MICRO Exam 1 Combined Set - VC
Icterohaemorrhagiae, Australis, and Canicola
3 most common leptospiral serovars
acute respiratory disease, pneumonia, and pharyngitis
Today, C. pneumoniae is recognized as an important respiratory pathogen. It is known to be a cause of
serotypes A, B, Ba, and C
Trachoma is associated with which serotypes of C.trachomatis?
serotypes A, B, Ba, and C
Trachoma serovars
Bilophila wadsworthia
Translucent colonies with a black fish eye center observed on BBE agar (usually at 48 to 72 hours)
Bacteroides ureolyticus
Translucent pitting colonies observed on the anaerobic blood agar plate, with no growth observed on BBE or KVLB agars
Transverse Fission
Treponella reproduce via:
True
True or False: A pleomorphic gram-positive bacillus that is spot indole- and catalase-positive can be presumptively identified as Propionibacterium acnes.
True The only more common STD in the US is genital warts caused by the human papillomavirus
True or False: C. trachomatis is the most common sexually transmitted bacterial pathogen in the United States
False
True or False: Clostridium spp. are especially easy to identify in Gramstained smears of clinical specimens because they always appear as gram-positive rods with terminal or subterminal spores.
False
True or False: Exogenous anaerobes more commonly cause infectious diseases than endogenous anaerobes.
True
True or False: Failure to isolate fusiform gram-negative organisms that were observed on a Gram-stained smear of a clinical specimen could be an indication that a problem exists with the primary medium used for the isolation of anaerobes or the system being used for anaerobic incubation of primary plates.
True
True or False: Large, dark colonies (>1 mm) growing on a BBE plate at 24 hours can presumptively be called a member of the Bacteroides fragilis group
True
True or False: Relapsing fever is the only spirochetal disease in which the organisms are visible in blood with bright-field microscopy
False Humans are the only reservoir.
True or False: Rodents, cats, and platypii are reservoirs for Pediculus humanus.
True
True or False: The serovars causing LGV are able to survive inside mononuclear cells
Pseudomonas aeruginosa P. aeruginosa is the most commonly isolated species of the genus in clinical specimens. It is an uncommon part of the normal bacterial biota and is isolated from less than 12% of normal stool specimens. It may, however, account for 5% to 15% of all nosocomial infections, especially pneumonia and bacteremia.
What Pseudomonas sp. is the nonfermenter that is the leading cause of nosocomial pneumonia and bacteremia?
Oxidase Most nonfermentative gram-negative bacilli are oxidase-positive, a feature that differentiates them from the Enterobacteriaceae (except Plesiomonas, which is oxidase-positive).
What biochemical test will differentiate nonfermenters from Enterobacteriaceae (except Plesiomonas)?
Botulism
What disease does Clostridium botulinum cause
Botulism
What disease does Clostridium botulinum cause? Botulism Tetanus Lyme disease Myonecrosis
gas gangrenes
What disease does Clostridium perfringens cause
Food poisoning C. perfringens is associated with two types of food poisoning: type A, a relatively mild and self-limiting GI tract illness, and type C, a more serious but rarely seen GI tract disease. C. perfringens foodborne disease usually follows ingestion of enterotoxin-producing strains in contaminated food.
What disease does Clostridium perfringens cause? Botulism Tetanus Food poisoning Toxic shock syndrome
Tetanus
What disease does Clostridium tetani cause? Botulism Tetanus Food poisoning Myonecrosis
B fragilis Porphyromonas Prevotella Fusobacterium
What genus comprise the four major groups of anaerobic gram-negative bacilli
EB
What has an outer membrane similar to that of many gram-negative bacteria, with the most prominent feature being the major outer membrane protein? Haemophilus RB EB Intracellular parasites
Weil's disease
What is a Leptospira infection called when it becomes a severe systemic disease
Weil disease Severe systemic disease (Weil disease) includes renal failure, hepatic failure, and intravascular disease and may result in death.
What is a Leptospira infection called when it becomes a severe systemic disease? Niemann-Pick Bordet-Gengou Gaucher disease Weil disease
RPR The two nontreponemal tests widely used today are the Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) and the RPR.
What is an example of a nontreponemal test? RPR Fluorescent treponemal antibody, absorbed (FTA-ABS) Treponema pallidum particle agglutination (TPPA) Microhemagglutination-Treponema pallidum (MHA-TP)
B. mallei
What is the causative agent of glanders?
Erythromycin he drug of choice for treating intestinal campylobacteriosis is erythromycin, although most patients recover without antimicrobial intervention.
What is the drug of choice for treating intestinal campylobacteriosis?
Clostridium perfringens
What is the most common causative agent of gas gangrene? Staphylococcus aureus Neisseria gonorrhoeae Clostridium perfringens Haemophilus influenzae
The first tier is an immunofluorescent antibody (IFA) or enzyme immunoassay (EIA) screen. Positive or equivocal results are confirmed with Western blot, which is the second tier.
What is the recommended methodology for laboratory diagnosis of Lyme borreliosis?
Doxycycline and amoxicillin are equally effective in treating early stages For refractile or late stages, prolonged treatment with ceftriaxone has been effective.
What is used to treat lyme disease?
Fletcher's Isolation of leptospira is accomplished by direct inoculation of 1 to 2 drops of freshly drawn blood or CSF into laboratory media, such as Fletcher's, Stuart, or EMJH, and incubating the media in the dark at room temperature. Leptospira are difficult to isolate therefore culture is infrequently attempted.
What medium is used in the laboratory to grow leptospiral organisms? MacConkey Fletcher's Sheep blood agar None of the above
Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)
What method is used to confirm a positive Chlamydia trachomatis EIA? Cytologic methods Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) Cell culture NAAT
Burkholderia cepacia
What nonfermenter may produce a weak, slow, positive oxidase reaction?
B. pseudomallei
What organism causes melioidosis?
Borrelia recurrentis B. recurrentis causes relapsing fever. As the name suggests, the acute infection causes febrile episodes that subside spontaneously and tend to recur over a period of weeks.
What organism causes relapsing fever? Borrelia recurrentis B. burgdorferi Leptospira interrogans C. psittaci
Campylobacter
What organism has a microscopic morphology of tiny, curved, gram-negative rods, with S-shapes or seagull-wing shapes on Gram stain?
P. aeruginosa
What organism is a common cause of pulmonary disease among individuals with cystic fibrosis?
Chromobacterium violaceum
What organism is an opportunistic pathogen that strikes the immunocompromised patient with neutrophil deficits and produces a violet pigment on nonselective agar?
Burkholderia cepacia
What organism is associated with pneumonia in patients with cystic fibrosis or chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)?
Campylobacter
What organism may play a role in Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)?
C. perfringens Myonecrosis, or gas gangrene, usually occurs when organisms contaminate wounds, through either trauma or surgery. C. perfringens, C. histolyticum, C. septicum, C. novyi, and C. bifermentans are members of the histotoxic group and can cause myonecrosis. C. perfringens, however, is the most common cause.
What organism mostly commonly causes gas gangrene? Clostridium difficile C. tetani C. perfringens C. botulinum
Chlamydia
What organism's unique life cycle contains an elementary body (EB) and a reticulate body (RB)? Haemophilus Chlamydia Ureaplasma Mycoplasma
KVLB, BBE, and anaerobic BAP
What plates are used for Gram-Negative Anaerobes
Carbohydrates
What substances do nonfermenters fail to ferment in traditional media?
42° C
What temperature is an optimal growth temperature for Campylobacter jejuni?
Microaerophilic and capnophilic
What type of an atmosphere do campylobacters require for growth?
spore-forming anaerobic bacilli - gram positive
What type of bacteria are those in the genus Clostridium
Cary-Blair
When collecting specimens that may contain Campylobacter spp. bacteria, what transport medium should they be placed in, if a delay in transport is possible?
Most cases are contracted in Hawaii. Because the incubation period is typically 10 to 12 days, it is likely that visitors to Hawaii can become infected but not show symptoms until they return home.
Where are most cases of leptospiroses contracted within the United States, and why is this important when considering the typical incubation period of the infection?
Hemolymph an arthropod's interstitial fluid
Where do Borrelia live inside the lice?
palms and soles
Where is the unusual rash seen in secondary syphilis
Palms and soles Approximately 2 to 12 weeks after development of the primary lesion, the patient may experience secondary disease, with clinical symptoms of fever, sore throat, generalized lymphadenopathy, headache, and rash. While the rash can occur anywhere, it is unusual compared to other infectious diseases in that it can also occur on the palms and soles.
Where on the body is the secondary syphilis rash typically seen? Chest and back Back and soles Buttocks and palms Palms and soles
Honey Once ingested, the spores germinate and the vegetative cells then colonize the colon and subsequently produce toxins
Which food is most commonly associated with infant botulism?
A. Porphyromonas spp. and Prevotella spp.
Which gram-negative bacilli produce brown to black pigment on KVA agar and brick red fluorescence when exposed to an ultraviolet (UV) light source? A. Porphyromonas spp. and Prevotella spp. B. Fusobacterium spp. and Actinomyces spp. C. Bacteroides spp. and Fusobacterium spp. D. All of these options
Acinetobacter spp.
Which gram-negative coccobacilli can appear as gram-positive cocci in smears made from blood culture bottles?
Burkholderia mallei zoonosis glanders
Which nonfermenter is considered by government agencies to be a potential bioterrorist agent?
B. garinii and B. afzelii
Which of the 3 species of Borrelia burgdorferi klaatu barada nikto have been confirmed in Asia.
Alcaligenes faecalis Burkholderia cepacia Acinetobacter lwoffii Yersinia entercolitica ----- you don't belong here
Which of the following Gram negative bacteria ferments glucose?
Actinomyces, Propionibacterium propionicum, and closely related organisms, such as P. acnes
Associated with sulfur granules
Burkholderia cepacia
A 17 year old girl with cystic fibrosis is diagnosed with pneumonia. A sputum sample grew gram negative bacilli with yellow smooth colonies that have the following biochemical reactions: Oxidase: positive TSI: K/K glucose: oxidized fluorescence: negative lysine decarboxylase: positive The most likely organism is: Burkholderia cepacia Klebsiella pneumoniae Shewanella putrifaciens Stenotrophomonas maltophlia
An IgM titer greater than 1 :32 or an IgG single titer greater than 1 : 512
A C. pneumoniae titer in this range warrants further investigation
type C food poisoning
C. perfringens Food poisoning - a more serious but rarely seen disease. Associated with strains that produce β-toxin and, less commonly, α-toxin. After an incubation period of at least 5 to 6 hours, symptoms begin as an acute onset of severe abdominal pain and diarrhea, which is often bloody, and may be accompanied by vomiting. Early symptoms are followed by necrotic inflammation of the small intestines, at times leading to bowel perforation. Without treatment, the disease is often fatal; even with treatment, the fatality rate is 15% to 25%.
C. perfringens
Large, irregular-shaped colonies on SBA demonstrating a double zone of β-hemolysis can be identified as _______. These organisms will stain as large, boxcar-shaped bacilli.
Type A food poisoning
C. perfringens Food poisoning - a relatively mild and self-limited GI illness. Caused by a C. perfringens enterotoxin linked to sporulation. After an 8- to 30-hour incubation period, the patient experiences diarrhea and cramping abdominal pain for about 24 hours. Other than fluid replacement, therapy is usually unnecessary.
Positive
C. perfringens is lecithinase _________.
Negative
C. perfringens is lipase _________.
enteritis necroticans
C. perfringens type C food poisoning is also called
Guillain-Barré syndrome GBS
C. pneumoniae has been established as a risk factor for ______________, an immunologically mediated neurologic disease.
prolonged sore throat (5 to 7 days) and hoarseness, followed by flulike lower respiratory tract symptoms (8 to 15 days)
C. pneumoniae infection progress
Brucella agar base, 10% sheep red blood cells, vancomycin, trimethoprim, polymyxin B, amphotericin B, and cephalothin.
CAMPY-BAP (blood agar plate) contains
Hippurate hydrolysis positive
Campylobacter jejuni can be identified by its microscopic morphology, characteristic motility, oxidase positivity, and this.
T. pallidum subsp. endemicum
Causative agent of endemic syphilis
Treponema carateum
Causative agent of pinta
T. pallidum subsp. pallidum
Causative agent of syphilis
T. pallidum subsp. pertenue
Causative agent of yaws
Orientia (formerly Rickettsia) tsutsugamushi via chiggers Rash does not involve the palms, soles, OR face
Cause of orientia
R. akari Rash is on trunks, extremities, and face, NOT on palms or soles
Cause of rickettsialpox
certain Clostridium, Actinomyces, Propionibacterium, and Lactobacillus spp
Certain aerotolerant anaerobes can grow on the CO2-incubated chocolate agar, but they usually grow much better on the anaerobically incubated plate
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Cetrimide agar is used as a selective isolation agar for which organism? Acinetobacter spp. Pseudomonas aeruginosa Moraxella spp. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
weak fermenters. cause of nosocomial infections. ubiquitous in soil and water. All the above
Characteristics of most members of the family Flavobacteriaceae
LGV and conjuctivitis
Chlamydia trachomatis infections have been implicated in: LGV and conjuctivitis gastroenteritis and urethritis neonatal pneumonia and gastroenteritis neonatal meningitis and conjuctivitis
obligate intracellular
Chlamydiae are deficient in energy metabolism and are therefore ________ _________ parasites.
Soil
Clostridia or their toxins usually gain access to the body through ingestion or open wounds that have become contaminated with ________
Negative differentiates from positive bacillus
Clostridium catalase test
Burkholderia cepacia
Colonies of this bacteria are nonwrinkled, and this trait may be used to differentiate isolates from P. stutzeri, which also produces a yellow pigment. It does not fluoresce like P. aeruginosa, but can produce a nonfluorescing yellow or green pigment that may diffuse into the media.
Campylobacter The typical colony morphology of Campylobacter jejuni and other enteric campylobacters is moist, "runny looking," and spreading. Colonies are usually nonhemolytic; some are round and raised, whereas others may be flat.
A Campy blood agar plate incubated at 42° C from a stool exhibits colonies that are nonhemolytic, moist, "runny looking," and spreading. The Gram stain shows tiny gram-negative rods with some S-shapes and seagull-wing shapes. What is growing on the plate?
CF
A ____ test had been the traditional assay most often used for C. pneumoniae detection, but it is rarely used today
B. fragilis
A biletolerant, gram-negative anaerobic bacillus indicates that the isolate is likely a member of the _______ group.
Peptococcus niger
A black-pigmented, anaerobic, gram-positive coccus
growth at 42 degrees C
A characteristic that is helpful in separating Pseudomonas aeruginosa from other members of the Pseudomonas family is: a positive test for cytochrome oxidase oxidative metabolism of OF test production of fluoescein pigment growth at 42 degrees C
Burkholderia pseudomallei
A college student who recently studied a semester abroad in Southeast Asia is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of "glanders-like" infection (melioidosis) . A sputum specimen grows a small gram-negative rod that is positive for oxidase, reduces nitrate to gas and oxidizes glucose, lactose and mannitol. What is the most likely organism? Stenotrophomonas maltophilia Burkholderia pseudomallei Pseudomonas aeruginosa Acinetobacter baumannii
urea broth
A gastroenterologist submits a gastric biopsy from a patient with a peptic ulcer. To obtain presumptive evidence of Helicobacter pylori, a portion of the specimen should be added to which media? urea broth tetrathionate selenite tryptophan
Chromobacterium
A genus that is found in soil and water and causes infections in immunocompromised patients has the following characteristics: Sheep blood agar: Violet pigment MacConkey agar: growth Oxidase: positive OF glucose: fermenter indole: negative The genus is: Campylobacter Chromobacterium Aeromonas Serratia
F. nucleatum Growth of F. nucleatum indicates that the agar was maintained under near-anaerobic conditions
A good quality control procedure to ensure that the agar is maintained under proper conditions is to inoculate an agar plate with ________ and place the plate in the holding jar.
Helicobacter pylori Keyword: gastric biopsy
A gram stain touch prep from a gastric biopsy shows gram negative bacilli that are slender and curved. The most likely pathogen is:
Propionibacterium acnes
A gram-positive anaerobic diphtheroid that is both catalase positive and spot indole-positive
a. Clostridium perfringens
A gram-positive bacillus was isolated from a wound specimen and had the following characteristics: double zone of β-hemolysis, lecithinase-positive, lipase-negative, indole-negative. What is the most likely identification of this organism? a. Clostridium perfringens b. Clostridium ramosum c. Clostridium septicum d. Clostridium tetani
gastroenteritis
Elizabethkingae meningosepticum causes all the following diseases, except
Tick
Endemic relapsing fever is _______-borne.
b. Eubacterium
Endogenous anaerobes least likely to be involved in cases of bacteremia are: a. Bacteroides b. Eubacterium c. Fusobacterium d. Peptostreptococcus
Helicobacter pylori
Major cause of Type B gastritis and associated with gastric cancer
MOMP major outer membrane protein Also LPS
Major component of the EB's outer membrane
trachoma, lymphogranuloma venereum, and mouse pneumonitis (renamed C. muridarum)
Name the 3 conditions associated with the 3 C. trachomatis biovars
B. burgdorferi sensu stricto B. garinii and B. afzelii
Name the 3 species of Borrelia burgdorferi sensu lato that cause Lyme disease.
Louse
Epidemic relapsing fever is ______-borne.
Chromobacterium violaceum
Fermentative, gram-negative bacillus that may be oxidase positive, so it may be mistaken initially as a nonfermenter in the laboratory. It is motile with polar flagella and, as its name implies, produces a violet pigment about 91% of the time.
cardiolipin and lecithin
Flocculation tests for syphilis use antigen composed of: Treponema pallidum reagin cardiolipin and lecithin charcoal
Bacteroides fragilis
Good growth (>1 mm in diameter) of gray colonies on a BBE plate, characteristic of members of the ______ group.
Fusobacterium nucleatum Porphyromonas Prevotella intermedia
Gram negative anaerobic rods that are spot indole positive
Actinomyces israelii
Gram staining of a smear taken from the periodontal pockets of a 30-year-old man with poor dental hygiene showed sulfur granules containing gram-positive rods (short diphtheroids and some unbranched filaments) and were non-acid fast. Colonies on blood agar resembled "molar teeth" in formation. The most likely organism is: A. Actinomyces israelii B. Propionibacterium acnes C. Staphylococcus intermedius D. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius
Leptospira
Organisms of this genus are tightly coiled, thin, flexible spirochetes, 0.1 µm wide and 5 to 15 µm long (Figure 23-1). With spires that are very close together, so the organism may appear as a chain of cocci.
Fusobacterium nucleatum
Ground-glass or breadcrumb-like colonies of long, slender, gram-negative rods with pointed ends are usually
Fusobacterium nucleatum
Ground-glass or breadcrumb-like colonies of long, slender, gram-negative rods with pointed ends
B. fragilis
Growth of large (>1 mm) gray-black colonies on BBE agar with growth on the KVLB agar after an overnight incubation is sufficient to identify an isolate as a member of the _______ group
Lactobacillus
After 24-hour incubation, an SBA from a vaginal culture reveals heavy growth of α-hemolytic, pinpoint, rough colonies. A catalase test is performed, and it is negative. What organism should you suspect? Lactobacillus Diphtheroids Listeria Arcanobacterium
arthropod
All Borellia are ________-borne.
indole-positive.
All of the following are characteristics of pseudomonads, except
Clostridium
All of the following are non-spore-forming, anaerobic, gram-positive bacilli EXCEPT
Anemia Poor prognostic factors associated with P. aeruginosa bacteremia include septic shock, granulocytopenia, inappropriate antimicrobial therapy, and the presence of septic metastatic lesions.
All of the following are poor prognostic factors associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa bacteremia, except
Veillonella spp.
All of the following genera are anaerobic cocci that stain gram positive except: A. Peptococcus spp. B. Peptostreptococcus spp. C. Streptococcus spp. D. Veillonella spp.
Clostridium
All of the following organisms are found on the skin under normal conditions, except Propionibacterium. Peptostreptococcus. Streptococcus. Clostridium.
Propionibacterium P. acnes on skin
All the following organisms are found in the GI tract, except Bacteroides. Clostridium. Propionibacterium. Bifidobacterium.
Propionibacterium
All the following organisms are found in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract EXCEPT
past infection or exposure
An C. pneumoniae IgG titer of 1 : 16 or higher but less than 1 : 512 is evidence of
Peptostreptococcus anaerobius
An SPS-sensitive, gram-positive anaerobic coccus can be presumptively identified as
b. Fusobacterium necrophorum
An anaerobic, pleomorphic, gram-negative bacilli was recovered from a liver abscess. The special potency antimicrobial disks demonstrated that the organism was vancomycin-resistant, and colistin- and kanamycin-sensitive. Other results were as follows: chartreuse fluorescence, spot indole-positive, and lipase-positive. What is the most likely identification of the organism? a. Fusobacterium mortiferum b. Fusobacterium necrophorum c. Fusobacterium nucleatum d. Fusobacterium varium
Leptospira
An animal attendant at the zoo developed symptoms that included fever, chills, headache, severe myalgia, and malaise. His urinalysis revealed the presence of protein and blood. A couple of weeks earlier, the attendant was handling the chimpanzees, and one of the chimps urinated on him. What is the most likely cause of illness? Borrelia Leptospira Treponema Helicobacter
Clostridium difficile
An elderly patient in a nursing home is recovering from bacterial pneumonia. The patient has been on a lengthy regiment of antibiotics to kill the organism causing the disease. A few days later, the patient is diagnosed with pseudomembranous colitis. What organism is the most likely cause?
Actinomycosis
An immunosuppressed patient notices sinus tracts that are draining pus. He also notices that there appear to be small, hard "nuggets" in the pus. What disease is he most likely suffering from? Gas gangrene Pseudomembranous colitis Actinomycosis Myonecrosis
Actinomycosis
An immunosuppressed patient notices sinus tracts that are draining pus. He also notices that there appear to be small, hard "nuggets" in the pus. What disease will his doctor most likely diagnose
Clostridium difficile
An older adult patient in a nursing home is recovering from bacterial pneumonia. The patient has been on a lengthy regiment of antimicrobial agents. Subsequently, the patient is diagnosed with pseudomembranous colitis. What organism is the most likely cause? Clostridium difficile C. tetani C. perfringens C. botulinum
growth at 42 degrees C, pyocyanin production, gelatinase production
An organism has been identified as a member of the fluorescent group of Pseudomonas. Which of the following sets of tests should be used to determine the species of the organism?
d. Aerotolerant anaerobe
An organism that can live and grow in reduced concentrations of oxygen but prefers an anaerobic environment is known as a(n): a. Capnophile b. Obligate anaerobe c. Facultative anaerobe d. Aerotolerant anaerobe
Pseudomonas stutzeri Pseudomonas stutzeri typically produces a dry, wrinkled colony. The colony morphology resembles Burkholderia pseudomallei. This bacterium in not a common clinical isolate and is a rare pathogen.
An oxidase-positive, nonfermentative gram-negative bacillus that characteristically produces dry, wrinkled colonies describes
skin
Anaerobes outnumber aerobes in all of the following locations, except skin. oral cavity. gastrointestinal (GI) tract. genitourinary tract.
peptostreptococci
Anaerobic gram positive cocci are generally called
Fusobacterium mortiferum
Appears pleomorphic and exhibit globular forms, swellings, and other bizarre shapes
proteolytic enzymes (proteases)
Organisms that produce ___________ have a completely clear zone, often quite narrow, around their colonies. Proteolysis is best observed by holding the plate up to a strong light source. It is reminiscent of the complete clearing seen with β-hemolytic organisms on SBA plates, but this is on a EYA plate.
Burkholderia cepacia
Oxidative-fermentative base-polymyxin B-bacitracin-lactose (OFPBL) media is the best media to use to isolate which one of the following organisms from the sputa of patients with cystic fibrosis? A. delafieldii R. pickettii B. cepacia B. pseudomallei
Nosocomial
In what single setting does Stenotrophomonas maltophilia typically produce disease?
serovars D through K, Da, Ia, and Ja
Inclusion conjunctivitis is assocaited with which serotype of C. trachomatis?
Erythromycin
Infants born in the United States receive prophylactic eyedrops of this, to prevent eye infections by C. trachomatis and N. gonorrhoeae.
Traveling through an infected birth canal detour reccommended
Infants can be infected with Chlamydia spp. by
Fletcher, Stuart, or EMJH
Isolation of leptospires is accomplished by direct inoculation of blood or CSF into these media, and incubating in the dark at room temperature.
Lactobacillus acidophilus complex but L. fermentum, L. vaginalis, L. salivarius, L. plantarum, and others have also been recovered.
Predominant lactobacilli of a healthy vagina
NAAT
Prefferential diagnostic method for C. trachomatis genital infections
Serology
Primary method used for the laboratory diagnosis of syphilis.
blood culture contamination
Propionibacterium acnes is most often associated with: food poisoning post antibiotic diarrhea tooth decay blood culture contamination
Pyocyanin
Pseudomonas aeruginosa also produces this pigment in addition to pyoverdin
β-hemolysis
Pseudomonas aeruginosa displays what type of hemolysis
Fluoroquinolones
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is resistant to all the following antimicrobial agents, except
R. rickettsii, R. conorii, and R. africae
Rickettsia: The spotted fever group includes a number of species generally recognized as human pathogens, such as
R. akari, R. australis, and R. felis.
Rickettsia: The transitional group contains
R. prowazekii and R. typhi
Rickettsia: The typhus group contains these two species
B. Serological analysis
Routine laboratory testing for Treponema pallidum involves: A. Culturing B. Serological analysis C. Acid-fast staining D. Gram staining
Peptoniphilus (Peptostreptococcus) asaccharolyticus
SPS-resistant, spot indole-positive, gram-positive anaerobic coccus can be identified as
nongonococcal urethritis (NGU), epididymitis, and prostatitis
Serovars D through K are associated with these clinical infections in men
urethritis, follicular cervicitis (leukorrhea hypertrophic cervical erosion), endometritis, proctitis, salpingitis, pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), and perihepatitis. Reiter syndrome (urethritis, conjunctivitis, polyarthritis, and mucocutaneous lesions) in adults is believed to be caused by C. trachomatis.
Serovars D through K are associated with these clinical infections in women
Weil disease
Severe systemic disease includes renal failure, hepatic failure, and intravascular disease and can result in death.
Spirochetes
Slender, flexuous, helically shaped, unicellular bacteria ranging from 0.1 to 0.5 µm wide and from 5 to 20 µm long, with one or more complete turns in the helix.
P. acnes.
Small, opaque colonies that are catalase- and indole-positive and stain as coryneform rods can be identified as
Peptostreptococcus spp
Small, peaked, circular colonies appearing after 24 hours that stain as gram-positive cocci can be considered
c. Superoxide dismutase
Some anaerobes are particularly susceptible to oxygen because they lack the enzyme: a. Amylase b. β-Lactamase c. Superoxide dismutase d. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
sputum, bronchial lavage fluid, nasopharyngeal aspirates, throat washings, and throat swabs
Specimens collected for the detection of C. pneumoniae include
a flexible cell wall around which several fibrils are wound
Spirochetes differ from other bacteria in that they have:
C. bifermentans and C. sordelli
Spot indole positive clostridium
DNase
Stenotrophomonas maltophilia is positive for this test. Oxidase Lactose fermentation DNase None of the above
Acinetobacter spp
Strictly aerobic coccobacilli or even cocci. Oxidase NEGATIVE, nonmotile, purple hue.
Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction
Studies indicate that up to 39% of patients treated with antimicrobial agents experience fever, chills, headache, and myalgia believed to be caused by the sudden release of endotoxin from the spirochetes, a condition referred to as
great imitator
Syphilis has a wide variety of clinical manifestations, which gave rise to the name the "_______________"
Pinta
T. pallidum subsp. carateum Found in the tropical regions of Central and South America Spread by person-to-person contact (rarely by sexual relations) Lesions begin as scaling, painless papules followed by an erythematous rash that becomes hypopigmented with time This is descriptive of: Yaws Pinta Endemic syphilis rat bite fever
Face
The RMSF rash extends to the palms and soles but does not affect the ______
Kelly
The borreliae are typically cultivated in the clinical laboratory using _____ medium.
B. Preformed toxin in food
The classic form of foodborne botulism is characterized by the ingestion of: A. Spores in food B. Preformed toxin in food C. Toxin H D. All of these options
B. burgdorferi sensu lato
The complex _____________ causes a spectrum of syndromes known as Lyme disease
Rickettsia prowazekii. In this case, the arthropod vector, the body louse, can die of the rickettsial infection, and humans act as a natural reservoir.
The exception to Rickettsia transvarial tramission pattern
B. Fusobacterium spp.
The following characteristics of an obligate anaerobic gram-negative bacilli best describe which of the listed genera? Gram staining = Long, slender rods with pointed ends Colonial appearance = Dry bread crumbs or "fried-egg" appearance Penicillin two-unit disk test = Susceptible A. Bacteroides spp. B. Fusobacterium spp. C. Prevotella spp. D. Porphyromonas spp.
T. pallidum subsp. pallidum T. pallidum subsp. pertenue T. pallidum subsp. endemicum Treponema carateum
The four Treponema organisms that are pathogenic for humans.
Mobiluncus. four major groups: the B. fragilis group, Porphyromonas spp., Prevotella spp., and Fusobacterium spp.
The four major groups of anaerobic gram-negative bacilli include all the following, except Bacteroides fragilis. Porphyromonas. Prevotella. Mobiluncus.
C. trachomatis
The genera Chlamydia includes this species
C. pneumoniae, C. psittaci, and C. pecorum.
The genera Chlamydiphila includes these 3 species
EB
The infectious form of Chlamydiae, with the MOMP
Chancre
The lesion, known as a _______, is typically a single erythematous lesion that is nontender but firm, with a clean surface and raised border. The lesion is teeming with treponemes and is extremely infectious.
Infections caused by leptospires
The major renal lesion of these organisms is an interstitial nephritis with associated glomerular swelling and hyperplasia that does not affect the glomeruli
Serum
The most common and productive specimen collected for the laboratory diagnosis of B. burgdorferi sensu lato infection is _______.
Dermacentor variabilis in the southeastern United States and Dermacentor andersoni in the western part of the country
The most common tick vectors for RMSF
R. rickettsii
The most severe of the rickettsial infections, Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF) is caused by
trachoma
The number one cause of preventable blindness in the world
Leptospiraceae and Spirochaetaceae
The order Spirochaetales contains two families:
NAAT
The preferred method of detecting chlamydia infections due to its high sensitivity and specificity and the ability to detect chlamydia and gonorrhoeae in one test is: Complement fixation Cell culture EIA NAAT
Bacteroides fragilis
The presence of 20% bile in agar will allow growth of: Fusobacterium necrophorum Bacteroides fragilis Prevotella melaninogenica Porphyromonas asaccharolytica
MIF
The present method of choice for detecting C. pneumoniae is the _____ assay, which is more sensitive and specific than CF
CSF-VDRL
The serological test for syphilis recommended for detecting antibody in cerebrospinal fluid is: non-treponemal antibody CSF-VDRL FTA-ABS MHA-TP
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
The third most common cause of gram-negative bacillary bacteremia, after E. coli and Klebsiella pneumoniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Acinetobacter spp. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia Pseudomonas putida -------------
The three nonfermenters that make up the majority of isolates routinely seen in clinical laboratories include all the following, except
Ornithodoros
The tick-borne borreliae are transmitted by a large variety of soft ticks of this genus
Transovarial transmission
The transfer of a pathogen from parent to offspring by infection of the egg cell. Typically seen in insects Seen in Rickettsiae
Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) and rapid plasma reagin (RPR)
The two nontreponemal tests widely used today
Chlamydiae
Their unique growth cycle involves two distinct forms, an elementary body (EB), which is infectious, and a reticulate body (RB)
Alcaligenes faecalis and Achromobacter spp
These 2 possess peritrichous flagella and are obligately aerobic, oxidase positive gram-negative bacilli.
Tetracyclines
These are the drug of choice for treating Borreliae.
periplasmic flagella (axial filaments)
These fibrils are responsible for motility
Acineetobacter Steno malto Russell Crow Pseudomonas cepacia (slow weak positive) Pseudomonas luteola and P. oryzihabitans
These guys are Oxidase negative.
L. interrogans sensu lato and L. biflexa sensu lato
These two leptospiral serovars are pathogenic for a wide range of wild and domestic animals and humans.
Moraxella spp
These weak ass species are susceptible to penicillin (an unusual characteristic for a nonfermenter), and are notably in the wrong ****ing chapter
Fusobacterium nucleatum
Thin, gram-negative bacilli with tapered ends are suggestive of
Stenotrophomonas "Steno malto" maltophilia
Third most common nonfermentative, gram-negative bacillus isolated in the clinical laboratory. Nosocomial, Oxidase NEGATIVE, SXT drug of choice
Acinetobacter Iwoffi
This acinetobacter spp is asaccharolytic, and susceptible to almost all antimicrobials.
Acinetobacter baumannii
This acinetobacter spp is saccharolytic, and is resistant to many antimicrobials.
Skirrow agar
This agar is selective for H. pylori
Pseudomonas aeruginosa S. aureus smells like an old sock. P. mirabilis smells putrid. Nocardia sp. smells like a freshly plowed field.
This bacterium is said to have a fruity or grapelike smell.
Burkholderia "Are you not entertained" gladioli
This contrarian pathogen is negative for oxidase (some strains weakly positive), motile by means of one or two polar flagella and is catalase and urease positive, oxidizes glucose, is mannitol positive and decarboxylase negative, grows on MAC agar, and is 100% resistant to polymyxin B. Inhabits colosseums and likes swords.
Exotoxin A
This exotoxin of Pseudomonas aeruginosa functions similarly to diptheria toxin by blocking protein synthesis
Burkholderia mallei
This guy causes glanders, a super serious zoonotic disease that affects livestock. Considered a potential bioterrorism agent.
Burkholderia pseudomallei
This guy causes melioidosis, an aggressive pulmonary disease with metastatic abscesses in the lungs.
Egg Yolk Agar (EYA)
This plate can be used to determine the activities of lecithinase, lipase, and proteolytic enzymes. Useful for differentiating clostridium species.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
This pseudomonad likes to hang out at 42° C with campylobacter
Elizabethkingia meningoseptica
This species is in the running for having the dumbest name ever.
Burkholderia pseudomallei
This species should be suspected when a nonfermatative wrinkled colony with bipolar staining is isolated. Ashdown media is selective for this guy.
Borrelia
This spirochete stains easily and can be visualized by bright field microscopy.
Stage 3
This stage of lyme borreliosis is a late manifestation, or late persistent infection, with a focus on the cardiac, musculoskeletal, and neurologic systems. Arthritis is the most common symptom, occurring weeks to years later.
Stage 2
This stage of lyme borreliosis is early disseminated and produces widely variable symptoms that include secondary skin lesions, migratory joint and bone pain, alarming neurologic fatigue and cardiac pathology, splenomegaly, and severe malaise and fatigue.
Stage 1
This stage of lyme borreliosis is localized, exhibiting the EM skin lesion, beginning as a red macule and expanding to form large annular erythema with partial central clearing, or a target appearance.
Primary Stage
This stage of syphilis is characterized by the formation of the chancre, and no systemic signs or symptoms are evident.
Binding factor H
This virulence factor of Borrelia burgdorferi allows for complement evasion and immune system suppression and might explain, in part, why IgM antibody does not peak for 3 to 6 weeks.
infected lice are crushed and scratched into the skin rather than through the bite of an infected arthropod
Tick-borne endemic fever is trasmitted via bite, whereas louse-borne epidemic fever is transmitted via:
Veillonella
Tiny, round to oval, gram-negative cocci with a tendency to stain gram-variable are suggestive of
Endotoxin Exotoxins Capsule All of the above----------- P. aeruginosa may produce a variety of factors that lend to its pathogenicity, such as endotoxin (lipopolysaccharides), motility, pili, capsule, and several exotoxins: proteases, hemolysins, lecithinase, elastase, and DNase. Despite a number of virulence factors, this bacterium is still considered an opportunistic pathogen.
Which of the following is a virulence factor of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
Spore-forming anaerobic bacill All spore-forming anaerobic bacilli are classified in the genus Clostridium and collectively referred to as clostridia
Which of the following is characteristic of members of the genus Clostridium? Catalase positive Spore-forming anaerobic bacilli Spore-forming anaerobic cocci Facultative anaerobes
A. Kanamycin-vancomycin-anaerobe (KVA) agar
Which of the following is the medium of choice for the selective recovery of gram-negative anaerobes? A. Kanamycin-vancomycin-anaerobe (KVA) agar B. Phenylethyl alcohol (PEA) agar C. Cycloserine cefoxitin fructose agar (CCFA) D. THIO broth
Bacteroides and Prevotella
Which of the following pairs of organisms grow on kanamycin, vancomycin, laked blood agar? Bacteroides and Prevotella Mobiluncus and Gardnerella Porphyromonas and Enterococcus Veillonella and Capnocytophaga
Growth at 35-37 degrees C Unlike jejuni
Which of the following results is typical of Campylobacter fetus subspecies fetus?
d. Urethral swab
Which of the following specimens would be unacceptable for anaerobic culture? a. Aspirated pus b. Cerebrospinal fluid c. Tissue from biopsy d. Urethral swab
Burkholderia pseudomallei
Which organism exhibits bipolar staining on the Gram stain, which resembles a "safety-pin" appearance? B. mallei B. pseudomallei B. diminuta B. vesicularis
Acinetobacter spp.
Which organism may be mistaken for a lactose fermenter on MacConkey agar because of colonies exhibiting a purple hue on the media? Acinetobacter spp. P. luteola S. maltophilia Bordetella holmesii
C. botulinum
Which organism produces botulinum toxin?
B. burgdorferi sensu stricto
Which species of Borrelia bugdoorferrari is a strict North Americaphile?
Propionibacterium acnes (indole-positive) other Propionibacterium spp. (indole-negative).
Which species of Propionibacterium is indole positive
Pseudomonas stutzeri
Who dis? Hint: its wrinkled
Acineetobacter
Who dis? Is that a purple hue? Neeto!
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Who dis? Note the discoloration
Elizabethkingia meningoseptica
Who dis? Note the growth with yellow pigment on sheep blood agar (SBA) (left) and absence of growth on MacConkey plate (right)
D and E
Why it called Lyme disease? a. Persistent taste of lime in the infected. b. Flesh of the infected tastes of lime. c. The infected are disposed of using lyme to kill the organisms. d. The disease was first described after an outbreak among children in Lyme, Connecticut e. This is a stupid question why are you wasting your time you ****ing idiot.
Yes CNAs do support gram-positive facultative anaerobes
Will S. aureus grow on a CNA plate?
No identification is based on the colony appearance on nonselective anaerobic blood and EYAs.
Will gram-positive anaerobes grow on BBE or LKVB plates?
Laked blood component of Kanamycin-vancomycin-laked blood (KVLB) agar, Supports growth of Bacteroides and Prevotella spp.; yeasts and kanamycin-resistant, facultative, gram-negative bacilli will also grow
accelerates production of brown-black pigmented colonies by certain Prevotella spp.
Brill-Zinsser disease
also called recrudescent typhus
Gram negative anaerobic bacilli
are all non-spore-forming and are often found as members of the endogenous microbiota. They can be found as part of the microbiota of the oral cavity and GI and GU tracts. The genera most commonly encountered in clinical specimens include the B. fragilis group, Porphyromonas, Prevotella, and Fusobacterium.
Bilophila wadsworthia
bile-resistant gram negative anaerobe that will grow on BBE agar with a characteristic fish-eye appearance (see Figure 22-20) and will also grow on KVLB agar. The organism is strongly catalase-positive and nitrate-positive.
Coxiella burnetti
causative agent of Q (query) fever
C. trachomatis serovars L1, L2, L2a, L2b, and L3
cause LGV, a sexually transmitted disease (STD); these serovars are more invasive than the others.
Chlamydophila psittaci
cause of psittacosis among psittacine birds, also known as ornithosis or parrot fever
Chlamydophila psittaci
cause of psittacosis among psittacine birds, also known as ornithosis or parrot fever.
Pinta
caused by T. carateum, is found in the tropical regions of Central and South America. It is acquired by person to person contact and is rarely transmitted by sexual intercourse. Lesions begin as scaling, painless papules and are followed by an erythematous rash that becomes hypopigmented with time.
Endemic syphilis (bejel)
caused by T. pallidum subsp. endemicum and closely resembles yaws in clinical manifestations. It is found in the Middle East and the arid, hot areas of the world. The primary and secondary lesions are usually papules that often go unnoticed. They can progress to gummas of the skin, bones, and nasopharynx. Dark field microscopy is not useful because of normal oral spirochetal biota. Poor hygienic conditions are important in perpetuating these infections.
Anaplasma phagocytophilum
causes a disease referred to as human granulocytic anaplasmosis (HGA)
Ehrlichia chaffeensis Ehrlichia ewingii produces a disease indistinguishable from E. chaffeensis, and no currently available serologic test can distinguish these agents
causes human monocytic ehrlichiosis (HME)
Relapsing fever
characterized by acute febrile episodes that subside spontaneously but tend to recur over a period of weeks.
Positive lipase reaction on egg yolk agar. The reaction occurs on the surface of colonies and surrounding medium. A positive reaction by Fusobacterium necrophorum is shown here.
colony covered with an iridescent, multicolored sheen, sometimes described as resembling the appearance of gasoline on water or mother of pearl.
R. typhi
endemic typhus
R. prowazekii Rash on Palms and Soles, like RMSF, but ALSO on face
epidemic louse-borne typhus and Brill-Zinsser disease
Fusobacterium mortiferum or F. necrophorum
extremely pleomorphic, gram-negative bacilli with bizarre shapes are suggestive of
F. nucleatum and C. difficile
fluoresce chartreuse
Peptoniphilus
gram positive anaerobic coccus - Spot indole-positive
Anaerococcus tetradius
gram positive anaerobic coccus - only urease-positive
Peptostreptococcus indolicus
gram positive anaerobic coccus - positive nitrate test
Peptostreptococcus anaerobius
gram positive anaerobic coccus - zone of inhibition around an SPS disk
C. difficile
has a characteristic odor, resembling a horse stable, and colonies on blood agar fluoresce chartreuse under UV light.
borreliae
highly flexible organisms varying in thickness from 0.2 to 0.5 µm and in length from 3 to 20 µm. The spirals vary in number from 3 to 10 per organism and are much less tightly coiled than those of the leptospires
Lactobacillus
highly pleomorphic bacilli, which may appear on Gram stain as a coccoid or spiral-shaped organism
Dogs, rats and other rodents
principal animal reservoirs of Leptsospires
Positive lecithinase reaction on egg yolk agar. The reaction occurs within the agar. Clostridium perfringens is shown here.
produces an opaque zone around the colony. This opacity is actually in the medium and is not a surface phenomenon
Peptococcus niger
produces colonies that are initially black to olive green and become light gray when exposed to air, but it is only rarely isolated from clinical specimens
Psychrobacter immobilis
psychrotropic, and the optimal temperature for growth is 20° C. They have been isolated from fish, processed meat, and poultry. Clinically, they have been isolated from the eye of a newborn, who had acquired the infection nosocomially via a water source.
cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar (CCFA) plate
selective and differential medium for the recovery and presumptive identification of C. difficile
Colistin nalidixic acid (CNA) blood agar plate Supports growth of almost all obligate anaerobes (gram-positive and gram-negative) and gram-positive, facultative anaerobes
selective medium containing sheep red blood cells and the antimicrobials colistin and nalidixic acid; used primarily to suppress the growth of any facultative, gram-negative bacilli (e.g., Enterobacteriaceae) that might be present in the clinical specimen, especially swarming Proteus spp
Elementary body (EB)
small metabolically inactive, extracellular, infectious form released by the infected host
Yaws
spirochetal disease caused by T. pallidum subsp. pertenue. It is endemic in the humid, tropical belt, the tropical regions of Africa, parts of South America, India, and Indonesia, and many of the Pacific Islands. It is not seen in the United States. The course of yaws resembles that of syphilis, but the early stage lesions are elevated, granulomatous nodules.
Buboes
swollen lymph nodes, seen in LGV
erythema migrans (EM)
the classic skin lesion that is normally found at the site of the lyme borreliosis tick bite
Borrelia and Treponema
the family Spirochaetaceae contains these two
B. fragilis gram-negative
the most common species of anaerobic bacteria isolated from infectious processes of soft tissue and anaerobic bacteremia
Finegoldia magna
the most pathogenic of the anaerobic cocci and the one most often isolated in pure culture
C. sordellii
the only Clostridium species that is urease-positive.
Treponemes
thin, spiral organisms about 0.1 to 0.2 µm in thickness and 6 to 20 µm in length. They are difficult to visualize with a bright field microscope because they are so thin, but they can be seen very easily using dark field microscopy. The spirals are regular and angular, with 4 to 14 spirals per organism. Three periplasmic flagella are inserted into each end of the cell. The ends are pointed and covered with a sheath. The cells are motile, with graceful flexuous movements in liquid.
Tick-borne borreliae
widely distributed throughout the Eastern and Western hemispheres, and transmission to a vertebrate host takes place via infected saliva during tick attachment
Syphilis Primary syphilis lesions develop 10 to 90 days after infection and are a result of an inflammatory response to the bacteria at the site of inoculation. The lesion, known as the chancre, is typically a single erythematous lesion that is not tender but is firm with a clean surface and raised border. The lesion is teeming with treponemes and is extremely infectious.
A man is taking a shower and notices a lesion on his penis that is not tender but is firm with a clean surface and raised edges. He goes to his physician. The physician orders a rapid plasmin reagin (RPR) and a dark-field microscopy. Both tests are positive. What is the probable diagnosis? Gonorrhea Nongonococcal urethritis Syphilis Human papillomavirus
P. aeruginosa Keywords: metallic sheen, grapelike odor, cetrimide agar
A microbiologist is reading the plates from a sputum culture. On the sheep blood agar (SBA), the microbiologist sees flat spreading colonies with a metallic sheen. On cetrimide agar, a fluorescent green color is seen in the medium with clear colonies. On MacConkey, medium clear colonies are seen that have a fruity or grapelike odor. What is the most likely organism?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa P. aeruginosa is a gram-negative rod that produces a green pigment and sometimes a metallic sheen on culture media. S. marcescens produces a brick-red pigment. C. violaceum produces a purple pigment. P. melaninogenica produces a brown-black pigment.
A microbiologist is reading the plates from a sputum culture. The culture is from a patient with cystic fibrosis. One organism dominates the blood agar, chocolate, and MacConkey plates. The MacConkey plate shows an organism with a green pigment and a metallic sheen. The probable identification for this organism is
Clostridium perfringens
A microbiology technologist is reading an anaerobic culture and observes a double zone of hemolysis on an anaerobically incubated sheep blood agar plate. The Gram stain of that organism was a boxcar-shaped, gram-positive bacillus. What organism is this
B fragilis
A microbiology technologist is reading an anaerobic plate from an intestinal abscess. There is growth on the Bacteroides bile esculin (BBE) plate: gray colonies with a brown color in the area around the colonies. There is also a dark precipitate in the medium in the areas of heavy growth. The technician Gram stains the colonies and observes gram-negative coccobacilli. What is the presumptive identification of this organism
Clostridium difficile
A patient is diagnosed with pseudomembranous colitis. What organism is the most likely cause
C. septicum
A rapidly growing colony exhibiting smooth swarming (as opposed to the waves observed with Proteus) and staining as thin rods with subterminal spores is likely to be
Bacteroides bile esculin (BBE) agar
A selective medium containing gentamicin (which inhibits most aerobic organisms), 20% bile (which inhibits most anaerobes), and esculin; used primarily for rapid isolation and presumptive identification of members of the B. fragilis group, which grow well on BBE (because of their bile tolerance) and turn the originally light-yellow medium to black (because of esculin hydrolysis)
Clostridium tetani
A strict anaerobe that produces terminal spores is: Clostridium tetani Corynebacterium diphthereria Bacillus anthracis Propionibacterium acnes
C. septicum
A swarming, gram-positive, anaerobic bacillus with subterminal spores
C. tetani
A swarming, gram-positive, anaerobic bacillus with terminal spores
Nongonococcal urethritis, Chlamydia trachomatis
A young man goes to his physician complaining of a discharge from his penis. The physician collects a slide for Gram stain and a swab for culture and sends them to the laboratory. The Gram stain reveals greater than 25 white blood cells/high-power field, no bacteria seen. The culture results after 48 hours show no growth. What is the most probable diagnosis and the organism responsible? Urethritis, Streptococcus pneumoniae Epididymitis, Moraxella Nongonococcal urethritis, Neisseria meningitidis Nongonococcal urethritis, Chlamydia trachomatis
Lyme disease and doxycycline
A young woman notices a red bruiselike lesion that looks like a target on her lower leg. She cannot remember getting bruised, even though she went hiking through the woods last weekend. The bruise goes away in about a week and she thinks nothing more about it. About 2 weeks later, she develops joint and bone pain, extreme fatigue, and her heart just "doesn't feel right." What disease does she have, and what antimicrobial agent is used to treat it? Lyme disease and doxycycline Relapsing fever and macrolides Parrot fever and penicillin Hemorrhagic fever and gentamicin
abscess
Acceptable specimen sources for culture of anaerobic bacteria includes: abscess stool clean catch urine vaginal
will grow on MAC and EMB media Iwoffi dont give a **** he grow anywhere
Acinetobacter lwoffi differs from Neisseria gonorrhoeae in that Acinetobacter :
Positive differentiates from negative Clostridium
Bacillus catalase test
Eubacterium
Bacterial vaginosis is a synergistic infectious process involving all the following bacteria EXCEPT
Eubacterium.
Bacterial vaginosis is a synergistic infectious process involving all the following bacteria, except Eubacterium. Bacteroides. Gardnerella. Peptostreptococcus.
acetylcholine
Botulinum toxin attaches to the neuromuscular junction of nerves and prevents the release of which neruotransmitter, which results in flaccid paralysis and death.
R. conorii
Boutonneuse fever, also known as Mediterranean spotted fever, caused by
Porphyromonas and Prevotella
Brick red fleuresence under UV light is presumptive for these two
Spore former
C. burnetti is unique in that
Rule-out disease If C. pneumoniae- and C. trachomatis-specific IgG and IgM are not detected by MIF and a fourfold rise in chlamydiae antibodies is detected by CF, it be psittaci probably
Diagnoses of C. psittaci is often called a __________
C. perfringens
Double zone of hemolysis on SBA plate incubated anaerobically, suggestive of
Clostridium perfringens
Double zone of hemolysis produced by
Penicillin
Drug of choice for treating patients with syphilis.
facultative anaerobic gram negative Growth on MAC in ambient air or CO2
E. coli
It affects the face, in addition to the palms and soles. There are also Taches noires at the primary site of infection.
How can the Boutonneuse fever rash be differentiated from the RMSF rash?
clinical appearance and Gram staining of vaginal secretions that reveals a shift in the vaginal biota from predominantly gram-positive lactobacilli to a mixture of Gardnerella spp. (gram-variable bacilli) and mixed gram negative anaerobes.
How is BV diagnosed?
A rapid urease test done on a gastric biopsy H. pylori may be presumptively identified in a gastric biopsy specimen by testing for the presence of a rapid urease reaction. Urease activity may also be detected by the urea breath test.
How is Helicobacter pylori presumptively identified?
You ****ing look at it. Easily seen in Wright-stained blood smears during the febrile period.
How is borreliosis diagnosed?
Crossing the placenta
How is congenital syphilis transmitted from the mother to her unborn child? During birth from the birth canal During the microhemorrhages that occur as the placenta breaks away from the uterus Crossing the placenta None of the above
During birth from the birth canal
How is congenital syphilis transmitted from the mother to her unborn child? During birth from the birth canal During the microhemorrhages that occur as the placenta breaks away from the uterus Crossing the placenta None of the above
Special potency disks Although the Gram stain is helpful in the initial identification of an anaerobic isolate, certain species of Clostridium may stain pink and thus appear to be gram-negative bacilli. To determine the true Gram stain reaction of the isolate, special-potency disks can be used.
How is the true Gram stain reaction of an anaerobe determined? Special potency disks Shape and colony morphology Aerotolerance Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)
5 to 7 days
How long are anaerobic cultures routinely held in the laboratory? 1 to 2 days 3 to 4 days 5 to 7 days 7 to 9 days
CCFA: yellow, ground glass colonies
If a stool specimen is sent to the laboratory to rule out Clostridium difficile, what media should the microbiologist use and what is the appearance of this organism on this medium? BBE: colonies turn black Brucella agar: red pigmented colonies CCFA: yellow, ground glass colonies CNA;double zone hemolytic colonies
they are usually polymicrobic
In general , anaerobic infections differ from aerobic infections in which of the following ? They usually respond favorably to aminoglycoside therapy They usually arise from exogenous sources they are usually polymicrobic Gram stains of specimens are less helpful in diagnosis
IgM
In patients with a leptospiral bacteremia, ______ antibodies are detected within 1 week after onset of disease and may persist in high titers for many months.
Gastric, urea, breath test, Type B gastritis, 37° C
Keywords for Helicobacter pylori
Bubo
LGV results in the formation of this
L1, L2, L2a, L2b, and L3
LGV serovars
Fusobacterium necrophorum a syndrome of thrombophlebitis of the jugular vein that occurs rarely following group A streptococcal pharyngitis
Lemierre's disease is caused by
Rapid and rotational
Leptispira motility is described as
Binary Fission
Leptospira and Borrelia divide via:
neutral;alkaline
Leptospires can survive in ________ or slightly ________ waters for months
Pediculus humanus
Louse-borne fever is transmitted via this species of louse.
Ixodes ticks
Lyme borreliosis causing organisms are transmitted via the bite of infected ______ _____.
B. fragilis
Material from an intestinal abscess produces gray colonies with a brown color in the area around the colonies on a BBE plate incubated anaerobically. There is also a dark precipitate in the medium in the areas of heavy growth. A Gram stain of the colonies reveals gram-negative coccobacilli. What is the presumptive identification of this organism? Bacteroides vulgatus B. fragilis B. pneumoniae B. denticola
aminoglycosides ---- This one ceftazidime. SXT. piperacillin
Members of the Alcaligenes are usually susceptible to all the following antimicrobial agents, except
Pyoverdin
Members of the Pseudomonas fluorescent group all produce this pigment
Reticulate body (RB)
Metabolically active form of Chlamydia that has conventional bacteria-like properties
B. fragilis group
Most commonly isolated anaerobes from blood cultures.
RB
Non-infectious form of Chlamydiae
Actinomyces, Bifidobacterium, Eubacterium, Mobiluncus, Lactobacillus, and Propionibacterium spp.
Non-spore-forming, anaerobic, gram-positive bacilli include
Pseudomonas.
Not including organisms in the Enterobacteriaceae family, the most common gram-negative bacilli encountered in clinical specimens are: Pseudomonas. Burkholderia. Ralstonia. Vibrio.
Bilophila wadsworthia
Note the fish eye appearance of the colonies
The organism systematically changes its surface antigens during the course of a single infection.
Once infected with Borrelia recurrentis, a 2- to 15-day incubation period follows where high numbers of organisms are found in the blood. The infected individual experiences high fever, rigors, severe headache, muscle pains, and weakness. This febrile period lasts for about 3 to 7 days, but ends quickly with the induction of an immune response. However, a similar but less severe course of symptoms recurs several days to weeks later. What causes this relapse? The organism systematically changes its surface antigens during the course of a single infection. The organism produces extracellular toxins that cause the symptoms. This organism survives inside infected cells and once the cell dies, the organism is released into the blood, causing this relapse. This relapse occurs as the host is trying to mount the secondary antibody response.
Propionibacterium acnes
pleomorphic rods with a diphtheroid appearance.
Actinomyces spp
irregular staining can produce a beaded or banded appearance, much like that seen with Nocardia spp.
Leptospirosis
is a zoonoses primarily associated with occupational or recreational exposure. Working with animals or in ratinfested surroundings poses hazards for veterinarians, dairy workers, swine handlers, slaughterhouse workers, miners, sewer workers, and fish and poultry processors.
C. trachomatis
most common sexually transmitted bacterial pathogen in the United States.
NAAT
most frequently used method for direct detection of E. chaffeensis
Veillonella spp.
often fluoresce red, but the fluorescence is dependent on the culture medium. It is weaker than the fluorescence produced by pigmented species of Porphyromonas and Prevotella and fades completely if the colonies are exposed to air for 5 to 10 minutes.
A. israelii
older colonies usually have a molar tooth appearance