Microbiology

Chickenpox is caused by a very contagious herpes virus that infects epidermal cells. Which of the following is characteristic of a chickenpox infection? a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

2

This image shows the effects of cholera toxin on intestinal cells. Which numbered arrow indicates the step of the toxin entering a cell via endocytosis? a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

2

Which images display organelles? a)1 and 2 b)2 and 4 c)1 and 3 d)3 and 4

2 and 4

Which of the following vaccine characteristics is/are mismatched with its/their respective vaccine type? Salk Vaccine Sabin Vaccine 1. Consists of a formalin-inactivated virus 4. Consists of a live, attenuated virus 2. Administered orally 5. Administered orally 3. Requires booster doses 6. Provides community immunity a.)1, 3, and 5 b.)4, 5, and 6 c.)1 and 3 only d.)2 only

2 only

If you wanted to radioactively tag newly synthesized DNA, which numbered phosphate would need to be radioactive? a)1 b)2 c)3 d)Either 1, 2, or 3 would work.

3

In the figure below, which depicts cocci in chains? a)1 b)2 c)3 d)none of the labeled areas

3

In this image of a nucleoside, which arrow is pointing to the 2′ carbon of deoxyribose? a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

3

In this model of a Gram-negative bacterial cell envelope, which line is drawn to the periplasm? a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

3

Using the figure below, which of the following images depicts the refraction of light? a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

3

Which image shows Giardia lamblia visualized with a scanning electron microscope? a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

3

A cell's genome consists of 20% thymine. What is the percentage of cytosine? a)20% b)30% c)60% d)80%

30%

What is the total magnification of a specimen viewed with a 10x ocular lens and a 35x objective lens? a)10x b)3.5x c)350x d)3500x

350x

Which number in the graph shown corresponds to the decline phase of an infectious disease? a)2 b)3 c)4 d)5

4

Which of the following displays a pus-filled raised lesion? a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

4

Based on the figure below, approximately what percentage of the hospitalizations in week 43 resulted in deaths? a)80% b)40% c)20% d)4%

4%

If a portion of the template strand of a gene has the sequence 5′ TTGCAGCT 3′, what is the sequence of the RNA transcribed from this template? a. 5′AACGTCGA3′ b. 5′AACGUCGA3′ c. 5′ AGCUGCAA3′ d. 5′ AGCTGCAA3′

5′ AGCUGCAA3′

This graph shows the percent mortality in populations of lab animals exposed to increasing concentrations of two different pathogens (agent 1 and agent 2). What is the lethal dose 50% (LD50) of agent 2? a)400 b)600 c)800 d)1000

600

If you start with 14 organisms at time 0, how many organisms will you have after 9 generations, assuming exponential growth? a. 126 b. 512 c. 7,168 d. 14,336

7,168

The figure shown indicates the spread of a highly infectious disease. The numbered circle, labeled "35," indicates a. the index case. b. a "super spreader." c. the beginning of a "daisy chain." d. a noninfectious carrier.

a "super spreader."

An antibiotic that inhibits peptidyl transferase activity likely binds to a. aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase. b. mRNA. c. a 30S ribosome subunit. d. a 50S ribosome subunit.

a 50S ribosome subunit.

What orgaterm-259nic molecule is shown here? a)a sugar b)an amino acid c)a nucleotide d)a nucleic acid

a nucleotide

11. In Gram-negative bacteria the cell membrane separates the a. periplasm from the external environment. b. cytoplasm from the external environment. c. cytoplasm from the nucleoid. d. DNA from the RNA.

cytoplasm from the external environment.

Amoeba proteus, a lobed ameba, most likely moves by using a. flagella. b. cilia. c. cytoplasmic streaming. d. needlelike pseudopods.

cytoplasmic streaming.

Which of the following techniques is effective in creating an attenuated version of a pathogen useful for vaccinations? a)putting liquid culture of the pathogen in the freezer b)heating an aged culture of the pathogen c)homogenizing a culture of the pathogen d)exposing a culture of the pathogen to nuclear radiation

heating an aged culture of the pathogen

Which of the following lists enzymes involved in DNA replication in the order they act? a. primase, helicase, DNA polymerase b. helicase, DNA polymerase, primase c. primase, DNA polymerase, helicase d. helicase, primase, DNA polymerase

helicase, primase, DNA polymerase

Which of the following would be considered invertebrate parasites? a. helminths b. amebas c. metamonads d. algae

helminths

Bacteria within a phagosome may be destroyed by the fusing of the phagosome with which acidic eukaryotic organelle? a)endoplasmic reticulum b)pseudopod c)lysosome d)vesicle

lysosome

Which of the following RNAs gets translated into protein? a. mRNA c. tRNA b. rRNA d. sRNA

mRNA

Atherosclerosis is associated with infection of a. endothelial cells. b. mast cells. c. macrophages. d. lymphocytes.

macrophages

Which of the following is unique to ciliates? a. presence of cilia b. ability to use endocytosis c. microtubules within cytoplasm d. maintenance of two types of nuclei

maintenance of two types of nuclei

Interfering with microbial attachment results in? a)making a pathogenic organism nonvirulent b)disrupting toxin production c)increased formation of microbial biofilms d)increased virulence

making a pathogenic organism nonvirulent

Bacterial encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat because a. no medications exist for treatment of these infections. b. antibiotics damage nervous tissue. c. many antibiotics cannot cross the blood-brain barrier. d. it is very difficult to determine the causative microbe.

many antibiotics cannot cross the blood-brain barrier.

Which of the following does NOT accurately describe Pseudomonas aeruginosa? a. causes opportunist infections in human surgical wounds b. may form biofilms on pulmonary lining of cystic fibrosis patients c. commonly grows in soil as a decomposer d. may infect fleas, which transmit P. aeruginosa to humans

may infect fleas, which transmit P. aeruginosa to humans

Koplik spots are a diagnostic indicator of? a)chickenpox b)smallpox c)measles d)rubella

measles

Due to the location of infection, bacterial sinusitis may lead to complications, including a. meningitis. b. pneumonia. c. bronchitis. d. epiglottitis.

meningitis

What type of organism is shown in the figure? a. tapeworm b. pinworm c. whipworm d. hookworm

tapeworm

Which of the following infections would affect the upper respiratory tract but NOT the lower respiratory tract? a. the common cold b. pneumonia c. tuberculosis d. bronchitis

the common cold

The figure shown represents a. "daisy chain" movement of an infectious organism. b. an endemic organism colonizing a new area. c. a pandemic infection. d. syndromic surveillance of an index patient.

"daisy chain" movement of an infectious organism.

In this image of a nucleoside, which arrow is pointing to the 5′ carbon of deoxyribose? a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

1

In this model of a Gram-negative bacterial cell envelope, which line is drawn to lipopolysaccharides? a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

1

Using the figure below, which of the following images depicts the absorption of light? a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

1

Which arrow is drawn to a hydrogen that can form a hydrogen bond with water? a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

1

Which of the choices below has the correct 5′ and 3′ DNA end designations? a. 1 = 5′ 2 = 3′ 3 = 5′ 4 = 3′ b. 1 = 3′ 2 = 5′ 3 = 5′ 4 = 3′ c. 1 = 5′ 2 = 5′ 3 = 3′ 4 = 3′ d. 1 = 3′ 2 = 3′ 3 = 5′ 4 = 5′

1 = 3′ 2 = 5′ 3 = 5′ 4 = 3′

Which of the following equals one millimeter? a)10^-3m b)10^-6m c)10^-9m d)10^-12m

10^-3m

The first cellular genome sequenced was a(n)? a)animal b)virus c)archaea d)bacteria

bacteria

The figure below shows blood vessels. If lymphatic capillaries were to be added to this figure, they would be most closely associated with a)A b)B c)C d)D

A

The image below is of a radial immunodiffusion assay embedded with anti-IgA antibodies. Which sample has the highest concentration of IgA antibodies? A B C D

A

Which of the structures indicated on this figure of the heart wall is most frequently affected during a bacterial cardiac infection? a)A b)B c)C d)D

A

Which of the following is true regarding T-cell deficiencies? a)A mutation in the IL-2 receptor affects T-cell proliferation b)A deficiency in ATP causes apoptosis in T, B, or NK cells c)Immunoglobulin protection is permanent d)severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are characterized by a lack of B cells

A mutation in the IL-2 receptor affects T-cell proliferation

Which of the following statements applies to a select agent? a. A select agent is chosen by a bio-warfare committee to decimate a population. b. A select agent is a highly contagious, infectious agent with a high mortality rate. c. A select agent has been designed by humans to resemble biological molecules. d. A select agent is a new genetic strain of diseases eradicated in the wild.

A select agent is a highly contagious, infectious agent with a high mortality rate.

How has the AIDS pandemic influenced reemerging diseases? a. AIDS has increased the number of immunocompromised individuals who are susceptible to diseases that were previously declining in developed countries. b. AIDS has led to an increase in the number of disease vectors throughout the world. c. AIDS has increased the prevalence of protozoal and parasitic infections that were declining in underdeveloped countries. d. AIDS has caused evolution to occur in diseases that were close to being eradicated in all countries.

AIDS has increased the number of immunocompromised individuals who are susceptible to diseases that were previously declining in developed countries.

Fungal infections of the CNS are most commonly seen in a. immunocompetent individuals. b. young, healthy individuals. c. AIDS patients. d. newborns.

AIDS patients

The most prevalent form of cryptococcosis is found in a. young children. b. AIDS patients. c. the elderly. d. adolescents.

AIDS patients

A free-living soil ameba may contaminate contact lens solutions and cause amebic keratitis. What is the genus name of one common causative agent of amebic keratitis? a. Acanthamoeba b. Entamoeba c. Babesia d. Toxoplasma

Acanthamoeba

Refer to the image below. Which component came from the patient in this sandwich ELISA? A B C D

B

The heart chamber that pumps blood into the pulmonary circuit is the chamber labeled a)A b)B c)C d)D

B

Your friend, Miguel, discovers a new bacterium and uses this bacterium to develop a popular new cheese with a taste similar to Swiss cheese. He is not willing to share his secret to success, but you suspect the bacteria he is using is a(n) a. Firmicutes. b. Actinobacteria. c. cyanobacteria. d. spirochete.

Actinobacteria.

Which of the images is the amebic form that infects humans? a)A b)B c)C d)none

B

A hybridoma results from the fusion of a(n)? a)B cell with a T cell b)B cell with a myeloma cell c)antigen with an antibody d)antigen with a B cell

B cell with a myeloma cell

The term antibiotic is usually reserved for drugs that target a. viruses. b. bacteria. c. fungi. d. protozoa

bacteria

Which of the following is NOT an example of a bacterial organism that can form a biofilm? a. All bacterial organisms can form biofilms. b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Escherichia coli d. Bacillus anthracis

All bacterial organisms can form biofilms.

Which part of the human digestive tract cannot be colonized by microorganisms? a. mouth b. All parts of the digestive tract can be colonized. c. liver d. small intestine

All parts of the digestive tract can be colonized.

Three-year-old Molly was brought to the emergency department crying. She had a stiff neck and high fever (40° C, or 104° F). Gram stain of her cerebrospinal fluid revealed Gram-positive cocci, generally in pairs. The attending physician diagnosed Molly with meningitis and immediately prescribed intravenous ampicillin. Unfortunately, the child's condition worsened, so antibiotic treatment was changed to a third-generation cephalosporin (ceftriaxone). Molly began to improve within hours and was released after two days. A report from the clinical microbiology laboratory two days later identified the organism as Streptococcus pneumoniae. The report also included antibiotic susceptibility results, which revealed that this strain of S. pneumoniae was resistant to ampicillin but remained susceptible to cephalosporin. The first antibiotic used to treat Molly, ampicillin, has activity against both Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria; however, the bacterium that made Molly ill was resistant to this agent. At the time the antibiotic was prescribed, neither the type of agent nor its resistances were known. Based on this information, which of the following is true? a. Ampicillin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic. b. Gram-positive bacteria are resistant to ampicillin, so it should be used only for Gram-negative infections. c. Molly's illness should have been treated with a narrow-spectrum antibiotic. d. Molly's infection is resistant to a broad variety of antibiotics

Ampicillin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic.

This figure shows locations of severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) outbreaks. Which of the following is the best explanation for the pattern of outbreaks? a. A new coronavirus appeared simultaneously in each of the locations when spontaneous mutations occurred. b. An index case patient spread a virus to other individuals who traveled rapidly around the globe. c. A previously undiagnosed virus was reported as SARS in all locations simultaneously. d. Climate change allowed mosquitoes carrying a virus to move into all of the locations.

An index case patient spread a virus to other individuals who traveled rapidly around the globe

This map shows areas where malaria is endemic. What organism is endemic to the same regions? a. Anopheles mosquitoes b. Ixodes scapularis ticks c. reduviid bugs d. sand flies

Anopheles mosquitoes

Patients with primary immunodeficiencies and who are immunosuppressed are prone to developing cancers. Which is the most commonly developed cancer for these patients? a)Epstein-Barr b)B-cell lymphomas c)myelomas d)mononucleosis

B-cell lymphomas

Will a formerly rambunctious five year old from San Francisco, was taken to the emergency department after having severe cough for two weeks. His illness started as a runny nose, dry cough, and low-grade fever. But within days the coughing would come in violent fits lasting up to one minute (called a paroxysm). The nurse practitioner attending Will observed one of these fits. Unable to breathe between coughs, the boy became cyanotic (turned blue). When the staccato of coughs finally ended, Will gasped, desperate for breath. The air rushing to fill his lungs made an ear-piercing whooping sound. This telltale "whoop" led the nurse practitioner to suspect whooping cough, a disease highly contagious in its early stages. In the later stages (greater than four weeks) the patient is no longer contagious because the bacterial agent, Bordetella pertusis, has succumbed to the immune response. However, the telltale cough will persist for weeks while the lungs repair the damage caused by the pertussis toxins. The nurse practitioner, now wearing a mask, took a nasopharyngeal swab sample for bacteriological culture and prescribed the antibiotic azithromycin (a member of the macrolide class of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis). Because the organism takes so long to grow in the laboratory (5-12 days) and because the organism is hard to find late in the disease, a blood sample was also drawn to test for anti-B. pertusis immunoglobulins antibody. By the next day the serum test was positive for B. pertussis antibodies. the pathogen eventually also grew in the culture. Despite extensive efforts at vaccination, more than 41,000 cases of whooping cough were reported in the United States in 2012. Several of the protein exotoxins produced by Bordetella pertussis act by disrupting signal transduction. Which of the following exotoxin-target pairs is NOT properly matched? a)Cholera toxin - disrupts signal transduction (increase cAMP synthesis much like in pertussis) b)Anthrax toxin - forms pores in membranes, allowing bacteria to escape vacuoles. c)Shiga toxin - inhibits protein synthesis, leading to hemolytic uremic syndrome d)Staphylococcal alpha toxin - forms pores in membranes, leading to lysis of blood cells

Anthrax toxin - forms pores in membranes, allowing bacteria to escape vacuoles

In 2000, on a farm in North Dakota, 67 year old Caleb helped bury five cows that had died of anthrax. Wearing heavy leather gloves, Caleb placed chains around the heads and hooves of the carcasses and moved them to the burial site. Four days later, he noticed a small lump on his left cheek. Over two days, the lump enlarged and a lesion opened. Caleb then sought medical attention. The physician reported a firm, superficial nodule surrounded by a purple ring, with an overlying back eschar (piece of dead tissue sloughed from the skin). The physician prescribed ciprofloxacin, the standard antibiotic for cutaneous (affecting skin) anthrax. Testing the patient's serum with a bacterial antigen revealed the presence of antibodies, confirming the diagnosis of anthrax. The ciprofloxacin was continued, and the patient slowly improved over several weeks. If this scenario were an application of Koch's postulates rather than a natural infection, which of these case notes would NOT be relevant? a)Bacillus anthracis can be isolated from lesions on all dead cows. b)Antibiotice successfully treated the lion. c)Caleb developed a lesion similar to those affecting the dead cows. d)Bacillus anthracis can be isolated from Caleb's lesion.

Antibiotics successfully treated the lesion.

Which of the following is FALSE about a properly completed Gram stain? a)It is a key tool uses in the identification of bacterial species. b)It is reliable only for fresh cultures. c)It differentiates bacteria based on their cell wall components. d)At the completion of the stain, Gram-negative cells stain purple.

At the completion of the stain, Gram-negative cells stain purple.

Brad, a nine-year-old from Connecticut, developed a fever and a large (8 cm) reddish rash with a clear center (erythema migrans) on his arm. He also had some left facial nerve palsy. Brad had returned a week earlier from a Boy Scout camping trip to the local woods, where he did a lot of hiking. When asked by his physician, Brad admitted finding a tick on his stomach while in the woods but thought little of it. The doctor ordered serological tests for Borrelia burgdorferi (the organism that causes Lyme disease), Rickettsia rickettsii (which produces Rocky Mountain spotted fever), and Anaplasma phagocytophilum (which causes ehrlichiosis). The ELISA for B. burgdorferi came back positive, confirming a diagnosis of Lyme disease. The boy was given a three-week regimen of doxycycline (a tetracycline derivative), which led to resolution of the rash and palsy. Which is true of B. burgdorferi and Lyme disease? a. It is commonly transmitted via the bite of the deer tick, but may also be transmitted by rabbits, rodents, and mosquitoes. b. B. burgdorferi is a spirochete bacterium with an unusual genome. c. Lyme disease can be contracted only in the United States and is named for the community of Lyme, Connecticut. d. Most people naturally clear Lyme infection without treatment; fewer than 10% naturally progress to stage 2 infection.

B. burgdorferi is a spirochete bacterium with an unusual genome.

What is the causative agent of the infectious disease used to establish Koch's postulates? a)Streptococcus pyogenes b)Bacillus anthracis c)Helicobacter pylori d) Chlamydia trachomatis

Bacillus anthracis

Which of the following is NOT an example of an endosymbiont? a)Bacillus anthracis spores present in the soil of cattle farms b)rhizobial bacteria growing in the root nodules of certain plants c)microorganisms in the digestive system of the cow degrading cellulose d)bacteria in termite intestines digesting plant polymers

Bacillus anthracis spores present in the soil of cattle farms

33. If a microbiologist forgot to heat-fix a bacterial smear before staining, what would probably happen? a)Bacteria might wash off the slide. b)The stain would not stick to the bacteria. c)The bacteria might decolorize too quickly. d)The color of the stain would be too dark to see the bacteria.

Bacteria might wash off the slide.

Given the incredibly fast division times of bacterial cells, which of the following could explain why we are NOT surrounded by large mountains of bacterial cells? a. Bacteria produce too much toxic iron. b. Bacteria require a host cell to grow. c. Bacteria are outcompeted by viruses. d. Bacteria run out of nitrogen.

Bacteria run out of nitrogen.

In Wichita, Kansas, a 20-year-old college student named Lillian visited the college health practitioner for a routine gynecological exam. Lillian's periods had been regular, but she recently noted some spotting between periods. Her last menstrual period was four weeks prior. The practitioner asked Lillian whether she was sexually active. Lillian reported two male partners within the past six months. She reported no vaginal discharge, dyspareunia (painful intercourse), genital lesions, or sores. Her breast, thyroid, and abdominal exam were within normal limits, as were her vital signs—blood pressure: 118/68, pulse: 74, respiration: 18, temperature: 37.1°C (98.6°F). The genital exam revealed normal vulva and vagina. The practitioner found no cervical motion pain and no uterine or adnexal tenderness (areas that include and surround the fallopian tubes and ovaries). But Lillian's cervix appeared inflamed and bled easily, with a purulent discharge coming from the cervical os (opening). The practitioner performed nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Within a day, the NAAT results were positive for Chlamydia and negative for N. gonorrhoeae. Wet-mount microscopy revealed no pathogens but many WBCs (white blood cells). The diagnosis was confirmed as chlamydia infection, an infection reportable to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). The practitioner prescribed doxycycline to clear up the infection. To curtail transmission, the practitioner asked Lillian to identify all her sexual partners for partner notification. Lillian recalled a third partner seven months earlier. The practitioner also recommended use of condoms to decrease further infections. Doxycycline is an antibiotic that binds to the bacterial ribosome. How does this antibiotic interfere with the creating of proteins in bacterial cells? a. Binding to the ribosome prevents DNA strands from being separated properly, preventing transcription. b. Binding to the ribosome prevents mRNA strands from being properly assembled from single-stranded DNA templates. c. Binding to the ribosome prevents mRNA from being properly read and translated into an amino acid sequence. d. Binding to the ribosome prevents completed proteins from being exported to the cell surface

Binding to the ribosome prevents mRNA from being properly read and translated into an amino acid sequence.

Hannibal Lecter, an infamous serial killer, is attempting to use H2O2 to remove pesky blood stains of his latest victim from his 100% cashmere scarf and for disinfection purposes. Why is it taking him so long to disinfect his scarf? a. H2O2 is not a good disinfection agent. b. This type of disinfection procedure is best completed at colder temperatures. c. Blood is an example of organic load that can inhibit the process of disinfection. d. The organisms on his scarf are resistant to H2O2.

Blood is an example of organic load that can inhibit the process of disinfection.

Which of the following species causes an illness that can be prevented by immunization? a. Bordetella pertussis b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae c. Vibrio cholera d. Helicobacter pylori

Bordetella pertussis

Which of the following causative agents and diseases are correctly paired? a. Borrelia burgdorferi; Lyme disease b. Treponema pallidum; yaws c. Treponema pallidum pertenue; relapsing fever d. Borrelia recurrentis; syphilis

Borrelia burgdorferi; Lyme disease

The image shown indicates two paramecia of opposite mating types during one stage of conjugation in which haploid micronuclei are exchanged. Which of the following statements accurately describes the two cells after this stage is complete? a. Both cells are haploid. b. Both cells are diploid. c. One cell is haploid and the other is diploid. d. Both cells become gametes.

Both cells are diploid

A common home remedy used to treat a common cold is eating chicken soup or chicken broth. Why might this home remedy be useful? a. Broth helps to prevent dehydration and thins mucus secretions. b. The salt in broth draws water out of bacterial cells by osmosis. c. Chicken meat contains antiviral properties. d. Broth removes the top epithelial cell layers that contain viral particles.

Broth helps to prevent dehydration and thins mucus secretions.

The heart chambers that receive blood returning to the heart are labeled a)A and B b)B and C c)C and A d)D and B

C and A

Which of the following is a fungus that causes CNS disease? a. C. albicans b. T. gondii c. T. brucei d. C. tetani

C. albicans

Which of the following molecular formulas might be of an organic molecule? a)H2O b)C2H4O c)CH4 d)NH3

C2H4O

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) primarily targets which subset of immune cells? a)CD8+T cells b)CD4+T cells c)macrophages d)dendritic cells

CD4+T cells

Peritonitis and cholecystitis can result when ________ infects immunocompromised individuals. a. Campylobacter jejuni b. Salmonella enterica c. E. coli d. Shigella dysenteriae

Campylobacter jejuni

How does immune surveillance work inside the host? a)cancer cells are sought out but not destroyed b)the immune system is suppressed c)immune cells are unable to recognize cancerous cells d)cancer cells are marked with surface antigens not present on normal cells

Cancer cells are marked with surface antigens not present on normal cells

During transcription termination a. sigma disengages from RNA polymerase. b. RNA polymerase disengages from the DNA. c. ribosomes disengage from the mRNA. d. DNA replicates the termination sequence.

RNA polymerase disengages from the DNA.

Which of the following is NOT happening during the lag phase of growth? a. Cells are at their largest. b. Genes for growth in the specific environment are turned on. c. Cell components are being synthesized. d. Cells are detecting their environment.

Cells are at their largest.

What is the significance of the anatomical difference shown? a. Adults are more prone to developing sinus infections. b. Children are more prone to developing sinus infections. c. Adults are more prone to developing middle ear infections. d. Children are more prone to developing middle ear infections.

Children are more prone to developing middle ear infections.

A tissue sample from a woman's reproductive tract reveals human cells that contain growing and dividing reticulate bodies with netlike chromosomes. Which of the following bacterial species has most likely infected the human cells? a. Treponema pallidum b. Helicobacter pylori c. Chlamydia trachomatis d. Coxiella burnetii

Chlamydia trachomatis

During infertility testing, a young woman is found to have pelvic inflammatory disease, or PID, from persistent inflammation of her fallopian tubes. Although she has never been treated for any sexually transmitted disease, her physician suspects she has an untreated bacterial infection, which is relatively common in the United States. Which bacteria is most likely causing her infection? a. Borrelia burgdorferi b. Chlamydia trachomatis c. Borrelia recurrentis d. Haemophilus influenza

Chlamydia trachomatis

Trachoma, an ancient eye disease, is caused by a. Borrelia burgdorferi. b. Yersinia pestis. c. Moraxella catarrhalis. d. Chlamydia trachomatis.

Chlamydia trachomatis.

This figure shows locations where cases of Dengue fever are increasing. Dengue fever is caused by a virus transmitted by Aedes genus mosquitoes. Warmer temperatures and increased precipitation both influence populations of Aedes mosquitoes. Which of the following statements represents the best prediction for future outbreaks of Dengue fever? a. Aedes mosquitoes and Dengue fever will become extinct as both temperature and precipitation decrease in tropical regions. b. Dengue fever outbreaks will remain restricted to a few locations because mosquitoes are unable to expand their range. c. Humans will become immune to Dengue fever as more individuals are exposed to the virus. d. Climate change will lead to Dengue fever outbreaks in once-temperate areas north and south of the sites of current outbreaks.

Climate change will lead to Dengue fever outbreaks in once-temperate areas north and south of the sites of current outbreaks.

Which of the following is NOT true of climate change? a)Climate change will not affect human disease patterns. b)Climate change can alter insect vector distribution. c)Climate change can foster emerging diseases. d)Climate change can foster reemerging diseases.

Climate change will not affect human disease patterns.

Michael, 45 years old, is a cook at a fast-food restaurant in Rome, Georgia. He went to see his physician because he was feeling fatigued, was unable to sleep, had lost his appetite, and had been coughing for several weeks. His sputum (material coughed from deep in the lung) contained acid-fast bacilli, and a chest X-ray revealed scattered, small (1-5 mm) granulomas (nodules of inflammation) throughout both lobes of the lung. The physician diagnosed Michael with secondary tuberculosis. Secondary tuberculosis is caused by bacteria reactivated from old lesions in which bacteria have persisted in a dormant state. The causative bacterium is Mycobacterium tuberculosis, a facultative intracellular pathogen that infects only humans and is transmitted through respiratory droplets. Michael was placed in isolation and started on a long-term, four-drug treatment regimen consisting of isoniazid (fatty acid synthesis inhibitor), rifampin (transcription inhibitor), pyrazinamide (fatty acid synthesis inhibitor), and streptomycin (protein synthesis inhibitor). The four-drug therapy continued for two months, followed by four months with isoniazid and rifampin only. Michael responded well to treatment. Luckily, he was not infected with one of the highly dangerous multidrug-resistant strains (MDr-tB). Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a member of the Actinobacterium, which causes disease in humans, though other members of this group are environmental microorganisms and some produce useful antibiotics. Which other Actinobacterium is a pathogen of humans? a. Corynebacterium diphtheria c. Streptomyces coelicolor b. Propionibacterium freudenreichii d. Actinomyces israelii

Corynebacterium diphtheria

A young boy with a sore throat, cervical lymphadenopathy, and a low-grade fever is seen by his physician. Upon examination, his physician notes a thick, grayish membrane that bleeds when scraped covering the boy's tonsils and soft palate. A bacterial culture will most likely reveal the presence of a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae. b. Streptococcus pneumoniae. c. Moraxella catarrhalis. d. Bordetella pertussis.

Corynebacterium diphtheriae.

Which of the following is an example of an obligate intracellular pathogen? a)Listeria monocytogenes b)Shigella dysenteriae c)Coxiella burnetii d)Streptococcus pneumoniae

Coxiella burnetti

According to the figure below, which of the following is true about Coxiella? a)Coxiella prevents the lysosome from fusing with the phagosome. b)Coxiella prevents phagosome-lysosome fusion. c)Once inside the phagosome, Coxiella interferes with cell-signaling pathways d)It escapes the phagosome before lysosomal fusion.

Coxiella prevents phagosome-lysosome fusion

What is the relationship between plants and cyanobacteria? a. Plants produce chlorophylls a and b and pass these pigments on to cyanobacteria. b. Cyanobacteria use oxygen produced by plants and, in return, produce carbon dioxide for use in plants. c. Some cyanobacteria form mutualistic relationships with plants, called lichens. d. Cyanobacteria that were internalized and not broken down by plant cells formed chloroplasts.

Cyanobacteria that were internalized and not broken down by plant cells formed chloroplasts.

Consider the figure below. What does the arrow pointing form cyanobacteria to plants and algae indicate according to the endosymbiotic origin of eukaryotic cells? a)Cyanobacteria are the early evolutionary ancestors of plant and algae. b)Cyanobacteria merged together to form plants and algae. c)Cyanobacteria serve as a common source of energy for plants and algae. d)Cyanobacteria were internalized by early cells to form the chloroplast present in plants and algae.

Cyanobacteria were internalized by early cells to form chloroplast present in plants and algae.

Which of the following organisms is NOT transmitted by direct fecal-oral contact? a. Entamoeba b. Giardia c. Cyclospora d. Cryptosporidium

Cyclospora

The heart chamber that pumps blood into the systemic circuit is the chamber labeled a)A b)B c)C d)D

D

8. In an E. coli cell, which molecule is found in only 1-2 copies per cell? a)DNA b)RNA c)protein d)phospholipids

DNA

The enzyme commonly used in PCR, Taq polymerase, synthesizes what macromolecule? a)DNA b)RNA c)proteins d)polysaccharides

DNA

The image shown is a space-filling model of a. DNA. b. peptidoglycan. c. protein. d. lipid.

DNA

How do DNA analogs act to inhibit replication of an RNA virus? a. DNA analogs do not inhibit RNA viruses. b. by inhibiting RNA polymerase c. by inhibiting DNA polymerase d. by preventing protein synthesis

DNA analogs do not inhibit RNA viruses.

What technique is illustrated in this diagram? a. DNA hybridization b. DNA sequencing c. recombinant DNA production d. PCR

DNA hybridization

An infection with similar signs and symptoms appears in 24 prison inmates. There is evidence of bacterial etiology, but no laboratory has successfully isolated a bacterial agent in pure culture. Which of the following pieces of evidence would indicate a single bacterial species is causing the disease? a. DNA sequence analysis reveals an organism genetically similar to a known bacterium. b. the presence of eukaryotic DNA within biopsy tissues from all individuals c. high fevers and night sweats in all affected individuals d. 16S ribosomal RNA amplified in 50% of biopsy tissue samples

DNA sequence analysis reveals an organism genetically similar to a known bacterium.

Which of the following methods for classifying life forms can best be used to distinguish between two closely related rod-shaped bacterial organisms, Salmonella typhimurium and Escherichia coli? a)physical characteristics b)method of reproduction c)DNA sequence comparison d)environmental habitat

DNA sequence comparison

All of the following are targets for bacterial toxins EXCEPT? a)signal transduction b)host membranes c)DNA synthesis d)protein synthesis

DNA synthesis

Which of the following is true of growing bacteria? a)DNA synthesis occurs continuously. b)DNA synthesis occurs during a defined period. c)They suspend flagella rotation to put energy toward DNA replication. d)DNA synthesis cannot occur at the same time as transcription.

DNA synthesis occurs continuously.

A plasmid-encoding protein antigen from Wast Nile virus is injected into muscle cells. This is an example of a(n)? a)DNA vaccine b)attenuated vaccine c)subunit vaccine d)toxoid

DNA vaccine

All of the following are examples of B-cell disorders EXCEPT? a)X-linked agammaglobulinemia (Burton's disease) b)common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) c)DiGeorge syndrome d)selective IgA deficiency

DiGeorge syndrome

An example of a primary immunodeficiency would be? a)DiGeorge syndrome b)HIV c)severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome d) IgA deficiency

DiGeorge syndrome

Although sporadic outbreaks of measles occur in the United States, the disease is considered nonendemic. What differentiates measles from endemic diseases, such as chickenpox? a. Endemic diseases exhibit higher numbers of cases than a sporadic outbreak. b. Diseases that are not endemic lack a reservoir in the area. c. Endemic diseases do not exhibit sporadic outbreaks. d. Diseases that are not endemic remain in reservoirs without infecting humans.

Diseases that are not endemic lack a reservoir in the area.

Which of the following is NOT an explanation for the centuries it took between Leeuwenhoek observing microorganisms with his microscope and the discovery that microbes are capable of causing disease? a)Microbes are found everywhere. b)Bacteria appeared similar to sperm and blood cells under the microscope. c)Microorganisms are capable of existing through spontaneous generation. d)Diseases were not a problem in the world until long after the discovery of microorganisms.

Diseases were not a problem in the world until long after the discovery of microorganisms.

Drug A has a toxic dose of 17 g/kg of body weight and a therapeutic dose of 8 g/kg of body weight. Drug B has a toxic dose of 6 g/kg of body weight and a therapeutic dose of 4 g/kg of body weight. Which of the following statements is true? a. Drug B is the safer drug. b. Drug A is the safer drug. c. Drug B has a higher therapeutic index. d. Drug A has a lower therapeutic index.

Drug A is the safer drug.

Why does dissemination of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) often lead to hepatomegaly and splenomegaly? a. EBV produces abnormal blood cells that are removed by the liver and spleen. b. Latent EBV within the liver and spleen causes enlargement of these organs. c. The cells infected by EBV are only found in the liver and spleen. d. EBV-infected B cells travel throughout the body and then reside within the liver and spleen.

EBV produces abnormal blood cells that are removed by the liver and spleen.

An E. coli cell whose DNA contains N14 is placed in media with dNTPs containing a heavy isotope of nitrogen, N15, which incorporates into newly synthesized DNA. After one cell division, what will the DNA in the daughter cells look like? a. One cell will have both strands of the helix N14; the other cell will have both strands of the helix N15. b. One cell will have mostly N14 with a little bit of N15; the other cell will have mostly N15 with a little N14. c. Each cell will have one strand of N14 and one strand of N15. d. It is impossible to predict what the DNA in the daughter cells will look like.

Each cell will have one strand of N14 and one strand of N15.

Why is perianal itching significant in the life cycle of pinworms? a. When a host scratches the anus, pinworm larvae enter the bloodstream. b. Eggs are trapped under fingernails and transferred to new hosts. c. Scratching allows mature worms to break through the surface of the skin. d. Transmission of pinworms ends when the host scratches the anus.

Eggs are trapped under fingernails and transferred to new hosts.

What is the difference between an emerging and reemerging disease? a)Emerging disease are of viral origin, and reemerging disease are bacterial. b)Emerging disease are ones for which vaccines exist; reemerging disease lack vaccines. c)Emerging disease are new to humans; reemerging are known but are rapidly increasing in incidence and/or geographic range. d)Emerging diseases evolve within humans, but reemerging disease are of zoonotic origin.

Emerging disease are new to humans; reemerging are known but are rapidly increasing in incidence and/or geographic range.

Fill in the blanks with the pair of words below that make the sentence correct. ________ takes up small extracellular particles via membrane invaginations while ________ takes up larger particles. a)Endocytosis; phagocytosis b)Phagocytosis; endocytosis c)A pseudopod; endocytosis d)A pseudopod; a lysosome

Endocytosis; phagocytosis

In the image shown the circles and squares indicate molecules. The circles are at a higher concentration outside the cell and the squares are at a higher concentration inside the cell. Which of the following statements is correct? a. Energy is released if the circles move into the cell or if the squares move out of the cell. b. Energy is released if the circles move into the cell or if the squares move into the cell. c. Energy is released if the circles move out of the cell or if the squares move out of the cell. d. Energy is released if the circles move out of the cell or if the squares move into the cell.

Energy is released if the circles move into the cell or if the squares move out of the cell.

Infection with ________ could mimic symptoms of hepatitis. a. Entamoeba histolytica b. Cryptosporidium hominis c. Cyclospora cayetanensis d. Giardia intestinalis

Entamoeba histolytica

Which of the following best describes how fungi obtain nutrition? a. Fungi use chloroplasts for photosynthesis. b. Fungi secrete digestive enzymes and absorb broken-down molecules. c. Fungi use phagocytosis to transport large molecules across their cell membrane. d. Fungi harness cyanobacteria to receive carbon and other nutrients.

Fungi secrete digestive enzymes and absorb broken-down molecules.

Which of the following statements about the Gram stain is most correct? a)Crystal violet differentially stains Gram-positive cells. b)Gram's iodine differentially stains Gram-positive cells. c)Ethanol differentially destains Gram-negative cells. d)Safranin differentially stains Gram-negative cells.

Ethanol differentially destains Gram-negative cells.

Which of the following statements is correct? a)Safranin is a primary stain. b)Iodine is a counterstain. c)Ethanol is a decolorizer. d)Crystal violet is a mordant.

Ethanol is a decolorizer.

Which of the following is true about urine production? a. The wall of the ureters is made of skeletal muscle that is voluntary. b. Filtrate is collected in the bladder. c. The urinary bladder is made up of squamous epithelial cells. d. Extra water is removed and returned to the vascular system in the collecting duct.

Extra water is removed and returned to the vascular system in the collecting duct.

All of the following can cause non-sexually transmitted infections of the reproductive tract EXCEPT a. sexual intercourse. b. fluctuations in pH. c. a change in vaginal microbiome. d. IV drug abuse.

IV drug abuse

On a trip to a region of Asia where snails commonly ingest trematode eggs, Rebecca refuses to eat escargot, cooked snails, offered by her roommate. Instead, Rebecca goes fishing because she feels it would be safer to eat fresh fish. Unfortunately, she undercooks the fish and develops a trematode infection. What is the most likely explanation for her infection? a. Free-swimming larvae released by snails in the water developed into a secondary form within the fish. b. The flesh of the fish she ate contained trematode eggs that developed into larvae within her intestine. c. Her fish dinner was most likely contaminated by fecal matter in the water because trematode transmission is through a fecal-oral route. d. There were dormant trematodes encysted within the flesh of the fish she ate.

Free-swimming larvae released by snails in the water developed into a secondary form within the fish.

Which of the following statements about fungi is true? a)Fungi include yeasts and bacteria. b)Fungi are eukaryotic microbes. c)Dermatophytes do not grow on skin. d)Fungi can be named after the location of the infection.

Fungi are eukaryotic microbes

What energy source is used to drive translation? a. ATP b. GTP c. NADPH d. the energy released when peptide bonds form

GTP

Why is gelatin needed to culture animal viruses in tissue culture? a. Animal viruses use gelatin as an energy source. b. Cells in tissue culture require gelatin to grow. c. Gelatin slows the dispersal of viruses from infected cells, allowing for plaques to form. d. Gelatin is used to stain viral plaques.

Gelatin slows the dispersal of viruses from infected cells, allowing for plaques to form.

How is it possible for humans to use some Proteobacteria, such as Geobacter species, to generate electricity? a. Geobacter species use lipopolysaccharide, or LPS, within their outer membrane to store energy that can be harnessed. b. Geobacter species transfer electrons to electrodes in fuel cells because they transfer electrons to iron or magnesium. c. Geobacter species are heavily flagellated and display swarming behavior that generates electricity. d. Geobacter species produce gases during fermentation of carbohydrates, and these gases are used in fuel cells.

Geobacter species transfer electrons to electrodes in fuel cells because they transfer electrons to iron or magnesium.

Which of the following organisms lacks the ability to use aerobic cellular respiration? a. Giardia lamblia b. Caenorhabditis elegans c. Toxoplasma gondii d. Taenia solium

Giardia lamblia

Which of the following statements regarding examples of chemotrophy is FALSE? a. Glucose is an oxidized compound that freely donates electrons to NAD, a more reduced compound. b. Glucose is a reduced compound that freely donates electrons to NAD, a more oxidized compound. c. NAD plays an important role in chemotrophic metabolism. d. Glucose is an important chemotrophic carbon source.

Glucose is an oxidized compound that freely donates electrons to NAD, a more reduced compound.

Which type of stain would be the most useful in helping clinicians decide which class of antibiotics to prescribe? a)negative stain b)simple stain c)endospore stain d)Gram stain

Gram stain

A 30-year-old woman was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions. On examination, she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff neck. Which of the following is most likely to provide rapid identification of the cause of her symptoms? a. Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid b. Gram stain of throat culture c. biopsy of brain tissue d. check serum antibodies

Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid

Lipopolysaccharides are found in a)Gram-positive bacteria. b)Gram-negative bacteria. c)archaea. d)eukaryotic microbes.

Gram-negative bacteria

This transmission electron micrograph shows a a)Gram-positive cell envelope. b)Gram-negative cell envelope. c)eukaryotic cell membrane. d)mycobacterial envelope.

Gram-negative cell envelope.

This image models a a)Gram-positive cell envelope. b)Gram-negative cell envelope. c)eukaryotic cell membrane. d)mycobacterial envelope.

Gram-positive cell envelope.

All of the following are characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa EXCEPT? a)Gram-positive cell wall b)resistance to many types of antibiotics c)production of pyocyanin d)exotoxin production

Gram-positive cell wall

Examine the figure shown. Which viral classification group must package a viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase? a. Group V b. Group IV c. Group III d. Group II

Group V

Examine the figure shown. Which viral classification group would be most NEGATIVELY affected by antiviral reverse transcriptase inhibitors? a. Group III c. Group V b. Group IV d. Group VI

Group VI

Which of the following occurs when a microorganism is found in an environment below its minimum growth temperature? a. The cell dies. b. Growth stops because the cell membrane melts. c. Growth stops because enzymatic processes become sluggish. d. Growth slows but does not stop.

Growth stops because enzymatic processes become sluggish.

If Spallanzani had unknowingly poked a hole in the top of his flask of meat broth, what would this have implied about the theory of spontaneous generation? a)No growth would have occurred in the flask, refuting the theory of spontaneous generation. b)No growth would have occurred in the flask, supporting the theory of spontaneous generation. c)Growth would have occurred in the flask, refuting the theory of spontaneous generation. d)Growth would have occurred in the flask, supporting the theory of spontaneous generation.

Growth would have occurred in the flask, supporting the theory of spontaneous generation.

A small subset of the human population does not express the CD4 and CCR5 receptors. To what virus are these individuals naturally immune? a. HIV b. HPV c. influenza d. hepatitis

HIV

Highly active antiretroviral therapy is used to treat a. HPV. b. HIV. c. hepatitis C. d. influenza.

HIV

Protease inhibitors are a common antiviral drug targeting a. HPV. b. HIV. c. hepatitis C. d. influenza.

HIV

Which of the following viruses is capable of causing a syncytium? a. hepatitis b. influenza c. HPV d. HIV

HIV

Cervical warts are caused by? a)HBV b)HPV c)HIV d)herpes

HPV

There are multiple causative agents of pneumonia. Which of the following pairs below include two bacterial species known to cause pneumonia? a. Haemophilus influenzae and Moraxella catarrhalis b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Vibrio cholera c. Vibrio parahaemolyticus and Bordetella pertussis d. Helicobacter pylori and Francisella tularensis

Haemophilus influenzae and Moraxella catarrhalis

Which of the following pathogens would most likely thrive in a growth media with an extremely low pH? a. Haemophilus influenzae b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae c. Moraxella catarrhalis d. Helicobacter pylori

Helicobacter pylori

Antibiotics are chemotherapeutic drugs that function by inhibiting an important cellular structure or process of an organism that is causing an infection. Which of the following would not be affected by an antibiotic that targets cellular metabolic enzymes? a)Streptococcus pyogenes bacteria b)Herpes virus c)ameba d)bread mold

Herpes virus

Which statement about horizontal gene transfer is correct? a)Few pathogenicity islands are generated by horizontal transmission. b)Horizontal gene transfers move whole blocks of DNA from one organism to another. c)Horizontal gene transfer helps pathogens evolve. d)All genes code for toxins.

Horizontal gene transfers move whole blocks of DNA from one organism to another.

In the figure below, line "C" points to the microscope's? a)ocular lens b)objective c)condenser d)light source

condenser

What is the treatment for severe pyelonephritis? a. antivirals b. IV antibiotics c. oral antibiotics d. There is no treatment.

IV antibiotics

Why are UTIs considered serious and why should they be treated promptly? a. They are uncomfortable and are treated to control pain. b. If left untreated, the infection can travel up into the kidneys, causing a more serious infection. c. They are caused by notifiable pathogens and should be reported to the health department. d. They should be treated promptly to prevent them from becoming recurring infections.

If left untreated, the infection can travel up into the kidneys, causing a more serious infection.

Anaphylaxis is the term for reactions caused when certain antigens combine with? a)IgE antibodies b)macrophages c)IgG antibodies d)histamine

IgE antibodies

Which of the following is FALSE concerning darkfield microscopy? a)Contamination in the medium can scatter light. b)It can be used to identify spirochetes. c)Images are dark against a light background. d)High resolution cannot be achieved.

Images are dark against a light background.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? a)In fluorescence microscopy, fluorescent-labeled cellular structures are identified. b)In light microscopy, the object appears light against a dark background. c)In phase-contrast microscopy, organelles appear as light/dark patterns by variation in refractive indexes. d)Electron microscopy uses electrons to visualize the specimen.

In light microscopy, the object appears light against a dark background.

Which of the following is likely to occur as a result of climate change? a. Insect vectors will migrate from tropical regions to once-temperate regions. b. Gastrointestinal infections will decrease in tropical regions. c. Microbes currently found in temperate regions will move to tropical regions. d. Extreme weather will decrease and diseases will become less seasonal.

Insect vectors will migrate from tropical regions to once-temperate regions.

What role does stomach acidity play in a toxoplasmosis infection? a. It converts bradyzoites into cyst forms for release from the body. b. It causes the release of spores within the definitive host. c. It allows the release of spores within the intermediate host. d. It allows gametes to form from spores within the intermediate host.

It allows the release of spores within the intermediate host.

Which of the following statements about pelvic inflammatory disease is FALSE? a. It can cause sterility and chronic pain. b. It can be caused by N. gonorrhoeae. c. It can be transmitted sexually. d. It can be caused by T. pallidum.

It can be caused by T. pallidum.

What advantage does the plating method shown on the left panel below have over the plating method shown in the right panel? a. It can be used to isolate pure colonies. b. It can be used to culture viable organisms. c. It can be used to produce confluent growth. d. It can be used to quantify the number of organisms in a given bacterial sample.

It can be used to quantify the number of organisms in a given bacterial sample.

Which of the following is true of glucose? a)It is a component of DNA and RNA. b)It can form a ring structure. c)It contains numerous amino groups. d)It is a five-carbon sugar.

It can form a ring structure

Which of the following features of HIV is a big reason as to why thus far it cannot be cured? a. It is a retrovirus. b. It contains a viral envelope. c. It contains integrase. d. It contains a protease

It contains integrase

Which of the following is true of glyceterm-254rol? a)It is hydrophobic. b)It is a component of proteins. c)It contains three amino groups. d)It contains three hydroxyl groups.

It contains three hydroxyl groups.

Which of the following statements about congenital rubella syndrome is FALSE? a)It can be prevented by vaccinating women prior to pregnancy. b)It may result in deafness, blindness, and mental retardation. c)It may be fatal to the unborn child. d)It does not occur with subclinical infection

It does not occur with subclinical infection.

Why might a facultative organism prefer aerobic respiration over fermentation when carbohydrates become scarce? a. Facultative organisms never prefer aerobic respiration to fermentation. b. It gets more energy from fermentation. c. It gets more energy from aerobic respiration. d. It gets less energy from aerobic respiration.

It gets more energy from aerobic respiration.

Which of the following is true regarding an environment with a high osmolarity? a. It has a low salt concentration. b. It has a high pH. c. It has a high water activity. d. It has a low water activity.

It has a low water activity.

Subacute bacterial endocarditis is often caused by a. Streptococcus mutans. b. Staphylococcus aureus. c. Chlamydophila pneumoniae. d. Porphyromonas gingivalis.

Streptococcus mutans.

A particular virus has a high infectious does 50% and extremely low mortality, causing only mild symptoms. Which of the following is true of this virus? a)It has high infectivity and high virulence b)It has high infectivity but low virulence. c) It has low infectivity and low virulence. d)It has low infectivity and high virulence.

It has low infectivity and low virulence

What is an advantage of fluorescence microscopy? a)It allows for the preservation of the specimen. b)It provides the greatest resolution. c)It has the ability to stain live specimens. d)It has the ability to detect specific microbes.

It has the ability to detect specific microbes.

Which of the following is true about CSF? a. Inflammatory cells are found in both healthy and unhealthy CSF. b. It helps to diagnose infections of the central nervous system. c. The identification of PMNs in CSF indicates a viral infection. d. CSF is collected via the placement of a shunt in the vertebral column.

It helps to diagnose infections of the central nervous system.

Which of the following statements about genital warts is FALSE? a. It is transmitted by direct contact. b. It is caused by papillomaviruses. c. It is always precancerous. d. It is treated by removing them.

It is always precancerous.

What is the reason that the human bladder can accommodate 400-600 milliliters of urine? a. It is triangular shaped. b. It is composed of transitional epithelium. c. It is made of muscular tissue. d. None of these; the bladder can only hold 5-10 milliliters of urine.

It is composed of transitional epithelium.

What happens to the host cell after budding of new influenza virions? a. It becomes cancerous. b. It becomes transformed. c. Nothing happens. d. It is destroyed.

It is destroyed.

Why is the presence of a capsule clinically significant? a)It protects the bacterial cell from lack of nutrients. b)It protects the bacterial cell from engulfment by white blood cells. c)It protects the bacterial cell from heat. d)It protects the bacterial cell from the staining regents.

It protects the bacterial cell from engulfment by white blood cells.

This figure shows an India ink stain of C. neoformans in a patient's CSF. What is the purpose of the capsule depicted by the arrow? a. It protects the organism from the host immune response. b. It allows the organism to spread the CNS. c. The capsule causes the persistent headache seen in most cases of coccidioidal meningitis. d. It is targeted by fluconazole as a treatment.

It protects the organism from the host immune response.

What would be the expected result if the acid-resistance genes of EHEC strains were deleted? a. It would be better adapted to survive in the stomach. b. It would no longer be able to colonize the respiratory tract. c. It would have a higher oral infectious dose. d. It would have a lower oral infectious dose.

It would have a higher oral infectious dose.

What would inhibition of viral envelope acidification do to an influenza infection? a. It would inhibit it. b. It would enhance it. c. It would have no effect. d. It would speed it up.

It would inhibit it.

Fungal skin diseases are diagnosed based on? a)PCR b)KOH preparation of skin scrapes c)Gram-positive stain d)Gram-negative stain

KOH preparation of skin scrapes

Which is NOT a common cause of periodontal disease? a. Aggregatibacter b. Porphyromonas c. Bacteroides d. Lactobacillus

Lactobacillus

The normal microbiota of the adult vagina consist primarily of a. Lactobacillus. b. Streptococcus. c. Mycobacterium. d. Candida.

Lactobacillus.

Which of the following is true regarding the herpes virus? a)It is the etiological agent of cervical warts b)The virus cannot enter into a latent state in neural ganglia c)Lantent herpes virus DNA produces micro-RNAs that interfere with apoptosis d)Herpes viruses are double-stranded RNA viruses

Lantent herpes virus DNA produces micro-RNAs that interfere with apoptosis

Which of the following organisms is an intracellular pathogen capable of preventing fusion of a phagosome with a lysosome after phagocytosis has occurred? a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Haemophilus influenzae c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Legionella pneumophila

Legionella pneumophila

A 2.1-kilogram (4.7-pound) female neonate was born at 32 weeks. A normal neonate averages 3.17 kg, or 7 pounds, and is born at 40 weeks. The baby was clearly in distress and was intubated at birth because of poor respiratory effort. A chest X-ray showed an infiltrate in the baby's right lung. Her mother, Linda, presented at the time of delivery with lower abdominal pain, a temperature of 39° C (102°F), and a white cell count of 25,000/μl (normal is 4,000-10,000). Blood cultures from Linda and her child grew Gram-positive coccobacilli. Mother and baby fully recovered after antibiotic treatment. The physician later learned that Linda had recently visited Mexico, where she ate unpasteurized soft cheese called queso blanco. Which bacterium, possessing virulence factors that enable it to cross the placental barrier, is the likely etiologic agent of Linda's infection (and her baby's)? a. Listeria monocytogenes b. Clostridium perfringens c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Corynebacterium diptheriae

Listeria monocytogenes

A blue-green bloom of cyanobacteria leads to an ocean beach closure. What is the primary concern? a. Cyanobacteria indicate the presence of fecal matter in the water, which could lead to intestinal illnesses. b. Cyanobacteria are frequently pathogenic and could infect swimming humans. c. Liver-damaging toxins produced by cyanobacteria could affect humans who come in contact with the water. d. Cyanobacteria consume oxygen in the water, and fish begin accumulating toxins as oxygen levels drop.

Liver-damaging toxins produced by cyanobacteria could affect humans who come in contact with the water.

________ with the structure R-CHO are very useful disinfectants. a. Iodophors b. Low-molecular-weight aldehydes c. Anionic detergents d. Cationic detergents

Low-molecular-weight aldehydes

All of the following cause conjunctivitis EXCEPT? a) Chlamydia trachomatis b)Streptococcus pyogenes c)Neisseria gonorrhoeae d)Naemophilus influenza

Streptococcus pyogenes

The spirochete bacterial disease that leads to complications including arthritis and heart rhythm abnormalities and is transmitted by deer ticks is known as a. Lyme disease. b. brucellosis. c. tularemia. d. bubonic plague.

Lyme disease

all of the following are examples of autoimmune diseases EXCEPT? a)lupus b)Lyme disease c)Graves' disease d)type-1 diabetes

Lyme disease

This map shows the incidence of Lyme disease in the United States in 2012. Based on the map shown, which of the following statements is true? a. Lyme disease exhibits geographical clusters in the Northeast. b. A decrease in Lyme disease vaccinations led to an increase in Lyme disease incidence in 2012. c. Lyme disease is maintained in a reservoir that is restricted to the Northeast. d. The number of Lyme disease cases has been steadily increasing since the 1970s.

Lyme disease exhibits geographical clusters in the Northeast.

________ bacteriophage infection results in immediate death of the host cell. a. Lysogenic b. Lytic c. Latent d. Chronic

Lytic

The tropism of Salmonella infections includes a. the intestinal lumen. b. the ileum. c. Paneth cells. d. M cells

M cells

Which of the following is the major player in transplant rejection? a)MHC proteins of the donor b)T helper cells of the donor c)MHC proteins of the host d)T helper cells of the host

MHC proteins of the donor

Which of the following is INCORRECT? a)Congo red is a negative stain b)Malachite green is an acid-fast stain c)Methylene blue is a simple stain d)Fluorophore is in an antibody stain

Malachite green is an acid-fast stain

All of the following are classified as dermatophytic fungi EXCEPT? a)Malassezia b)Epidermophyton c)Trichophyton d)Microsporum

Malassezia

Mary, an elderly woman with an indwelling catheter, is admitted to a local hospital for treatment of pneumonia. Three days after her admission, Mary's husband receives a call from the hospital. He is informed that Mary has a nosocomial infection. Which of the following statements is true? a. The nosocomial infection referred to is pneumonia. b. Mary has most likely developed a urinary tract infection. c. Of all hospital patients, 25-30% develop nosocomial infections. d. Mary's nosocomial infection could have been prevented with improved ventilation.

Mary has most likely developed a urinary tract infection.

During the spring and summer of 2014 an online epidemiological search indicated an increase in U.S. searches for signs and symptoms associated with Ebola, a disease previously found in West Africa. What was the most likely cause of this trend? a. Many individuals in the United States were infected with Ebola. b. Media reports of Ebola in other countries led to online searches in the United States. c. Individuals infected with Ebola fled to the United States. d. An Ebola epidemic occurred within the United States.

Media reports of Ebola in other countries led to online searches in the United States.

Which of the following is needed as an important enzyme cofactor for microbial growth? a. Na+ b. Mg2+ c. sulfur d. oxygen

Mg2+

Which of the following is a characteristic shared by mites, ticks, and lice? a. Mites, ticks, and lice are all insects. b. Mites, ticks, and lice are all vectors for serious disease agents. c. Mites, ticks, and lice are all ectoparasites. d. Mites, ticks, and lice all deposit eggs within the skin.

Mites, ticks, and lice are all ectoparasites.

Which of the following statements does NOT provide evidence in support of the endosymbiotic origin of eukaryotic cells? a)The DNA sequence of mitochondria is similar to the DNA sequence of respiring bacteria. b)The DNA of chloroplasts is circular like the DNA of phototrophic bacteria. c)Mitochondria are capable of free-living outside of a eukaryotic cell. d)There is a lot of sequence homology between the DNA sequences of chloroplasts and phototrophic bacteria.

Mitochondria are capable of free-living outside of a eukaryotic cell.

Which of the following statements most accurately describes Actinobacteria? a. Most have an acid-fast property associated with unusual cell wall lipids that also protect them from host defenses and antibiotics. b. All Actinobacteria are considered to be pathogens in humans or other animals. c. Most Actinobacteria are nonpathogenic in humans, but cause serious diseases in other animals. d. Many Actinobacteria produce endospores that allow them to survive for thousands of years.

Most have an acid-fast property associated with unusual cell wall lipids that also protect them from host defenses and antibiotics.

Which of the following organisms would you NOT be able to see using Robert Hooke's microscope? a)vinegar eels b)dust mites c)mold filaments d)Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

The Ghon complex shown in this figure is indicative of infection by a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. b. Bacillus anthracis. c. Blastomyces dermatitidis. d. Coccidioides immitis

Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

n the Indian state of Bihar, a school nurse noticed that a 13-year-old boy, Naranjan, had swelling on his nose and lips. When questioned, Naranjan complained of a pruritic (itchy) rash on his arms and legs. Upon examination, the nurse found pale patches of skin on his back. The pale patches lacked sensation, and there was partial loss of sensation in Naranjan's wrists and forearms. The patient was diagnosed with leprosy, caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium leprae. The bacteria stain acid-fast and are spread primarily by nasal secretions. For unknown reasons, only 5% of people exposed to the bacteria are susceptible to infection. In a susceptible host, the bacteria can grow slowly for many years without symptoms. They infect the peripheral nerves, causing loss of sensation, and the body's immune reaction generates skin lesions. To halt the disease, Naranjan was started on a two-year course of multidrug therapy combining dapsone, clofazimine, and rifampin. To monitor hepatotoxicity, liver function tests were ordered. Naranjan's family and neighbors were screened; one member, an uncle, showed skin lesions. The uncle was treated also. Leprosy is difficult to eradicate because of the long incubation period and because people hide their symptoms, fearing stigma as "lepers." Mycobacterium leprae, or leprosy disease, often takes years to develop. Naranjan must use a long-term multidrug therapy to cure it. Why is it necessary to take the drugs for such a long period, and why must he take so many drugs at once? a. Mycobacteria are Gram-negative organisms. They must be killed slowly to prevent release of toxic LPS. b. Mycolic acid within the cell wall reduces nutrient uptake, resulting in slow growth, and excludes some antibiotics. c. Mycobacteria are all highly resistant to antibiotics. d. Mycobacteria don't have cell walls, so must be treated with antibiotics that target other structures.

Mycolic acid within the cell wall reduces nutrient uptake, resulting in slow growth, and excludes some antibiotics.

In April 2001, Abdul, a four-month-old infant from Saudi Arabia, was hospitalized with fever, tender neck, and purplish, nonblanching spots (petechiae and purpuric spots) on his trunk. Suspecting meningitis, the clinician took a CSF sample and examined it by Gram stain. The smear revealed Gram-negative diplococci inside PMNS. The CSF was turbid with 900 leukocytes/μl, and Neisseria meningitidis was confirmed by culture. The child was treated with cefotaxime and made a full recovery. His father, the person who brought him in, was clinically well. However, meningococcus was isolated from his oropharynx, as well as from the throat of the patient's two-year-old brother. Isolates from the patient, his father, and his brother were positive by agglutination with meningococcus a, c, y, W135 polyvalent reagent. The father's vaccination certificate confirmed that he had received a quadrivalent meningococcal vaccine. All three isolates were sent to the World Health Organization collaborating center, which confirmed meningococcus serogroup W135. DNA analysis of the three isolates found them to be indistinguishable, meaning that the father and his children were infected with the same strain of N. meningitidis. Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding the pathogenesis and prevention of Abdul's meningitis. a. N. meningitidis generally only infects infants, explaining why Abdul's father and brother showed no symptoms of disease. b. Ten to twenty percent of the healthy population can be colonized by N. meningitidis and remain asymptomatic. c. Complement deficiencies make individuals particularly susceptible to meningococcal meningitis. d. N. meningitidis utilized type IV pili to disrupt tight junctions, allowing passage through the blood-brain barrier.

N. meningitidis generally only infects infants, explaining why Abdul's father and brother showed no symptoms of disease.

Which of the following molecules would require a transmembrane protein in order to cross a cell membrane? a)O2 b)H2O c)CO2 d)Na+

Na+

Which of the following cellular components could be found in high concentrations in a halophilic microorganism? a. Na+/ K+ ion pump b. citric acid c. cold-tolerant enzymes d. asuperoxide dismutase

Na+/ K+ ion pump

________ ensures the presence and expression of host surface proteins capable of being bound to by viruses. a. Transduction b. Natural selection c. Lysogeny d. Lysis

Natural selection

All of the following statements are true about HIV EXCEPT? a) HIV produces a Nef protein, which prevents T-cell apoptosis b)Tat increases MHC 1 synthesis on host cells c)Nef protein inhibits a regulatory cascade that leads to apoptosis d)Tat stimulates apoptosis in infected host cells

Nef protein inhibits a regulatory cascade that leads to apoptosis

Which of the following is INCORRECTLY matched? a)Haemophilus influenza - pink eye b)Pseudomonas - conjuctivitis c)Chlamydia gonorrhoeae - trachoma d)Neisseria gonorrhoeae - respiratory infection

Neisseria goonorrhoeae - respiratory infection

If 100% of the DNA contents of a transducing bacteriophage were DNA from the host chromosome, what would happen when the bacteriophage infected a new bacterial cell? a. More bacteriophage would be synthesized, resulting in death of the new bacterial cell. b. No more bacteriophage would be synthesized, as there is no bacteriophage genome available to direct synthesis. c. The new bacterial cell would die. d. The bacteriophage would be converted from a lysogenic phage to a lytic bacteriophage.

No more bacteriophage would be synthesized, as there is no bacteriophage genome available to direct synthesis.

Jared, a 48-year-old, previously healthy man, was admitted to a hospital in Columbus, Ohio, after six days of increasing dyspnea (shortness of breath) and watery diarrhea. Jared also complained of a dry cough, myalgia (muscle pain), nausea, and vomiting. He appeared flushed and had dry mucous membranes. His temperature was 39°C (102.2°F), and his pulse rate was 103 beats per minute. Chest radiographs showed pneumonia with consolidation (formation of a firm mass) of the left lower lobe. His c-reactive protein (crP, a blood protein produced by the liver) was greater than 220 milligrams per liter (mg/l), a high level that indicates inflammation. Before onset of symptoms, Jared recalled having cleaned the filter of an outdoor whirlpool spa. Culture from Jared's sputum and from the spa filter revealed Gram-negative bacilli consistent with Legionella pneumophila. The diagnosis was confirmed by fluorescence microscopy using direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) stain. The patient received intravenous amoxicillin and clarithromycin antibiotics for eight days before his condition returned to normal. If the technician conducting the Gram stain in this case study had left ethanol on the prepared slide longer than necessary, what might be the effect on this slide and identification? a)The bacteria on the slide may have been decolorized Gram-positive bacilli. b)None. The timing of ethanol does not affect the outcome of a Gram stain. c)None, since the bacteria appear Gram negative, they could not have been over-decolorized. d)The bacteria on the slide may have been cocci rather than bacilli.

None, since the bacteria appear Gram negative, they could not have been over-decolorized.

Which of the following could describe the relationship between the cyanobacterium Nostoc and E. coli related to the carbon cycle? a. Nostoc produces carbohydrates from lithotrophy, and E. coli breaks down the carbohydrates to generate CO2. b. Nostoc produces carbohydrates from phototrophy, and E. coli breaks down the carbohydrates to generate CO2. c. Nostoc produces CO2 that E. coli turns into carbohydrates. d. E. coli produces carbohydrates that Nostoc uses as energy to produce more carbohydrates.

Nostoc produces carbohydrates from phototrophy, and E. coli breaks down the carbohydrates to generate CO2.

Which of the following most likely preceded the division shown? a. Nutrients became depleted. b. Environmental temperature decreased to 10oC. c. Nutrient availability increased. d. Environmental moisture increased.

Nutrients became depleted.

Why did fewer soldiers die from infectious disease during the Crimean War in the winter months? a)Pathogens do not multiply as quickly in colder temperatures. b)Pathogens do not multiply as quickly in wet environments. c)Soldiers have fewer close interactions with other individuals during the winter months. d)Chemical agents used to treat and prevent infections do not function effectively in warmer temperatures.

Pathogens do not multiply as quickly in colder temperatures.

Using the table below, which patient is most likely infected by a bacterium? a. Patient A b. Patient B c. Patient C d. none

Patient B

Which of the following statements describes one of the three steps of surveillance used for infectious diseases? a. Patients with infectious diseases are required to be seen by a physician at the CDC. b. Physicians are required to submit all patient records electronically to the CDC for review. c. Patient charts are reviewed by an infection control practitioner when an infectious disease is suspected. d. Incidence data is collected in all cases of bacterial infections within the United States.

Patient charts are reviewed by an infection control practitioner when an infectious disease is suspected.

Which periodontal pathogen has been found within atherosclerotic plaques? a. Streptococcus mutans b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Chlamydophila pneumoniae d. Porphyromonas gingivalis

Porphyromonas gingivalis

Which of the following statements about prions is correct? a. Prions are small particles that contain DNA. b. Chemical agents easily destroy prions. c. Acanthamoeba encephalitis is caused by prions. d. Prions can be passed by patient-to-patient contact.

Prions can be passed by patient-to-patient contact.

In 2003, a 48-year-old man was hospitalized in Dutchess County, New York, with a 101°F (38.4°C) fever, headache, and body aches. He also had difficulty breathing. He had just returned from a business trip to China. Health care workers were stumped for a diagnosis. Serological tests, PCR analysis, and fluorescent antibody stains failed to reveal a cause. Was this something new? The disease in the case history was determined to be a new agent, SARS. One week later a 27-year-old local patient with no history of travel presents with similar symptoms at a hospital in Florida. How should hospital personnel respond? a. Proceed initially with serological tests, PCR and antibody stains as they did in the case of the original infection. b. Immediately offer the treatment for SARS. c. Utilize whole genome sequencing to determine the nature of the pathogen. d. Prescribe a broad spectrum antibiotic.

Proceed initially with serological tests, PCR and antibody stains as they did in the case of the original infection.

A 17 year old boy has pus filled cysts on his face and upper back. Microscopic examination reveals Gram-positive rods. This infection is caused by? a)herpes simplex virus b)Propionibacterium acnes c)Staphylococcus aureus d)Streptococcus pyogenes

Propionibacterium acnes

The etiological agent of acne is? a)Staphylococcus aureus b)Streptococcus pyogenes c)Bacillus anthrasis d)Propionibacterium acnes

Propionibacterium acnes

Which of the following statements is FALSE? a)Hemolysins lyse red blood cells. b)Leukocidins destroy neutrophils c)AB toxins interfere with protein synthesis d)Protease exotoxins build proteins

Protease exotoxins build proteins

Six patients with indwelling catheters develop urinary tract infections caused by Escherichia coli. The isolates from all six patients are identical. Which of the following steps should be used to identify the source of infection? a. Test for antibiotic resistance in the Escherichia coli isolated from each patient. b. Ensure that all health care providers wear gloves during care of infected patients. c. Begin using air filters in the rooms of all infected patients. d. Question hospital staff to determine whether infection control measures are being maintained.

Question hospital staff to determine whether infection control measures are being maintained.

Which of the following statements about rabies is FALSE? a. It is caused by lyssavirus. b. Rabies virus is a neurotropic virus. c. Hydrophobia is associated with the disease. d. There are three basic forms: encephalitic, paralytic, and atypical.

Rabies virus is a neurotropic virus.

Antigenic drift occurs when? a)two viruses infect the same cell b)a new viral strain is produced c)random mutations occur in the neuraminidase spike d)random mutations occur in the hemagglutinin spike

Radom mutations occur in the hemagglutinin spike

What causes symptoms of malaria to occur every 48-72 hours? a. The life span of sporozoites is approximately 48-72 hours. b. The liver releases merozoites every 48-72 hours. c. Sporozoites are converted into merozoites during a 48-72-hour cycle. d. Release of merozoites and red cell debris is synchronized.

Release of merozoites and red cell debris is synchronized.

Which of the following statements accurately describes the transmission of one Chlamydia species in human populations? a. Reticulate bodies in secretions from one individual attach to membranes in his or her sexual partner. b. Reticulate bodies remain dormant in the environment for years and attach to host cells when humans come in contact with them. c. Elementary bodies undergo replication within the gut of fleas and infect human cells when fleas bite humans. d. Reticulate bodies replicate inside host cells and develop into elementary bodies that are released when cells lyse.

Reticulate bodies replicate inside host cells and develop into elementary bodies that are released when cells lyse.

Why are so few HIV virions released in the blood actually infectious? a. Reverse transcriptase has a high error rate. b. HIV is not a very infectious virus. c. The immune system inhibits these virions from causing infections. d. Very few cells in the immune system express the receptor HIV requires for binding.

Reverse transcriptase has a high error rate.

How do rickettsioses, such as Rocky Mountain spotted fever, cause systemic symptoms? a. Rickettsia species are obligate intracellular bacteria that infect endothelial cells throughout the body. b. Rickettsia species are phagocytized by macrophages and travel throughout the blood within macrophages. c. Rickettsia species infect lymphocytes and use the lymphatic system to move throughout the body. d. Rickettsia species infect fibroblasts within connective tissues and use the reticuloendothelial system to move throughout the body.

Rickettsia species are obligate intracellular bacteria that infect endothelial cells throughout the body.

Which scientist is credited with contracting the first microscope? a)Antonia van Leeuwenhoek b)Catherine of Siena c)Robert Hooke d)Louis Pasteur

Robert Hooke

All of the following cause UTIs EXCEPT a. E. coli. b. S. aureus. c. S. pyogenes. d. C. trichomatis.

S. pyogenes.

The most common bacterial cause of diarrhea in the United States is a. E. coli. b. Shigella. c. Campylobacter. d. Salmonella.

Salmonella

As a teenager, Angelica developed a systemic bacterial infection. The bacteria, found on some lettuce in a restaurant salad, killed several other people. In Angelica, the bacteria invaded her tissue macrophages, traveled throughout her bloodstream, and infected her gallbladder in addition to infecting her liver, spleen, and kidney. She survived but remained a chronic carrier of a. Brucella abortis. b. Yersinia pestis. c. Rickettsia prowazekii. d. Salmonella enterica servovar Typhi.

Salmonella enterica servovar Typhi.

When comparing sexual reproduction to asexual reproduction, which of the following is an advantage of sexual reproduction? a. Sexual reproduction generates fewer diverse cell surface proteins and is less likely to activate an immune response. b. Sexual reproduction requires fewer resources that may be useful when nutrients are depleted. c. Sexual reproduction produces haploid vegetative cells, which are smaller than diploid vegetative cells. d. Sexual reproduction increases genetic diversity, which may be useful in a changing environment.

Sexual reproduction increases genetic diversity, which may be useful in a changing environment.

Cynthia travels to Honduras and eats raw oysters from a small restaurant out in the middle of nowhere. After feeling sick for a while, she goes to the clinic when jaundice appears. Cynthia is very concerned that she is going to die. What does the health care worker tell her? a. She should be fine, as the virus causing her condition is self-limited and will be cleared by her immune system. b. She should be fine since she came in quickly and will respond well to antiviral drugs. c. She will need to be hospitalized, but with the right treatment, she will eventually be fine. d. She has a fatal condition.

She should be fine, as the virus causing her condition is self-limited and will be cleared by her immune system.

Which of the following organisms might someday be prevented from causing infections by a vaccine? a. E. coli b. Shigella c. Salmonella d. Listeria

Shigella

Which of the following facts supports the argument that viruses are living? a. Viruses lack metabolism for energy and biosynthesis. b. Viruses are capable of being crystallized. c. Some living pathogenic bacteria contain degenerate genomes and rely significantly on a host. d. Viruses cannot replicate without a host

Some living pathogenic bacteria contain degenerate genomes and rely significantly on a host.

A 40 year old woman has vesicles and scabs over her forehead. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings shows Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The etiology is? a)Staphylococcus aureus b)Streptococcus pyogenes c)Candida d)Herpes

Staphylococcus aureus

Acute bacterial endocarditis is often caused by a. Streptococcus mutans. b. Staphylococcus aureus. c. Chlamydophila pneumoniae. d. Porphyromonas gingivalis.

Staphylococcus aureus.

One weekend in June, Cassi was camping with her three children. She suffered a minor cut on her finger, which she bandaged properly. She also injured the left side of her body while playing sports with her kids. Not thinking much of either of her minor injuries, she went to bed. Two days later, Cassi was extremely ill. Her symptoms included vomiting, diarrhea, and a fever. She was also in severe pain where she had injured her side, and the area had begun to bruise (the skin did not look broken). By the next day, she could barely get out o fbed, and by the end of the night, she was breathing with difficulty and could not see. Her side began to leak fluid and blood. Cassi was admitted to the hospital in septic shock, with no detectable blood pressure. She was given vasopressors (medications that constrict the blood vessels) to raise her blood pressure to the normal level. An infectious disease specialist diagnosed the problem as necrotizing fasciitis, and Cassi was rushed into surgery. In an effort to save her life, about 7% of her body surface was removed. Because the large wound infection in her side would need to resolve before a skin graft could be performed to repair it, the hole in Cassi's body was left wide open. Meanwhile, the continued use of vaporpressors caused gangrene in her fingers and lower extremities. After nearly three months and several operations, including amputation, Cassi recovered. Which organism would be the most likely to be identified in a laboratory culture of Cassi's wound? a)Staphylococcus epidermidis b)Streptococcus pyogenes c)Clostridium perfringens d)Salmonella enterica

Streptococcus pyogenes

The most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis is a. Streptococcus pyogenes. b. Streptococcus pneumoniae. c. Haemophilus influenzae. d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae.

Streptococcus pyogenes.

The most abundant phototrophs in the ocean are single-celled and include the genera a. Treponema and Chlamydia. b. Synechococcus and Prochlorococcus. c. Merismopedia and Nostoc. d. Oscillatoria and Campylobacter.

Synechococcus and Prochlorococcus.

Which of the following protozoan(s) use antigenic switching to avoid the host immune system? a. T. gondii b. T. brucei c. T. cruzi d. T. brucei and T. cruzi

T. brucei and T. cruzi

Why must the genome of HPV enter the nucleus for replication? a. HPV uses its own polymerase that cannot function in the cytoplasm. b. The pH of the nucleus allows for replication of HPV RNA. c. The DNA genome of HPV can only be replicated in the nucleus where host DNA polymerase is found. d. The genome of HPV is not replicated in the nucleus.

The DNA genome of HPV can only be replicated in the nucleus where host DNA polymerase is found.

Sean was a 19-year-old college sophomore, a member of a fraternity at a large Midwestern university. Sean visited the campus health center, where he told the nurse practitioner that the shaft of his penis had a raised spot. The spot caused no discomfort yet, but Sean knew it was abnormal. The practitioner told Sean that he probably had human papillomavirus (HPV), a cause of genital warts. Although some HPV strains cause warts on external skin, genital HPV is transmitted only by sexual intercourse. The practitioner conducted a physical exam and discovered additional raised spots on Sean's anus. Sean told the practitioner that he had recently had vaginal sex with women, and had also experimented sexually with other men. The practitioner told Sean that the warts would probably go away on their own if he maintained good sleep and health habits, keeping his immune system strong, but some HPV strains can persist for years without symptoms. The warts could be removed by freezing or chemical treatment, but the virus would persist. Meanwhile, the presence of HPV suggested that Sean was likely to contract related strains causing cancer of the penis or anus. The practitioner recommended use of condoms, although HPV may infect areas that condoms do not protect. She also suggested that Sean recommend the Gardasil HPV vaccine for his younger brother and sister before they become sexually active. Which of the following is true of papillomavirus infection? a. Genital HPV can be contracted via contact with warts on another person's skin, for example a wart on the fingers. b. Condoms provide full protection against genital HPV. c. Freezing or otherwise removing genital warts eliminates the infection. d. The HPV vaccine can prevent infection with cancer-causing HPV strains.

The HPV vaccine can prevent infection with cancer-causing HPV strains.

Which of the following statements regarding the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) is FALSE? a. The MIC is the same for one drug regardless of bacterial species. b. The MIC is the lowest concentration of a drug that will prevent the growth of an organism. c. The MIC can be affected by how well a drug penetrates a cell. d. The MIC can be affected by the affinity of the drug for the intracellular target.

The MIC is the same for one drug regardless of bacterial species.

In October 2013, Kelsey was a 28-year-old computer programmer who worked for a prominent technology firm in Silicon Valley. In the middle of the night, Kelsey awoke with abdominal cramps and diarrhea. Her temperature spiked as high as 40°C (104°F). She had a bad headache and could not retain sufficient fluids. After three days, her fever subsided, but the diarrhea continued (about 20 times a day) and began showing blood. Kelsey was admitted to the hospital, where she was given intravenous fluids to control her dehydration. The physician asked her about her dietary history preceding the onset of symptoms. Kelsey recalled that the night before onset, she had eaten rotisserie chicken cooked at the supermarket. An antibody test confirmed the diagnosis of Salmonella enterica serovar heidelberg. Because of the severity of her symptoms, Kelsey was treated with antibiotics, although sometimes antibiotics may prolong the persistence of Salmonella. When amoxicillin failed to control the infection because of bacterial resistance, ciprofloxacin was used. Ultimately, Kelsey's illness was one of more than 400 cases in 23 states traced to contaminated chicken from one California farm. Kelsey recovered, but three months later, S. heidelberg could still be detected in her feces. Kelsey's diarrhea could be caused by which of the following: a)The Salmonella infection created an isotonic environment in the lumen of Kelsey's gut, leading water to leave her epithelial cells. b)The Salmonella infection created a hypertonic environment in the lumen of Kelsey's gut, leading water to leave her epithelial cells. c)The Salmonella infection created an acidic environment in the lumen of Kelsey's gut, leading water to leave her epithelial cells. d)The Salmonella infection created an oxidizing environment in the lumen of Kelsey's gut, leading water to leave her epithelial cells.

The Salmonella infection created a hypertonic environment in the lumen of Kelsey's gut, leading water to leave her epithelial cells.

What is the function of the apical complex on a merozoite form of Plasmodium falciparum? a. The apical complex is used for aerobic cellular respiration. b. The apical complex is used to allow a merozoite to enter a red blood cell. c. The apical complex is used to allow asexual reproduction. d. The apical complex is used to provide energy for flagella.

The apical complex is used to allow a merozoite to enter a red blood cell.

A soil sample taken shortly after a large chemical spill has occurred reveals only a few living bacteria. Six months later, a second sample from the same site reveals only a single bacterial species, which is present in high numbers. What may have caused this change? a. This bacterial species was most likely left at the site by the original sampling equipment. b. Animals passing through the area most likely deposited fecal matter full of microbiota. c. The bacterial species found in high numbers contains at least one gene that provides a competitive advantage. d. The single bacterial species must have been within the gut of a shelter species.

The bacterial species found in high numbers contains at least one gene that provides a competitive advantage.

Which of the following statements is a true comparison between the cardiovascular and lymphatic systems? a. The lymphatic system contains a pump that generates high pressures. b. The lymphatic system is used to transport nutrients and oxygen to body cells. c. The cardiovascular system carries lymph through lymph nodes. d. The cardiovascular system is composed of a pulmonary circuit and a systemic circuit.

The cardiovascular system is composed of a pulmonary circuit and a systemic circuit.

Why is it frequently more difficult to treat fungal infections in humans than it is to treat bacterial infections? a. The cells found in fungi and humans are more similar than cells of bacteria and humans. b. Humans have not developed medications capable of targeting fungi. c. Fungi normally grow in and on humans, and treating fungal infections would cause death of the human. d. Fungi undergo evolution at a much faster rate than bacteria do.

The cells found in fungi and humans are more similar than cells of bacteria and humans.

A molecule of ATP undergoes hydrolysis yielding AMP and two molecules of phosphate. Which of the following is true of this reaction? a)The entropy has decreased. b)The change in free energy, ΔG, is positive. c)The change in free energy, ΔG, is negative. d)The reaction is endergonic.

The change in free energy, ΔG, is negative.

In this image a transmembrane protein moves circles out of the cell, providing energy to move squares into the cell. Which of the following is correct? a)Both the circles and the squares move down their concentration gradients. b)Both the circles and the squares move against their concentration gradients. c)The circles move down their concentration gradient and the squares move against their concentration gradient. d)The circles move against their concentration gradient and the squares move down their concentration gradient.

The circles move down their concentration gradient and the squares move against their concentration gradient.

Which of the following would indicate efforts to control a disease are working? a. The disease becomes endemic. b. The disease prevalence increases. c. The disease incidence decreases. d. Outbreaks of the disease only occur every other year.

The disease incidence decreases.

Which of the following is true about the female reproductive system? a. The entire female reproductive system is internal. b. The mature oocyte is deposited directly into the uterus. c. The uterus ends at the opening of the vagina. d. The uterus is the site of fertilization.

The entire female reproductive system is internal.

You fluorescently label the phospholipid head groups of a small number of phospholipids in the outer leaflet of the cell membrane to observe them over time with a microscope. At time zero, all the fluorescent label is concentrated in one spot. What will you observe at a later time point? a)The fluorescently tagged phospholipids will still be together, concentrated in a spot. b)The fluorescently tagged phospholipids will be spread out, but will still all be part of the outer leaflet. c)The fluorescently tagged phospholipids will be spread out in the outer leaflet and some will have flip-flopped into the inner leaflet as well. d)It is impossible to predict what will happen to the labeled phospholipids over time.

The fluorescently tagged phospholipids will be spread out, but will still all be part of the outer leaflet.

Which of the following statements regarding the influenza virus is FALSE? a. The genome of influenza is very tiny to allow the generation of as many virions as possible. b. The influenza genome maximizes gene reassortment. c. The genome of influenza is well designed for evasion of the immune system. d. The influenza genome allows for large quantities of virions to be created for continued infection.

The genome of influenza is very tiny to allow the generation of as many virions as possible.

A bacterial disease previously known to only infect dogs begins to cause respiratory infections in humans who are in close contact with infected dogs. Which of the following explanations most likely explains the emergence of this new human pathogen? a. The genome of the bacterium changed through horizontal gene transfer within the microbiota of the dog. b. There was a mutation in the human genome that allowed the bacterium to attack human cells more vigorously. c. The bacterium became infected by a mutation-inducing virus transmitted through flea bites on the dog. d. The bacterium forms dormant endospores that remain in the environment even after the infected dogs are removed.

The genome of the bacterium changed through horizontal gene transfer within the microbiota of the dog.

The graph shown indicates the incidence of whooping cough in the United States. What information can you determine from this graph? a. Approximately 40,000 individuals were infected with whooping cough in 2007. b. The incidence of whooping cough in infants under one year of age in 2013 was higher than the incidence in 2012. c. Vaccination against whooping cough has become less effective in infants under the age of one year over time. d. The incidence of whooping cough declined dramatically between 2005 and 2007.

The incidence of whooping cough declined dramatically between 2005 and 2007.

The graph shown indicates the incidence of whooping cough in the United States. What information can you determine from this graph? a. There was a decline in vaccination rates of infants under one year of age during the early 1990s. b. The incidence of whooping cough in infants under one year of age was declining prior to 1990. c. Waning immunity in adult populations has led to an increase in whooping cough. d. The incidence of whooping cough in infants under one year of age was higher in 2010 than it was in 1995.

The incidence of whooping cough in infants under one year of age was higher in 2010 than it was in 1995.

Resolution is? a)the ability to detect individual cells b)using a microscope to be seen c)increasing the size of an image d)the smallest distance two objects can be separated and still be distinguished

The smallest distance two objects can be separated and still be distinguished

Frank, a 45-year-old man, visited the hospital with respiratory distress and a high fever. Frank had diabetes mellitus and had smoked for 25 years. His white blood cell count was 24,000/μl and his c-reactive protein was 24 mg/ml, both signs that his immune system was fighting an infection. His chest X-ray showed an abnormal shadow, and his chest computed tomography (CT scan) showed thickened bronchial walls. He was coughing up black sputum. The physician prescribed an antibiotic, cefotiam hydrochloride, but Frank's condition worsened. By the tenth day, he was producing 100 ml of sputum a day, and the CT scan of his lung showed multiple lesions (clouded regions). Since antibacterial antibiotics had failed, Frank was tested for fungi. A culture of his sputum and PCR amplification of fungal DNA revealed the fungus Aspergillus fumigatus. Frank was treated with the antifungal agents itraconazole, meropenem trihydrate, and amphotericin b, but he died on the 25th day. What is the most likely cause of Frank's deterioration following the use of an antibiotic agent? a. Frank was allergic to the antibiotic used. b. The infection would have progressed at the same rate regardless of the use of this antibiotic. c. Killing of the fungal cells causing the infection induced a severe immune response. d. Frank acquired a secondary bacterial infection.

The infection would have progressed at the same rate regardless of the use of this antibiotic.

Which of the following statements would most likely indicate an isolate is a Gram-positive bacterium and excludes other bacteria? a. The isolate was found in a soil sample. b. The isolate forms dormant endospores. c. The isolate is an intracellular pathogen. d. The isolate produces oxygen.

The isolate forms dormant endospores.

Which of the following demonstrates correct scientific notation of a bacterial organism?

The italicized answer. First word capitalized, second word lower case

Why was the selection of anthrax by Robert Koch a fortunate one? a)The microbe that causes it multiplies slowly. b)The microbe that causes it multiplies to a high concentration in the kidneys. c)The microbe that causes it is not dangerous to humans. d)The microbe that causes it can remain infective outside the body for long periods.

The microbe that causes it can remain infective outside the body for long periods.

What is happening in the figure shown? a)The mold on the left is producing a compound that inhibits the growth of the bacterial colonies on the right. b)The mold on the left is outcompeting the bacterial cells for nutrients and therefore is growing faster. c)The bacterial cells on the right are inhibiting the growth of the mold on the left. d)The mold and bacterial cells are growing in a symbiotic relationship.

The mold on the left is producing a compound that inhibits the growth of the bacterial colonies on the right.

This map shows the incidence of syphilis in the United States in 2012. Based on the map shown, which of the following statements is true? a. Efforts to prevent syphilis in the southern states failed to prevent an increase in the number of new cases in 2012. b. No individuals in Montana were infected with syphilis in 2012. c. The number of new cases of syphilis was higher in Texas than it was in North Dakota in 2012. d. The total number of active cases of syphilis in 2012 was highest in the southern states.

The number of new cases of syphilis was higher in Texas than it was in North Dakota in 2012.

Which of the following is NOT true about gas gangrene? a)The organism produces considerable amounts of gas. b)The causative agent is Clostridium perfringens c)The organism only grows on live tissue. d)The organism is found in the environment and in the intestines.

The organism only grows on live tissue.

What is the purpose of the actin-myosin motor shown in the figure below? a)The pathogen uses this structure to enter the host cell. b)The pathogen uses this structure to produce toxins. c)The pathogen uses this structure as a secretion apparatus. d)The pathogen uses this structure to prevent phagocytosis.

The pathogen uses this structure to enter the host cell.

Which of the following is most likely true of pathogens with a broad host range? a)The pathogens are highly virulent in all hosts. b) The pathogens are unlikely to be zoonotic diseases. c)The pathogens are less likely than narrow host range pathogens to respond to antibiotics d) The pathogens recognize receptors that are very similar among different hosts.

The pathogens recognize receptors that are very similar among different hosts.

Which of the following was an unexpected benefit of the bubonic plague? a)There was no benefit to the bubonic plague. b)The population of Europe experienced a baby boom. c)It resulted in a better understanding of aseptic practices and how to prevent the spread of infection. d)The population decline enabled the cultural advancement of the Renaissance.

The population decline enabled the cultural advancement of the Renaissance.

This figure shows the pattern of short-range and long-range transportation connections. Which of the following accurately describes the connection between these patterns and infectious diseases? a. Areas with more connections tend to experience fewer disease outbreaks because people are exposed to more microbes. b. Blood-borne pathogens tend to follow transportation routes, but respiratory infections do not. c. The rapid introduction of pathogens from one area to another strongly correlates with modern travel routes. d. Patterns of modern transportation routes strongly correlate with social inequality and host susceptibility.

The rapid introduction of pathogens from one area to another strongly correlates with modern travel routes.

How is the specialized shape of a spirochete advantageous? a. The shape of a spirochete allows it to rotate and move in a corkscrew motion through viscous environments. b. The shape of a spirochete allows spirochetes to divide more rapidly than cells of other shapes. c. The shape of a spirochete prevents osmotic shock, which is experienced by cocci and rods only. d. The shape of a spirochete provides protection from phagocytosis and antibiotics.

The shape of a spirochete allows it to rotate and move in a corkscrew motion through viscous environments.

If an error occurred during the sporulation process and small acid-soluble proteins were not included in the spore, what would be the effect? a. The spore would only exist for 100 years. b. The spore will be more likely to germinate. c. The spore will be less resistant to heat. d. The spore will be less resistant to ultraviolet light.

The spore will be less resistant to ultraviolet light.

The gene that codes for a protein involved in detoxifying an environmental toxin is only expressed in the presence of the toxin. A repressor protein controls transcription of the gene. Which of the following is true? a. The toxin mediates induction of the gene by relieving repression imposed by the repressor. b. The toxin mediates induction of the gene by stimulating activation mediated by an activator. c. The toxin mediates repression of the gene by relieving repression imposed by the repressor. d. The toxin mediates repression of the gene by stimulating activation mediated by an activator.

The toxin mediates induction of the gene by relieving repression imposed by the repressor.

Which of the following is true regarding type II secretion systems? a)The type II secretion genes are homologous to the type IV pilus. b)Type II secretion mechanisms are static with no twitching motility. c)Proteins secreted by type II secretion systems are secreted directly out of the cell. d)Shiga toxin is a well-known example of a protein that a type II secretion mechanism expels.

The type II secretion genes are homologous to the type IV pilus.

How does the cell wall protect bacterial cells from osmotic shock? a)The wall forms a rigid cage that withstands turgor pressure. b)The wall is impermeable to water, preventing turgor pressure. c)The wall is impermeable to ions and other solutes, preventing osmotic imbalance. d)The wall ensures cells are only found in environments where turgor pressure will not occur.

The wall forms a rigid cage that withstands turgor pressure.

How do filamentous fungi grow in length? a. Their hyphae undergo mitosis without cell division. b. Their hyphae undergo meiosis to produce new cells. c. They produce asci by mitosis without cell division. d. They produce asci by meiosis without cell division.

Their hyphae undergo mitosis without cell division

Which of the following statements is a description of the prevalence of chlamydia? a. There are 57 active cases of chlamydia on a university campus. b. There were 57 new cases of chlamydia on a university campus last week. c. There were 123 new cases of chlamydia on a university campus last year. d. Young women on a university campus are twice as likely as young men to develop chlamydia.

There are 57 active cases of chlamydia on a university campus.

Why is vaccination for rubella recommended? a)It has a high mortality rate in school-age children. b)Death from secondary infections is common. c)There is a high incidence of congenital infections. d)It is no longer recommended; rubella has been eradicated.

There is a high incidence of congenital infections.

What is the cure for infection with HIV? a. vaccine b. radiation c. antiviral drugs d. There is no cure for HIV.

There is no cure for HIV.

Which of the following is a factor that could explain the pattern of pertussis incidence shown? a. There was an increased rate of vaccination beginning in 2002. b. There was an improved laboratory detection of pertussis. c. A more effective vaccine was introduced in 2012. d. Fewer infants were vaccinated between 1982 and 1987.

There was an improved laboratory detection of pertussis.

An environmental sample from the ocean contains phototrophic bacteria that produce oxygen. How would you classify these bacteria? a. Information about the cell wall would be required to determine whether these bacteria are Gram positive or Gram negative. b. These bacteria must be cyanobacteria based on their production of oxygen. c. It is highly probable that these bacteria are Gram-negative bacteria based on their presence in a marine environment. d. These bacteria must be chlamydia found within unicellular organisms.

These bacteria must be cyanobacteria based on their production of oxygen.

Nicotine in cigarette smoke paralyzes the cilia found on epithelium within the respiratory tract. What is the normal function of these cilia? a. They produce mucus that traps microorganisms. b. They help to warm incoming air. c. They aid in moving mucus to the nasal and oral cavities. d. They contain macrophages that target microorganisms.

They aid in moving mucus to the nasal and oral cavities.

Which of the following is true about myelin sheaths? a. They slow down the speed of nerve impulses. b. They are made up of a protein molecule called myelin. c. They are destroyed in certain disorders such as multiple sclerosis. d. They cover all neuronal axons.

They are destroyed in certain disorders such as multiple sclerosis.

What is the problem with antihelminth drugs? a. They are not able to completely eliminate the worm from the body. b. They are not able to kill the worm. c. They are not able to starve the worm. d. There is no problem with antihelminth drugs.

They are not able to completely eliminate the worm from the body.

Why do strict anaerobes die in the presence of oxygen? a. They are vulnerable to reactive oxygen species. b. They are not able to get enough energy without using oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor. c. They do not use oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor. d. Strict anaerobes do not die in the presence of oxygen.

They are vulnerable to reactive oxygen species.

Which of the following characteristics do HPV and HIV have in common? a. They are both retroviruses. b. They both have overlapping genes. c. They are both DNA viruses. d. The have the same tissue tropism.

They both have overlapping genes

Which of the following is true of both lipids and sugars? a)They both store energy. b)They are both hydrophobic. c)They are both hydrophilic. d)They both contain nitrogen.

They both store energy.

How can some Firmicutes persist in the environment for centuries? a. Their unique cell shapes reduce surface area to prevent desiccation. b. They form dormant endospores that remain viable for long periods of time. c. They are able to slow their metabolism in vegetative cells when nutrients are depleted. d. They produce a thick waxy coating when the environment becomes dry.

They form dormant endospores that remain viable for long periods of time.

Which statement accurately describes membrane phospholipids? a)They are entirely hydrophobic. b)They are entirely hydrophilic. c)They have hydrophilic phosphate head groups and hydrophobic fatty acid tails. d)They have hydrophobic phosphate head groups and hydrophilic fatty acid tails.

They have hydrophilic phosphate head groups and hydrophobic fatty acid tails.

Which of the following is true of plasmids? a. They can be the entire genome. b. They are common in eukaryotic cells. c. They are usually linear. d. They may contain antibiotic resistance genes.

They may contain antibiotic resistance genes.

Which of the following is FALSE of teichoic acids? a)They reinforce the cell wall. b)They may help pathogens attach to host cells. c)They are recognized by the host immune system. d)They repel the Gram stain.

They repel the Gram stain.

What is the function of the process shown in the life cycle of Entamoeba histolytica? a. This process forms a cyst that leaves the host and remains viable in water supplies for weeks. b. This process forms a trophozoite that leaves the host and remains viable in water supplies for weeks. c. This process allows an ingested amebic trophozoite to develop into a cyst that can feed on red blood cells. d. This process allows an ingested amebic cyst to develop into a trophozoite that can feed on red blood cells.

This process allows an ingested amebic cyst to develop into a trophozoite that can feed on red blood cells.

________ is an example of a virus that causes major economic losses in the agriculture industry. a. Tobacco mosaic virus b. Measles virus c. HIV d. Influenza

Tobacco mosaic virus

Which of the following is true about Candida albicans? a. Normal flora helps this organism to cause disease. b. It commonly causes disease in immunocompetent individuals. c. Treatment includes amphotericin B and flucytosine. d. Candida meningitis is seen more commonly in teenagers.

Treatment includes amphotericin B and flucytosine.

A 23-year-old man visited a community clinic after receiving notification from the health department that a previous sexual partner was diagnosed with a sexually transmitted disease. Although he does not recall having any ulcers, he currently has a macular rash on his trunk, arms, hands, and feet. He is tested for evidence of a. Treponema pallidum pallidum. c. Chlamydia trachomatis. b. Treponema pallidum pertenue. d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

Treponema pallidum pallidum.

If humans began engaging in regular cannibalism, which of the following might become more prevalent? a. Trichinella b. Stongyloides c. Necator d. Ascarsis

Trichinella

A mutation known as a pyrimidine dimer is usually caused by a. acridine orange. b. DNA polymerase errors. c. UV light. d. X-rays.

UV light

How does vaccinating wild rodents or poultry influence human health? a. Vaccinating wild rodents or poultry has no effect on human health. b. Vaccinating wild rodents or poultry reduces transmission of zoonotic diseases to humans. c. Vaccinating wild rodents or poultry reduces the migration of microbes into temperate regions. d. Vaccinating wild rodents or poultry increases the emergence of drug-resistant bacteria.

Vaccinating wild rodents or poultry reduces transmission of zoonotic diseases to humans.

Using the figure shown, which genus is most closely related to Chlamydia? a. Treponema b. Verrucomicrobium c. Clostridium d. Pseudomonas

Verrucomicrobium

Jim and his family were on vacation in sunny Florida. One evening after spending the day at the beach, Jim noticed a painful wound that he was not aware he had. After 24 hours without treatment, Jim was pronounced dead. What organism infected Jim? a. Listeria monocytogenes b. Clostridium difficile c. Vibrio cholerae d. Vibrio vulnificus

Vibrio vulnificus

Which of the following negative situations could be caused by the similarity between mitochondria and bacteria? a)Vincent's Staphylococcus skin infection cannot be treated because the only effective antibiotic has too many toxic side effects. b)Alexander suffers from myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibers, a mitochondrial disease. c)Lauren inherited complex I deficiency, a mitochondrial disease that inhibits her mitochondria from producing enough energy in certain organs of her body. d)Sally was born with a pyruvate decarboxylase deficiency that prevents her mitochondria from functioning properly, resulting in severe mental retardation.

Vincent's Staphylococcus skin infection cannot be treated because the only effective antibiotic has too many toxic side effects.

Viruses cause more illnesses on an everyday basis than do bacteria. Why are there so few antiviral agents compared to antibacterial agents? a. Viruses are a bigger problem in developing countries where they do not have the funds to develop antiviral drugs. b. Since viruses are not living, there are no drugs that can stop their proliferation. c. Viruses use functions of the host to replicate themselves, so achieving selective toxicity is difficult. d. Viruses do not cause as many deadly diseases and therefore have not been targeted with antivirals.

Viruses use functions of the host to replicate themselves, so achieving selective toxicity is difficult.

West Nile virus is capable of infecting many different organisms (humans, birds, raccoons, and so on). Based on this information, which of the following statements correctly describes West Nile virus? a. West Nile virus has a narrow host range. b. West Nile virus has a broad host range. c. West Nile virus has a narrow tissue tropism. d. West Nile virus is capable of fecal-oral transmission.

West Nile virus has a broad host range.

Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between ΔG and Keq? a)There is no relationship, as they are independent entities. b)When Keq is greater than 1, ΔG is negative. c)When Keq is greater than 1, ΔG is positive. d)When Keq is less than 1, ΔG is negative.

When Keq is greater than 1, ΔG is negative.

Why are yeast infections more difficult for clinicians to treat than bacterial infections? a. Yeast infections are caused by intracellular pathogens. b. Yeast cells are multi-drug resistant. c. There are not as many drugs to treat yeast. d. Yeast infections are caused by Candida species, which are eukaryotic in nature.

Yeast infections are caused by Candida species, which are eukaryotic in nature.

What is shown in this figure? a. a Candida albicans infection b. dental caries c. strep throat d. a Streptococcus mutans infection

a Candida albicans infection

Blood and fecal samples are collected from a man with dysentery to determine the causative agent and appropriate treatment. Which of the following would most clearly indicate amebic infection? a. immunological tests indicating the presence of Shigella b. a Wheatley's trichrome stain indicating a protozoa with ingested red blood cells c. a Gram stain indicating the presence of Gram-negative bacteria d. an endospore stain indicating the presence of endospores

a Wheatley's trichrome stain indicating a protozoa with ingested red blood cells

Refer to this image showing a CT scan of a brain displaying disease. To what does the arrow point? a. a brain abscess b. encephalitis c. myelitis d. a normal brain

a brain abscess

What would be the expected result on the body if the pathogenicity island of Clostridium difficile were removed? a. an increase in production of TNF-α b. a decrease in production of TNF-α c. an increased ability to detect the toxin in a fecal sample d. an increased ability to identify the organism by PCR

a decrease in production of TNF-α

Which of the following could possibly be an ancestor of the large asymmetrical DNA Vaccinia virus? a. a degenerate single-celled organism b. a bacteriophage c. influenza d. a cow

a degenerate single-celled organism

Assume you stain Bacillus with malachite green with heat and then counterstain with safranin. What type of stain would you be performing? a)a differential and endospore stain b)a differential and Gram stain c)a simple and endospore stain d)a simple and Gram stain

a differential and endospore stain

Which microscope is used to observe specific fluorescent-labeled structures? a)a compound light microscope b)a phase-contrast microscope c)a fluorescence microscope d)an electron microscope

a fluorescence microscope

What type of cellular molecule is shown here? a)a lipid b)an amino acid c)a ribonucleic acid d)a protein

a lipid

What factor favors an infectious disease to become pandemic instead of epidemic? a)a localized animal reservoir b)rapid mortality c)a low infectious does 50% d)a short incubation period

a low infectious dose 50%

The structure indicated on this figure is a. a bronchiole. b. the trachea. c. a main bronchus. d. an alveolar duct.

a main bronchus

Leukemia refers to? a)a malignant lymphoid cell found in circulation or bone marrow b)a solid mass in a lymphoid organ c)growth of a plasma cell d)cancerous plasma cells that appear at multiple sites

a malignant lymphoid cell found in circulation or bone marrow

Which of the following statements correctly describes a lichen? a. a mutualistic relationship in which spirochetes provide a scaffold for fungal growth b. a mutualistic relationship in which cyanobacteria provide nitrogen to fungi c. a parasitic relationship in which proteobacteria ferment sugars produced by fungi d. a commensal relationship between Firmicutes and fungi that provides no benefits for either organism

a mutualistic relationship in which cyanobacteria provide nitrogen to fungi

In this model of a cellular macromolecule, spirals represent alpha helices and arrows represent beta sheets. What does the model represent? a)an amino acid b)a protein c)a ribonucleic acid d)a polysaccharide

a protein

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) spreads directly from person to person via intimate contact. HIV exhibits? a)a simple infection cycle b)a complex infection cycle c)vehicle transmission d)indirect transmission

a simple infection cycle

Which of the following agencies would be the first to receive information about a reportable disease in the United States? a. the WHO b. the CDC c. a state health agency d. the FDA

a state health agency

What kind of cellular molecule is shown here? a)an amino acid b)glycerol c)a lipid d)a sugar

a sugar

The cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria contain(s)? a)only a single layer of peptidoglycan b)a thick layer of lipopolysaccharides c)a thinner and more porous cell wall than Gram-negative species d)a thick layer of peptidoglycan

a thick layer of peptidoglycan

An infectious agent remains infectious after treatment with an enzyme that destroys DNA. What might the infectious agent be? a)an archaeal cell b)a bacteria c)a eukaryote d)a virus

a virus

Warts are a common skin condition caused by an organism that cannot be grown in pure culture on an agar Petri dish and is small enough to pass through a tiny-pored filter. What is the causative agent of warts? a)a bacterium b)a virus c)an archaea d)a fungus

a virus

Which of the following bioweapons would be used with the intent of terrorizing people rather than inflicting death on large numbers of individuals? a. a virus that is easily transmitted between people and to which most individuals in a population are susceptible b. a virus with a low infectious dose and high mortality that is easily dispersed through the air c. a virus that is not easily transmitted between people and has a high infectious dose d. a virus that is easily dispersed from one infected person to many within a day and has a high mortality rate

a virus that is not easily transmitted between people and has a high infectious dose

Damage from protozoan infections is due mainly to the? a)toxins that are released b)ability of the organism to persist within host tissue c)ability of the organism to turn on the host immune system d)cell wall components of the pathogen

ability of the organism to persist within host tissue

All of the following are risk behaviors that lead to the acquisition of an STI EXCEPT a. abstinence. b. unprotected sex. c. multiple sex partners. d. drug abuse.

abstinence

The purpose of the Tat protein in an HIV infection is to? a)down regulate CD4 and MHC class 1 expression b)inhibit virus assembly c)accelerate HIV transcription by the host cell d)protect the cell from being killed by CD8 cytotoxic cells

accelerate HIV transcription by the host cell

What is labeled as "C" in this figure? a. acetylcholine b. toxin c. motor neuron d. muscle

acetylcholine

Which of the following is NOT a natural defense of the oral cavity? a. acidic conditions b. lysozyme c. IgA d. digestive mucus

acidic conditions

Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT? a)boils b)carbuncles c)acne d)pimples

acne

Topical retinoids and antibiotics are commonly used to treat? a)cellulitis b)acne c)erysipelas d)impetigo

acne

What treatment is typically used for otherwise healthy individuals who contract infectious mononucleosis? a. hospitalization b. antiviral therapy c. activity restriction d. passive immunization

activity restriction

A patient presents with fever and extensive lesions of the labia minora. Her VDRL test was negative. What is the most likely treatment? a. metronidazole b. acyclovir c. cephalosporins d. No treatment is available.

acyclovir

Which of the following is used to treat shingles? a)penicillin b)sulfonamide c)acyclovir d)fungicide

acyclovir

Pili and stalks enable bacterial a)adherence. b)chemotaxis. c)photosynthesis. d)symport.

adherence

The fimbriae of E. coli is an example of a(n)? a)adhesion b)receptor c)endotoxin d)exotoxin

adhesion

Which of the following does NOT use fluorescent-labeled antibodies? a)agglutination b)western blot c)immunofluorescence microscopy d)flow cytometry

agglutination

Which of the following is a test to determine a patient's blood type by mixing the patient's red blood cells with antibodies? a)agglutination reaction b)immunoprecipitation c)enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) d)immunofluorescence

agglutination reaction

A major group of microbial eukaryotes that contains chloroplasts related to those of plants and is found as a single cell or sheet is a. fungi. b. algae. c. alveolates. d. trypanosomes.

algae

Which fo the following would you not expect to find in the human digestive tract? a)archaea b) algae c)bacteria d)intestinal viruses

algae

After translation a. all proteins are folded and secreted. b. some proteins are folded but all are secreted. c. all proteins are folded and some are also secreted. d. some proteins are folded and another subset are secreted.

all proteins are folded and some are also secreted.

All of the following are true regarding African trypanosomiasis EXCEPT that a. it is also known as "sleeping sickness." b. all subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei have multiple hosts. c. it is transmitted by the tsetse fly. d. death occurs without proper treatment.

all subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei have multiple hosts.

Phase variation controls protein levels by a. altering the DNA sequence. b. changing the rate of mRNA translation. c. changing the rate of mRNA stability. d. changing the rate of protein stability.

altering the DNA sequence.

The main reason that climate change can affect infectious disease patterns is by? a)causing the evolution of new animal species that can serve as hosts to emerging pathogens b)altering where organisms can live c)increasing the virulence of pathogens d)decreasing the virulence of pathogens

altering where organisms can live

The parasite that causes malaria has a complex life cycle involving both a definitive and an intermediate host. This parasitic protist also contains an elaborate cortex. This parasite is best categorized as a(n) a. fungus. b. trypanosome. c. alveolate. d. alga.

alveolate

The group of organisms that includes ciliates, dinoflagellates, and apicomplexans is known as a. fungi. b. amebas. c. trypanosomes. d. alveolates.

alveolates

The molecule shown here is a(n) a)amino acid. b)monosaccharide. c)deoxyribonucleotide. d)ribonucleotide.

amino acid

What would John Tyndall have needed to use to disprove the theory of spontaneous generation with his experiments? a)a swan-neck flask b)a microscope b)an autoclave d)organic media

an autoclave

Which of the following is powerful enough to visualize ribosomes? a)a compound light microscope b)an electron microscope c)a fluorescence microscope d)a darkfield microscope

an electron microscope

Which of the following is considered metabolically INACTIVE? a. an elementary body of Chlamydia trachomatis b. a reticulate body of Chlamydophila pneumonia c. a vegetative Bacillus anthracis cell d. a biofilm containing Bacteroides

an elementary body of Chlamydia trachomatis

You place water containing a radioactive isotope of hydrogen on the outside of a cell. Which of the following will increase the rate at which radioactive water appears on the inside of the cell? a)a decrease in temperature b)an increase in unsaturated fatty acids c)an increase in the fatty acid tail length d)a decrease in membrane surface area

an increase in unsaturated fatty acids

Close contact with respiratory droplets from which of the following individuals is LEAST likely to cause disease? a. an individual with histoplasmosis b. an individual with influenza c. an individual with pertussis d. an individual with tuberculosis

an individual with histoplasmosis

Close contact with respiratory droplets from which of the following individuals is most likely to cause disease? a. an individual with histoplasmosis b. an individual with blastomycosis c. an individual with cryptococcosis d. an individual with tuberculosis

an individual with tuberculosis

The bacterial cell wall is an attractive target for antibiotics because a)bacterial cells cannot develop resistance to antibiotics that target the cell wall. b)animal cells lack a cell wall. c)the cell wall is unimportant for bacterial survival. d)the cell wall is the only structure bacteria require for survival.

animal cells lack a cell wall

All of the following are methods used to treat C. perfringens infection EXCEPT? a)amputation b)a hyperbaric chamber c)antibiotic therapy alone d)debridement

antibiotic therapy alone

The mycelia of Streptomyces and other actinomycetes are known to produce a. lactic acid. b. endospores. c. antibiotics. d. statins.

antibiotics.

All of the following are generally used in vaccines EXCEPT? a)toxoids b)parts of bacterial cells c)antibodies d)inactivated viruses

antibodies

Which item is from the patient in a direct ELISA test? a)antigen b)substrate for the enzyme c)antibodies against the antigen d)antihuman immune serum

antigen

In viruses such as influenza, the ability to undergo a major genetic alteration is called? a)antigenic drift b)antigenic shift c)antigenic variation d)antigenic binding

antigenic shift

In this image the energy released by the transport of the circles out of the cell is used to drive the import of the squares into the cell. This is an example of a. passive transport. b. facilitated diffusion. c. symport coupled transport. d. antiport coupled transport.

antiport coupled transport.

Type I pili are different from type IV pili in that type I pili? a)are static structures b)are thin and flexible c)allow for twitching motility d)are dynamic

are static structures

Which of the following actions of an individual will NOT inhibit the need for antibiotics? a. frequent hand washing b. aromatherapy c. avoiding the use of antibiotics for viral infections d. vaccinations

aromatherapy

Mycoplasma lost their cell walls via reductive evolution. This was possible because a)their cell membranes became extra thick to compensate. b)it allowed them to not be sensitive to antibiotics that target the cell wall. c)as obligate parasites they live in environments with constant osmolarity. d)they live in soils with plenty of available moisture.

as obligate parasites they live in environments with constant osmolarity.

Fungi that form spore-dispersing asci are known as a. basidiomycetes. b. zygomycetes. c. microsporidia. d. ascomycetes.

ascomycetes.

All of the following are used to treat chickenpox EXCEPT? a)aspirin b)calamine lotion c)antihistamines d)oatmeal baths

aspirin

What type of vaccine is the live, weakened measles virus? a)conjugated b)subunit c)DNA d)attenuated whole-agent

attenuated whole-agent

Which of the following infections would affect the lower respiratory tract but NOT the upper respiratory tract? a. acute otitis media b. sinusitis c. streptococcal pharyngitis d. atypical pneumonia

atypical pneumonia

Standard conditions for sterilization by ________ are 121°C and 15 psi for 20 minutes. a. autoclaving b. pasteurization c. tyndallization d. lyophilization

autoclaving

In this figure, where does botulinum toxin act to prevent acetylcholine release? a. dendrite b. Schwann cells c. axon d. axon terminal

axon terminal

Individuals living in the northeastern United States should take precautions to prevent tick bites to avoid the emerging protozoan disease that grows inside red blood cells. This disease is known as a. Lyme disease. b. babesiosis. c. Chagas' disease. d. malaria.

babesiosis

Based on the figure shown, the type of organism indicated with an arrow could be a? a)virus b)bacteria c)macroscopic fungi d)large ameba

bacteria

Biofilm infections are important clinically because? a)WBC easily penetrate biofilms b)bacteria in biofilms are more susceptible to antimicrobial compounds c)bacteria in biofilms can persist against host defenses d)bacteria in biofilms do not grow on medical devices

bacteria in biofilms can persist against host defenses

Amplifying 16S ribosomal RNA from biopsy tissues would be useful in identifying the presence of a a. bacterium. b. specific virus. c. multicellular parasite. d. unicellular parasite.

bacterium

Which repair process leads to an abasic site as part of the repair pathway? a. base excision repair b. methyl mismatch repair c. recombination d. SOS repair

base excision repair

Why must influenza have highly efficient host-to-host transmission? a. because of its rapid infection b. because of its slow infection c. because of genetic reassortment d. because of latent infection

because of its rapid infection

The patient, Asuncion, is an eight year old girl from Argentina. She received the BCG vaccine for tuberculosis about one year before coming to the United States, she must take a skin test from tuberculosis (TB). Asuncion tried to refuse but is told it is a requirement. She allows the nurse to apply the test to her arm. Three days later, the test site has a large red lesion and the skin is starting to slough (peel off). The reaction Asuncion is experiencing is most similar to someone who has? a) been exposed to poison ivy and now has contact dermatitis b)type A blood, but has been given type B transfusion c)an urticarial rash in response to penicillin treatment d)an allergic reaction to bee venom injected during a sting

been exposed to poison ivy and now has contact dermatitis

Individuals with ________ find eating and swallowing to be painful. a. gingivitis b. trench mouth c. dental caries d. plaque

bench mouth

Oil immersion is used in which type of microscopy and on which objective? a)bright-field microscopy, 40X b)bright-field microscopy, 100x c)darkfield microscopy, 40x d)darkfield microscopy, 100x

bright-field microscopy, 100x

Reoccurring UTIs can be a result of all of the following EXCEPT a. birth control pills. b. biofilm formation. c. improper clearance after antibiotic treatment. d. reintroduction of the organism.

birth control pills

The diffuse infiltrate shown in this figure is indicative of a. pertussis. b. blastomycosis. c. tuberculosis. d. pneumococcal pneumonia.

blastomycosis

Ribosomes are composed of a. protein only. b. RNA only. c. both protein and rRNA. d. both protein and tRNA.

both protein and rRNA.

Vaccination is available for all the following EXCEPT a. Neisseria meningitis. b. tetanus. c. rabies. d. botulism.

botulism

Which one of the following diseases is NOT caused by Actinobacteria? a. tuberculosis b. leprosy c. diphtheria d. botulism

botulism

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? a. tetanus - releases potent neurotoxin b. botulism - stimulates transmission of nerve impulse c. poliomyelitis - multiplication of virus occurs in throat and small intestine d. rabies - destroys cells of the CNS

botulism - stimulates transmission of nerve impulse

Which of the following is NOT normally found in human cells? a. cDNA b. DNA c. mRNA d. tRNA

cDNA

All of the following are true about B-cell neoplasms EXCEPT? a)cancers arise in B cells when genes that control cell division are dysregulated and fail to replicate b)follicular lymphoma occurs when the bel-2 gene is activated and prevents apoptosis c)chronic lymphocytic leukemia occurs when there is a deletion in chromosome 13 d)Burkitt's lymphoma develops when the c-myo gene moves next to expressed antibody genes

cancers arise in B cells when genes that control cell division are dysregulated and fail to replicate

Which of the following is caused by an opportunistic pathogen? a. genital herpes b. gonorrhea c. candidiasis d. chancroid

candidiasis

Vaginal itching and cheesy discharge are symptoms of a. bacterial vaginosis. b. genital herpes. c. candidiasis. d. trichomoniasis.

candidiasis.

Which of the following is NOT caused by HSV-1? a)cold sores b)canker sores c)herpes whitlow d)herpes encephalitis

canker sores

All of the following pertain to serology EXCEPT that they? a)can detect antibodies b)cannot detect antigens c)can be used to diagnose various diseases d)can reveal the contents of serum

cannot detect antigens

Which of the following is NOT considered a benefit of microorganisms? a)nitrogen fixation b)production of fermented foods c)synthesis of vitamins d)causative agents of disease

causative agents of disease

Symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to? a)destruction of the antigen b)complement activation c)phagocytosis d)cytokines

complement activation

Graves' disease and Hashimoto's disease are different in the fact that Graves' disease? a)targets the thyroid b)involves autoantibodies c)causes hyperthyroidism d)causes hypothyroidism

causes hyperthyroidism

The cell wall is part of the a)cell membrane. b)cytoplasm. c)cell envelope. d)proteome.

cell envelope

The function of polymyxin is similar to that of a detergent. What cell structure will be most affected by this drug? a. cell membrane b. cell wall c. ribosome d. chromosome

cell membrane

All of the following are examples of antibody mediated hypersensitivities EXCEPT______ hypersensitivity? a)IgE-mediated b)antibody-mediated cytotoxic c)immune complex-mediated d)cell-mediated

cell-mediated

Which of the following is NOT a category of antifungal agents? a. polyenes b. azoles c. allylamines d. cephalosporins

cephalosporins

The organism shown in this figure is a(n) a. nematode. b. cestode. c. trematode. d. arthropod.

cestode

Bacterial cells that expand their cell walls during septation (not before) and septate in parallel planes will form a)chains of rods (bacilli). b)tetrads of rods (bacilli). c)chains of spheres (cocci). d)tetrads of spheres (cocci).

chains of spheres (cocci).

Flagella are required for bacterial a)chemotaxis. b)growth. c)adherence. d)buoyancy.

chemotaxis

An eight year old girl has scabs and pus-filled vesicles on her face and throat. Three weeks earlier she had visited her grandmother, who had shingles. What infection does the eight year old have? a)chickenpox b)measles c)rubella d)fever blisters

chickenpox

Which organelle arose via endosymbiosis? a)chloroplast b)Golgi apparatus c)lysosome d)nucleus

chloroplast

Cyanobacteria engulfed by an ancient proto-alga lead to the development of ________ in both algae and plants. a. mitochondria b. a nucleus c. ribosomes d. chloroplasts

chloroplasts

Tom has been experiencing hepatitis-like symptoms for seven months. When he finally gets around to going to the doctor, his blood tests positive for HBsAg and IgG antibody to HBsAg. Which of the following is the best diagnosis for Tom? a. acute hepatitis B b. chronic hepatitis B c. acute hepatitis D d. chronic hepatitis D

chronic hepatitis B

One positive use of viruses is their function as a. infectious particles. b. pandemic initiators. c. cloning vectors. d. marine predators.

cloning vectors

The arrow in the figure shows a(n)? a)gelatin suspension b)endospore c)colony d)cell

colony

Which of the following is a cellular function of lipids? a)catalysis b)information storage c)compartmentalization d)sugar production

compartmentalization

Some strains of the bacteria Haemophilus influenzae produce beta-lactamase enzyme that a. confers antibiotic resistance to the bacteria. b. allows attachment of the bacteria to cilia on host cells. c. prevents immunity from forming in the host. d. prevents lysosomes from fusing to phagosomes.

confers antibiotic resistance to the bacteria.

Which of the following is NOT required for microorganisms to grow and divide? a. DNA replication b. binary fission c. equatorial septum formation d. conjugation

conjugation

Inflammation of the thin clear membrane lining the eyelid and eye is properly termed? a)keratitis b)trachoma c)conjunctivitis d)ophthalmia neonatorum

conjunctivitis

Borrelia burgdorferi produces an enzyme that cleaves proteoglycans. This enzyme mainly affects ________ tissue. a. epithelial b. connective c. muscle d. nervous

connective

An individual case of diphtheria, a notifiable infectious disease, in a patient in Florida is confirmed by laboratory testing. This patient's physician would be required to a. send a letter to the WHO in Geneva, Switzerland. b. contact the CDC in Atlanta, Georgia. c. treat the patient regardless of health insurance status. d. quarantine the patient for eight weeks.

contact the CDC in Atlanta, Georgia.

Keratitis is inflammation of the? a)lens b)retina c)cornea d)sclera

cornea

A viral disease of the lower respiratory tract would likely present with a. runny nose. b. sinus congestion. c. facial pain. d. cough.

cough

Which bond type is the strongest in the aqueous cytoplasm of a cell? a)covalent b)hydrogen c)hydrophobic d)ionic

covalent

Weak acids can a)never cross cell membranes. b)cross cell membranes in their uncharged form. c)cross cell membranes in their charged form. d)only cross cell membranes with the aid of a transmembrane protein.

cross cell membranes in their uncharged form.

A day-care worker reports that two young children have been coughing all day. She first noticed that both children had runny noses a few days ago, but is not sure if they had fevers. She states that they both sound like barking seals. Most likely these children have a. the common cold. b. croup. c. influenza. d. respiratory syncytial disease.

croup

An AIDS patient with a fungal infection develops meningoencephalitis, which is the most prevalent form of a. histoplasmosis. b. coccidioidomycosis. c. cryptococcosis. d. blastomycosis.

cryptococcosis

Which of the following depicts the steps of the Gram stain in the correct order? a)crystal violet, ethanol, iodine, safranin b)safranin, iodine, ethanol, crystal violet c)crystal violet, iodine, ethanol, safranin d)safranin, ethanol, iodine, crystal violet

crystal violet, iodine, ethanol, safranin

Which of the following is the correct order of the Gram-stain regents? a)iodine, crystal violet, safranin, ethanol b)ethanol, crystal violet, safranin, iodine c)crystal violet, ethanol, iodine, safranin d)crystal violet, iodine, ethanol, safranin

crystal violet, iodine, ethanol, safranin

On an evolutionary timeline, which of the following organisms appeared first? a. cyanobacteria b. proto-algae c. algae d. plants

cyanobacteria

Which antibiotic inhibits the formation of the peptide side chain of NAM? a. vancomycin b. cycloserine c. bacitracin d. cephalexin

cycloserine

In the active site of DNA polymerase, which monomer will form correct base pairs with a C in the template strand? a. dATP b. dCTP c. dGTP d. dTTP

dGTP

DNA is synthesized by enzymes that use which of the following as substrates? a)NTPs b)dNTPs c)NDPs d)dNDPs

dNTPs

A(n) ________ microscopy microscope produces halos of bright lights against a dark field. a)compound light b)electron c)fluorescence d)darkfield

darkfield

During which phase of an infectious disease do disease symptoms begin to subside? a)incubation b)prodromal c)decline d)convalescent

decline

The ability of fungi to digest lignin is important in the a. production of bread. b. production of beer. c. decomposition of wood. d. decomposition of animal bodies.

decomposition of wood

Which fo the following is NOT a driver of emerging diseases? a)decreased human drug use b)climate change c)microbial evolution d)changing land use patterns

decreased human drug use

Epinephrine is used to reverse anaphylaxis. This is achieved by all of the following EXCEPT? a)stimulating adenylate cyclase activity b)decreasing cAMP levels c)relaxing smooth muscle d)preventing degranulation of the mast cell

decreasing cAMP levels

In a reaction where substrates A and B combine to form products C and D (A+B yields C+D), which of the following could drive the reaction to the right toward products? a)decreasing the concentration of A b)decreasing the concentration of B c)increasing the concentration of C d)decreasing the concentration of D

decreasing the concentration of D

Glycerol is used to protect cells during a. refrigeration. b. deep-freezing. c. lyophilization. d. filtration.

deep-freezing.

Fungal cells grown in the presence of fluconazole have a. impaired cell division. b. mutations in DNA. c. defective cell walls. d. defective cell membranes.

defective cell membranes

Which part of this neuron receives information from the periphery? a. dendrite b. Schwann cells c. axon d. axon terminal

dendrite

Pulmonary arteries carry a. oxygenated blood toward the heart. b. deoxygenated blood toward the heart. c. oxygenated blood toward the lungs. d. deoxygenated blood toward the lungs.

deoxygenated blood toward the lungs.

The X-ray diffraction pattern in the image seen here helped determine the structure of? a)alanine b)penicillin c)vitamin B12 d)deoxyribonucleic acid

deoxyribonucleic acid

Lashandra is 24 years old and had been experiencing increased frequency of urination and dysuria (pain or burning with urination) over the previous three days. This was the first time Lashandra had ever suffered from persisting dysuria. She consulted her general practitioner, who requested a midstream specimen of urine. Upon microscopic examination, the urine was found to contain more than 50 leukocytes/_l (normal is fewer than 5) and 35 red blood cells/_l (normal is 3-20). Epithelial cells from the urogenital area contaminate a midstream specimen if the specimen is not collected properly. No squamous epithelial cells (skin cells) were seen, indicating a well-collected midstream catch. The urine culture plated on agar medium yielded more than 105 colonies/ml (meaning more than 105 organisms/ml in the urine) of a facultative, anaerobic, Gram-negative bacillus that can ferment lactose. Which would NOT likely describe Lashandra's infection? a. initiated by self-inoculation with E. coli b. cystitis treatable by oral antibiotic c. characterized by bacteriuria and urethritis d. descending pyelonephritis

descending pyelonephritis

Which of the following does NOT involve testing a hypothesis? a. descriptive epidemiology b. analytical epidemiology c. experimental study d. cohort study

descriptive epidemiology

An investigator is collecting data identifying the time of year and locations of measles outbreaks within the United States over a ten-year period from 2000 to 2010. This investigator is most likely involved in a. descriptive epidemiology. b. cohort studies. c. analytical epidemiology. d. experimental studies.

descriptive epidemiology.

Which antibiotic resistance mechanism is exemplified by beta-lactamase? a. destroy the antibiotic before it gets into the cell b. modify the target so that it no longer binds the antibiotic c. add modifying groups that inactivate the antibiotic d. pump the antibiotic out of the cell

destroy the antibiotic before it gets into the cell

Sterile maggot therapy is often used to treat which condition? a)diabetic wounds b)acne c)conjunctivitis d)keratitis

diabetic wounds

A young mother who recently emigrated from Uganda brought her sick 18-month-old infant, Mirembe, to a New York City emergency room. The infant was crying uncontrollably, especially when the physician tried to move her head. Meningitis (an infection of the spinal fluid and membrane surrounding the brain) was suspected, and a spinal tap was performed to collect cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). The fluid, which appeared cloudy, was sent to the laboratory. CSF should be free of microbes, but a microscopic examination revealed Gram-negative bacilli. The technician cultured the sample on various solid media. The organism failed to grow on blood agar plates containing intact red blood cells (RBCs) but did grow on a medium containing lysed RBCs (called chocolate agar because of its color). The organism recovered from the CSF also grew on a relatively simple medium containing growth factors known as X and V. The diagnosis was meningitis caused by the bacterium Haemophilus influenzae. The child received antibiotics and made a full recovery. The blood agar plates used to culture Mirembe's sample contain intact red blood cells and agar. Organisms that are capable of lysing the red blood cells may produce green-appearing zones of partial hemolysis or clear-appearing zones of complete hemolysis around colonies that are easily visually distinguishable. This medium is best described as: a. selective. b. differential. c. chemically defined. d. synthetic

differential

Which of the following is NOT a possible effect of viral replication in the host cell? a. death of the cell b. differentiation of the cell c. debilitation of the cell d. alteration of the genome of the cell

differentiation of the cell

Which of the following is NOT a toxic by-product of oxygen metabolism? a. superoxide b. hydroxide radicals c. hydrogen peroxide d. dihydrogen oxide

dihydrogen oxide

The cell shown is best described as a a. gamete. b. prokaryote. c. diploid cell. d. haploid cell.

diploid cell.

Transplacental transmission is an example of? a)fecal-oral transmission b)vehicle transmission c)indirect transmission d)direct transmission

direct transmission

Infectious dose is measured by determining how many microbes are required to cause? a)disease symptoms in half of an experimental group of hosts b)death in half of an experimental group of hosts c)disease symptoms in all of an experimental group of hosts d)death in all of an experimental group of hosts

disease symptoms in half of an experimental group of hosts

What is the correct order of the meninges from most outer to inner structures? a. pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid b. pia mater, arachnoid, dura mater c. dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater d. dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid

dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater

All of the following are true about the glomerulus EXCEPT that a. it is surrounded by the Bowman's capsule. b. it is made up of small capillaries. c. during filtration large molecules and blood enter into the Bowman's capsule. d. it is damaged in acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.

during filtration large molecules and blood enter into the Bowman's capsule.

This electron micrograph shows staphylococci, spherical cells that cluster together like grape bunches. This form occurs when cell wall expansion occurs a)prior to septation and septation occurs in parallel planes. b)prior to septation and septation occurs in random orientations. c)during septation and septation occurs in parallel planes. d)during septation and septation occurs in random orientations.

during septation and septation occurs in random orientations.

This image shows a person afflicted with athlete's foot, which is caused by the fungus Trichophyton rubrum. T. rubrum is an example of a(n)? a)endoparasite b)ectoparasite c)mutualist d)fomite

ectoparasite

Which of the following is a symptom of systemic anaphylaxis? a)sneezing b)water, itchy eyes c)rhinitis d)edema

edema

Inside this cell infected with chlamydia, which are considered replicating bodies? a. elementary bodies b. reticulate bodies c. the nucleus d. inclusions

elementary bodies

To what structure is arrow A pointing in the figure below? a. elementary bodies b. reticulate bodies c. the nucleus d. inclusions

elementary bodies

Which of the following procedures would most directly limit transmission of arboviruses such as dengue viruses? a. eliminate mosquitoes b. prevent contact with infected saliva c. prevent contact with infected fecal matter d. eliminate rodents

eliminate mosquitoes

Administering antibiotics before knowing the cause of the infection is specifically known as a. chemotherapy. b. empirical therapy. c. prophylactic therapy. d. persistence therapy.

empirical therapy

Arboviruses cause ________ and are transmitted by ________. a. meningitis; bee stings b. meningitis; mosquitoes c. encephalitis; dog bites d. encephalitis; mosquitoes

encephalitis; mosquitoes

In the figure shown, the lower part of the line on the graph represents a low, steady number of disease cases, which is indicative of a(n) a. epidemic. b. pandemic. c. outbreak. d. endemic disease.

endemic disease.

A reaction with a positive ΔG and low activation energy will be a)spontaneous and slow. b)exergonic and fast. c)endergonic and fast. d)endergonic and slow.

endergonic and fast.

Ribosomes associate with which endomembrane organelle? a)Golgi complex b)endoplasmic reticulum c)lysosomes d)peroxisomes

endoplasmic reticulum

Which of the following organisms is NOT killed by a germicidal agent? a. bacteria b. virus c. fungi d. endospore

endospore

Assume you stain Bacillus with malachite green with heat and then counterstain with safranin. Through the microscope, the green structures are? a)cell walls b)capsules c)endospores d)bacteria

endospores

What is the end result of the reaction in the immune complex reaction demonstrated in the figure below? a)IgG is directed against cell membrane antigens b)complement is activated c)neutrophils are attracted and release enzymes d)endothelial cells are damaged

endothelial cells are damaged

According to the endosymbiotic origin of eukaryotic cells, respiring bacteria similar to E. coli were engulfed by cells and evolved into the? a)nucleotides b)protein-producing organelles c)energy-generating organelles d)waste-degrading organelles

energy-generating organelles

Fastidious organisms would be best grown on which type of media? a. enriched b. synthetic c. minimal d. selective

enriched

A microbial growth medium for Staphylococcus aureus is prepared with a high salt concentration to minimize the growth of many organism that are not capable of growth in these conditions. This is an example of? a)animal culture b)endosymbiosis c)pure culture d)enrichment culture

enrichment culture

Which of the following organisms is noninvasive, yet causes bloody diarrhea? a. Salmonella b. Shigella c. Campylobacter d. enterohemorrhagic E. coli

enterohemorrhagic E. coli

An island nation normally has low background level of cholera. After an earthquake, sanitation is disrupted and cholera cases spike to high levels on the island but not in other areas of the world. The spike in cholera cases is an example of a(n)? a)endemic disease b)epidemic disease c)pandemic disease d)opportunistic infection

epidemic disease

One drug target for antifungals is the membrane lipid a. chitin. b. hyphae. c. triazole. d. ergosterol.

ergosterol.

Which of the following is used to treat ophthalmia neonatorum? a)penicillin b)acyclovir c)sulfonamide d)erythromycin

erythromycin

Once a bacterium attaches and enters a host cell within a phagosome, the pathogen has one of three fates, depending on the pathogen. According to the figure below, Shigella and Listeria utilize which mechanism to avoid being destroyed by the host cell? a)survive inside the phagosome b)escape form the phagosome c)prevent phagosome lysosome fusion d)induce apoptosis

escape from the phagosome

In the Gram stain, which step is critical in differentiating Gram-positive from Gram-negative cells? a)crystal violet b)safranin c)mordant d)ethanol

ethanol

Based on the figure, the type of organism shown is a(n)? a)virus b)bacteria c)archaea d)eukaryote

eukaryote

Which of the following is NOT necessary for endospore formation? a. exopolysaccharide formation b. peptidoglycan synthesis c. dipicolinic acid synthesis d. calcium transport

exopolysaccharide formation

Which of the following terms can describe the death rate of microbial cells when exposed to an antibacterial agent? a. linear b. exponential c. reverse logarithmic d. polar

exponential

A culture of Salmonella increases from 20 cells to over 10,000 cells in just three hours. Of what is this an example? a. lag phase b. doubling time c. budding d. exponential growth

exponential growth

Many enteric pathogens are transmitted through a. sexual contact. b. the parenteral route. c. airborne transmission. d. expulsion of feces.

expulsion of feces

In a cell membrane, phosphate head groups a)only face the extracellular environment. b)only face the aqueous cytoplasm. c)bind each other via ionic bonds in the interior of the membrane. d)face both the extracellular environment and the cytoplasm.

face both the extracellular environment and the cytoplasm.

Which of the following is a characteristic found in all Enterobacteria? a. a cell wall that stains Gram positive b. facultative anaerobic rods c. motility provided by flagella d. obligate aerobes

facultative anaerobic rods

Which of the following is NOT an example of a bioweapon? a. distributing anthrax spores in mailed letters b. giving susceptible individuals blankets used by smallpox patients c. failing to monitor animal health in towns where humans live in close contact with animals d. catapulting bodies of plague victims over castle walls

failing to monitor animal health in towns where humans live in close contact with animals

Tapeworms are transmitted by the ________ route. a. fecal-environment-skin c. fecal-oral-environment-skin b. fecal-oral d. fecal-intermediate host-oral

fecal-intermediate host-oral

Walter defecates in the company restroom, does not wash his hands thoroughly, and then uses the office coffee pot, transferring bacteria onto the handle of the pot. Marcia pours some coffee and then goes to her desk to eat a muffin, ingesting some of the bacteria she picked up from the coffee pot. What is the route of transmission of this infection? a)fecal-oral b)respiratory c)urogenital d)parenteral

fecal-oral

Because it is an essential component for every individual, if enough vitamin C is not found in the diet, supplements may be required. Vitamin C is sensitive to heat. So that it can be safe for human consumption, how can vitamin C be sterilized before being packaged into supplements? a. autoclave b. pasteurization c. filtration d. lyophilization

filtration

Except for the initiating fMet tRNA, what is the order of sites that tRNAs take through a ribosome? a. first E, then P, and finally A b. first A, then P, and finally E c. first E, then A, and finally P d. first P, then A, and finally E

first A, then P, and finally E

Cyanobacteria and the bacterial genus Rhizobium are both known to contribute to the environment by a. producing oxygen. b. fixing nitrogen. c. decomposing dead matter. d. producing antibiotics.

fixing nitrogen.

Magnetotactic bacteria swim along a magnetic field. To do this these bacteria have which of the following structures that are not present in all bacterial species? a)storage granules b)sulfur granules c)flagella d)gas vesicles

flagella

What internal structure is indicated by arrows on this figure? a. cilia b. flagella c. mitochondria d. nucleus

flagella

The figure below shows the fungi Fusarium. When accidentally introduced into the eye, what type of infection does this organism cause? a)fungal keratitis b)parasitic keratitis c)allergic conjunctivitis d)trachoma

fungal keratitis

Which of the following would be considered "true" microbes? a. nematode b. cestodes c. trematodes d. fungi

fungi

In 1884, Yong Ding was a 38 year old male in Canton, located in southern China. Life was hard, but Yong Ding, a cook, still managed to support his family. As he walked to his restaurant each day, he barely noticed the small bands of rats scurrying through the streets.Disease was rampant that year; victims of the Shuyi (rat epidemic)were stacked like firewood in the streets, five bodies high in places, waiting to be taken to burial. Yong knew that the disease started as a swollen gland in the armpit and often had a black appearance (now called a bubo). He checked himself daily for these swelling and, seeing none, always felt relief. Then, one morning, he found one. Within days, Yong Ding began coughing blood as the agent (a mystery at the time) spread through his bloodstream to his lungs. Once that happened, Yong Ding knew death was not far behind. More than 60,000 died this way in what was to be the start of the Third Pandemic of bubonic plague. Yong Ding's body was one of many lining the street that year. We now know that the cook Yong Ding was living through the Third Epidemic of bubonic plague. We also know that the rats that scurried randomly through the streets were infested with fleas, which carried the causative agent of the bubonic plague: Yersinia pestis. In this complex infection cycle, which organism was the vector? a)Yersinia pestis b)rats c)fleas d)humans

fleas

Which of the following is mismatched? a)darkfield microscopy—uses visible light b)fluorescence microscopy—uses a fluorescent light c)scanning electron microscopy—produces a three-dimensional image d)compound light microscopy—produces a light image against a dark background

fluorescence microscopy—uses a fluorescent light

Which of the following can be used to directly count bacterial cells without the use of a microscope? a. viable counts b. optical density c. fluorescence-activated cell sorter d. Petroff-Hauser counting chamber

fluorescence-activated cell sorter

The purpose of the condenser is to? a)focus light rays onto the slide b)magnify the image from the objective lens c)decrease the refractive index d)improve resolution

focus light rays onto the slide

Lily (who has lice) brings a comb to school for picture day. After Lily combs her hair. Leticia asks to borrow the comb. Leticia later is diagnosed with lice. In this example, the comb is a(n)? a)carrier b)fomite c)incubator d)portal

fomite

What is chyme? a. the wavelike motion of intestinal muscles b. semisolid waste c. food broken down by muscle contraction and gastric juices d. the interior stomach lining

food broken down by muscle contraction and gastric juices

Filamentous amebas a. form inorganic shells made of calcium carbonate. b. contain large, bulky pseudopods. c. move using cytoplasmic streaming. d. utilize chloroplasts for photosynthesis.

form inorganic shells made of calcium carbonate.

When comparing invertebrate parasites to "true" microbes, which of the following is found in invertebrate parasites only? a. fully differentiated organ systems b. cells with mitochondria c. macroscopic forms d. cells with nuclei

fully differentiated organ systems

Recurring vesicles on the surface of human skin are symptoms of a. candidiasis. b. trichomoniasis. c. genital herpes. d. lymphogranuloma venereum

genital herpes

Which of the following is the most difficult to treat with chemotherapeutic agents? a. gonorrhea b. genital herpes c. syphilis d. trichomoniasis

genital herpes

Which of the following recurs at the initial site of infection? a. gonorrhea b. syphilis c. genital herpes d. chancroid

genital herpes

Each bacterial species has a unique a. cell shape. b. cell wall. c. genome. d. glycolytic pathway.

genome.

The activity of what enzyme is modeled here? a. gyrase b. helicase c. DNA polymerase d. primase

gyrase

What is the purpose of drinking fluoride-treated water? a. hardens tooth enamel b. softens tooth enamel c. fights plaque d. kills organisms that cause cavities

hardens tooth enamel

This figure shows two distinctive life stages associated with a bacteria that a. has absent or diminished cell walls. b. forms filamentous strands in marine environments. c. causes syphilis. d. produces oxygen.

has absent or diminished cell walls

Which of the following is a function of lipopolysaccharide? a)helps cells resist phagocytosis b)aids in outer membrane cell wall attachment c)allows for mobility to promote chemotaxis d)provides energy to the cell

helps cells resist phagocytosis

Alpha toxin secreted by Staphylococcus aureus is? a)hyaluronidase b)leucocidin c)kinase d)hemolysin

hemolysin

Which of the following is NOT caused by an aberrant protein? a. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease b. scrapie c. hepatitis d. kuru

hepatitis

Even with healthy liver function, the majority of individuals infected with ________ develop a chronic infection. a. rotavirus b. hepatitis A c. hepatitis B d. hepatitis C

hepatitis C

A young man who enjoys spelunking, the recreational sport of exploring caves, develops a flu-like pulmonary illness along with erythema nodosum and arthralgia. The most likely fungal infection in this man is a. histoplasmosis. b. coccidioidomycosis. c. cryptococcosis. d. blastomycosis

histoplasmosis.

Adhesions are proteins on the surface of microbes. Adhesion help most with which fundamental pathogen attribute? a)host attachment b)immune avoidance c)nutrient acquisition d)host mortality

host attachment

Recombinant human insulin is safely produced in bacteria. Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps needed to produce such a transgenic bacterium? a. transform bacteria, ligate, hybridize insulin cDNA and plasmid b. hybridize insulin cDNA and plasmid, ligate, transform bacteria c. hybridize insulin cDNA and plasmid, transform bacteria, ligate d. ligate, hybridize insulin cDNA and plasmid, transform bacteria

hybridize insulin cDNA and plasmid, ligate, transform bacteria

Yersinia enterocolitica infection should be treated with a. surgery. b. proton pump inhibitors. c. antibiotics. d. hydration.

hydration

Which of the following disinfectants has a high CDC level of activity? a. hydrogen peroxide b. quarternary ammonium compounds c. phenol d. chlorine gas

hydrogen peroxide

Molecules that are soluble in water are ________ and molecules that are insoluble in water are ________. a)endergonic; exergonic b)nonpolar; polar c)hydrophobic; hydrophilic d)hydrophilic; hydrophobic

hydrophilic; hydrophobic

The bacterial cell wall offers protection against what type of environment? a)isotonic b)oxidizing agents. c)hypotonic d)endergonic

hypotonic

Which of the following is used to treat candidiasis of the skin or mucous membranes? a)penicillin b)sulfonamide c)acyclovir d)imidazole

imidazole

An autoimmune response is generated within the host when? a)immune tolerance against self is lost b)immune cells attack foreign antigens c)NK cells bind host tissue d)T cells deactivate self-reacting B cells

immune tolerance against self is lost

Which of the following will result from inhibited topoisomerases? a. no cell wall synthesis b. deficient plasma membrane c. impaired DNA synthesis d. impaired RNA synthesis

impaired DNA synthesis

Plasmids usually contain genes that are a. important for cell survival in all environments. b. important for cell survival in particular environments. c. not important for cell survival in any environments. d. composed of single-stranded DNA

important for cell survival in particular environments.

The second law of thermodynamics states that a)energy is neither created nor destroyed. b)matter is neither created nor destroyed. c)in energy transformations, disorder tends to increase. d)in energy transformations, disorder tends to decrease.

in energy transformations, disorder tends to increase.

Where are HPV virions assembled? a. in the nucleus b. in the cytoplasm c. in the ribosome d. outside the cell

in the nucleus

All of the following are ways that an infection can be established in the urinary tract EXCEPT an infection a. acquired in the kidney. b. in the vaginal canal c. from the urethra. d. from the bladder.

in the vaginal canal

Which of the following is NOT considered a clinical progression of an HIV infection? a. increase in immune function b. seroconversion c. latency d. AIDS

increase in immune function

Colonization occurs during which stage of an infectious disease? a)incubation phase b)invasive phase c)decline phase d)prodromal phase

incubation phase

Drug sensitivity occurs when a(n) a. drug is broken down by a pathogenic organism. b. organism is inhibited by a drug. c. individual develops an allergic reaction to a drug he or she is taking. d. drug that is used to inhibit the growth of an organism is no longer capable.

individual develops an allergic reaction to a drug he or she is taking.

A nurse working in a large hospital harbors MRSA as part of the normal microbiota in his nose. He is most likely the source of a MRSA outbreak if a. infected patients have all had been cared for by this nurse and the isolates are identical. b. the patients are all elderly and the isolates of MRSA are not genetically identical. c. all of the infected patients were seen by the same physician and half of the patients were cared for by this nurse. d. all of the infected patients are on the same floor of the hospital and all have a history of heart problems.

infected patients have all had been cared for by this nurse and the isolates are identical.

Shannon comes down with a Clostridium difficile infection that results in severe colitis. Which of the following conditions is she experiencing? a. inflammation of the small intestine b. inflammation of the large intestine c. inflammation of the stomach lining d. inflammation of the Paneth cells

inflammation of the large intestine

Compared to individuals who receive vaccinations, individuals who do not receive any vaccinations are at higher risk of developing a. sinusitis. b. severe acute respiratory syndrome. c. influenza. d. croup.

influenza

As a result of an antigenic shift a. influenza is able to evade the host immune system by presenting a new hemagglutinin structure. b. the host immune system is better able to detect and respond to influenza viruses. c. the influenza viral protein M2 becomes hidden within the virion envelope. d. alpha 2,6 receptors are able to bind to the alpha 2,3 sialic acid residues.

influenza is able to evade the host immune system by presenting a new hemagglutinin structure.

Motor neurons send a. information from the CNS to the periphery. b. information from the periphery to the CNS. c. information in both directions. d. information.

information from the CNS to the periphery.

Aspergillus and histoplasmosis infections are both caused by a. opportunistic skin contact with fungi. b. smoking tobacco contaminated with fungal spores. c. swimming in contaminated water. d. inhalation of fungal spores.

inhalation of fungal spores

Microorganisms reach the CNS by all of the following EXCEPT a. migrating to the CNS from distal sites. b. toxins traveling along peripheral nerves. c. infecting bone. d. inhalation of the organism.

inhalation of the organism.

Complement deficiencies are? a) acquired during life b)x-linked c)inherited autosomal traits d)treated with antivirals

inherited autosomal traits

Murein lipoprotein is a part of the ________ of the ________. a)outer leaflet, outer membrane. b)inner leaflet, outer membrane. c)outer leaflet, inner membrane. d)inner leaflet, inner membrane.

inner leaflet, outer membrane.

Rickettsia will not grow outside a living eukaryotic cell. What type of organism is this? a)extracellular pathogen b)facultative intracellular pathogen c)intracellular pathogen d)obligate extracellular pathogen

intracellular pathogen

Which of the following is found in eukaryotic but not prokaryotic genomes? a. promoters b. operons c. introns d. genes

introns

During which phase of an infectious disease are immunopathologies most likely to first appear? a)incubation b)invasive c)decline d)convalescent

invasive

The acne of an infectious disease, when the symptoms are most severe, occurs during which phase of the infection? a)incubation b)invasive c)decline d)prodromal

invasive

The cell membrane stores energy by maintaining a separation of a)DNA. b)proteins. c)ions. d)lipids.

ions

All of the following are true about cholera toxin EXCEPT that it? a)is an endotoxin b)is an AB toxin c)reverses the absorption process in the intestines d)causes severe diarrhea

is an endotoxin

A physician diagnoses a patient with Eastern equine encephalitis. All of the following pertain to the patient EXCEPT that he or she a. most likely caught the virus from a bite from an infected mosquito. b. was diagnosed by detecting an increase in antibody titer to the virus. c. is infected with a neurotropic virus. d. is infected with a rare disease.

is infected with a neurotropic virus.

A patient with a respiratory infection who is unresponsive to treatment with antibiotics, lacks a clearly defined presentation, and has seemingly unrelated symptoms a. is more likely to be infected by a fungus than a virus or bacteria. b. is more likely to be infected by a virus than a fungus or bacteria. c. is most likely carrying an antibiotic-resistant form of bacteria. d. would likely have a positive TB skin test.

is more likely to be infected by a fungus than a virus or bacteria.

The following are all true about herd immunity EXCEPT that it? a)only works fro diseases that are contagious b)occurs when a large portion of a population is immunized c)is possible for non-contagious infections like tetanus d)protects un-immunized individuals

is possible for non-contagious infections like tetanus

There is no net movement of water into or out of cells when the cells are in which type of environment? a)isotonic b)hypertonic c)hyperosmotic d)hypotonic

isotonic

How is griseofulvin selectively toxic? a. it inhibits DNA synthesis of fungal DNA only b. it disrupts the mitotic spindle of fungi but not humans c. it blocks synthesis of a fungal cell wall d. it inhibits synthesis of fungal-specific ergosterol

it disrupts the mitotic single of fungi but not humans

All of the following are true of Neisseria meningitides EXCEPT a. the capsule protects the organism from host complement proteins. b. it does not cross the blood-brain barrier. c. the organism uses type IV pili to invade epithelial cells. d. it produces a nonblanching rash due to endotoxin release.

it does not cross the blood-brain barrier.

All of the following are true about a chlamydial infection EXCEPT that a. it is caused by a Gram-negative intracellular pathogen. b. it is not very common in the United States. c. women are usually asymptomatic. d. the organism is able to "hitchhike" on sperm.

it is not very common in the United States.

All of the following regarding immunoprecipitation are correct EXCEPT? a)it is observed both in vitro and in vivo b)too many antigens cause the test not to work c)too many antibody molecules cause the test not to work d)equivalence is the point at which there are roughly the same number of antigenic and antigen-binding sites

it is observed both in vitro and in vivo

All of the following are true about Hodgkin's lymphoma EXCEPT that? a)it is often caused by the herpes simplex virus b)symptoms include fever, night sweats, and weight loss c)tumors contain neoplastic, multinucleate Reed-Sternberg cells d)the release of cytokines such as TNF-alpha contributes to the fever and chronic inflammation

it is often caused by the herpes simplex virus

Replication of HPV is activated when a. the DNA is uncoated. b. infecting basal cells. c. integrating into the host genome. d. keratinocytes differentiate.

keratinocytes differentiate.

12D is the amount of time required to a. kill 1012 spores. b. kill 1012 cells. c. reduce the population by 1012. d. kill 90% of the population.

kill 1012 spores

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of low temperatures in microbiology? a. inhibit microbial growth b. stop microbial metabolism c. kill microorganisms d. preserve microorganisms

kill microorganisms

All of the following are ways that HIV can be transmitted from person to person EXCEPT a. mother to fetus. b. sexual contact. c. kissing. d. blood transfusion.

kissing

The eyes are connected to the upper respiratory tract by the a. pharynx. b. Eustachian tube. c. lacrimal ducts. d. sinuses.

lacrimal ducts.

Which of the following structures is considered part of the upper respiratory tract? a. trachea b. primary bronchi c. alveoli d. larynx

larynx

Bacteria begin to participate in quorum sensing at which stage of growth? a. late log phase b. log phase c. stationary phase d. death phase

late log phase

In the figure below, line "D" point to the microscope's? a)ocular lens b)objective c)condenser d)light source

light source

In a compound microscope, which is the accurate pathway of light? a)light source, condenser, objective, specimen, eyepiece b)condenser, light source, eyepiece, specimen, objective c)eyepiece, objective, specimen, condenser, light source d)light source, condenser, specimen, objective, eyepiece

light source, condenser, specimen, objective, eyepiece

All of the following are exotoxins EXCEPT? a)superantigens b)AB toxins c)plasma membrane disruption toxins d)lipopolysaccharide

lipopolysaccharide

All of the following are virulence factors associated with S. progenies EXCEPT? a)lipopolysaccharide b)capsule c)M protein d)lipoteichoic acid

lipopolysaccharide

THiobacillus ferroxidans is a microorganism that gains its energy from the oxidation of ferrous iron (Fe 2+) to ferric iron (Fe 3+) and hydrogen sulfide (H2S) to sulfuric acid (H2SO4). Based on this information, T. ferroxidans is an example of a? a)nitrogen fixer b)lithotroph c)endosymbiont d)biofilm participant

lithotroph

When Yersinia pestis remains untreated in a human body, it can enter the bloodstream and ultimately invade the a. liver. b. kidneys. c. spleen. d. lungs.

lungs

Margo, a nursing-home resident, experiences a scratch on her leg that becomes infected by Staphyloccocus. During a shower a nursing assistant notices a red streak extending from the skin infection and alerts a nurse. What term describes this red streak? a. lymphadenopathy b. lymphadenitis c. lymphangitis d. endocarditis

lymphangitis

Which of the following pairs of diseases are transmitted by mosquitoes? a. malaria and toxoplasmosis b. babesiosis and Chagas' disease c. leishmaniasis and schistosomiasis d. lymphatic filariasis and malaria

lymphatic filariasis and malaria

The swelling seen in this individual's leg is indicative of a. cutaneous leishmaniasis. b. lymphatic filariasis. c. babesiosis. d. Chagas' disease.

lymphatic filariasis.

The cells infected by cytomegalovirus (CMV) include a. fibroblasts. b. osteocytes. c. lymphocytes. d. neurons.

lymphocytes

Which of the following is caused by Chlamydia? a. bacterial vaginosis b. genital herpes c. candidiasis d. lymphogranuloma venereum

lymphogranuloma venereum

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? a. poliomyelitis - respiratory route b. meningococcal meningitis - respiratory route c. rabies - direct contact d. listeriosis - ingestion

meningococcal meningitis - respiratory route

Examine the table shown. Which disinfectant is the most effective against Salmonella typhi based on the phenol coefficient? a. chloramine b. mercury chloride c. formalin d. hydrogen peroxide

mercury chloride

Acute otitis media is infection within the a. sinuses. b. outer ear. c. middle ear. d. inner ear.

middle ear

The Eustachian tubes connect the upper respiratory tract to the a. sinuses. b. middle ears. c. inner ears. d. eyes.

middle ears

TAT is a codon for the amino acid tyrosine (Tyr). If a mutation changes TAT to CAT, what kind of mutation has occurred? a. frameshift b. missense c. nonsense d. silent

missense

ATP synthase is found in bacterial cell membranes. In eukaryotic cells, ATP synthase is found in the a)cell membrane. b)cytoplasm. c)mitochondrial inner membrane. d)mitochondrial matrix.

mitochondrial inner membrane

Which organelle is NOT part of the endomembrane system? a)mitochondrion b)lysosome c)peroxisome d)Golgi complex

mitochondrion

Antigenic shift is best described as a a. mixing of RNA segments to form a new form of the hemagglutinin gene in influenza. b. shift of influenza antigen from one geographic location to another. c. mutation that changes influenza RNA polymerase. d. shift that occurs when an avian strain of influenza infects a pig.

mixing of RNA segments to form a new form of the hemagglutinin gene in influenza.

A man infected with a viral respiratory infection sneezes and releases tiny droplets containing viral particles. Two minutes later, a woman breathes in some of these tiny droplets and becomes infected by the same viral infection. The movement of this virus from one individual to another is best described as the a. etiologic agent. b. reservoir. c. mode of transmission. d. host.

mode of transmission.

Charlotte touches a doorknob after an individual with MRSA touched the doorknob. Immediately after touching the knob, Charlotte scratches her leg and transmits some MRSA cells into a small wound. The doorknob is functioning as a(n) a. etiologic agent. b. reservoir. c. mode of transmission. d. host.

mode of transmission.

In the lac operon, a mutation in the operator, LacO, that prevents repressor binding will cause which of the following changes compared to wild type cells? a. more expression of the lac operon when lactose is present b. more expression of the lac operon when lactose is absent c. less expression of the lac operon when lactose is present d. less expression of the lac operon when lactose is absent

more expression of the lac operon when lactose is absent

All of the following are true of polio EXCEPT a. the portal of entry is ingestion of contaminated water. b. most cases are severe and result in paralysis. c. it replicates in the throat and small intestines. d. the Sabin vaccine contains attenuated strains of the virus.

most cases are severe and result in paralysis.

What is the correct term for the chemical conversion shown below? N2 → NH4+ a. phototrophy b. nitrification c. denitrification d. nitrogen fixation

nitrogen fixation

Which type of diarrhea does NOT involve water leaving intestinal cells? a. osmotic b. secretory c. motility-related d. inflammatory

motility-related

During digestion, bicarbonate is secreted by ________ cells. a. parietal b. chief c. mucus neck d. M

mucus neck

Adult infection with ________ can sometimes lead to meningitis. a. rotavirus b. mumps virus c. hepatitis A d. hepatitis D

mumps virus

Which of the following is an example of a symptom? a)a rash b)swollen glands c)jaundice (yellow tinge to the skin) d)muscle aches

muscle aches

What kind of relationship exists between microbiota and their human hosts? a)mutualistic b)pathogenic c)endoparasitic d)ectoparasitic

mutualistic

The fungal structure shown is best described as a a. hyphapseudopod. b. mycelium. c. mushroom. d. fruiting body.

mycelium

Fungal filaments associated with the root systems of trees that expand the trees' access to water and nutrients are known as a. mycorrhizae. b. molds. c. chitin. d. saprophytes.

mycorrhizae

Production of urease by Helicobacter pylori allows it to do which of the following? a. sense when it has entered the intracellular environment of its host b. survive in basic conditions c. increase production of ion pumps d. neutralize stomach pH to survive in acidic conditions

neutralize stomach pH to survive in acidic conditions

Within three hours of attending the church carnival, Maya and her family are all vomiting uncontrollably. What organism have they likely ingested? a. no organism—most likely a toxin from Staphylococcus aureus b. Listeria monocytogenes c. Salmonella typhimurium d. Campylobacter jejuni

no organism—most likely a toxin from Staphylococcus aureus

Molecules with which kinds of bonds are hydrophobic? a)hydrogen b)ionic c)nonpolar covalent d)polar covalent

non polar covalent

What type of HPV can be eliminated from the body by the host immune system? a. oncogenic HPV b. nononcogenic HPV c. all HPV d. no HPV

nononcogenic HPV

TAT is a codon for the amino acid tyrosine (Tyr). If a mutation changes TAT to TAA, what kind of mutation has occurred? a. frameshift b. missense c. nonsense d. silent

nonsense

Which of the following might be an effective means of limiting a disease spread via a parenteral route? a)not sharing needles b)wearing condoms during sexual activity c)wearing a mask that covers the mouth and nose d)cooking foods thoroughly

not sharing needles

Which of the following is NOT a problem with the viable count method of cell quantification? a. underestimation of the number of living cells in the culture b. takes too long if you want to immediately study cells at a particular growth phase c. not accurate for organisms whose cells remain attached (for example, Streptococci growing in chains) d. not useful for living cells

not useful for living cells

Which of the following structures is obligatory for all bacterial cells? a)nucleoid b)flagella c)pili d)magnetosomes

nucleoid

Which organelle houses a eukaryotic cell's genome? a)rough endoplasmic reticulum b)contractile vacuole c)ribosome d)nucleus

nucleus

In the figure below, line "B" points to the microscope's? a)ocular lens b)objective c)condenser d)light source

objective

The organism shown is designed for living a. within the small intestine. b. on the outer surface of the body. c. within red blood cells. d. on the outer surface of the liver.

on the outer surface of the body

What is the treatment for bacterial vaginosis? a. oral and topical antibiotics b. antifungals c. antivirals d. There is no treatment.

oral and topical antibiotics

Which of the following vaccines can cause the disease it is designed to prevent? a. tetanus toxoid b. oral polio c. inactivated polio d. meningococcal capsule

oral polio

DNA replication begins at a chromosomal region called the a. activator. b. initiator. c. origin. d. promoter.

origin

Regarding the natural source for the production of antibiotics, the best weapon we have against pathogenic microorganisms is? a)medical doctors b)acclaimed scientific researchers c)other microorganisms that can exist with the pathogenic microorganisms d)the CDC

other microorganisms that can exist with the pathogenic microorganisms

In gram-negative cells, which layer is disrupted by the decolorized in the Gram-staining procedure? a)techoic acids b)outer membrane c)peptidogylcan d)mycolic acid

outer membrane

Examine the figure shown. What is indicated by the lines? a. plaques b. bacterial cells c. latent virus d. animal virus

plaques

How is HPV able to keep its genome so small? a. overlapping reading frames b. oncogenic transformation c. antigenic shift d. HPV does not have a small genome.

overlapping reading frames

Viruses that cause vomiting will often produce enterotoxins that result in a. overstimulation of the vagus nerve. b. understimulation of the vagus nerve. c. hypoperistalsis. d. isoperistalsis.

overstimulation of the vagus nerve.

If humans continue to develop rapid transportation systems into more parts of the world, we should expect to see a. pandemics tracing the path of the transportation systems. b. an increase in detection of blood-borne pathogens. c. a decrease in human encroachment into tropical rain forests. d. an increase in the spread of transmissible spongiform encephalopathies.

pandemics tracing the path of the transportation systems.

In developed countries, healthy individuals are typically able to handle occasional infections with some disease agents, but immunocompromised individuals are affected by these agents. The agents that can cause disease in immunocompromised individuals but that are often repelled by healthy individuals are a. parasites such as ascariasis. b. viruses such as hantavirus. c. bacteria such as Streptococcus pyogenes. d. antibiotic-resistant bacteria such as MRSA.

parasites such as ascariasis.

A mosquito can transmit a viral pathogen into humans. What is the mode of transmission of this virus in this instance? a)oral b)respiratory c)urogenital d)parenteral

parenteral

Endotoxins are? a)associated with Gram-positive bacteria b)molecules that bind nerve cells c)part of the Gram-negative cell wall d)excreted from the cell

part of the Gram-negative cell wall

Which of the following is NOT an example of a positive role that bacteria play in an ecosystem? a. fixation of carbon dioxide into biomass b. oxygen production c. breakdown of pollutants d. pathogenic relationship with humans

pathogenic relationship with humans

The ability of a microbe to cause disease is known as? a)emergence b)invasiveness c)pathogenicity d)virulence

pathogenicity

Someone is said to have a primary HSV infection when the a. patient does not have detectable antibodies but a positive PCR test. b. infection settles into the nerve root. c. latent virus is reactivated. d. virus is activated by stress or UV exposure.

patient does not have detectable antibodies but a positive PCR test.

The discovery of ______ first stimulated the funding of millions of dollars into medical research. a)penicillin b)the structure of DNA c)DNA sequencing d)vaccines

penicillin

What is the purpose of the fimbriae on the end of the fallopian tube? a. to help the fallopian tube move into position b. performs a sweeping motion to capture the ovum c. to keep microbes out of the fallopian tube d. helps to fertilize the ovum

performs a sweeping motion to capture the ovum

The part of the nervous system that collects data from the environment is the a. meninges. b. central nervous system. c. cerebrospinal fluid. d. peripheral nervous system.

peripheral nervous system.

In Gram-negative bacteria, peptidoglycan is found in the a)cytoplasm. b)inner membrane. c)outer membrane d)periplasm.

periplasm

Spirochete cells are unique because they possess a. periplasmic flagella. b. multiple nuclei. c. a thick outer sheath of lipopolysaccharides. d. two distinctive life stages.

periplasmic flagella.

What features would allow a virus to be used effectively as a bioweapon? a. a high infectious dose b. transmission via an insect vector c. person-to-person transmission d. quick pathogen detection systems

person-to-person transmission

Which microscope uses variations in refractive indexes to display specimens? a)bright-field b)fluorescence c)phase-contrast d)transmission electron

phase-contrast

Which microscope best allows the observation of internal cell structures in a natural state? a)compound light microscope b)phase-contrast microscope c)darkfield microscope d)electron microscope

phase-contrast microscope

This transmission electron micrograph of a marine microbe shows internal structures such as thylakoids. This microbe has what capability that is not present in all bacterial species? a)adherence b)chemotaxis c)DNA replication d)photosynthesis

photosynthesis

You complete a Gram stain on Gram-positive bacteria; however, you over-decolorize your sample. What color will your bacteria be at this point? a)purple b)colorless c)pink d)blue

pink

On an evolutionary timeline, which of the following organisms appeared last? a. cyanobacteria b. proto-algae c. algae d. plants

plants

Shiga toxin polypeptide B binds to surface gangliosides on target cells. If the gangliosides were removed? a)polypeptide A would bing to target cells b)polypeptide A would enter the cells c)polypeptide B would not be able to bind d)Vibrio would not produce cholera toxin

polypeptide B would not be able to bind

Oophoritis can result in ________ infected with mumps. a. prepubescent males c. prepubescent females b. postpubescent males d. postpubescent females

postpubescent females

Orchitis can result in ________ infected with mumps. a. prepubescent males b. postpubescent males c. prepubescent females d. postpubescent females

postpubescent males

In a two-component signal transduction system the response regulator activity is altered via phosphorylation. This is an example of a. changing the DNA sequence. b. transcription control. c. translation control. d. posttranslational control

posttranslational control

What is the major downside to the often necessary long-term treatment with fungal drugs? a. dry skin b. high cost c. antifungal resistance d. potential toxic side effects

potential toxic side effects

Which of the following are INCORRECTLY matched? a)varicella zosters - chicken pox b)HHV6 - roseola c)poxvirus - fever blisters d)parvovirus - fifth disease

poxvirus - fever blisters

Organisms such as Shigella and Listeria are able to move from cell to cell without being detected by the host immune system. What method are they using? a)production of an actin tail that propels them from cell to cell b)production of a capsule to avoid antibody binding c)production of protein A molecules to bing the Fc region of antibodies d)production of proteins to trigger apoptosis in host cells

production of an actin tail that propels them from cell to cell

The endosymbiotic origin of eukaryotic cells explains how? a)prokaryotic cells transformed into eukaryotic cells. b)eukaryotic cells evolved from viruses c)prokaryotic cells were incorporated by pre-eukaryote as eukaryotic organelles d)eukaryotic cells eliminated prokaryotic cells

prokaryotic cells were incorporated by pre-eukaryotes as eukaryotic organelles

What causes lymphadenitis in a patient with an Epstein-Barr virus infection? a. proliferation of B and T cells b. removal of abnormal blood cells from circulation c. infection of epithelial cells within lymph nodes d. production of heterophile antibodies

proliferation of B and T cells

Sand flies carry a motile form of a a. promastigote. b. merozoite. c. bradyzoite. d. asmastigote.

promastigote.

The rapidly dividing protozoan cells that circulate throughout the body during a toxoplasmosis infection are called a. promastigotes. b. tachyzoites. c. bradyzoites. d. asmastigotes.

promastigotes

Which of the following host factors can prevent disease by limiting exposure? a)too little sleep b)moderate exercise c)working in the health care field d)proper hygiene

proper hygiene

The structure labeled as "A" in the figure below is called a(n)? a)protease b)MIC protein c)nucleus d)actin-myosin motor

protease

Which bacterial cellular constituent is most liable to change under changing environmental conditions? a)DNA b)peptidoglycan c)polyamines d)proteins

proteins

Trichomoniasis is caused by a a. protozoan. b. bacteria. c. virus. d. eukaryote.

protozoan

Which of the following would be most likely to stop transmission of Plasmodium falciparum and P. vivax to humans? a. ensure access to clean drinking water b. provide mosquito netting for beds c. check for ticks after walking in wooded areas d. eliminate bedbugs from sleeping quarters

provide mosquito netting for beds

What classification is also given to barophilic organisms that grow at the ocean floor? a. mesophilic b. psychrophilic c. halophilic d. acidophilic

psychrophilic

You are performing a Gram stain on Gram-positive bacteria and you stop after the addition of the mordant. What is the appearance of the bacteria at this point? a)purple b)colorless c)pink d)blue

purple

You are performing a Gram stain to differentiate between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. At the end of the procedure, a Gram-positive cell will appear? a)purple b)colorless c)pink d)blue

purple

A pathologist detects Negri bodies while examining a brain section taken at autopsy. What was the cause of death? a. rabies b. poliomyelitis c. spongiform encephalopathy d. West Nile encephalitis

rabies

All of the following are caused by prions EXCEPT a. sheep scrapie. b. kuru. c. rabies. d. bovine spongiform encephalopathy.

rabies

Segmented influenza RNA genomes are capable of a. reverse transcription. b. cell fusion. c. reassortment. d. proviral transposition.

reassortment

Which of the following is NOT one of Rosalind Franklin's accomplishments? a)generating the X-ray diffraction pattern of the structure of DNA b)researching the structure of RNA c)determining the form of tobacco mosaic virus's RNA chromosome d)receiving a Nobel Prize

receiving a Nobel Prize

Fill in the blanks with the pair of words below that make the following sentence correct: NADH is ________ compared to NAD+ because NADH has gained ________. a)oxidized; electrons b)oxidized; neutrons c)reduced; electrons d)reduced; neutrons

reduced; electrons

Psittacosis is a zoonotic disease contracted by humans during contact with bacteria found in bird droppings. Human-to-human transmission is rare. Reducing contact with bird droppings will break the chain of infection by a. reducing the virulence of the bacteria responsible for causing the disease. b. affecting the bacteria's portal of entry into the human body. c. reducing the number of organisms acting as reservoirs for the bacteria. d. reducing the transmission of bacteria from the reservoir to humans.

reducing the transmission of bacteria from the reservoir to humans.

The evolutionary relationships in this figure were determined by a. using fossil records of bacteria. b. sequencing and comparing ribosomal RNA. c. comparing phenotypic differences between cells. d. determining which bacteria are able to interbreed.

sequencing and comparing ribosomal RNA.

While most wild E. coli usually have flagella, many lab strains have lost their flagella. What is a likely cause of this loss? a)reductive evolution due to an increased need for chemotaxis b)reductive evolution due to an unchanging environment c)reductive evolution due to an increased need for magnetotaxis d)reductive evolution due to a decreased need for magnetotaxis

reductive evolution due to an unchanging environment

Known diseases that rapidly increase in incidence and/or geographic range are known as? a)emerging b)reemerging c)zoonotic d)etiologic agents

reemerging

Sensitivity differs from specificity in that sensitivity? a)measures how selective an antibody is b)occurs when antibodies bind dissimilar antigens c)reflects how few antigen or antibody molecules a test can detect d)is not important when conducting a serological test

reflects how few antigen or antibody molecules a test can detect

The bending of light as it enters a substance that slows its speed is known as a)reflection. b)refraction. c)absorption. d)scattering.

refraction

The circuit shown a. carries oxygenated blood to body cells. b. removes waste from body cells. c. replenishes oxygen in blood. d. replenishes carbon dioxide in blood.

replenishes oxygen in blood

The most dangerous potential bioterrorism agents have what portal of entry into the human body? a)respiratory b)urogenital c)parenteral d)fecal

respiratory

This image shows a man sneezing, leading to an aerosol of pathogens. What is the most likely mode of transmission of these pathogens to another person? a)fecal-oral b)respiratory c)urogenital d)parenteral

respiratory

A virus that primarily causes disease in the very young and may lead to complications such as low blood pressure and seizures is a. type A influenza. b. rhinovirus. c. SARS virus. d. respiratory syncytial virus.

respiratory syncytial virus.

RFLP analysis requires which tools? a. restriction enzymes and gel electrophoresis b. restriction enzymes and PCR c. gel electrophoresis and PCR d. gel electrophoresis and DNA sequencing

restriction enzymes and gel electrophoresis

Applying your knowledge to the figure below, if a herpes zoster infection is left untreated in an immunocompromised patient, which part of the eye can be damaged? a)cornea b)retina c)optic nerve d)lens

retina

What enzyme is used to produce cDNA? a. DNA polymerase III b. DNA ligase c. RNA polymerase d. reverse transcriptase

reverse transcriptase

Giardia lamblia, a cause of diarrhea and other gastrointestinal symptoms, is acquired from contaminated drinking water. It can be treated with several different antimicrobial drugs. Into what risk level does G. lablia fall? a)risk group I b)risk groupI II c)risk group III d)risk group IV

risk group II

Francisella tularensis is a highly infectious bacterium that can be contracted via multiple routes including inhalation. It causes severe disease but is treatable. Into what risk level does F. tularensis fall? a)risk group I b)risk group II c)risk group III d)risk group IV

risk group III

This image shows a researcher working in a positive-pressure suit. Such attire is required to work with biological agents in which risk level? a)risk group I b)risk group II c)risk group III d)risk group IV

risk group IV

Which of the following is NOT involved in biofilm formation or function? a. rorespore engulfment b. quorum sensing c. exopolysaccharide formation d. antibiotic resistance

rorespore engulfment

Polysaccharides are a polymer of what kind of monomer? a)amino acids b)deoxyribonucleotides c)lipids d)sugars

sugars

Which of the following shows the correct path a secreted protein takes in a eukaryotic cell? a)Golgi complex, rough ER, vesicle, cell membrane b)vesicle, rough ER, Golgi complex, cell membrane c)rough ER, Golgi complex, vesicle, cell membrane d)rough ER, Golgi complex, cell membrane, vesicle

rough ER, Golgi complex, vesicle, cell membrane

In which of the following mechanisms of microbial control might some pathogens still survive? a. sanitization b. antisepsis c. disinfection d. sterilization

sanitization

Which microscope technique is best used for visualizing the surface structures of cells and viruses? a)phase-contrast b)bright-field c)scanning electron d)darkfield

scanning electron

Which of the following diseases is caused by a helminth? a. toxoplasmosis b. babesiosis c. leishmaniasis d. schistosomiasis

schistosomiasis

Regular, repeating patterns over short regions of a protein are known as the protein's ________ structure. a)primary b)secondary c)tertiary d)quaternary

secondary

The figure below illustrates a sandwich ELISA. What is happening in step 3? a)Enzyme-linked detection antibody is added b)secondary antibody is added and binds to antigens c)the plate is coated with capture antibodies d)serum sample is added

secondary antibody is added and binds to antigens

Mannitol salts agar is a medium that contains a high concentration of salt (7.5%) and mannitol as a fermentable carbon source. Few organisms are able to grow on it because of its high salt concentration. Organisms that can grow and ferment mannitol will produce an acid that interacts with the pH indicator in the media, turning it yellow. Nonmannitol-fermenting organisms grow without any change to the media. Which of the following correctly describes this medium? a. selective b. differential c. selective and differential d. neither

selective and differential

All of the following are true of the generation of auto reactive antibodies EXCEPT? a)B cells escape the negative selection process. b)self-reacting B cells can be activated without specific T-cell assistance c)some microbial antigens can also trigger autoimmune reactions d)self-reacting B cells do not take up and process self-antigens

self-reacting B cells do not take up and process self-antigens

Allergic contact dermatitis is due to? a)sensitized T cells b)IgE antibodies c)IgG antibodies d)IgM antibodies

sensitized T cells

Which of the following occurs during gamete formation but NOT during asexual reproduction? a. replication of all chromosomes b. paired chromosomes condensing into short rods c. separation of pairs of homologs d. formation of nuclear membranes around groups of chromosomes

separation of pairs of homologs

The arrows indicate the partition that separates a bacterial cell into two new daughter cells. This partition is called the a)stalk. b)S-layer. c)septum. d)termination site.

septum

Which of the following helps compact bacterial DNA? a)the origin of replication site b)supercoils c)porins d)pilins

supercoils

A 23-year-old man arrives in the emergency room. He is currently in respiratory distress and is experiencing kidney failure and blood clots in one lung. His partner reports that he had a high fever, chills, and a cough for several days prior. The attending physician quickly orders a serum antibody test validated by the CDC when he suspects the individual may be infected with a. type B influenza. b. respiratory syncytial virus. c. severe acute respiratory syndrome. d. croup.

severe acute respiratory syndrome.

Karen is suffering from a gastrointestinal illness caused by a Gram-negative bacterium without flagella. Which of the following conditions could Karen have? a. salmonellosis b. shigellosis c. hemolytic uremia syndrome d. peptic ulcers

shigellosis

Which of the following is most likely a signature of an operon? a. large distances between consecutive coding regions and functional association of the gene products b. large distances between consecutive coding regions and gene products involved in different pathways c. short distances between consecutive coding regions and gene products involved in different pathways d. short distances between consecutive coding regions and functional association of gene products

short distances between consecutive coding regions and gene products involved in different pathways

This image shows a rash associated with Rocky Mountain spotted fever. This rash is an example of a? a)sign b)symptom c)sequelae d)fomite

sign

Which of the following characteristics of the rabies virus is most important for its classification? a. complex capsid morphology b. single-stranded, negative sense RNA genome c. presence of an envelope d. narrow host range

single-stranded, negative sense RNA genome

The structure indicated on this figure is a(n) a. sinus. b. lacrimal duct. c. inner ear. d. Eustachian tube.

sinus

Coming into contact with respiratory secretions from an infected individual is LEAST likely to spread a. the common cold. b. respiratory syncytial disease. c. influenza. d. sinusitis.

sinusitis

In the illustrated life cycle of the trypanosome, which of the following forms proliferates within the definitive host? a. slender b. stumpy c. procyclic d. epimastigote

slender

During gel electrophoresis the ________ DNA fragments migrate more quickly and move further down the gel toward the ________ pole. a. larger; negative b. larger; positive c. smaller; negative d. smaller; positive

smaller; positive

The first vaccination was done to prevent? a)AIDS b)smallpox c)tuberculosis d)anthrax

smallpox

A secondary bacterial infection is most likely in a patient who a. smokes cigarettes. b. breathes humidified air. c. breathes dry air. d. has thin mucus secretions.

smokes cigarettes

What type of HPV causes cancer? a. all types of HPV b. no types of HPV c. some types of latent HPV d. all types of actively replicating HPV

some types of latent HPV

You are observing a bacterial specimen on the 100x objective but have forgotten to put the immersion oil on the slide. The specimen will appear? a)smaller with better resolution b)larger with poor resolution c)somewhat fuzzy with poor resolution d)the same

somewhat fuzzy with poor resolution

Which of the following can be most efficiently used to measure bacterial growth in real time? a. FACS b. spectrophotometer c. Petroff-Hauser counting chamber d. fluorescent microscope

spectrophotometer

A long, tight, spiral-shaped bacteria is found in the gut of termites. This bacteria is most likely a(n) a. enterobacteria and a pathogen. b. chlamydia and an intracellular parasite. c. spirochete and a symbiont. d. cyanobacteria and a pathogen.

spirochete and a symbiont

A new enzyme that helps protect a bacterial cell from reactive oxygen species has been discovered. During which phase of growth would you expect the gene that codes for this enzyme to be expressed? a. lag phase b. log phase c. late log phase d. stationary phase

stationary phase

Viral diseases of the central nervous system are transmitted by all of the following EXCEPT a. sexual contact. b. mosquito bites. c. the fecal-oral route. d. stepping on a contaminated nail.

stepping on a contaminated nail.

Which of the following lists the layers of the skin in the correct order from deepest to superficial? a)stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum corneum b)stratum corneum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale c)stratum granulosum, stratum corneum, stratum basale, stratum spinosum d)stratum spinosum, stratum basale, stratum corneum, stratum granulosum

stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum corneum

Which of the following is treated with antibiotics? a. botulism b. tetanus c. streptococcal pneumonia d. polio

streptococcal pneumonia

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of biofilms that makes it resistant to disinfectants? a. presence of an extracellular matrix b. stress-induced physiology of surface cells c. stress-induced physiology of cells deep in the biofilm d. metabolic collaboration between multiple species

stress-induced physiology of surface cells

Consider the tube shown. What type of organism would grow only at the bottom of the tube? a. microaerophile b. aerotolerant anaerobe c. strict anaerobe d. strict aerobe

strict anaerobe

In the illustrated life cycle of the trypanosome, which of the following forms is nondividing? a. slender b. stumpy c. procyclic d. epimastigote

stumpy

A 50-year-old man was hospitalized with dizziness, blurred vision, slurred speech, difficulty swallowing, and nausea. Examination revealed facial paralysis. He reported eating home-canned green beans 24 hours before the onset of his symptoms. The patient should be treated with a. antibiotics. b. vaccination. c. toxins. d. supportive care including respiratory assistance.

supportive care including respiratory assistance.

Type II hypersensitivities differ from type III sensitivities in that only type II involves? a)surface antigens b)soluble antigens c)antibodies d)histamine

surface antigens

Naegleria fowleri is commonly acquired through a. mosquito bites. b. ingestion of water contaminated with fecal material. c. exposure to bird droppings. d. swimming in warm ponds or streams.

swimming in warm ponds or streams.

The cotreatment of septic Enterococcus infections with vancomycin and an aminoglycoside is an example of antibiotic a. synergism. c. sensitivity. b. antagonism. d. resistance.

synergism.

Which of the following diseases causes a skin rash, hair loss, malaise, and fever? a. gonorrhea b. syphilis c. NGU d. genital herpes

syphilis

The symptoms of tetanus are due to a. tetanospasmin. b. endospore formation. c. inflammation. d. the relaxation of muscles.

tetanospasmin.

Initial treatment for tetanus in an unimmunized person with a puncture wound is a. tetanus immune globulin. b. tetanus toxoid. c. penicillin. d. debridement.

tetanus immune globulin.

The antibiotic most commonly used to treat the major systemic bacterial infections is a. penicillin. b. fluoroquinolones. c. ceftriaxone. d. tetracycline.

tetracycline

All of the following are protective features of the skin EXCEPT? a)Langerhans cells in the epidermis b)that it is the largest organ and forms a chemical barrier c)keratinocytes secreting keratin d)melanocytes producing melanin

that it is the largest organ and forms a chemical barrier

All of the following are consequences of bare lymphocyte syndrome (MHC II deficiency) EXCEPT a)the MHC II molecule is expressed on APCs b) T cells will not form into TH1, TH2, or other types of helper T cells c)cytotoxic T cells cannot be activated d)B cells do not isotope switch

the MHC II molecule is expressed on APCs

Which key characteristic differentiates a prokaryote from a eukaryote? a)the absence of proteins b)the presence of DNA c)the absence of membrane- bound organelles d)the presence of a cell wall

the absence of membrane-bound organelles

An exergonic reaction may still be slow if a)the activation energy is high. b)an enzyme is present. c)product concentrations are low. d)reactant concentrations are high.

the activation energy is high

Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting the efficacy of a disinfectant? a. the barometric pressure b. the presence of blood c. the presence of endospore-forming bacteria d. the corrosiveness of the disinfectant

the barometric pressure

What is the cellular target of penicillin (the first antibiotic discovered)? a)the DNA genome b)the cell wall c)ribosomes d)ABC transporters

the cell wall

Which of the following stages of the influenza infection cycle is inhibited by Tamiflu? a. the coating of the capsid envelope b. the assembly of the capsid c. the cleaving of the host receptor and release of the virus by budding d. the packaging of viral genome segments and exit from the nucleus

the cleaving of the host receptor and release of the virus by budding

Of the viral respiratory diseases below, which is LEAST likely to present with a fever? a. the common cold b. croup c. influenza d. respiratory syncytial disease

the common cold

This figure shows the relative incidence of pneumonia caused by various microorganisms. Vaccines are available to prevent a. all of the bacterial forms of pneumonia. b. the most common and least common bacterial causes of pneumonia. c. viral forms of pneumonia. d. the form of pneumonia that occurs most frequently in the elderly.

the form of pneumonia that occurs most frequently in the elderly.

Bacteria regulate virulence gene expression because a. the genes need to be expressed all the time. b. the genes do not need to be expressed all the time, and regulation saves energy. c. the genes do not need to be expressed all the time; if they were, the bacterial cell would die. d. it does not cost them any energy to keep the gene expressed all the time.

the genes do not need to be expressed all the time, and regulation saves energy.

The most likely mutation to cause an influenza pandemic would be a mutation in a. the head of hemagglutinin. b. the stalk of hemagglutinin. c. M2 protein inside the virion envelope. d. influenza nucleoprotein.

the head of hemagglutinin.

What factor is most responsible for both the very young and the very old being most susceptible to infectious diseases? a)the host genotype b)different portals of entry for pathogens c)the host immune system d)the inability of these populations to communicate symptoms to health care providers

the host immune system

which of the following theories was the Miller experiment designed to test? a)the endosymbiotic origin of life b)the idea that all the chemicals found in early Earth could have come together to form the basic components of cellular life. c)spontaneous generation d)the RNA world hypothesis

the idea that all the chemicals found in early Earth could have come together to form the basic components of cellular life

The figure shown indicates the spread of a highly infectious disease. The largest circle, labeled "1," indicates a. the index case. b. a "super spreader." c. the beginning of a "daisy chain." d. an infectious carrier.

the index case.

Which of the following is NOT a standard parameter of the Kirby-Bauer test? a. the size of the agar plate b. the depth of the medium c. moderate composition d. the method of spreading organisms onto the plate

the method of spreading organisms onto the plate

In this scanning electron micrograph of Borrelia burgdorferi, which of the following structures is visible? a)the outer sheath b)cytoplasmic filaments c)the genome d)flagellar motors

the outer sheath

Giardia lamblia and Trichomonas vaginalis are both metamonads. One similarity between the two species is a. the presence of cilia. b. the presence of flagella. c. the production of cysts. d. their ability to cross the placenta.

the presence of flagella

Which of the following does NOT affect the sensitivity of a microorganism to food irradiation? a. genome size b. rate of repair of DNA damage c. whether the food is fresh or frozen d. the presence of heat-shock enzymes

the presence of heat-shock enzymes

In a typical two-component signal transduction system a. the sensor kinase senses the environment and the response regulator directly alters transcription. b. both the sensor kinase and the response regulator sense the environment. c. both the sensor kinase and the response regulator directly alter transcription. d. the sensor kinase directly alters transcription and the response regulator senses the environment.

the sensor kinase senses the environment and the response regulator directly alters transcription.

The most common treatment for systemic viral diseases is a. the treatment of symptoms. b. antiviral medications. c. immunotherapy. d. antibiotics.

the treatment of symptoms

All of the following explain why women get urinary tract infections more often than men EXCEPT a. the location of the urethra in women is closer to the anus than in men. b. sexual activity. c. bladder incontinence in postmenopausal women. d. the urethra in women is longer than in men.

the urethra in women is longer than in men

Which of these is NOT an antimicrobial feature of the urinary system? a. physiological valves found in the ureter b. pH of the urine c. flushing action of urine d. the use of the urethra for seminal fluid in women

the use of the urethra for seminal fluid in women

All of the following are true about bacterial capsules EXCEPT? a) they are produced by intracellular pathogens to avoid the host immune system b)they coat bacterial cell wall components inhibiting phagocytosis c)the slippery nature of capsules make "grabbing" the bacterial cell difficult d)the immune system attacks encapsulated organisms with opsonizing antibodies

they are produced by intracellular pathogens to avoid the host immune system

Measles is similar to German measles (rubella) in the fact that? a)they have a similar type of rash b)they are caused by the same virus c)encephalitis is a possible complication d)they can be controlled by vaccination

they can be controlled by vaccination

Genomic islands have all of the following features EXCEPT? a)they are flanked by phage or plasmid genes b)the ratio of GC/AT nucleases c)they do not need toxins or secretion systems d)they encode clusters of genes that contribute to the fitness of the organism

they do not need toxins or secretion systems

Which of the following characteristics is associated with bacteria in the phylum Firmicutes and most likely helps them survive dryness? a. a thick waxy coat that excludes Gram stain b. horizontal gene transfer between two cells c. thick cell walls with multiple layers of peptidoglycan d. an ability to ferment sugars to lactic acid

thick cell walls with multiple layers of peptidoglycan

Bacterial endocarditis affects the a. thinner lining of the heart. b. muscle of the heart. c. sac surrounding the heart. d. lining of blood vessels exiting the heart.

thinner lining of the heart

Which of the following is the cause of a fungal infection on the scalp? a)tinea capitis b)tinea corporis c)tinea pedis d)tenia cruris

tinea capitis

All of the following are required for disease to occur. What is the second step in microbial pathogenesis? a)pathogen exit b)host damage c)pathogen entry d)tissue attachment

tissue attachment

What is the purpose of fixation in a staining procedure? a)to preserve the organisms b)to adhere bacterial cells to the slide c)to impart color to the sample d)to heat the sample

to adhere bacterial cells to the slide

Why do bacterial organisms form a biofilm? a. to claim territory and fight off competing organisms of a different species b. to attach to a surface in an area where food is plentiful c. to find a food source when nutrients are scarce d. to mate with other bacterial organisms of the same or different species

to attach to a surface in an area where food is plentiful

What is the purpose of the palladium packet in the anaerobic jar? a. to catalyze a reaction between H2 and residual O2 in the jar to remove all the O2 b. to remove CO2 that can be converted to O2 c. to provide O2 for aerobic respiration d. to provide N2 for protein synthesis

to catalyze a reaction between H2 and residual O2 in the jar to remove all the O2

Why would a nondeadly intestinal pathogen most likely want to cause diarrhea? a. to leave before the host is irreparably harmed b. to leave before the host immune system becomes activated and begins attacking the pathogen c. to escape to a different organ system d. to flush out the competition

to leave before the host immune system becomes activated and begins attacking the pathogen

Why would a virus have evolved to cause cancer in a host cell? a. to kill the host cell b. to produce more cells for the virus to infect c. to allow for increased mutagenesis of the virus d. Viruses are not capable of causing cancer in a host cell.

to produce more cells for the virus to infect

What is the job of the esophagus? a. to propel food toward the stomach b. to separate the contents of the abdominal cavity from the chest c. to digest food d. to break down toxins

to propel food toward the stomach

Which of the following can waken the host immune response? a)too little sleep b)moderate exercise c)proper nutrition d)avoiding alcohol and drugs

too little sleep

All of the following are ways pathogens avoid destruction by the host immune system EXCEPT? a)capsules b)triggering apoptosis c)antigenic variations d)toxin production

toxin production

Protozoans use all the following mechanisms to avoid the host immune system EXCEPT? a)antigenic variation b)toxin production c)antigenic masking d)intracellular location

toxin production

All of the following are ways bacteria evade phagocytic digestion and survive intracellularly EXCEPT? a)escaping the phagosome b)toxin production within the phagosome c)inhibiting lysosome-phagosome fusion d)survival within the phagolysosome

toxin production within the phagosome

A black Labrador puppy goes swimming in a nutrient-rich pond one summer afternoon. Within hours the puppy begins vomiting and showing signs of damage to his nervous system. The puppy's owner takes him to a local veterinarian and is told the puppy also has liver damage. Upon questioning, the owner recalls the pond water the puppy went swimming in was green and cloudy. The veterinarian suspects the puppy was exposed to a. elementary bodies produced by a Chlamydia species. b. toxins produced by a spirochete. c. reticulate bodies produced by a Chlamydia species. d. toxins produced by a cyanobacteria.

toxins produced by a cyanobacteria.

During her pregnancy, Marcia's obstetrician recommended she have her husband clean the cat litter box. Avoiding contact with contaminated cat feces during a pregnancy is important in preventing a. toxoplasmosis. b. babesiosis. c. schistosomiasis. d. leishmaniasis.

toxoplasmosis

The protozoan infection that may be transmitted from mother to fetus and cause fetal infection leading to mental retardation, neurological abnormalities, and microcephaly is a. visceral leishmaniasis. b. toxoplasmosis. c. schistosomiasis. d. Chagas' disease.

toxoplasmosis

To prevent infection of a fetus would require successful treatment of a mother infected with a. toxoplasmosis. b. babesiosis. c. schistosomiasis. d. leishmaniasis.

toxoplasmosis

The greatest single cause of infectious blindness? a)neonatal gonorrheal ophthalmia b)keratoconjunctivitis c)trachoma d)pinkeye

trachoma

PrfA protein is a global regulator of virulence genes in Listeria, a bacterium that can cause severe food poisoning. Below host body temperatures PrfA mRNA exists in a conformation that hides the ribosome binding site. Upon entry into a host and a rise in temperature, hydrogen bonds in the mRNA break, exposing the ribosome binding site. What level of gene regulation is seen here? a. changing the DNA sequence b. transcription control c. translation control d. posttranslational control

translation control

EF-G is involved in a. transcription initiation. b. transcription elongation. c. translation initiation. d. translation elongation.

translation elongation.

The observation of a "strawberry" cervix is a symptom of a. lymphogranuloma venereum. b. candidiasis. c. genital herpes. d. trichomoniasis.

trichomoniasis.

Fifteen individuals within one province in China are diagnosed with SARS. Epidemiologists will most likely a. quarantine the entire province immediately. b. contact the CDC in the United States to see if any cases were reported in the United States. c. wait to see if more cases of SARS are reported. d. try to identify the index case.

try to identify the index case.

Which fo the following protozoan uses antigenic variation to circumvent the host immune system? a)plasmodium b)entamoeba c)leishmania d)trypanosome

trypanosome

Examine the media recipes shown. What ingredients make Luria Bertani a complex medium as opposed to a chemically defined minimal medium? a. tryptone and NaCl b. tryptone and yeast extract c. NaCl and yeast extract d. Luria Bertani is a chemically defined minimal medium.

tryptone and yeast extract

Trypanosoma brucei, the parasite that causes African sleeping sickness, is carried by a. deer ticks. b. Anopheles mosquitoes. c. tsetse flies. d. bedbugs.

tsetse flies

The differential diagnosis for a patient presenting with a fever and productive cough with bloody sputum would likely include a. tuberculosis and legionellosis. b. walking pneumonia and Pseudomonas pneumonia. c. inhalation anthrax and diphtheria. d. whooping cough and tuberculosis.

tuberculosis and legionellosis.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a bacterial secretion system that is paralogous to another molecular machine? a)type 1 protein secretion system b)type II protein secretion system c)type III protein secretion system d)type IV protein secretion system

type 1 protein secretion system

Refer to the figure below. The secretion system displayed mirrors that of a pilus. Which secretion system is this? a)type I b)type II c)type III d)type IV

type II

All of the following are methods of microbial attachment EXCEPT? a)capsids b)pili c)fimbriae d)type IV secretion systems

type IV secretion systems

A human vaccine is available to prevent a. bubonic plague. b. salmonellosis c. typhoid fever. d. Lyme disease.

typhoid fever

Two major systemic bacterial diseases associated with septicemia are a. vibriosis and Lyme disease. b. typhoid fever and salmonellosis. c. tularemia and leptospirosis. d. brucellosis and epidemic typhus.

typhoid fever and salmonellosis.

Which of the following is NOT a portal of entry for STIs in women? a. anus b. vagina c. urethra d. ureter

ureter

Which of the following is considered to be part of the upper urinary system? a. urinary bladder b. vagina c. ureters d. urethra

ureters

A patient presents at the clinic exhibiting signs of jaundice. How can you confirm that the individual has jaundice? a. urinalysis b. spinal tap c. eye exam d. MRI

urinalysis

Which of the following lists correctly identifies nosocomial infections from most common to least common? a. urinary tract, pneumonia, septicemia b. pneumonia, urinary tract, surgical wounds c. septicemia, surgical wounds, diarrhea d. diarrhea, urinary tract, pneumonia

urinary tract, pneumonia, septicemia

Which of the following is NOT an example of aseptic technique? a. use of antiseptic on skin prior to insertion of an IV line b. use of latex gloves during the insertion of an indwelling catheter c. disinfection of doorknobs and other inert surfaces d. use of trash can liners in all patient rooms

use of trash can liners in all patient rooms

The most typical way for a cell to increase the rate of a reaction is by a)increasing the cell's temperature. b)increasing the cell's pH. c)decreasing the cell's pH. d)using an enzyme.

using an enzyme

Which of the following scenarios would help meet the goal of the One Health Initiative? a. vaccinating poultry against avian influenza to prevent influenza from being transmitted to humans b. taking steps to reduce carbon dioxide emissions to reduce the effects of climate change c. providing sanitation after flooding events to prevent gastrointestinal infections in humans d. increasing compliance during antibiotic treatment of tuberculosis patients to prevent emergence of drug-resistant strains of tuberculosis

vaccinating poultry against avian influenza to prevent influenza from being transmitted to humans

All of the following are examples of passive immunization EXCEPT? a)injection of immune globulin b)breast-feeding c)antitoxins d)vaccinia virus

vaccinia virus

The structure highlighted with an arrow in step 6 of this figure is best described as a a. nucleus. b. lysosome. c. vacuole. d. mitochondrion.

vacuole

The urinary tract is composed of all of the following EXCEPT the a. vagina. c. bladder. b. kidneys. d. urethra.

vagina

A patient is brought to the hospital suffering with a MRSA infection. Which of the following is the best treatment option? a)acyclovir b)penicillin c)methicillin d)vancomycin

vancomycin

A 35 year old woman has a red, raised rash on the inside of her thighs. Gram-stained scraping show large budding cells with pseudohyphae. The infection is caused by? a)Candida albicans b)herpes simplex virus c)varicella - zoster virus d)Staphylococcus aureus

varicella - zoster virus

A 45 year old man has pus-filled vesicles distributed over his back in the upper right quadrant, his right shoulder, and the upper right quadrant of his chest. His symptoms are most likely due to a)Candida albicans b)herpes simplex virus c)varicella - zoster virus d)Staphylococcus aureus

varicella - zoster virus

Which of the following is part of the internal male reproductive system? a. penis b. scrotum c. testes d. vas deferens

vas deferens

A mosquito can transmit a viral pathogen into humans. The mosquito is an example of a(n)? a)fomite b)symptom c)vector d)endoparasite

vector

Endosomes and phagosomes are both types of a)catalysts. b)oxidizing agents. c)pseudopods. d)vesicles.

vesicles

Respiratory syncytial virus and influenza are responsible for the majority of cases of a. bacterial pneumonia. b. viral pneumonia. c. sinusitis. d. kidney failure.

viral pneumonia.

Jacob, a rambunctious five-year-old boy brought to the clinic by his mother, was complaining of a scratchy sore throat, a nonproductive cough (a cough that does not produce sputum), rhinorrhea (a runny nose), nasal congestion (a stopped-up nose), and a headache that started the night before. He did not have a fever. His complete blood count (CBC)—the number of platelets and red and white blood cells in blood, along with its differential (the different types of red and white blood cells)—was normal, as was his chest X-ray. Jacob was diagnosed with the common cold and was advised to rest, drink plenty of clear liquids, and use over-the-counter cough suppressants and either ibuprofen or acetaminophen for pain. Based on the symptoms described and what you know about this pathogen, which best describes Jacob's infection? a. viral lower respiratory illness b. viral upper respiratory illness c. bacterial lower respiratory illness d. bacterial upper respiratory illness

viral upper respiratory illness

All of the following statements about type III secretion systems are true EXCEPT? a)proteins are injected directly into the eukaryotic cells b)type III secretion systems are evolutionarily related to flagellar genes. c)cell-to-cell contact triggers type III secretion systems d)virulence proteins secreted by type III systems alter protein synthesis

virulence proteins secreted by type III systems alter protein synthesis

A microbe that is 50 nm in size would most likely be? a)fungi b)E. coli c)virus d)algae

virus

Which of the following has been used as a tool for gene therapy? a)viruses b)archaea c)protozoa d)fungi

viruses

All of the following are transmitted via the respiratory route EXCEPT? a)smallpox b)chickenpox c)measles d)warts

warts

Which of the following might be an effective means of limiting a disease spread via an oral route? a)not sharing needles b)wearing condoms during sexual activity c)checking for and removing ticks after outdoor activity d)washing hands before eating

washing hands before eating

The majority of the bacterial cell cytoplasm (by total weight) is a)DNA. b)RNA. c)protein. d)water.

water

Which of the following might be an effective means of limiting a disease spread via a urogenital route? a)using fresh needles, that is, not sharing needles b)wearing condoms during sexual activity c)wearing a mask that covers the nose and mouth d)washing hands before eating

wearing condoms during sexual activity

When does breakdown of food begin? a. in the esophagus b. when saliva is secreted by the salivary glands c. in the gastric acids of the stomach d. in the large intestine

when saliva is secreted by the salivary glands

When does dental caries become painful? a. when the biofilm forms on the tooth b. when the enamel breaks down c. when the decay penetrates the nerve d. Dental caries is never painful.

when the decay penetrates the nerve

Which of the following is NOT a fundamental attribute of a successful pathogen? a)host attachment b)immune avoidance c)nutrient acquisition d)wide host range

wide host range

Determine the FALSE statement below. An effective vaccine? a)will deactivate B and T cells b)will generate memory c)should not require many boosters d)must protect against the natural pathogen

will deactivate B and T cells

Which of the following is NOT a level of viral evolution? a. within an organelle b. within a host community c. within a viral species population d. within an individual organism

within an organelle

Which of the following is always classified as a eukaryote? a)papillomavirus b)methanongen c)Escherichia coli d)yeast

yeast

Which of the following is an example of a non-sexually transmitted infection? a. syphilis b. yeast infection c. gonorrhea d. pyelonephritis

yeast infection

Croup is most frequently seen in a. the elderly. b. middle-aged adults. c. adolescents. d. young children.

young children