody-secreting progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called A. plasma cells. B. antibodies. C. bursa cells. D. activated macrophages. E. sensitized T cells.
a
You do not really want to get your 3 children vaccinated. Your view is why do it when others around you will get the vaccine and end up protecting you and your children. Which is an accurate statement that your physician may provide to you in response to your challenge to vaccination? A. This is not a smart choice. If enough people choose not to get vaccinated, the susceptible population grows to a large size, breaking the protective effect of herd immunity. B. Your choice is fine; your children will never become infected since this is actually the basis of herd immunity. C. This is not a smart choice. You could face potential arrest for not vaccinating your child per the regulations of the U.S. government. D. Your choice is fine; maybe you will change your mind when your child goes to college.
a
You have received the first hepatitis A vaccine. It was required for your mission trip to Nicaragua in Central America, where hepatitis A is common. However, you never went back for the booster shot of the vaccine, which should have been received within 6 months of the initial vaccination. What statement accurately reflects your present immunity to this pathogen? A. You are at risk to get hepatitis A since your immune status is only partial. Not enough immune memory cells were produced since you received one dosage of vaccine, so you are likely to get the disease when exposed to the virus. B. The one dosage is not enough because it only activated humoral immunity. The second dosage is used to activate cell-mediated immunity. The combination of the two immune responses gives you 100% coverage of immunity to hepatitis A. C. This is not a problem because the second dosage is just extra protection. Your immune status would be very high. D. Not a problem because at any time, in a year, 5 years, etc., you can go get the booster vaccine for hepatitis A and be fully covered by immunity.
a
10. The major histocompatibility complex is A. a set of glycoproteins, called MHC antigens, found on all body cells. B. a set of genes that code for MHC glycoproteins. C. found on the third chromosome. D. located in the thymus gland. E. All of the choices are correct.
b
17. The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is highly diversified from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the ______ region. A. joining B. variable C. constant D. hinge E. light
b
29. Which is incorrect about the Fc region of an immunoglobulin? A. It contains an effector molecule that can bind to cells such as macrophages and mast cells. B. It forms the antigen binding sites. C. It determines the class to which the immunoglobulin belongs. D. It contains an effector molecule that can fix complement. E. It is called the crystallizable fragment.
b
30. Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule, thereby disrupting their activity? A. Opsonization B. Neutralization C. Complement fixation D. Agglutination
b
33. Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen? A. Opsonization B. Anamnestic response C. Neutralization D. Complement fixation E. Agglutination
b
35. The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is ______. A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgD E. IgE
b
37. All of the following are characteristics of IgM except A. it can serve as a B-cell receptor. B. it is a dimer. C. it is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell. D. it has 10 antigen binding sites. E. it contains a central J chain.
b
42. An activated TH cell produces _____, which is a growth factor for T helper cells and cytotoxic T cells. A. interleukin-1 B. interleukin-2 C. interleukin-12 D. antiserum E. complement
b
53. Edward Jenner's work involved A. development of passive immunotherapy. B. immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one. C. development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox. D. inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity.
b
58. Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines A. contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules. B. contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses. C. utilize DNA strands that will produce the antigen. D. confer passive immunity. E. are always genetically engineered.
b
59. Antitoxins A. are always genetically engineered. B. confer passive immunity. C. contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses. D. utilize DNA strands that will produce the antigen. E. contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules
b
6. Plasma cells A. function in allergic reactions. B. secrete antibodies. C. directly destroy target cells. D. activate B cells and other T cells. E. suppress immune reactions.
b
62. All nucleated cells contain A. class II MHC. B. class I MHC. C. secretory antibodies. D. IgD receptors.
b
83. The third line of defense against foreign invaders can be described as having _______ and ________. A. surveillance; complexity B. specificity; memory C. complexity, versatility D. diversity; barriers
b
90. Which of the following do not serve as antigen presenting cells? A. Dendritic cells B. Basophils C. Macrophages D. B lymphocytes
b
91. Not all phagocytic cells are antigen-presenting cells. B cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells differ from neutrophils in that they synthesize ______ . A. CD8 receptors B. MHC-II receptors C. MHC-I receptors D. interleukin-2 E. CD4 receptors
b
92. The ability of TC cells to initiate apoptosis in virally-infected cells and cancer cells is dependent on their ability to produce __________ and __________; proteins that punch holes in the target cell membrane. A. interleukin-1; interleukin-2 B. perforin; granzyme C. interferon; interleukins
b
Fluzone is a brand name for a very commonly given influenza vaccine. The vaccine is prepared by first harvesting flu viruses in chicken embryos and then breaking apart virus particles into protein subunits, thereby inactivating the virus. Your friend refuses to get the vaccine. Which of these statements is the only valid reason for her not to get the flu vaccine? A. She could pass the virus onto her baby, causing the child to become autistic. B. She is allergic to eggs. C. She could catch the flu from the inactivated vaccine. D. She could die from the vaccine.
b
1. A foreign molecule that causes a specific immune response is a(n) ______. A. PAMP B. marker C. antigen D. hapten E. antibody
c
13. The histocompatibility complex proteins function in A. antibody proliferation. B. T cell maturation. C. recognition of self. D. B cell maturation.
c
16. The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all of the following except A. two identical light polypeptide chains. B. two identical heavy polypeptide chains. C. four antigen binding sites. D. disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains. E. a variable and constant region on each polypeptide chain.
c
23. Superantigens are A. body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign. B. cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members. C. bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens. antigens that evoke allergic reactions
c
3. The embryonic yolk sac, the liver, and the bone marrow are sites where A. T lymphocytes complete maturation. B. immune responses to antigen occur. C. stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes. D. antigen is filtered from the blood. E. antigen is filtered from tissue fluid.
c
43. What process generates many B cells and T cells that are activated against specific antigens? A. Antigen expression B. Antigen presentation C. Clonal expansion D. Antibody production E. Opsonization
c
46. Cytotoxic T cells A. secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T cells. B. lack specificity for antigen. C. secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells. D. are activated by free, soluble antigens
c
49. An example of artificial passive immunity would be A. chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong immunity. B. chickenpox vaccine triggering extended immunity to chickenpox. C. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. D. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
c
93. All of the following statements reflect the qualities of a safe and effective vaccine, except A. the injected material should be antigenic, but not pathogenic. B. it should have a long shelf-life, be cheap to produce, and easy to administer. C. efficacy must be maintained by booster shots every 5 years. D. it should confer both humoral and cell-mediated immunity.
c
A patient enters your clinic with a suspected helminthic infection. In support of this diagnosis, you suspect elevated levels of which antibody in the patient's serum? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgE D. IgD
c
As an adult who never developed chickenpox infection as a child, you elect to receive the protective vaccine against this pathogen at the age of 35. This vaccine will stimulate A. latency. B. an anamnestic response. C. a primary immune response. D.a secondary immune response
c
Autoimmune disorders are characterized by immune destruction of self tissues. The underlying basis of these disorders is A. lack of an anamnestic response. B. an overproduction of complement. C. a lack of immune tolerance. D. an oversecretion of antibodies from memory B cells.
c
11. Class II MHC genes code for A. certain secreted complement components. B. self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes. C. all HLA antigens. D. receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells. E. All of the choices are correct.
d
19. Destruction of lymphocytes with self-specificity is called ______. A. proliferation. B. differentiation. C. clonal selection. D. clonal deletion. E. hypersensitivity.
d
20. Properties of effective antigens include all of the following except A. they are foreign to the immune system. B. they have molecular complexity. C. they are large molecules with a minimum molecular weight of 1,000. D. they are large polymers made up of repeating subunits. E. they are cells or large, complex molecules.
d
21. The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a(n) ______. A. hapten B. antigen binding site C. variable region D. epitope
d
25. Which of the following is not a property of B cells? A. They produce plasma cells and memory cells. B. They have receptors called immunoglobulins. C. They mature in the bone marrow. D. They require antigen presented with MHC proteins. E. There are low numbers circulating in the blood.
d
31. Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates? A. Neutralization B. Opsonization C. Complement fixation D. Agglutination E. Anamnestic response
d
34. The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is ______. A. IgG B. IgM C. IgD D. IgA E. IgE
d
38. Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement? A. IgM only B. IgG only C. IgD only D. IgM and IgG E. IgE and IgA
d
39. The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B cells is/are A. IgM only. B. IgG only. C. IgD only. D. IgM and IgD. E. IgD and IgE.
d
40. The most abundant class of antibodies in serum is _____. A. IgE B. IgM C. IgA D. IgG E. IgD
d
41. Each _____ fragment of an antibody molecule contains the variable regions of a heavy and light chain that folds into a groove for one epitope. A. variable B. Fc C. hinge D. FAb E. terminal
d
44. The most significant cells in graft rejection are A. delayed hypersensitivity T cells. B. natural killer (NK) cells. C. suppressor T cells. D. cytotoxic T cells. E. helper T cells.
d
50. An example of natural passive immunity would be A. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. B. chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong immunity. C. chickenpox vaccine triggering extended immunity to chickenpox. D. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
d
60. Vaccinia virus is often used in the technique to make A. a booster. B. gamma globulin. C. an adjuvant. D. a "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine. E. antibodies to toxin.
d
73. The array of potential antibodies to the variety of possible antigens is amazing. Which statement explains this development? A. Mutations in the antibody gene occur within the activated B cells, since they meet the antigen. B. The existing antibody molecules change their shapes, allowing them to fit with a large number of antigens. C. There is a shuffling of genes that code for self markers as well as nonself markers, mixing them together and producing reactive lymphocytes to those markers. D. Recombination of genes coding for the variable regions of immunoglobulins occurs during the developmental stage of lymphocyte production.
d
8. What type of cells secrete antibodies? A. Antigen-presenting cells B. Cytotoxic T cells C. Helper T cells D. Plasma cells E. Memory B cells
d
84. Which of the statements below represents the correct order of events in the adaptive immune response? A. Lymphocyte challenge, antigen presentation, lymphocyte development, lymphocyte response B. Antigen presentation, lymphocyte development, lymphocyte challenge, lymphocyte response C. Antigen presentation, lymphocyte challenge, lymphocyte development, lymphocyte response D. Lymphocyte development, antigen presentation, lymphocyte challenge, lymphocyte response
d
85. In order for B cells to produce antibodies and cytotoxic T cells to attack infected host cells, they must first A. recognize self markers, develop specificity for the markers, and then produce clones. B. be activated by interleukins, encounter an antigen, and then develop specificity toward it. C. encounter an antigen, develop specificity for that antigen, and then remember the antigen. D. undergo maturation, encounter their specific antigen target, and then become activated through cytokines.
d
During presentation of APC-bound antigen, macrophages and dendritic cells secrete the cytokine _____, which activates T helper cells. A. interferon B. histamine C. interleukin-2 D. interleukin-1
d
15. Lymphocytes A. possess MHC antigens for recognizing self. B. have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens. C. gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self. D. develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity. E. All of the choices are correct.
e
18. Which of the following is not true of the antigen-independent period of lymphocyte development? A. Many lymphocytes with different specificities are formed. B. Random genetic rearrangements occur to produce different surface protein receptors. C. Lymphocytes with specificity for self are destroyed. D. Lymphocytes form from stem cells in the bone marrow. E. Mature lymphocytes populate lymphatic organs and encounter antigens.
e
2. Acquired specific immunity involves the response of A. interferon. B. mucus membranes. C. skin barriers. D. lysozyme. E. B and T lymphocytes.
e
26. Antigen presenting cells A. include dendritic cells. B. include macrophages. C. engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic. D. hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface. E. All of the choices are correct.
e
27. T cell response to T-dependent antigens requires A. typically a protein antigen. B. binding of the T cell to a class II MHC receptor on a macrophage. C. binding of the T cell to a site on the antigen. D. interleukin-1 activating the T helper cell. E. All of the choices are correct.
e
36. The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is ______. A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgD E. IgE
e
47. Which of the following is not a target for TC cells? A. Pig transplanted heart B. Human transplanted liver C. Virus-infected cells D. Cancer cells E. Bacteria
e
54. Immunotherapy is the A. use of antitoxins. B. use of immune serum globulin. C. conferring of passive immunity. D. administering of preformed antibodies. E. All of the choices are correct.
e
57. Live, attenuated vaccines A. include the Sabin polio vaccine. B. include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR). C. contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person. D. require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines. E. All of the choices are correct.
e
61. Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immunogenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site? A. "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine B. Booster C. Gamma globulin D. Antibodies to toxin E. Adjuvant
e
7. Lymphocyte maturation involves A. hormonal signals that initiate development. B. B cells maturing in bone marrow sites. C. T cells maturing in the thymus. D. release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs. E. All of the choices are correct.
e
89. B cell receptors differ from T cell receptors in that A. B cell receptors are comprised of four polypeptides, whereas T cell receptors have only two polypeptides in their quaternary structure. B. B cell receptors have two antigen binding sites, whereas T cell receptors have only one antigen binding site. C. B cell receptors are immunoglobulin in nature, whereas T cell receptors are not immunoglobulin molecules. D. B cell receptor immunoglobulins can be secreted as antibodies, whereas T cell receptors are never secreted. E. All of the choices represent differences between B cell and T cell receptors.
e
9. Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions A. are the result of genetic expression. B. function in recognition of self molecules. C. receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system. D. aid in cellular development. E. All of the choices are correct.
e
65. Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa.
f
68. After secreting antibodies during an immune response, plasma cells then differentiate into memory cells.
f
69. The hinge region of an antibody has a hypervariable amino acid region where the antigenic determinant fits.
f
86. The adaptive immune system is complex, but it can be summarized in four consecutive stages: i) lymphocyte encounter with an immunogen, ii) development of lymphocyte specificity against that immunogen, iii) 2nd encounter with the immunogen, and iv) development of memory cells.
false
88. B and T lymphocytes are specific; they have only a single type of cell marker on their surface.
false
64. Antibody molecules circulate in lymph, blood, and tissue fluids.
t
67. Clonal selection requires the presence of foreign antigens.
t
70. The structural and functional differences that distinguish immunoglobulin isotypes are due to variations associated with their Fc fragments.
t
71. The secondary response to an antigen is more rapid and robust than the primary response.
t
73. Gamma globulin can be given as immunotherapy to confer artificial passive immunity.
t
Activation of B cells can occur when antigen binds to B cell surface immunoglobulin receptors
t
One plasma cell will secrete antibodies of various classes, but the antibodies will all have the same specificity
t
