Microbiology Final Curtis TCU

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Surfactants

"Surface active" chemicals, Reduce surface tension of solvents

What disease does Vaccinia vaccine protect from?

(Orthopoxvirus) Variola virus, smallpox

B Cells

- B cells that matured in bone marrow become induce and get activated. - Then they are copied and become plasma cells. - Plasma cells pump out tons and tons of antibodies. - Smaller subset become memory b cells and stay in lymph nodes

Role of resident microbiota: digestive tract

- Ferment unused energy substrates - Train the immune system - Prevent growth of pathogenic bacteria - Regulate the development of the gut

Neutrophils

- First responders - immediately begin to phagocytize anything that shouldn't be there

Innate Immunity

- Has no memory of certain pathogens - works non-specifically

NK cells

- Identify and destroy infected or cancerous host cells - Release perforin and granzyme into infected/transformed cells - Perforin produces a pore structure in target cell plasma membrane - Granzymes induce apoptosis

Conditions that promote members of microbiota to become opportunistic

- Introduction of normal microbiota into unusual site in body - Immune suppression - Changes in the normal microbiota

IgM

- Major isotype before class switching occurs - first to appear - activates the compliment but is short lived

Adaptive Immunity

- Only becomes active when exposed to the pathogen - takes a while to begin working could take 3-5 days to kick in - only recognizes one specific pathogen - adapts to subsequent infections

Eosinophils

- Rare - take care of very large pathogens, like a parasitic worm. - First paralyzes worm and then begins to digest it, related to asthma and allergies

PRRs (pattern recognition receptors)

- Recognize MAMPs and trigger a response - TLRs are restricted to membranes while NLRs are intracellular sensors - Both signal cells to make interferon and pro-inflammatory cytokines

T cells

- Self-reactive t cells are deleted in the thymus - Only t cells that recognize foreign molecules will be released into the blood stream - Have to actually be presented with an antigen presenting cell - Load peptide onto MHC; For t cell activation to occur APCs must present the specific peptide onto MHC molecules for recognition and activation

The scientist successfully cultivates (grows) a psychrophilic bacterium isolated from the glacier. Based on your knowledge of psychrophilic microorganisms, name a thermal adaptation that this bacterium may possess to help it survive in cold temperatures.

- Unsaturated fatty acids increase fluidity of membrane which permits ease of movement in low temperatures. More UNsaturated MORE fluidity --> COLD

Opsonization

- When you have a microbe that is coated in antibodies or complement proteins - Ultimately all will be released as debris which will be picked up by the interstitial fluid - Some of it will be presented on the outside of the cell to alert the adaptive cells

IgG

- crosses the placenta - activates the compliment cascade - most abundant IgG: - opsinogen (increase phagocytosis) - activate the classical pathway of complement - neutralize toxins and prevent pathogens from attachment.

Function of antibodies

- needed to activate t and b cells - Antibodies activate the complement system to destroy bacterial cells by lysis (punching holes in the cell wall)

Apicomplexans: Nutritional Requirements

-Chemoheterotrophic -Apicomplexans feed by absorbing either dissolved food ingested by the host (saprozoic nutrition) or the host's cytoplasm and body fluids. Respiration and excretion occur by simple diffusion through the cell membrane.

Psychrophiles

0-20 C

Mechanisms of antibiotic resistance

1. Enzymatic destruction of drug, 2. Prevention of penetration of drug, 3. Alteration of drug's target site, 4. Rapid ejection of the drug

Koch's Postulates

1. The same pathogen must be present in every case of the disease. 2. The pathogen must be isolated from the diseased host and grown in pure culture. 3. The pathogen from the pure culture must cause the disease when it is inoculated into a healthy, susceptible laboratory animal. 4. The pathogen must be isolated from the inoculated animal and must be shown to be the original organism.

PCR steps

1. heat to 95 degrees C which will separate the DNA strand to begin replication 2. reduce the temperature to 55 degrees C to allow the DNA Primers to anneal to template DNA 3. Increase temp to 72 degrees C - which is the optimal temperature for the heat-tolerant DNA Polymerase to synthesize DNA only the gene of interest gets amplified used for viral/bacterial burden below detectable levels; amplification of DNA at a crime scene; genetic screening (risk for disease); presence of antibiotic resistance; microbial population analysis (organisms that cannot be identified through a culture can be identified using PCR).

How does PCR work?

1. requires a DNA template, DNA Primers, heat-tolerant DNA Polymerase, and a thermocycler 2. PCR amplifies a selected region of DNA by rapidly cycling through many rounds of DNA replication, under thermal temperature control.

Products of fermentation

2 ethyl alcohol and 2 lactic acid

Mesophiles

20-40 C, human pathogens

How many ATP molecules are synthesized through phosphate level phosphorlation?

4

Thermophiles

40-70 C

Eukaryal mRNA is modified after transcription and a ___ is added to the Poly a tail, then ____ are spliced out and ____ join together

5' cap is added to the 3' end. then introns are spliced out and exons are joined together

A 3' to 5' DNA sequence will give rise to what mRNA template?

5' to 3'

Hyperthermophiles

70-110 C

Secondary (acquired) immunodeficiency

develop later in life/as direct consequence of some other recognized cause

dsDNA

double-stranded DNA; two DNA strands with complementary base-pair sequences joined by hydrogen bonds

Entameoba Histolytica

dysentery (infection in the intestines), trophozoites (growing stage, absorbing nutrients from host) consume RBCs, form liver abscess, treat with metronidazole. Enters as cyst

Exogenous antigen

Foreign materials or extracellular pathogens engulfed and digested by phagocytes (ex. Bacterial toxins, extracellular bacteria, allergens)

Role of MHC in antigen presentation

Function to hold and position antigenic determinants for presentation to T cells

Eukaryotic Genome

Genes are not densely packed, Mostly organized as single transcription units, Often contain introns

Benefit of biofilms

Gives nutrients to the bacteria

Neutrophiles

Grow best in a narrow range around neutral pH (6.5-7.5)

Acidophiles

Grow best in acidic habitats

Eukaryotes

Has nucleus, membrane bound organelles, some have flagella and/or cilia, no endospores, large ribosomes (80s), linear and more than one chromosome per cell

What disease does HPV vaccine protect from?

Human papillovirus, warts

Cyclospora

feces contaminated food. parasite that causes gastroebteritis. watery diarrhea, cramps, fever. Cyst

Reduction is the ____ of electrons

gain

Viral genome

genetic material of a virus

Operons

group of genes operating together

Obligate Halophiles

grow in up to 30% salt

Cyst form has a cell wall

important for survival in fresh water and to withstand osmotic pressure. Acids in the host's stomach breakdown the cell wall

What are the outcomes of the Complement Pathway

inflammation, opsonization, and MAC (pore forming)

What is the "junk" DNA?

introns

Attenuated vaccine

living but weakened pathogen, can confer contact immunity, ex. MMR

Oxidation is the ____ of electrons

loss

loss of hydrogen=

loss of electron

Horizontal transmission

members of the same species but not parent-child

antigen loaded onto MHC class 2 molecules are presented to...

naive CD4 T cells; Exogenous

antigen loaded onto MHC class 1 molecules are presented to...

naive CD8 T cells; Endogenous

Where does transcription occur in bacteria?

nucleoid region of the cytoplasm

Where does transcription occur in eukaryotes?

nucleus

proton motive force

occurs when cell membrane becomes energized due to electron transport reactions by the electron carriers embedded in it. Basically, this causes the cell to act like a tiny battery. Its energy can either be used right away to do work, like power flagella, or be stored for later in ATP.

To what organism/toxin does the HPV vaccine induces an immune response to?

papillomas

Vertical Transmission

parent to offspring

All Apiocomplexans are

pathogens

Genotype determines your

phenotype

Antigenic masking

protozoans coat themselves in host antigens

Effector T cells

relatively short-lived activated cells that defend the body in an immune response

DNA Polymerase I

removes RNA primers and replaces them with DNA nucleotides

DNA polymerase III

replication next to RNA primer and adds nucleotides in a 5'-->3' direction

retroviruses express

reverse transcriptase

RNA polymerase inhibitors

rifampin, pyronins

Ligase

seals the nicks b/t the sugar-phosphate backbone

Pili

short, hairlike protein structures on the surface of some bacteria that allow for attachment

Helper CD4 T cells: TH1

stimulate cell-mediated response

Helper CD4 T cells: TH2

stimulate humoral response

To what organism/toxin does the Pneumococcal (PCV) vaccine induces an immune response to?

streptococcus pneumoniae

Metabolic Inhibitors

sulfonamides, trimethoprim

Primase

synthesizes short RNA primer to initiate DNA replication

Lysogenic Bacteriophage is a ________ bacteriophage

temperate

Genome

the complete instructions for making an organism, consisting of all the genetic material in that organism's chromosomes

Incidence of disease

the number of new cases of a disease in a given area or population during a given period of time

Promoter

the region at the beginning of a gene where RNA polymerase binds; the promoter "promotes" the recruitment of RNA polymerase and other factors required for transcription

Gram positive cell wall

thick layer of peptidoglycan

Prevalence of a disease

total number of existing cases with respect to the entire population

if it is a negative single-stranded it cannot immediately go to ....?

translation

Lytic bacteriophage is a __________ bacteriophage

virulent

operator

where the repressor or inducer binds

Fungi includes

yeast and filamentous fungi. their walls are made of chitin. they help plants absorb water and minerals (mycorrhizae)

do all algae have cell walls?

yes

do most fungi have cell walls?

yes

Bacteriostatic agent

Agent that has the ability to inhibit bacterial growth by freezing. No destruction of viability of the microorganism is implied.

Macrophages

All over body and have different names depending on where they are in the body

Inducer

Always unbound from the operon unless there is too much tryptophan and then trp binds to the operon, turning the repressor off transcription

tRNA

An RNA molecule that functions as an interpreter between nucleic acid and protein language by picking up specific amino acids and recognizing the appropriate codons in the mRNA

Helicase

An enzyme that untwists the double helix of DNA at the replication forks. It breaks the hydrogen bonds b/t DNA bases to create a replication bubble

Heterotroph

An organism that cannot make its own food. gets energy from organic molecules like Carbs, AA, Lipids

Autotroph

An organism that makes its own food uses an inorganic carbon source to make energy (CO2)

Lithotroph

An organism that uses reduced inorganic compounds (no carbon) as its electron source

Organotroph

An organism that uses reduced organic compounds (has carbon) as its electron source

Sulfonamides

Anti-metabolic agents can be effective when pathogen and host metabolic processes differ

Plasma B cells

Antibody production by plasma cells

Narrow-spectrum

Antimicrobials effective against a limited array of microbial types

Broad-spectrum

Antimicrobials effective against a wide variety of microbial types

Purpose of attachment factors

Attach to our surfaces and tissues, Damage tissues to obtain nutrients and replicate, Avoid host immune responses

Amphotericin B

Attaches to ergosterol in fungal membranes, Humans somewhat susceptible because cholesterol is similar to ergosterol, Bacteria lack sterols; not susceptible

BCG vaccine type

Attenuated

MMR vaccine type:

Attenuated

Vaccinia vaccine type

Attenuated

Varicella-zoster vaccine type

Attenuated

Herd Immunity

If you can effectively reduce the number of susceptible individuals, an illness can't progress in a population effectively.

Type 1 hypersensitivity

IgE mediated hypersensitivity Ex: Allergies

Type 3 hypersensitivity

Immune Complexes of Antigen and Antibody Ex: Serum sickness

Phagocytosis

Immune system cells that engulf foreign invaders - Include neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages - Recognition of conserved microbial motifs (MAMPs) activate phagocytes and turn them into efficient killing machines.

Apicomplexans: Reproduction

In the life cycle, sexual and asexual generations may alternate. Sexual reproduction may immediately precede spore formation. Asexual reproduction is by binary or multiple fission (schizogony).

DTaP vaccine type:

Inactivated

HPV vaccine type:

Inactivated

Pneumococcal (PCV) vaccine type:

Inactivated

Stages of an acute infectious disease

Incubation Period - no signs or symptoms Prodromal Period - vague, general symptoms Illness - most severe signs and symptoms Decline - declining signs and symptoms Convalescence - no signs or symptoms

Fundamental attributes of a successful pathogen

Infectivity and virulence fundamental to successful pathogen

Mechanism of action of A-B toxins

Inhibit protein synthesis in target cells

Type 3 secretion systems

Injects proteins directly into host cell, Stimulates uptake of Salmonella and Shigella by cells that are not normally phagocytic

Cytotoxic CD8 T cells

Interacts with MHC 1

Helper CD4 T cells

Interacts with MHC 2

Phenolics

Intermediate to low level disinfectant, Denature proteins and disrupt cell membranes, Effective in presence of organic matter and remain active for prolonged (long) time

Halogens

Intermediate-level antimicrobial chemicals, Damage proteins by denaturation, Widely used in numerous applications

Alcohols

Intermediate-level disinfectants, Denature proteins and disrupt cytoplasmic membranes, More effective than soap in removing bacteria from hands, Swabbing skin with alcohol prior to injection removes most microbes

Transformation

Introduction of extracellular DNA into an organism Extracellular DNA is taken up by the cell

It is determined that the pathogen is a facultative anaerobe. What does this mean? What enzymes does this organism likely express?

It means that it can live in anerobic and anerobic environments but prefers oxygen so aerobic

Role of resident microbiota: vagina

Keeping the microenvironment acidic

Oxidizing Agents

Kill by oxidation of microbial enzymes, High-level disinfectants and antiseptics, Hydrogen peroxide can disinfect and sterilize surfaces

Giardia

Lack mitochondria Anaerobic metabolism Multiple flagella Treated with metronidazole

Alkalinophiles

Live in alkaline soils and water up to pH 11.5

Quinolones

MOA: - Act against prokaryotic DNA gyrase Effect: - Bactericidal - Prevent the winding and unwinding of DNA during replication and transcription

Beta-lactams

MOA: - Peptide chain extending on NAM is alanine-alanine. The beta-lactam ring resembles that. the enzyme that is involved in forming the peptide cross-link b/t adjacent glycan chains, binds to the beta-lactam ring, preventing the formation of the peptidde cross-linkages Effect: - Peptidoglycan collapses and no longer protects the bacterial cell.

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

MOA: - activated by microbial cofactors that are found only in anaerobic organisms. - Distort shapes of nucleic acids and prevents further replication, transcription, translation Effect: - treats anaerobic protozoan and bacterial infections

Amphotericin B

MOA: - binds ergosterol in fungal membrane = causes pore formation and cell lysis Effect: - cell destroyed via lysis

Sulfonamides

MOA: - it blocks the folic acid formation - inhibits metabolic process Effect: - effective when the pathogen and host metabolic processes differ - folic acid cannot be made - bacteriostatic

Tetracyclines

MOA: -targets the 30S subunit. - blocks the A site (docking site) of tRNA - inhibits protein synthesis Effect: - will not allow for protein synthesis - Bacteriostatic

What disease does MMR vaccine protect from?

Measles, mumps, german measles

Microbial Classification: Osmolarity

Microbes require water to dissolve enzymes and nutrients required in metabolism

Chemotroph

Microbes that gain energy from chemical compounds. Energy is generated from the transfer of electrons during oxidation(reduction) of chemical molecules

more saturated= (more/less) fluidity and is (hot/cold)

More saturated= less fluidity and is hot

more UNsaturated= (more/less) fluidity and is (hot/cold)

More unsaturated is more fluid and is cold

Role of resident microbiota: respiratory tract

Mucociliary escalator sweeps foreign particles up and out of the lungs

Antigenic drift is a result of _______________________ in the influenza genome. Antigenic shift is a result of __________________________ in the influenza genome.

Mutations; gene reassortment

To what organism/toxin does the BCG vaccine induces an immune response to?

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Energy is captured from the redox reaction and is transferred to

NADH

NADH is _____ to NAD+ when it _______ a _______.

NADH is oxidized when it loses a hydrogen

NADH is ____ when it ______ a ______.

NADH is reduced when it gains a hydrogen

What are the primary electron carriers in the bacterial cells and human cells?

NADH+ and FADH2

Mode of action of botulism toxin

No acetylcholine = no muscle contraction = flaccid paralysis

Log Phase

No limiting nutrients in log phase so exponential growth

Prokaryotes

No nucleus, have flagella, no cilia, peptidoglycan cell wall, can have endospores, small ribosomes (70s), single and circular chromosomes; bacteria, archea

Detriment of biofilms

Can keep harmful bacteria from destruction

Facultative Halophiles

Can tolerate high salt concentrations (on our skin for when we sweat)

Immune evasion strategies of extracellular pathogens

Capsule prevents phagocytosis and complement activation

Type 4 hypersensitivities

Cell mediated, cytotoxic: contact dermatitis, graft rejection

Memory T cells

Cells have a faster and stronger response, millions of cells cloned to recognize specific pathogen

What are humans?

Chemoorganoheterotrophs

It is determined that the psychrophilic bacterium is a chemoheterotroph. What does this mean?

Chemotroph= aquires its energy from redox reactions (reduction reactions)and will get energy from. We do not know which organic or inorganic. Ex of organic molecule would be carbon and hydrogen; glucose Heterotroph= it is a consumer of organic molecules

What disease does Varicella-zoster vaccine protect from?

Chicken pox and shingles

Dimorphic fungi

Cold = Mold, Heat = Yeast All can cause pneumonia and can disseminate (spread).

Ribosomal subunits

Components of ribosomes, the protein-production factories where amino acids are linked together in the proper order to produce the protein

Subunit vaccine

Consist of 1 or more protective antigens (no whole cells or viruses), may require several injections to produce strong immunity, ex. HPV

DNA vaccine

Consist of a cloned gene(s) in a DNA vector

Inactivated vaccine

Consist of whole virus/cells that have been inactivated by heat or chemicals, ex. polio

Vehicle

Contaminated fomites, air, water, food

Microbial Classification: Temperature

Temperature can affect macromolecular structure, membrane fluidity, and enzyme function.

Tetracyclines

Tetracycline resistance is due to an efflux pump - borad-spectrum - inhibit protein synthesis

Protein synthesis inhibitors 30S ribosomal subunit

Tetracyclines

substrate-level phosphorylation

The enzyme pyruvate kinase (purple) facilitates the transfer of phosphate from phosphoenolpyruvate to ADP, resulting in pyruvate and ATP.

Role of resident microbiota: oral cavity

The formation of plaque

Decimal reduction time (D value)

The length of time it takes for a treatment to kill 90% of a microbial population, and then measures the efficacy of the treatment.

Oxidative Phosphorylation

The production of ATP using energy derived from the redox reactions of an electron transport chain; the third major stage of cellular respiration.

What is redox potential?

The tendency of a molecule to acquire electrons

Conjugation

The transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another following cell to cell contact Initiated by a "sex" pilus Requires a f plasmid (fertility)

Gram negative cell wall

Thin peptidoglycan Outer membrane Periplasmic space

Lytic bacteriophage

Virus binds, DNA injected, Capsid stays outside, Expression, Assembly, Cell destroyed - attach - direct penetration - bacterial genome DEGRADED - viral genome is replicated and EXPRESSED

Mode of action of cytolysins

Work on plasma membranes of cells, often forming pores or degrading phospholipids

Role of NADH

______ is oxidized to NAD+ when it donates an electron or loses a hydrogen. - must be recycled to NAD+ at the end of glycolysis

Envelope

a membrane-like layer that covers the capsids of some viruses

Retroviruses

are a group of viruses that use RNA for their blueprint but then insert themselves into the host DNA as a provirus can convert their RNA genome into DNA using the viral enzyme reverse transcriptase Once the genome is converted to DNA, HIV integrates the DNA into the host genome.

Schizogony

asexual reproduction by multiple fission, found in some protozoa, especially parasitic sporozoans.

Virulence factors

assist pathogen in attachment, nutrient acquisition, immune evasion, and tissue damage

Penicillin and beta-lactam antibiotics

beta-lactams more stable in acidic environments, More readily absorbed, Less susceptible to deactivation, More active against more types of bacteria Act by inhibiting penicillin-binding proteins Target the Cell Wall which will destroy bacteria

Primary immunodeficiency

born with immunodeficiency

In bacteria, Sigma Factors are _______ to _______

bound to RNA Polymerase

Giardia and Entamoeba hystolytica lack

cell wall during infectious stages

Lysogenic Bacteriophage

codes for diphtheria (inflammation) toxin, which causes fatty degeneration of the heart and can cause nerve damage and death in stressful times it will go into the lytic phase - attach - penetrate - INTEGRATE into bacterial genome - replicated, but genes are repressed

Bacterial Genome

consists of a single circular chromosome located in the nucleoid region of the cell

Mode of action of diphtheria toxin

Adds ADP ribose to host protein

Bactericidal agent

Agent that destroys bacteria

What activates the Alternative Complement Pathway

Activated when it recognizes LPS or lipoteichoic acid

What activates the Classical Complement Pathway

Activated when it recognizes bound antibodies

What activates the Lectin Complement Pathway

Activated when it recognizes mannose-binding lectin

Trophozoite

Active, motile, feeding stage of protozoa

Selective toxicity

A drug that kills harmful microbes without damaging the host

Binary Fission

A form of asexual reproduction in single-celled organisms by which one cell divides into two cells of the same size

Flagella

A long, whip-like filament that helps in cell motility

Giardia (Giardia lamblia)

A microorganism that infects the digestive system

Transduction

A process of DNA transfer into a recipient cell that requires bacteriophage packaging Phage accidentally packages host genomic DNA instead of phage DNA. can incorporate into genome

Commensalism

A relationship between two organisms in which one organism benefits and the other is unaffected

Mutualism

A relationship between two species in which both species benefit

Parasitism

A relationship in which one organism benefits and the other is harmed

Gene

A segment of DNA on a chromosome that codes for a specific trait (physical traits)

Plasmid

A small ring of DNA that carries accessory genes separate from those of the bacterial chromosome, R plasmids carry genes for antibiotic resistance

Capsule

A sticky layer that surrounds the cell walls of some bacteria, protecting the cell surface and sometimes helping to glue the cell to surfaces.

Purpose of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

A technique for amplifying a selected region of DNA by rapidly cycling through many rounds of DNA replication, under thermal (temperature) control

Structure of A-B toxins

B portion binds to a receptor on a host cell, A portion has enzymatic activity inside host cells

Lag phase

Bacteria preparing for cell growth

Role of RNA Polymerase

Binds to a promoter sequence of DNA, catalyzes the formation of bonds between nucleotides of mRNA

Death Phase

Build up of toxic waste, with no nutrients left the cells will die

Purpose of translation

Create proteins that express all body traits

Type 2 hypersensitivity

Cytotoxic ANTIBODY mediated cell destruction Ex: Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

Recombinant DNA

DNA produced by combining DNA from different sources is the joining of DNA from 2 different species Allows bacteria to produce human proteins insert a specific eukaryotic DNA sequence into a bacterial plasmid; introns must be removed.

Florence Nightingale

Demonstrated a statistical correlation between sanitation and mortality, Created first nursing school

Sterilization

Destruction of ALL living cells, spores, and/or viruses

Genetic Sequencing

Determining the order of bases on DNA fragments and the order of fragments in a genome.

Baltimore Classification System

Developed by Nobel laureate David Baltimore, Based around mRNA production methods, Separates viruses into seven classes

To what organism/toxin does the DTaP vaccine induces an immune response to?

Diphtheria toxin, Clostridium tetani, Pertussis

What disease does DTaP vaccine protect from?

Diphtheria, tetanus, and whooping cough

BCR (B-cell receptor) diversity

During B/T cell maturation, gene rearrangements produce a very large number of unique BCRs

Substrate Level Phosphorylation

Enzymatically coupled reaction- the loss of a phosphate from an organic molecule releases energy (ATP) and is used to fuel the addition of phosphate to ADP

Fimbriae

Finger or fringe like projections, attachment structures on the surface of some prokaryotes

Lister

First to use disinfectants in surgical procedures

a. The scientist is wanting to do additional experiments with the bacterium and needs one million bacterial cells. If the scientist began with 1000 bacterial cells and the generation time of the bacterium is 30 minutes, how long will it take before there are one million (1,000,000) cells?

Nt= N0 x 2^n N0= (original cell #) 2000 2^n= (generation time) 1 gen= 30min Nt= 1,000,000 2000 at 30 min 4000 at 60min 8000 at 90min ... ... Answer is 5 hours

NAAT

Nucleic Acid Amplification Test

Microbial Classification: pH

Organisms sensitive to changes in acidity because H+ and OH- interfere with H bonding in proteins and nucleic acids

Capsid

Outer protein coat of a virus

Effect of Endotoxin

Part of bacterial structure Released when bacteria die Ex: LPS, Lipoteichoic acid

Which antibiotics target the cell wall?

Penicillin, cephalosporins, Vancomycin, Bacitracin, Monobactams

Autoclave

Piece of equipment used to sterilize articles by way of steam under pressure and/or dry heat

Plasmids

Plasmids often carry genes encoding enzymes that confer resistance to an antibiotic. Plasmids are small circular pieces of DNA. The genes required for bacterial conjugation are carried on a plasmid and can be transferred easily to other bacteria. The loss of a plasmid will not impact essential bacterial functions like DNA replication, transcription, or metabolism.

What disease does Pneumococcal (PCV) vaccine protect from?

Pneumonia, meningitis, and bacteremia

Obligate Anaerobes

Poisoned by oxygen

Cell membrane inhibitors

Polymyxins

Immune evasion strategies of intracellular pathogens

Prevent fusion, survive fusion, and escape phagosome

Fermentation

Process by which cells release energy in the absence of oxygen

Cellular respiration

Process that releases energy by breaking down glucose and other food molecules in the presence of oxygen

RNA Polymerase binds to the ______ region of DNA in transcription.

Promoter region

Translation makes

Proteins

Sigma Factors

Proteins in prokaryotic cells that bind to RNA polymerase and direct it to specific classes of promoters

Antigenic Variation

Protozoans change their surface antigens, each virus has a unique capsid protein, Antibodies to one capsid protein are not effective on another

Louis Pasteur

Proved that bacteria were living things capable of reproducing and potentially acting as a cause of disease, discovered microbes could be attenuated or weakened and used as a vaccine

DNA replication inhibitors

Quinolones

Antigenic drift

Random mutations occur within an existing virus, creating small changes in virus proteins. Reduced but some immunity.

Mode of action of toxic shock syndrome toxin

Rare but potentially fatal disease that results from bacterial production of superantigen.

Sanitation

Reduction of microbe numbers to "safe" levels to meet public heath standards

Memory B cells

Remember the same pathogen for faster antibody production in future infections

Disinfection

Removal of disease-causing microorganisms from inanimate surfaces

Antisepsis

Removal of disease-causing microorganisms from living tissues, such as skin or mucous membrane

Obligate Aerobes

Require oxygen

Cyst

Resting stage for unfavorable conditions

To what organism/toxin does the MMR vaccine induces an immune response to?

Rubeola, rubella, and mumps virus

Mode of action of cholera toxin

Salt imbalance draws water into the gut lumen, causing diarrhea

Transposition

Segments of DNA that move from one location to another in the same or different molecule

Role of resident microbiota: skin

Skin microbiota consists of normally harmless microbes that compete with potential pathogens for nutrients and space

Germ Theory of Disease

Specific diseases are caused by one specific microorganism

Mode of action of tetanus toxin

Spore-forming anaerobe, grows in puncture wounds

Stationary Phase

Stop growing but not going to die because they create stress responses, have a stable population level

MAMPs (microbe-associated molecular patterns)

Structures found on many foreign microbes but NOT on self cells

RNA Polymerase I

Synthesizes RNA polymer from a DNA template during transcription

Role of DNA polymerase

Synthesizes new DNA strand by adding nucleotides covalently to the 3' end of a primer/ DNA strand.

Endogenous antigen

Viral proteins, intracellular bacterial proteins, etc.

Purpose of transcription

To make RNA copies of individual genes that the cell can use in the biochemistry

Purpose of DNA Replication

To make copies of DNA so that every cell has the same instructions

Microbial Classification: Oxygen

Toxic forms of oxygen are highly reactive and excellent oxidizing agents.

DNA using RNA Polymerase is

Transcription

mRNA making tRNA and Ribosomes

Translation

Indirect transmission

Transmission of blood or body fluids through contact with an intermediate contaminated object such as a razor, extractor, nipper, or an environmental surface.

Direct transmission

Transmission of blood or body fluids through touching (including shaking hands), kissing, coughing, sneezing, and talking.

What disease does BCG vaccine protect from?

Tuberculosis

Apicomplexans: Key Structures

Tubular mitochondria, cavities called alveoli, apical complex (host entry structure), pores, microtubules, no flagella or cilia

Structure of antibodies

Two heavy chains (dark green), Two light chains (light green), Joined by disulfide bonds, Fab regions bind antigen (fragment, antigen binding), Fc region (bottom of the Y), Binds Fc receptor on phagocytes/complement, Five different isotypes

Antigenic shift

Two viral strains infect the same cell and the genomes get mixed. This makes a dramatically different virus. Recognized as a novel virus so humans have no immunity.

To what organism/toxin does the Varicella-zoster vaccine induces an immune response to?

Varicella and zoster

PCR tells us the ____ of a specific gene but sequencing tells us the gene's ____.

abundance; makeup

IgE

allergic reactions IgE: - activates mast cells, basophils, and eosinophils - causes degranulation of the cell population.

Repressor

always bound to the operon unless there is lactose present and it gets unbound

-ssRNA

antisense strand; viral RNA is transcribed to a + strand to serve as mRNA for protein synthesis the - is in the 3' to 5' form so it has to be transcribed to the the 5' to3'


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