MICRO EXAM 4
A secondary acquired immunodeficiency is: A) AIDS B) adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency C) DiGeorge syndrome D) agammaglobulinemia E) Type I diabetes
A
Allergic patients receiving small, controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing: A) desensitization B) sensitization C) tissue matching D) degranulation E) none of the choices are correct
A
Antitoxins: A) contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin B) use Vaccinia virus with genetic material of bacterial toxins C) contained purified, chemically denatured bacterial exotoxin D) include capsule material against the pneumococcus and meningococcus
A
Atopy and anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category: A) Type 1 only B) Type 1 and Type 4 C) Type 4 D) Type 1, Type 2, Type 3 E) Type 1, Type 2, Type 3, and Type 4
A
Erythroblastosis fetalis can be prevented by: A) injecting the mother with antibodies against the Rh factor late in the pregnancy and after giving birth B) treating the fetus with immune globulin C) birth by cesarean section D) treating the mother with RhoGAM earli the pregnancy E) none of the choices are correct
A
High titers of specific antibodies are components of: A) specific immune globulin (SIG) B) gamma globulin C) immune serum globulin (ISG) D) attenuated vaccines E) toxoids
A
Histamine causes all the following, except: A) increased sensitivity to light B) constriction of smooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine C) relaxes vascular smooth muscle D) wheal and flare reaction in skin E) pruritis and headache
A
Human blood types involve all the following, except: A) MHC genes B) ABO antigen markers C) inheritance of two of three possible alleles D) genetically determined glycoprotein markers E) genes that code for an enzyme that adds a terminal carbohydrate to RBC receptor
A
Jose needs a kidney due to his diabetes. His sister is a close match and is willing to give him one of hers. What type of transplant is this? A) allograft B) xenograft C) autograft D) heterograft E) none of the choices are correct
A
Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to formation of antigen - antibody complexes that deposit in basement membranes occur in: A) serum sickness B) delayed hypersensitivity C) anaphylaxis D) hemolytic disease of the newborn E) all of the choices are correct
A
Plasma cells: A) secrete antibodies B) function in allergic reactions C) directly destroy target cells D) suppress immune reactions E) activate B cells and other T cells
A
Reliable vaccines exist for all of the following diseases except A) malaria B) botulism C) cholera D) yellow fever E) rabies.
A
The heart of a baboon transplanted to a human would be a: A) xenograft B) autograft C) allograft D) heterograft E) homograft
A
The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer from form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is: A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM
A
The initial encounter with an allergen is called the: A) sensitizing dose B) provocative dose C) allergic dose D) hypersensitivity dose E) desensitizing dose
A
The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/an: A) epitope B) hapten C) antigen binging site D) variable region E) none of the choices are correct
A
Toxoids: A) contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules B) are always genetically engineered C) contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses D) confer passive immunity E) all of the choices are correct
A
Variolation involved using: A) dried, ground smallpox scabs B) a recombinant carrier with genetic material of the smallpox virus C) preparations of human cowpox lesions D) antibodies to the smallpox virus E) none of the choices are correct
A
Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators? A) degranulation B) binding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C) binding IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D) histamine acts on smooth muscle E) prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increasd vascular permeability
A
Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immugenity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site? A) adjuvant B) booster C) antibodies to toxin D) gamma globulin E) 'Trojan horse' recombinant vaccine
A
Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity? A) neutralization B) opsonization C) complement fixation D) agglutination E) anamnestic response
A
A female who is Rh+: A) inherited two recessive genes B) is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status C) is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn D) can only have an Rh positive baby E) all of the choices are correct
B
A person with type O blood A) lacks antibodies to A and B blood types B) lacks A and B antigens C) could not have the Rh factor D) is called a universal recipient E) all of the choices are correct
B
All of the following are correct about Type O blood, except: A) persons with this type of blood are considered universal donor B) persons with this type of blood carry an O antigen on their RBC C) persons with this type of blood have anti - A and anti - B antibodies in their plasma D) this is the most common blood type among all racial groups in the U.S.
B
All of the following operate in surveillance and destruction of tumor cells, except: A) macrophages B) B cells C) natural killer cells D) cytotxic T cells
B
Class I MHC genes code for: A) certain secreted complement components B) markers that display unique characteristics of self C) all HLA antigens D) receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells E) all of the choices are correct
B
Epinephrine: A) is an antihistamine B) reverses constriction of airways C) causes desentization D) inhibits the activity of lymphocytes E) all of the choices are correct
B
Mold spores and animal dander are considered to be which type of allergen? A) ingestant B) inhalant C) injectant D) contactant E) none of the choices are correct
B
Sam works in construction and stepped on a sharp nail. He can't remember the last time he had a tetanus shot. What type of immunity is the most important for him to receive? A) natural active immunity B) artificial passive immunity C) natural passive immunity D) artificial active immunity E) none of the choices will help him
B
Small region molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed: A) antigenic determinant B) hapten C) antigen binding site D) variable region E) none of the choices are correct
B
The bone marrow is where: A) immune responses to antigen occur B) blood stem cells give rise to immune lymphocytes C) antigen is filtered from the blood D) antigen is filtered from tissue fluid E) T lymphocytes complete maturation
B
The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when: A) maternal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- fetus B) fetal Rh+ cells enter and Rh- mother C) maternal Rh- cells enter and Rh+ fetus D) fetal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ fetus E) fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh+ mother
B
Treatment for agammaglobulinemia is: A) frequent transfusions of Rh + bold B) passive immunotherapy and continuous antibiotic therapy C) bone marrow transplant D) allografts of skin E) continuous immunosuppressive therapy
B
What is the Arthus reaction? A) an autoimmune disorder B) an acute response to a second injection of vaccines at the same site C) a positive tuberculosis skin test D) the lysis of RBC due to complement during an incorrect blood transfusion
B
What will be the immediate action of allergen when it enters the body for a second time? A) degranulation B) bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C) binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D) histamine acts on smooth muscle E) prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
B
When grafted tissue such as bone marrow contains passenger lymphocytes, what could result? A) host rejection of graft B) Graft versus host disease C) formation of autoantibodies D) hypogammaglobulinemia E) none of the choices are correct
B
Which is incorrect about the Fc region of an immunoglobulin? A) it determines the antibody's distribution in the body B) it forms the antigen binding sites C) it contains an effector molecule that can bind to cells such as macrophages and mast cells D) it contains an effector molecule that can fix complement E) it determines the class to which the immunoglobulin belongs
B
Which of the following is mismatched? A) ingestant - nuts B) inhalant - bee C) injectant - vaccine D) contactant - rubber E) ingestant - food additive
B
Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis? A) neutralization B) opsonization C) complement fixation D) agglutination E) anamnestic response
B
Which type of cell is severely depressed in AIDS patients? A) cytotoxic T cells B) helper T cells C) B cells D) plasma cells E) suppressor T cells
B
Which of the immunizations would carry the greatest risk for immunocompromised patients? A) killed, inactivated vaccines B) attenuated vaccines C) toxoids D) immune serums E) subunit vaccines
B ATTENUATED VACCINES is created by reducing the virulence of a pathogen, but still keeping it viable (or "live"). Attenuation takes an infectious agent and alters it so that it becomes harmless or less virulent. These vaccines contrast to those produced by "killing" the virus (inactivated vaccine).
Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines: A) contained modified bacterial exotoxin molecules B) are always genetically engineered C) contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses D) confer passive immunity E) all of the choices are correct
C
All of the following are involved in Type 2 hypersensitivity, except: A) IgM B) IgG C) IgE D) complement E) foreign cells
C
An example of artificial passive immunity would be: A) chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity B) chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox C) giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease D) a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta E) none of the choices are correct
C
Any heightened or inappropriate immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a/an: A) autoimmune disease B) immunodeficiency C) hypersensitivity D) transfusion reaction E) desensitization
C
Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen? A) ingestant B) inhalant C) injectant D) contactant E) none of the choices are correc
C
Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen? A) ingestant B) inhalant C) injectant D) contactant E) none of the choices are correct
C
Cytotoxic T cells: A) stimulate B cell proliferation B) lack specificity for a target cell C) secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells D) secrete interleukin - 2 to stimulate B and T cells E) all of the choices are correct
C
Herceptin is an example of a monoclonal antibody - based drug for: A) asthma B) Chron's disease C) breast cancer D) respiratory syncytial virus E) all of the choices are correct
C
In the secondary response to an antigen, the predominant antibody is: A) IgD B) IgE C) IgG D) IgM E) IgA
C
Superantigens are: A) body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign B) cell markers found in some members of a species but not in other members C) bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens D) those that evoke allergic reactions E) none of the choices are correct
C
The DiGeorge syndrome is the result of A) autoantibodies B) delayed hypersensitivity C) congenital absense or immaturity of thymus gland D) failure of B cell development and maturity E) a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells.
C
The chemical mediator that causes prolonged bronchospasm, vascular permeability, and mucus secretion of asthmatic patients is: A) prostaglandins B) histamine C) leukotriene D) serotonin E) platelet-activating factor
C
The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is: A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM
C
The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B cells is/are: A) IgM only B) IgG only C) IgD only D) IgM and IgG E) IgE and IgA
C
The most significant cells in graft rejection are: A) helper T cells B) suppressor T cells C) cytotoxic T cells D) B cells E) natural killer (NK) cells
C
Which of these chemicals is a powerful inflammatory agent that also stimulates uterine contractions? A) Bradykinin B) platelet - activating factor C) prostaglandins D) leukotriene E) histamine
C
A person who has anti-A and anti-B serum antibodies will have blood type: A) A B) B C) AB D) O E) Rh
D
A xenograft is a tissue exchange: A) between identical twins B) between siblings C) from one site on the body to another site D) between individuals of different species
D
All of the following cells participate in immune surveillance, except: A) macrophages B) natural killeR cells C) cytotoxic T cells D) plasma cells E) all of the choices participate
D
All of the following characterize the secondary response to an antigen, except: A) a higher titer of antibody is produced than the primary response. B) a longer persistence of antibody than with the primary response. C) a quicker rate of antibody synthesis than the primary response. D) it is mostly IgM antibodies that are produced. E) it is also known as the anamnestic response.
D
Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all of the following diseases, except: A) rheumatoid arthritis B) myasthenia gravis C) Grave's disease D) tuberculin reaction E) multiple sclerosis
D
Class II MHC genes code for: A) certain secreted complement components B) self receptors recognized by natural killer cells C) all HLA antigens D) receptors located primarily on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells E) all of the choices are correct
D
Edward Jenner's work involved: A) Inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity B) development of passive immunotherapy C) development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox D) immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one E) all of the choices are correct
D
In the primary response to an antigen, the first class of antibody to be secreted is: A) IgD B) IgE C) IgG D) IgM E) IgA
D
Properties of effective antigens include all the following, except: A) foreign to the immune system B) molecular complexity C) large molecules with a minimum molecular weight of 1,000 D) large polymers made up of repeating subunits E) cells or large, complex molecules
D
The major categories of hypersensitivities that typically involve a B-cell immunoglobulin response is/are: A) Type 1 only B) Type 1 and Type 4 C) Type 4 D) Type 1, Type 2, Type 3 E) Type 1, Type 2, Type 3, and Type 4
D
The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all the following, except: A) two identical heavy polypeptide chains B) two identical light polypeptide chains C) disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains D) four antigen binding sites E) a variable and constant region on each polypeptide chain
D
The progeny cells of a B - cell clone are called: A) antibodies B) sensitized T cells C) activated macrophages D) plasma cells E) Bursa cells
D
The serum of a person with blood type A, Rh- will have which of the following? A) anti A, anti Rh B) anti B, anti Rh C) anti A D) anti B E) anti A, anti B, anti Rh
D
This can be a consequence of a genetic deficiency in B cell survival and maturity: A) host rejection of graft B) graft versus host disease C) formation of autoantibodies D) hypogammaglobulinemia E) none of the choices are correct
D
Which cells play the greatest role in allergic symptoms A) T cells B) monocytes C) plasma cells D) mast cells E) eosinophils
D
Which is incorrect about DiGeorge syndrome? A) it is a severe deficiency of T cells B) sometimes, it is associated with a deletion in chromosome 22 C) common childhood disease can be fatal in affected children D) the major therapy is a bone marrow transplant E) symptoms include reduced growth and unusual facial characteristics
D
Which of the following does not belong with transformed cancer cells? A) oncogenic viruses B) increased rate of growth C) chromosomal alterations D) capacity for limited dividision E) changed surface molecules
D
Which of the following is incorrect about the role of mast cells and basophils in allergies? A) they degranulate when triggered by a specific allergen through the IgE bound to them B) they carry high numbers of cell receptors that bind to IgE antibodies C) their cytoplasm secretory vesicles contain physiologically active cytokines D) they are found mainly in the lymph nodes E) none of the choices are correct
D
Which process involves antibodies cross - linking cells or particles into large aggregates? A) neutralization B) opsonization C) complement fixation D) agglutination E) anamnestic response
D
All of the following are associated with IgE- and mast cell-mediated allergy, except: A) drug allergy B) eczema C) anaphylaxis D) allergic asthma E) systemic lupus erythematosus
E
All of the following are examples of autoimmune diseases, except: A) multiple sclerosis B) Graves disease C) Hasimoto thyroiditis D) myasthenia gravis E) Wiskott - Aldrich syndrome
E
Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions: A) are the result of genetic expression B) function in recognition of self molecules C) receive and transmit chemical messages among otheR cells of the system D) aid in cellular development E) all of the choices are correct
E
Contact dermatitis involves: A) a sensitizing and provocative dose B) allergen entering the skin C) T lymphocytes secrete inflammatory cytokines D) itchy papules and blisters E) all of the choices are correct
E
Helper T cells: A) secrete antibodies B) function in allergic reactions C) directly destroy target cells D) suppress immune reactions E) activate B cells and other T cells
E
Immunotherapy is the: A) use of antitoxins B) use of immune serum globulin C) conferring of passive immunity D) administering of preformed antibodies E) all of the choices are correct
E
Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by: A) removal of virulence genes from the microbe B) treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation C) passage of the pathogen through unnatural hosts or tissue culture D) long - term subculturing of the microbe E) all of the choices are correct
E
Live, attenuated vaccines: A) include the Sabin vaccine B) include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR) C) contain viable microbes that can multiply in person D) require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines E) all of the choices are correct
E
Lymphocytes: A) possess MHC antigens for recognizing self B) have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens C) gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that cound react against self D) develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity E) all of the choices are correct
E
Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are due to: a) autoantibodies b) delayed hypersensitivity c) congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland d) failure of B cell development and maturity e) a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells
E
The DTaP immunization: A) contains diphtheria toxoid B) is administered in childhood C) contains tetanus toxoid D) contains a pertussis vaccine with acellular capsule material E) all of the choices are correct
E
Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause: A) recipient antibody activating the complement cascade to attack the RBCs B) fever and anemia C) systemic shock and kidney failure D) massive hemolysis of the donor RBCs E) all of the choices are correct
E
Vaccinia virus is often used in the technique to make: A) adjuvant B) booster C) antibodies to toxin D) gamma globulin E) 'Trojan horse' recombinant vaccine
E
Which antibody confers the most important specific local immunity to enteric, respiratory, and genitourinary pathogens? A) IgD B) IgE C) IgG D) IgM E) IgA
E
Which are the first to attack cancer cells and virus - infected cells? A) helper T cells B) suppressor T cells C) cytotoxic T cells D) delayed hypersensitivity T cells E) natural killer (NK) cells
E
Which is mismatched? A) food allergy - Type I hypersensitivity B) poison ivy dermatitis - Type 4 hypersensitivity C) serum sickness - Type 3 hypersensitivity D) transfusion reaction - Type 2 hypersensitivity E) hay fever - Type 4 hypersensitivity
E
Which of the following can cause secondary acquired immunodeficiencies in T cells and B cells? A) radiation B) chemotherapy C) organic disease D) infection E) all of the choices are correct
E
Which of the following is not a possible symptom of Type I hypersensitivity? A) rhinitis B) rashes C) sneezing D) diarrhea E) contact dermatitis
E
Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen? A) neutralization B) opsonization C) complement fixation D) agglutination E) anamnestic response
E
Immune sera is produced in horses for all the following, except: Selected Answer:
chickenpox
