Microbiology Final
why are infants more susceptible to Botulism
due to infant still maturing their intestinal tract and lack of adult microbiota, the bacteria are capable to colonize and produce associated toxins in adults only the direct ingestion of the preformed toxin causes disease
what type of microscope would be used to study shape of a viral capsid
due to its size most viral capsids must be visualized via electron microscope
what pathogen best identified using smac agar
e coli O157:H7, SMAC agr specifically differentiates between non pathogenic E coli and pathogenic E coli strain O157:H7
true or false the visualization of colonies on a Petri dish represents bacterial cells that have multiplied two to three times
false
true or false plants algae and bacteria all contain chloroplasts
faults chloroplasts are specific to algien plants only
This type of microscope utilizes UV lot to eliminate stain objects
fluorescence
enteric bacteria are often found where give an example of one
found in either the intestines or gut examples are salmonella and shigella
what three sugars are used and they triple sugar iron TSI agar
glucose lactose sucrose
Blood auker plate examines for what
haemolytic properties
what barrel replication process results in the destruction of the host cell
lytic
What three roles were discussed in regards to lab safety that would protect you and others from contamination
never eat or drink in the lab, always wear appropriate PPE, never leave the lab wearing PPE
in the absence of sugars are entirely different metabolic pathways used to process alternative sugar sources
no additional enzymatic steps or simply required at the beginning of the catobolism to convert complex sugars into usable forms of either glucose or glucose intermediate
gamma hemolysis
no change
Can viruses be classified as either prokaryotic or eukaryotic microorganisms
no virus are neither
gram negative sales appear ____in color due to a ______peptidoglycan layer in cell wall
pink, thin
what is the proper way to dispose of all materials used in the lab
placed in biohazard waste bag and into an autoclave for sterilization
what is the name of the process of spreading a bacterial culture onto a Petri dish
plaiting
uncoating
the viral capsid dissembles
to what family of viruses Does rubella come from and how was it transmitted
togaviridae: transmitted via airborne particles such as when humans cough
True or false arkeia is noted for its ability to survive under harsh conditions
true
true or false the viral capsid of HIV is cone shaped and contains 2000 copies of viral protein P 24
true
true or false unlike chickenpox the blisters that appear with shingles are localized and limited to small areas
true
true or false if a patient is suspected of having malaria a giemsa stain would be appropriate differential tests to perform
true these stains are often used in clinical settings to aid in the diagnosis of blood parasites
when performing the Kirby Bauer method the areas of clearing surrounding it antibiotic disc after overnight incubation are also known as what
zones of inhibition
what are requirements of fastidious microbe
an Organism with complex growth requirements such that if an absent will not grow in rich media is thus contained these specific and essential nutrients required for the growth of a particular subset of microorganisms
upon cellular in jury which metabolic processes involved during the growth and repair phases of the cell
anabolic process would activate as it is involved in the building up of small complexes into larger complexes
name one advantage that the ability to breakdown tryptophan brings to an Organism
and increased resistance to drugs medications or an increased ability to survive harsh environments often seen via form nation of spores
The words antigen it's actually a combination of what two words
antibody generating
an individual infected with HIV is placed on an antiretroviral medication what is a general purpose of this medication
as the name suggests antiretrovirals are intended to inhibit the lifecycle of retroviruses van hitting the steps of HIV lifecycle and antiretroviral medication effectively blocks the production of new virus particles and lowers the viral load of the patient
as stated in the lab video an example of lipase positive bacterium is
bacillus subtillis
a virus that infects bacteria is called a____and contains a___sided Polygon capsid
bacteriophage, 20
they hydrolysis of triglycerides on a spirit blue Agar plate most closely resembles that of ____hemolysis on blood Agar plate
beta
Columbia CNA agris most closely related to which media
blood auger
fibrin is another term for
blood clots
describe the relationship between chlorplast and chlorophyll
both chloroplasts and chlorophyll are associated with photosynthesis chloroplasts are double membrane enclosed organelles that contain the photosynthetic pigment chlorophyll
when developing a western blot what two factors influence the intensity of the band
both the amount of protein loaded as well as the duration time of the development is directly proportional to the band intensity
why are the three forms of plague and what regions did they affect
bubonic (lymph), pneumonic (lungs) and septicemic (blood)
define an essential amino acid
cannot be produced by the human body and and such must be taken in from the environment through alternative sources example food
What is facultative anaerobes
capable of growth under both aerobic and anaerobic conditions
the envelope surrounds the______of some viruses
capsid
Identify the following components of bacteriophage
capsid, color, tail, base plate, tail fibers
the combination of the cell membrane and the outer membrane is referred to as select all that apply
cell envelope
Chemotrophs can be subdivided into what two additional subgroups
chemotrophs would require energy from performed chemicals around the environment and organotrophsmoving electrons for organic material such as glucose and lithotrophs which remove electrons from inorganic molecules
In what organelle does photosynthesis occur
chloroplasts
name the type of plate derived from BAP that contains lysed red blood cells
chocolate auger
List the four main steps used to repair a wet mount and indicate which if any step is optional
clean the slide circle area on slide with wax or hydrophobic pen apply Organism to the slide view under microscope (note there is no optional steps in the wet mount)
what is the common name for agglutinations
clumping
describe the four basic bacterial morphologies
coccus - round/spherical, bacillus (rod), vibrio (curved rod) or spirillum (spiral/corkscrew)
what is the term for metal ions That assist enzymes during catalysed reaction
cofactor
Top of microscope uses neither halogen or UV light but rather lasers to eliminate stain sales and high resolution
confocal
a patient diagnosed with German measles may additionally experience what disease select all that apply
conjunctivitis, influenza like symptoms
describe the appearance of a bacterial culture infected with virus at the time of infection versus later once viral replication has occurred at a higher rate
during initial inoculation of the virus the media has a high degree of turbidity however as the lytic cycle progresses and more and more bacterial cells are destroyed the cultural media turns from turbid to clear as turbidity is a function of the number of intact bacterial cells present in the media the so bacterial cell numbers decreased due to the lysis
what is the primary difference between TEM and SEM
during transmission electronic microscopy to the electron passes through the sample whereas during scanning electron microscopy the electron is reflected off the sample creating a 3 dimensional shell model of the specimen
identify specific name given to the region of the western blot indicated in the arrow at the bottom line
dye front
what is the purpose of heat fixing your sample
ensures the samples tightly adhere to the glass prior to staining and washing
what is the primary function of enzymes and how are they regulated
enzymes speed up chemical reactions most notably the enzyme is not consumed during the reaction and can be used repeatedly by the cell enzymes can also be regulated by cofactors such that if in the absence of the proper cofactor enzymes are inactive while in the presence enzymes are active
True or false a virus is considered a microorganism
false
True or faults in the absence of oxygen fermentation produces two ATP
false
Turn false the genetic material within a prokaryotic cell is contained within a membrane enclosed region
false
true or false pathogenic strains of bacteria tend to grow slower than normal non pathogenic bacterial strains
false pathogenic strains of bacteria tend to grow faster than non pathogenic strains at the same temperature which is why researchers set incubators at a lower temperature to restrict growth of pathogenic strains
True or false enzymes slow down chemical reactions to conserve energy
false. enzymes catalyze chemical reactions
True or false because the genome is contained within an enclosed space viruses are classified as eukaryotic
faults
true or false the reactants of the TCA cycle directly enter and fuel the electron transport system
faults
True or false a nanometer (10-9) is longer then a micrometer (10-6)
faults a nanometer is 100 times smaller than a micro meter
True or false when performing a dilution streak and knew loop is not required for each phase as long as the bacterial sample is pure
faults and new sterilize loop is absolutely required for each phase failure to do so will prevent the establishment of a delusion gradient as a Sam bacteria concentration would be spread across both phase regions regardless of whether or not the culture is pure
true or false if you wish to study the motility of an Organism you cannot heat fix but you can chemically fix a specimen
faults both heat and chemical fixation strategies will kill the cell making motility observations impossible
true or false chocolate auger gets its brown color from cocoa to produce an enriched media
faults chocolate is never added to the media the name is derived simply based on the color that actually comes from the presence of cooked red blood cells in the media
Sure faults growth media is best suited for what distinguishing between two similar species of bacteria
faults growth media is designed to simple support and not restrict bacterial growth
True or false LB agr is classified as a non selective differential media
faults it is non selective and non differential it is used to expand unknown microbial populations because it encourages microbial growth due to the presence of universal nutrients and absence of restrictive factors
true faults the antibiotic disc or place onto the LB Agra plate before spreading the bacterial culture on the plate
faults the antibiotic disc are placed onto the play after the culture has been spread
true or false in order to maintain proper spacing the antibiotic disc should be placed around the edge of the plate
faults the disc should be placed approximately a fingers width from the edge so that a uniform zone of inhibition can be seen around the entering disc
true or false someone with chickenpox as a child is likely to develop shingles while in college where the median age of college students is 18 to 22 years old
faults the most common age of reactivation tends to be in greater than 60 years of age
true or false you would expect to see a viral envelope on a virus infecting a plant cell
faults the overwhelming majority of animal viruses are enveloped whereas the majority of plants or bacteria infecting viruses are not
True or false the purpose of a quadrant streak is to expand a bacterial population
faults the purpose of a quadrant shrink is to generate individual colonies such that a single bacterial sample can be isolated
what are two main strategies for replenishing cellular concentrations of NAD+, and when can these strategies be utilized
fermentation and restoration are two strategies used by the cell to convert NADH back to NAD+ fermentation occurs in the absence of oxygen while respiration occurs under aerobic conditions notably restoration is more efficient than fermentation
what are the three main conditions caused by Botulism toxin
food borne infant and wound
what is the purpose of a quadrant streak approach
generate an individual colony so that a single pure bacterial sample can be picked from the plate
describe two basic components of virus
genomic material comprised of either DNA or RNA, a capsid a membrane lock protective structure that contains genetic material similar to the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell
The presence of what molecules signals they sell that glycolysis about to start
glucose-6-phosphate (G6P)
what are three distinct stages in catabolism of glucose
glycolysis is the first step of this process and yields two molecules of ATP next by either fermentation or restoration two additional molecules of ATP can be produced last electron transport chain produces 34 ATP via oxidative phosphorylation event at the plasma membrane
when performing a quadra streak the sample is spread across the plate in such a way to form what
gradient is formed as resulting gradients should always contain within the growth of the individual colonies
what type of bacteria does sorbitol mcconkey auger select for
gram negative bacteria
Mcconkey oguer is selected for
gram negative bacteria if no growth is observed it is gram positive
What Instagram status of a micro growing on an epsin methylene blue aghar plate
gram negative emb place specifically restrict growth of gram positive bacteria
What are the ground status shape and identification of Organism number 4 from the gram stain procedure
gram negative, bacillus (rod),pseudomonas
using the catalyst test a Staphylococcus sample would be
gram positive catalase positive
what are the gram status shape and identification of Organism number one from the gram stain procedure
gram positive, cocci (spherical) clusters, staph aureus
Alpha hemolysis
greenish brown partial
What is another name for a liquid growth media and what are the basic components
growth media in a liquid form is often referred to as a nutrient broth as the name implies its composition consists primarily of essential ingredients such as rich sources of sugars amino acids and vitamins together a nutrient broth provides the macro but the source of carbon energy which in turn encourages its expansion
What is the key determinant in a bacteria being gram positive
have a thick peptidoglycan layer this gram stain exploits the characteristics by using dye combinations of crystal Violet end iodine crystal Violet is retained by the thick peptidoglycan cell wall and forms a stable complex with iodine effectively trapping the dies in the cell the resulting mixture is a purple coloration of the cell
True or false the president of cytochrome C is often associated with anaerobic bacteria
he is a component of ATC and is associated with aerobic bacteria
What three elements are used in an autoclave to sterilize equipment
heat, pressure, and steam
What determines the specifics the enzyme
heavily influenced by its active site a unique chemical structure bound only by select target molecules the structure is influenced by the amino acid composition of the protein as this in turn influences the bold shape and appearance at the enzyme factive shot and its target protein can be thought of as a locking key relationship
what are two types of glycoproteins found in influenzavirus
hemagglutinins (HA) and neuramindase (N)
if you are working in a lab in which an autoclave is not available and you are pressured for time what would you choose the best sterilizer equipment hot steam or hot air explain why
hot steam is the best choice as you can achieve a sterile environment in a matter of minutes whereas hot air will take several hours to achieve the same goal
what are the requirements of fastidious microbe
if complex growth requirements or absent it will not grow in rich media thus contain these specific and essential nutrients required for the growth of a particular subset of microorganisms
in phosphorylation the light reactions always occur
in the membrane similar to the electron transport chain one of its main functions is to generate proton concentration gradient to generate ATP
in a three phase dilution gradient what phase most likely contains individual colonies phase one or phase three
individual colonies are most likely going to appear in phase three you begin with P1 dilute during P2 and then further dilute and P3 however it is possible to see individual colonies and P2 if only a small portion of P1 was carried over to P2
Biochemical tests used to identify whether or not a microorganism can breakdown tryptophan is called the _____test
indole
what subtype of influenza is most viral
influenza a
As you're looking through the microscope you wish to dim or limit the amount light entering the eye what component of the microscope other than the lot source itself can be adjusted to make these modifications
iris diaphragm
Assuming a constant light source power identify the part of the microscope you would adjust to limit the amount of light entering the microscope
iris diaphragm
What is cellular metabolism
is a controlled set about chemical reactions that occurs in living organisms in order to maintain life
for the cat obelism of proteins and lipids which of the following enzymes are used select all that apply
lipases and proteases
an Organism that derives its energy by removing electrons from elemental s sulfur would be classified as a
lipotropic
based on the following image would you expect the viral titer to be high or low the image is cloudy
low as her BDD is a function of the number of intact bacterial cells present in the media the amount of virus contained within the above 2 must be low more and more bacterial cells will be destroyed effectively clearing the media if higher concentrations were present
describe the main differences between lytic and temperate phages
lytic bacteriophages replicate within the host bacteria until it ruptures whereas temperate (lysogenic) primarly exists in a non replicative state that does not kill the host cell. Lytic replicate all viral proteins needed for assembly of a new virus particles whereas lysofenic genomes are integrated into the host genome but production of viral proteins is suppressed
would you expect to see a color change when pseudomonas is straight onto a nemba auger plate
m no there would be no color change because pseudomonas does not ferment lactose
Find measurements micrometer and nanometer
macro meter is defined as being one millionth of a meter and is commonly designated as 10^-6. nanometer equals 10^-9 or one billionth of meter
what disease is best characterized by painful swelling of the paratoid
maps a patient infected with mumps has swelling in the parrot oid located in the neck
Define the concept of universal precautions
means any and all samples whether known or unknown or should be treated as potentially hazardous or pathogenic materials
what is the common name for rubeola and is it DNA or RNA virus
measles and it is RNA 15,000 nucleotides long
which of the following can be spread via airborne particles
measles, mumps, rubella
which of the following diseases does a linear single strand RNA virus cause
measles, mumps, rubella
what is the primary purpose of a wet mount
most often performed to visualize live cell as well as motility and behavior of an Organism
how is total magnification calculated of an object
multiplying the power of the objective and the power of the eyepiece
defining characteristic of fungi is presence of chicken in the cell walls which of the following also contained shipment select all that apply
mushrooms yeast mold
attachment
my receptors bonded the host proteins on the surface of the cell
the acid fast stain is most often used to identify what specific microorganism
mycobacterium tuberculosis. Used to identify bacterial stains at a high degree of resistance of colorization
An acid fast stain is most commonly used to identify what type of bacterium what is the name of the primary dye used in this technique
mycobacterium, carbolfushin dye (red)
release
new virus particles are produced and leave the cell
new infection
newly produced viruses that left the host now go on to infect new cells
Why do bacteria repel the dye nigrosine
nigrosin is a negatively charged I the membranes of most cells are also negatively charged the membrane will repel the die and not allow it to be absorbed
What are four types of gloves presented in the lab video
nitrile latex thermal cold thermal heat
A researcher is studying a strain of E coli currently growing on a mcconkey plate however researchers can't remember if ecola is gram positive or gram negative would a gram stain be necessary to confirm why not
no a gram stain would not be necessary as only gram negative microbes will grow on a mcconkey Agar the thus E coli is a gram negative micro
while traveling abroad should you be worried about coming into contact with variola major or variola minor
no both viruses are variants of smallpox and were eradicated in 1977 you would not need to worry about coming into contact with the viruses
what setting up a western blot what is the purpose of blocking step post transfer
nonspecific binding of antibody you only want the antibiotic to bond to its specific target
true or false a patient infected with rubella is only considered infectious with the trademark rashes visible
pfalzer patient infected with rubella is infectious one week before and one week after the parents of the rash
this type of microscope can provide detailed images of live cells without staining
phase contrast
An Organism that derives its energy from photons of light is called a
phototrophic microorganism
What is the process of spreading a bacterial culture onto a Petri dish called
plating
what small single stranded non enveloped RNA virus causes temporary or permanent paralysis by infiltrating motor neurons with in the spinal cord brainstem or motor cortex
polio
excluding sugars what are the other sources of energy which is the highest energy
polysaccharides proteins and lipids can also serve as potential energy sources in the absence of sugar lipids are rich in energy often having several reduced carbon molecules that can be used
how would a microorganism be classified positive or negative if a pink red band was observed in the top of the liquid culture containing tryptophan
positive the micro Organism is capable of breaking down tryptophan in the indole and would this be classified as an indole positive
describe the primary advantage of using a Petri dish over growing a liquid culture
primary vantage is that sales are held into place when grown a nutrient broth bacterial cells can multiply but are free to move around in solution when grown in a Petri dish it is fixed in such a way to form colonies
if you were required to grow four types of bacteria on a single auger plate without cross contaminating the samples what method would you use
quadrant growth method
A patient with O blood is sent to the lab for a blood clotting assessment since type O blood contains no antigens which quadrant best depicts the result you would expect to see in the essay is complete
quadrant six shows note sign of agglutination, which is only possible in the presence of antigens since stop oh blood has no antigens no clumping will occur during the test
What reactants of glucose
reactants are defined as mini molecules present and involved at the beginning of the specific chemical reaction in terms of written out a chemical reaction their reactants or everything located to the left of the arrow they reacted so glad costs are glucose the coenzyme NAP+ and ATP
identify the reactants of the following chemical reaction glucose + 2NAD+ - 2NADH + 2 pyruvate + 2 ATP
reactants are left of the arrow glucose and 2NAD+
Resolution and contrast are two critical factors that influence your ability to see an object explain each
resolution refers to the distance between two objects at which the object still can be seen as separate poor resolution means two objects may appear as one. contrast is the difference in light absorbance between two objects poor contrast gives a high background and makes the visualizations of multiple objects difficult
the plasma membrane select all that are true
restricts movement of materials in and out of the cell, prevents essential nutrients from escaping
what disease can result if a patient with streptococcal pharyngitis goes untreated
rheumatic fever occurs in 3% of untreated presenting approximately 2 to three weeks postinfection
based on the image below which row a or b is negative for agglutination
row a because there are no black dots
What dye did gram negative bacteria primarily retain
safranin pink in color
Describe the main underlying differences between salk and Sabin polio vaccine
salt vaccine contain an inactivated form of the virus and was injected while the saving vaccine contained a live attenuated form of the virus and was administrated oral relief
sorbital mcconkie (SMAC) agar is
selective and differential media
What type of media is best used to eliminate certain bacteria from within a mixed culture
selective media
streptococcus e.coli pseudomonas and klebsiella are capable of causing what disease
septicemia also known as blood poisoning
what was the purpose of the first quadrant of the agglutination assay containing only the reagent
served as the reagent only negative control you want to ensure reagent by itself does not clump but rather requires the presence of staph
what disease date emerges as a viral reactivation of a prior infection with the varicella virs
shingles also known as herpes zoster is due to the reactivation o because VZV last dormant in an interactive nerve cell its reactivation typically results in painful blisters unlock the initial chicken pox rash the blisters are localized and limited to small areas
Which is one of the main factors of light reactions
similar to the electron transport chain one of its main function is to generate a protein concentration gradient to generate ATP
You want to observe the size and shape of a cell what is the easiest standing technique that you could perform name at least one dye you would use during the process
simple stain you could use methylene blue crystal Violet safranin or fuschin
what would a researcher be starting to note while analyzing a microbial sample
size and shape, any observable motility, gram status presence of chemical reactions, color change is localized to the Organism or surrounding media, images of any characteristics
rank the following viruses based on their size from largest to smallest paramyxovirus, poliovirus, smallpox
smallpox 200 NM, paramyxovirus 100 to 150 nm, poliovirus 30nm
what is the viral envelope in what does the presence or absence of it tell you about the type of virus
the envelope surrounds the viral capsid it is derived from the host cell membrane and serve as an additional barrier to the external environment the overwhelming majority of animal viruses are envelope whereas the majority of plant or bacteria infecting viruses are not
what must happen before barrel replication of its genome can occur
the genome is replicated following attachment and entry never before
What is one disadvantage of heat fixing and sample
the heat fixing procedure kills the specimen this also prevents any observations on motility and enzymatic properties
a person who has either previously had chickenpox nor Ben administered the vaccine is exposed to someone with an active shingles outbreak and becomes infected explain why or why not the person will develop shingles
the infected individual will not develop shingles but we'll develop chickenpox and vaccinated and unexposed individuals must first develop chickenpox add shingles is the reactivation of the dormant virus from the chickenpox infection
septicemic
the most rare ball targets the blood system and it left untreated will develop into a life threatening illness as a blood borne bacteria can infect all major organisms
how is fiber beneficial to bacteria in terms of antibody recognition
the presence of fibrin can form a hard shell or coat around the bacteria making an antibiotic bonding difficult if antibodies are unable to bind the bacterium can escape the immune detection
What is the primary advantage of fighting a bacterial culture as opposed to having it grow in a solution
the primary advantage of plating is that the bacterials sales are held in place unlock in a nutrient broth or bacterial cells can multiply but are free to move around in the solution bacteria plated on an auger are fixed in such a way as it to support the formation and visualization of the colonies
Define anabolism
the process of building up or biosynthesis of macromolecules from small molecular units in much larger complexes
what is the purpose of doing a phase dilution streak
the purpose of a phase solution streak is to isolate individual bacterial colonies
what is auger
the simplest form is a liquid growth media that has a hardening agent added to it it is created when a polysaccharide derived from seaweed extract is added to growth media it is used to create a solid smooth surface on which microbes can grow
The Kirby-Bauer method for examining antibiotic sensitivity is also known as what
the standardized disc susceptibility test
what is the mechanism of action of the toxin produced by tetanus
the toxin acts as an inhibitory neurons causing systemic muscle stiffness and spasms muscle stiffness can be observed in the jaw such as lockjaw or spread systemically if left untreated to muscles relating to the respiratory system
replication
the viral genome is the blueprint to make copies of itself
entry
the virus fuses with the host membrane and enters the cell
why are gram positive bacteria able to retain the crystal Violet dye
they contain a thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall that readily retains the dye
Proteses are use to catabolize what
to breakdown proteins whereas lipases are used to breakdown lipids
the function of mitochondria
to produce energy ATP, is considered the powerhouse of the cell
True or false the beta oxidation pathway catalyzes the fatty acid chains of lipids
true
True or false the distinguishing characteristic of gram negative bacteria is the presence of L PS in the outer membrane
true
True or faults metabolism is a controlled set of biochemical reactions that occur in living organisms in order to maintain life
true
true or false LB agr is classified as a non selective non differential media
true
true or false dark reactions occur in the presence or absence of light
true
true or false the catalyst test is a qualitative and differential assay
true
True or false staining is often required to an image cell that is adherent and flat
true flat and unsigned sales are almost invisible due to the limits of both resolution and contrast which of the following could be seen clearly by the unaided eye select all that apply: skin cell with a diameter of 1500 um and protozoa with a diameter 150 um
true or faults protester retain a unicellular classification as they are unable to form tissue layers
true the function lysosome is select all that apply: waste disposal via hydrolytic enzyme they are membrane enclosed organelles capable of disregarding unwanted cell debris
true or false viral replication occurs after it attaches and enters the host cell
true the viral genome is never replicated before attachment and entry place the following viral lifecycle steps in order beginning with viral attachment and provide a description of each step: attachment, entry, uncoating, replication, exit, new infection
sure or false structurally bacteriophages are distinct from viruses that infect plant or animal cells
true they are structurally distinct from viruses that infect plant and animal cells
unlike brightfield microscope fluorescent microscopes illuminate samples through what spectrum
ultraviolet
what is the distinguishing picture of a darkfield microscope
unlock brightfield or face contrast where lot passes directly through the sample darkfield microscopic reflects laugh off the specimen at an angle resulting in an image of an exceptionally dark background in a vibrant specimen
what is augur used for microbiology
used to create a solid smooth surface on which microorganisms can grow
what is differential media
used to distinguish between two or more related microbes
what colors would the TSI auger slant containing salmonella
yellow and black the auger slant was yellow at the bottom while black on the slope gradient portion of the auger
Mannitol salt agar will turn what color in the presence of a pathogenic strain of Staphylococcus Arias
yellow pathogenic staph will turn the auger from red to yellow
How should you hold the microscope when you move it or carry it
you should hold it with one hand on the neck and one hand under the base
you visit a friend who has chickenpox while visiting what are two things you should be cautious of that you don't become ineffective
you want to be sure to keep distance especially if your friend is coughing or sneezing as chickenpox can be transmitted through airborne droplets, you would also be absolutely certain to avoid direct contact with the blisters of an infective individual
you suspect a patient may have TB once a sample has been obtained it is sent off to the lab for an acid fast stain if the patient who are infected with TB describe what you would expect to see on this stain slide
you would expect to see red cells TB positive on a blue background TB negative
micro organisms classified as plantay obtained most of their energy from converting____energy into___energy
1 light, two food chemical sugars
based on the microscope shown in the lab lecture what objectives would require replacing oil on this lod in order to clearly visualize the sample
100 X
once you inoculate the rabbit plasma containing media for the coagulase test how long do you wait until you read the sample and results
12 to 14 hours which is the equivalent of overnight incubation
what is the minimum temperature an autoclave must be set to achieve sterile condition
125 degrees Celsius
how many different types of amino acids are available from which to make proteins
20
what is the total magnification I have a sample image with 20 X objective and 15X eyepiece show your math
20 x 15 = 300
How many ATP the tricarboxylic acid cycle produce per pyruvate
34 ATP
You are viewing a bacterial sample that is 7 micrometers in diameter through your oil objective lens which has a magnification of 100 X the eyepiece has a magnification power of 5X what size would the sample appear through the eyepiece
3500 micrometers or 3.5 millimeters in diameter or 500x larger)
at what temperature here's the fix incubator set to as presented in the lab video
37 degrees Celsius
at what temperature should you refrigerate bacterial samples explain why this is beneficial
4 degrees Celsius this is beneficial to slow bacterial growth and prolongs the life of the sample
what objective power is best used if you are uncertain what the sample is and where to begin
4x (or lowest power objective)
how many milliliters of water were added to the tray prior to incubation the strip at 37 C overnight
5 milliliters
how many turns of the Calvin cycle are required to generate one molecule glucose
6
how many carbon atoms are present in glucose
6 C6H12O6
complete the following equation by placing the appropriate numbers where indicated __CO2 +___ATP____NADPH+____H2O C6H12O6+___ADP+___ NADP+
6, 18, 12, 12, 18, 12
when preparing a glass slide for a dry mouth what cleaning solution is used
70% ethanol
what are the byproducts of light reactions used for and dark reactions
ATP and NADPH
describe the energy transfer process relative to both ATP and ADP
ATP has the energy to donate while ADP can accept energy in the form of a phosphate group . ATP can reduce to ADP, while ADP can be built up to ATP
the process of phosphorylation produces which of the following select all that apply
ATP, NADPH
which non selective yet differential auger plate should be used if streptococcus sample is suspected
BAP would be the quickest way to identify a potential streptococcus macro based on its hemolytic properties
Animalia, plantae, fungi and protista are all classification under what type of Organism
Eukarya
for the ELISA essay depicted below what step a through E verse contains only specifically bound antigens at pure population
C
what is the difference between catabolism and anabolism
C is the process of breaking down larger molecules into useful energy sources whereas A is the building up or biosynthesis of macromolecules from smaller molecules units in larger complexes most often associated with cellular growth and repair
according to the lab module which three wells of API strip should be filled entirely
CIT, VP, and GEL wells
the HIV surface glycoprotein GP 41 binds what host cellular receptor
CXCR 4
what are two major types of nucleic acids and their roles
DNA and RNA. DNA contains hereditary information and is responsible for the inheritable characteristics RNA is responsible for deciphering the hereditary information in DNA and using it to synthesize proteins
ATP has energy 2____while ADP has the capacity to____energy
donate, accept
In the absence of glucose which of the following can be used as alternative sources select all that apply
lactose carbohydrates and lipids
true or false all multicellular microorganism classified as animalia are autotrophic
False heterotrophic
complete the following RNA strand and indicate how many bonds are formed for each complementary pair; 3' GGUCAU CG5' 5' CC_______AGC 3'
GC-3 AU-2 5' CCAGUAGC3'
An attempt to detect the presence of pathogenic strain E. coli O157
H7 a researcher spread a culture onto a mcconkie auger which had failed results what type of augur should they correctly try to do next: smac as it specifically formulated to detect between pathogenic and nonpathogenic E coli because pathogenic cannot ferment sorbitol while non pathogenic can for my both sorbitol and lycos therefore colonies that furmint can be differentiated from non fermenters
a drug company is trying to develop a new drug that will inhibit viral entry of influenza. would the drug company target jemagglutin proteins or neuraminidase proteins why
HA proteins would be targets as they are directly involved in viral attachment and entry into the host cell in proteins are involved in the budding and release of new viral particles and would thus not be the correct target
A-B+H2O A-OH+B-H
Hydrolases
A-BB-A
ISOMERASES
why was LV oguer plate used to test staff culture as opposed to selective differential auger that only grows staff
LB augers use as it simply provides the nutritional requirements to encourage bacterial growth since the results at Kirby Bauer method is directly based on the bacterial growth patterns no other selective or differential additives should be present that may hinder or inhibit the samples growth
A+B A-B
LIGASE
When given an unknown bacterial sample the first step is to expand the current bacterial population which form of media best sets this need and why MSA auger LB auger mcconkey oguer Columbia CNA agr
LV media all other options are all forms of selective media meaning they may potentially inhibit the growth of an unknown sample the culture should first be expanded and then placed into selective slash differential media
A-B A+B
LYASE
what gram negative bacterium might you come into contact with in an unsanitary hot tub
Legionella is often associated with unclear water systems such as hot tubs hot water tanks and AC units Legionella can only be transferred through water droplets small enough to be inhaled
what unit of measurement is used when a terminating the size of zones of inhabition
Millimeters
what is an obligate intercellular parasite
Morris cannot replicate unless inside a living host a parasite a virus depends on its living host to provide framework to replicate to make additional copies of itself
in what phase of a dilution St would you expect to find the highest concentration of bacteria P2 or P4
P2 would contain a higher concentration of bacteria than P4 the phases rank P1, P2, P3, P4
You are a lab instructor and Sally Miller has turned in her lab safety notebook for you to grade the experiment number one online safety based upon what is covered in the lab video how should Sally title her experiment
SM01 lab safety
if you were to remove the red blood cells from a blood auger what kind of auger plate derivative would you have
TSAYE (tryptic soy agar yeast extract)
according to the module which mycobacterium infection would be treated free of charge by the World Health Organization
leprosy is completely curable using multiple drug therapy regimen consisting of various combinations of drugs dapsone, rifampin, and clofazimine, all of which are given free of charge
what is the smallest biological unit of life
a cell
what is a viral capsid
a membrane like protective structure that contains the genetic material similar to the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell
in order to encourage growth of a slow growing macro what my a researcher do during a phase dilution streak
a researcher may either opt to perform only three phase dilution strike or passed the loop through the previous phase multiple times as opposed to only once
pneumonic
affects the respiratory system
what would happen in terms of colorimetric read out if you forgot to wash step after step D
all of the whales would have a dark color the intensity of the readout is depended upon the amount of labeled secondary antibiotic in the whale since the unbound secondary antibiotic was not washed away all wells would react equally
what is selective media
allows for only the growth of certain macros while restricting growth of all others
what is the main advantage of using API test
allows for rapid characters relation by simultaneously assessing 20 different enzymatic properties of a given microbe
what are three forms of hemolysis found in blood Agar plates
alpha beta gamma
what colors would you expect to see on an emb plate containing e. coli
amb itself is red in color while in the presence of E coli the growing colonies will take on a distinctive metallic green Sheen
Describe the composition of HIV
contains 2 copies of single stranded linear RNA that is enclosed by capsid the cone capside surrounds two RNA strands and is comprised of 2000 copies of the viral protein P 24 a viral envelope derived from the cell host membrane then surrounds the viral capsid within the envelope there are two glycoproteins GP 120 and GP 41 which are essential for viral binding and entry into the host cell
when performing a wet mount technique what is the advantage of using a wax or hydrophobic pen
creating a hydrophobic barrier helps keep the water within the circle so it does not spill off the slide
phase contrast microscopic provided what benefits to imaging
detailed images of lab sales without staining by using specialized condensers and objectives of phase contrast microscope amplifies the slight differences between sales and the surrounding medium to make the sales highly distinguishable
gram staining is based on white basic principle
developed by Hans Christian Graham in 1884 begin with a basic observation that different types of bacteria react differently to various dives some bacteria readily take up a specific ddye wow others do not
blood Agar is which type of medium select all that apply
differential between hemolytic activity and enriched
A researcher is asked to determine which of the two vials contains E coli and which contains salmonella knowing both gram negative while only one of them is capable of fermenting lactose what type of media would be best suited
differential media distinguishes between two often related microbes
beta hemolysis
distinct zone of clearing
bubonic
is best characterized by painfully swollen lymph nodes
Define the selective and differential abilities of mcconkey oguer
is selective in that only gram negative microbes will grow gram positive microbes will not grow it is considered a differential media as it distinguishes between microbes capable of fermenting lactose with red colonies and those that are non fermentors with what colonies
how does the viral envelope both aid and entry as well as hide it from being detected by immune system
it contains necessary proteins required to interact with host cells as the envelope is derived from the host cell membrane it camouflages the virus and lowers the likelihood of the immune detection by making it appear similar to the normal biological host cell
foodborne Botulism
it is often the result of improperly canned contaminated low acidic foods such as green beans corn or beets
explain why the flu shot given each year may not be 100% effective at preventing the flu
it is possible to receive a flu vaccine and yet get the flu in the same season if you were exposed to a viral strain that was not included in the vaccine there are a large number of variants and the flu vaccine is unable to vaccinate against all subtypes medical researchers predict and then distribute flu vaccines based on current trends and the available data relative to the most common circulating strands unfortunately they are not 100% accurate
what is one limitation of fixing your sample
it requires you to irreversibly kill your sample thus determining the motility of a sample is impossible fixation also runs the risk of distorting the specimen shape and arrangement
You arrived to your first day of work at a new lab you are taking over for someone who took a new job at another lab your boss informs you that because of time restraints this person did not exactly follow experimental protocol in order to proceed you must know what he did differently one according to the lab lecture under what section of his notebook would you look to find the experimental steps two as changes in the experimental steps are made what are these differences called and how should it appear in your lab notebook
number one procedure this is where the steps for the experimental protocol are recorded, 2 deviations all deviations should be written in red to immediately bring attention to changes in their protocol
what two parts of the microscope contribute to the total magnification to your sample
objective and oculars eye piece
As lot passes through a microscope what is the last piece that lot passes before reaching the eye
objective lands through the ocular lens or eyepiece directly into your eyes so ocular lens
what are the main sections that should be found in a lab notebook? Name at least 4
objective, procedure, notes, results and deviations
wound Botulism
occurs when C. Botulinum bacteria colonize a deep womb alternate punctures such as those who inject St drugs such as heroin as contaminated needles are injected through the skin spores enter the body and in the absence of oxygen release the toxin
infant Botulism
occurs when children usually under the age of six months consume foods containing bacteria a potential source of infant Botulism is honey which is why pediatricians recommend avoiding feeding honey to infants but it can also be found in common places such as soil
what linear double stranded envelope DNA virus is the first virus to be declared eradicated
once a major cause of death in the world smallpox vaccine was developed in 1796 by Edward Jenner global vaccination efforts have prevented smallpox from appearing in humans since October 26 1977 making small pox the first infectious disease ever to be eradicated
if a patient was suspected to have tuberculosis what differential stain would you select and why
one would utilize an acid fast stain to best visual the foreign microbe tuberculosis would stain poorly using gram stain
chemotrophs utilize which form of phosphorylation
oxidative phosphorylation as opposed to photo or substrate level phosphorylation also data device for relation utilizes energy released by chemical oxidative have nutrients to reform ATP
in a western blot ____are separated based on its size
proteins
at the generalized level, all cells are compromised of what
proteins lipids nucleic acids carbohydrates macromolecules
what bacterial isolated group the least during the quadrant growth experiment
pseudomonas in quadrant 4
And oxidase positive test result will appear as ___in color
purple
Gram positive cells appear _____in color due to a ______peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall
purple, thick
in the wet lab portion of the video what pathogen was the agglutination assay specifically designed to test for choose all that apply
staph
Hey reactive intermediate would be present in which phosphorylation process
substrate level phosphorylation the chemical compound losing the phosphate group is referred to as a phosphorylated reactive intermediate
What is the primary purpose of Columbia CNA agr
suppresses the growth of gram negative bacteria CNA auger is therefore used for the isolation of gram positive microbes
According to the module which STD might best be identified via darkfield microscopy
syphilis the kostiv agent treponema pallidum is a thin spirochete, making gram staining and visualization difficult it is therefore most often best identified via darkfield
the cabalism of a single molecule of glucose goes through what three distinct transitions
the breakdown of glucose go through glycolysis then fermentation or respiration and finally through the electron transport chain
a bacterial swab is taken from a patient with impetigo and streaked across an MSA plate following incubation at 37 C what will be the color of the auger
the causative agent of impetigo is staph orixas a gram positive bacterium capable of fermenting mannitol. fermentation will lower the pH of the auger and change the color from red to yellow
to be considered a pure culture the sample ___can be traced back to a single cell and ___
the culture must also be free from external contaminants simply but a pure sample would never contain multiple bacterial samples
what is the most energetic transition in cataclysm of glucose
the electron transport chain yields 34 ATP while both glycolysis and fermentation each yield only two
how are the TCA and ETC related
the end product of the TCA cycle are used to feel the electron transport chain in other words as the Krebs cycle produces an abundance of reduced electron carriers it fuels the ATC as electrons are transferred from NADH/FADH@ two terminal electron acceptor's a photon motor force is generated ATP synthase is activated and up to 34 molecules of ATP can pre produced.
