Microbiology Final Exam Comprehensive & Vocab
A. It paralyzes the muscles of the respiratory tract
Death from Clostridium botulinum is due to which of the following? A. It paralyzes the muscles of the respiratory tract. B. It stimulates the removal of fluid from the tissues. C. It stimulates increased intestinal motility. D. It causes excitation of neurons. E. It prevents gastrointestinal motility.
C. inactivated by organic matter
Desirable qualities in a microbicidal chemical include all but which of the following? A. Rapid action B. Inexpensive C. Inactivated by organic matter D. Broad spectrum E. Soluble in water or alcohol
Immunology vaccinations
Edward Jenner
D. enzymes
Membrane filters are not used to remove A. bacteria from liquids. B. microorganisms from gases. C. spoilage agents from alcoholic beverages. D. enzymes. E. All of the above are used with filters
the study of living things too small to see without magnification
Microbiology
stacked into grana contain pigments & enzymes needed for photosynthesis
thylakoids
C) glucose becomes phosphorylated
whats a common occurance in the three different glucose to pyruvate catabolic pathways? A) NADH is oxidized to NADH+ B) Glucose is reduced by the addition of hydrogen atoms C) glucose becomes phosphorylated D) there is no net ATP production E) CO2 is released
E) all of the above
which are methods of regulation in cell metabolism A) competative inhibition B) feedback control C) enzyme repression D) enzyme induction E) all of the above
D) the initiator tRNA is bound to tryptophan
which of the following is wrong about tRNA A) has a bottom hairpin loop that contains the anticodon B) the tRNA carries a lot of secondary & tertiary structure C) the anticodon binds to specific codons D) the initiator tRNA is bound to tryptophan E) the stem sequence helps to determine which specific amino acid will bind
C) attenuation
which process involves a stem-loop structure in the mRNA as part of its regulation A) enzyme induction B) feedback inhibition C) attenuation D) enzyme repression E) negative control
C) 3
ATP synthase complexes can generate ___ ATP for each NADH that enters electron transport A) 1 B) 2 C)3 D) 4 E) 30
carrier of heredity is DNA
Avery, McCarty, Macleod
D. cell wall
Which structural is not a component of all bacterial cells? A. ribosomes V B. cell membrane C. genetic material D. cell wall E. cytoplasm
DNA is a helix
Wilkins & Franklin
E. all of the above
The cytoskeleton: A. anchors organelles B. provides support. C. produces movement within the cytoplasm. D. helps maintain cell shape. E. all the above
C. Desquamation
The loss of skin cells as a defensive mechanism against pathogens is called: A. sanitation B. intoxication C. desquamation D. maturation E. vasoconstriction F. inflammation
B. basidiospore
The mushrooms you see growing in damp rotting environments produce which type of sexual spore A. zygospore B. basidiospore C. porospore D. microconidium E. arthrospore
C. rRNA
The nucleolus plays a major role in synthesis of A. mRNA. B. tRNA. C. TRNA. D. transcription activation proteins. E. snRNA
D. nasal chamber
The preferred habitat of S. aureus is the A. throat. B. urethra. C. bladder. D. nasal chamber. E. intestines.
C) petroff-hauser counter
What enumeration method doesnt require incubation of the cells, but has the drawbacks of being unable to distinguish living vs. dead prokaryotic cells, works poorly with motile populations & dilute numbers A) filtration B) coulter counters C) petroff-hauser counter D) turbidity E) viable plate counts
E. Iodine/iodophors
What germicidal chemical is used to prepare skin and mucous membranes for surgery and injections, is included in surgical hand scrubs, is used to treat burns, and is used to disinfect equipment and surfaces? A. Quaternary ammonia B. Formaldehyde C. Chloramines D. Glutaraldehyde E. Iodine/iodophors
E. Convalescent
___ carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogen while they are recovering from an infectious disease. A. Incubation B. Passive C. Asymptomatic D. Virulent E. Convalescent
E) primase
___ is required to generate short RNA segments complementary of DNA so DNA replication can begin A) ssb protein B) helicase C) DNA polymerase III D) DNA gyrase E) primase F) DNA polymerase I
B) oxidization of an inorganic substrate
Which feature is most likely associated with a lithotroph? A) contains chlorophyll B) oxidization of an inorganic substrate C) dead organic matter D) ferments carbs E) parasitism of humans
B. chloramine
Which halogen compound is used in large scale water purification? A. hypochlorite B.) chloramine C. formaldehyde D. iodophors E. tincture of iodine
all inclusive term for a drug regardless of its origin for disease treatment
antimicrobials
enhance survival cell communication adherence
biofilms
movement of ions across a membrane to generate activity
chemiosmosis
heart of immune response
cytokines
destroy vegetative cells on inanimate surfaces timed exposure, high concentration
disinfection
desiccated aerosol not as common
droplet nuclei
grow in high salt
halophile
10x or 12.5x
ocular lens magnifications
get electrons and hydrogen from the same organic source
organotrophs
strain: diversity within a species serotypes: antigentic variance within a species
strain vs serotypes
pathogen spreads through the body, usually via circulation
systemic infections
D. haploid; diploid
A ___ organism maintains one single unpaired chromosome whereas a___ organism has a matched set of chromosomes A. haploid; meiotic B. diploid; haploid C. saprobe; diploid D. haploid; diploid E. ciliated; flagellated
D. receptors located primarily on macrophage and B cells
Class II MHC genes code for: A. certain secreted complement components B. self-receptors recognized by T lymphocytes C. all mosaic antigens D. receptors located primarily on macrophage and B cells E. toll-like receptors on macrophage F. CD4 and CD8 receptors
C. Septate
A hypha divided into compartments by cross walls is called\ A. nonseptate B. imperfect C. septate D. perfect E. mycelium
B. LPS
Endotoxins are usually composed of A. protein B. LPS C. fatty acids D. RNA E. cholesterol
combines, genes, biochemical, & cell biology to explain cell molecular function understanding evolution, ID of diseases not growable in lab
Molecular biology
B. Pure
Which kind of culture(s) would be best used for an experiment? A. Mixed B. Pure C. Contaminated D. All the above E. A and B
B. Bright-field
Which microscopic method is most used for general visualization of bacteria from a sample? A. TEM B. Bright-field C. Dark-field D. Fluorescent E. SEM
E. peptidoglycan, amino acids, AND teichoic acids.
Which molecules are associated with the cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria? A. peptidoglycan B. amino acids C. teichoic acids and peptidoglycan D. LPS and peptidoglycan E. peptidoglycan, amino acids, AND teichoic acids.
D. Tetracycline
Which of the following antibiotics blocks the A site of ribosomes and does not allow a charged tRNA to participate in protein synthesis? A. Rifampin B. Erythromycin C. Polymyxin D. Tetracycline E. Trimethoprim
E. all the choices
Which of the following areas of the human body is(are) not colonized by microorganisms? A. respiratory tract B. intestinal tract C. eyes D. skin E all the choices
D. neutrophils
Which of the following blood cells function primarily as phagocytes? A. eosinophils B. lymphocytes C. basophils D. neutrophils E. erythrocytes
E. B and C
Which of the following can serve as antigen-presenting cells? A. T cells B. B cells C. macrophages D. A and B E. B and C F. A and C G. All the above
D. eosinophils
Which of the following cells increase in number during a helminth infection? A. basophils B. macrophages C. neutrophils D. eosinophils E. lymphocytes
B. T-Cells
Which of the following cells most readily passes between the circulatory systems and the lymphatic system? A. B-Cells B. T-Cells C. B and T Cells D. MHC cells E. None of the above
A. A person steps on a nail in the garden & develops tetanus
Which of the following examples would be said to have occurred as the result of a fomite? A. A person steps on a nail in the garden and develops tetanus. B. A camper drinks water from a stream and develops cholera. C. A person is bitten by a tick, and develops Rocky Mountain spotted fever. D. A child develops measles when coughed on at school. E. A person who is bitten by a rabid dog.
E. all of the above
Which of the following factors influence the disease outcome after transmission of a microbe into a host? A. the number of invading microbes B. microbial virulence factors C. the health status of the host D. host genetic factors E. All of these are correct
E. all the choices
Which of the following is (are) true about cephalosporins? A. They, like penicillin, inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis. B. There are five generations of cephalosporins. C. They can sometimes be given to patients with penicillin allergies. D. They can effectively treat infections like meningitis. E. all the choices
B. can cross the placenta
Which of the following is NOT a quality of the IgM antibody class? A. made up of 5 monomer connected by a J chain B. can cross the placenta C. has low affinity D. performs agglutination E. performs neutralization
D. all the choices
Which of the following is a characteristic associated with secondary antibody responses? A. shorter lag phase B. higher antibody titer C. higher antibody affinity D. all the choices E. none of the choices
B. formation of pseudohyphae
Which of the following is a characteristic seen in some budding yeasts during replication? A. formation of aerial hyphae B. formation of pseudohyphae C. formation of vegetative hyphae D. formation of septate hyphae E. formation of coenocytic hyphae
D. strawberry tongue
Which of the following is a sign of scarlet fever? A. intense muscular contractions B. furuncle C. carbuncle D. strawberry tongue E. impetigo
D. osteomyelitis
Which of the following is a systemic disease of S. aureus that infects the bone and is most prevalent in children and adolescents is? A. meningitis B. furuncle C. pyoarthritis D. osteomyelitis E. toxic shock syndrome
E) the ratio of cytosine to adenine is always 1:1
Which of the following is false concerning the double helix? A) There are two Hydrogen bonds btwn adenine & thymine B) The double helix is made of sugars & phosphates C) there are three hydrogen bonds btwn cytosine & guanine D) the helix is right handed E) The ratio of cytosine to adenine is always 1:1
A. Incorrect diagnosis of diseases
Which of the following is not a reason for the increase of infectious disease in the 1990s? A. Incorrect diagnosis of diseases B. Inappropriate use of antibiotics C. The presence of emerging diseases D. More mobile habit and lifestyles E. All have led to a dramatic increase in infectious disease
D. Development of both I and B lymphocytes follows an identical path of activation
Which of the following is not an assumption which can be derived from the clonal selection theory? A. Lymphocyte specificity is preprogrammed B. Each genetically different type of lymphocyte expresses a single specificity C. Any lymphocyte that could possibly mount a harmful response against self molecules is eliminated or suppressed D. Development of both I and B lymphocytes follows an identical path of activation E. The first introduction of each distinct type of antigen into the immune system selects a genetically distinct lymphocyte and causes it to expand into a clone of cells that can react to that antigen
B. Erythromycin
Which of the following is only bacteriostatic? A. Polymyxin B. Erythromycin C. Isoniazid D. Rifampin E. Rocephin
C. spleen
Which of the following lymphoid organs and tissues has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the blood? A. lymph nodes B. thymus C. spleen D. GALT E. tonsils
B. tetanus toxin, since it's an exotoxin
Which of the following make good antigens? A. starch, with its repetitive sugars B. tetanus toxin, since it's an exotoxin C. hemoglobin, with its repetitive amino acids D. oils, with the glycerol and fatty acids E. glycogen with its large number of carbohydrate molecules
A. lysosomes
Which of the following organelles does a protein NOT go through on its way out of a cell? A. lysosomes B. rough ER C. vesicles D. Golgi complex v E. A protein must go through all of the above before secretion.
A. CD4
Which of the following recognizes and binds to MHC II antigens and helps stabilize the binding of antigenic determinants to T cell receptors? A. CD4 В МНС I C. CD26 D. CD8 E. CCR5
D. they function by cross-linking proteins
Which of the following statements about quaternary ammonium compounds is FALSE? A. They are a type of detergent. B. It has germicidal properties C. Some organisms carry resistance to them. D. They function by cross-linking proteins. E. They are harmless to humans except at high concentrations.
E. all are true
Which of the following statements are true of exotoxins? A. Exotoxins are proteins B. Exotoxins' actions are dependent on their specific structure. C. Exotoxins can be utilized to make vaccines because they are key virulence factors D. Exotoxins are sensitive to heat E. All of these are true.
A. They are formed in response to an encounter with an antigen. OR E. Scientists estimate that each person forms at least 1011 different types of B lymphocytes with distinct BCRs.
Which of the following statements concerning B cell receptors (BCRs) is FALSE? A. They are formed in response to an encounter with an antigen. B. They are complementary in shape to a specific antigenic determinant that they may or may not encounter. C. They are bound to the surface of B lymphocytes and have two antigen-binding sites. D. Each B lymphocyte is randomly generated with antibody variable regions that determine its BCR. E. Scientists estimate that each person forms at least 1011 different types of B lymphocytes with distinct BCRs.
E. A single cytotoxic T lymphocyte can kill many infected target cells.
Which of the following statements regarding the cell-mediated immune response is true? A. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes do not require antigen presentation to become activated. B. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes interact with antibodies that have bound antigen to identify their target. C. Helper T lymphocytes have no role in the activation of cytotoxic T lymphocytes. D. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes kill by producing hydrogen peroxide. E. A single cytotoxic T lymphocyte can kill many infected target cells.
B. Chemotherapeutic drug
Which of the following terms refers to any chemical regardless of the source, that is used in treatment, relief, or prophylaxis of disease? A. Antibiotic B. Chemotherapeutic drug C. Antagonistic control D. Antiseptic E. Disinfectant
B. Isoniazid
Which of these drugs have the narrowest spectrum? A. Tetracycline B. Isoniazid C. Erythromycin D. Rocephin E. Amoxicillin
B. diversity region
Which region is included in the heavy chain of B-cells, but is not found in the light chain? A. constant region B. diversity region C. receptor region D. variable region E. joining region
C) translation begins at a site called the promoter
Which statement about prokaryotic gene expression is false? A) more than one RNA polymerase can be transcribing a specific gene at a time? B) more than one ribosome can be translating a specific transcript at a given time C) translation begins at a site called the promoter D) transcription stops at a site called the terminator sequence E) some amino acids are coded for by more than one codon F) the RNA polymerase must interact with the Shine-Dalgarno sequence prior to beginning transcription
ph 8.5-11.5
alkalophile
sterile
all internal tissues, organs and fluids are considered what?
reversible, binds an activator to an inhibitor
allostery
a substance made by natural metabolic processes of some microbes that can inhibit or destroy another microbe
antibiotic
any molecule seen as foreign by the immune system
antigen
destroy or inhibit microbes on animate surfaces H2O2
antiseptics
ancient resist extreme environments
archaebacteria
C. Peroxisomes
are organelles that contain oxidase and catalase to help degrade waste derived from oxygen dependent reactions. A. Lysosomes B. Mesosomes C. Peroxisomes D. Vesicles E. Nucleosomes
no
are viruses living?
vaccines antigens for specific antigens, helps form memory
artificial active immunity
cant make antigens yourself no memory (i think)
artificial passive immunity
mitosis
asexual spore formation
E) group translocation of glucose to glucose-6-P
at what point of the Entner-Douderoff pathway has the pathway the greatest deficit regarding energy A) the conversion of ribulose-5-P to xylose-5-P B) the formation of pyruvate from phosphoenolpyruvate C) the formation of 2-keto-3-deoxy-6-P-gluconic acid from 6-P-gluconic acid D) the forming of fructose-1,6-bisP from fructose-6-P E) the conversion of 1,3-bisphosphoglyceric acid to 3-P-glyceric acid F) group translocation of glucose to glucose-6-P
get carbon from inorganic sources
autotrophs
ANY chemical used in treatment, relief, or prophylaxis of a disease
chemotherapeutic drug
get energy from redox reactions (organic or inorganic)
chemotroph
forms & develops in spore itself
chlamydospores
discrete units with equal mass of DNA to protein
chromosome
slow, long lasting symptoms
chronic
kill
cidal
D. pyrogens
circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are: A. complement В. leukotrienes C. leukotrienes D. pyrogens E. lysozymes F. defensins
organic, tightly bound to enzyme
cofactor
passed btwn hosts
communicable infection
structurally similar, block active site
competitive inhibition
directs light through spectrum
condenser lens
not enclosed, grow freely
conidospores
made at a constant rate for metabolism
constitutive enzyme
catch all term for destruction, removal, or reduction of microbes regardless of method
decontamination
remove/reduce microbes on living surfaces
degermination
bodily contact btwn hosts
direct transmission
any deviation from health
disease
expansion of immunology, understanding what makes a pathogen, better treatment options
disease
large particles expelled that have a limited travel distance
droplets
steady frequency over a long time in a set place
endemic
made and function in cell
endoenzyme
an increase in disease above what is expected
epidemic
made in cell function outside cell
exoenzymes
end product inhibits start of pathway
feedback control
functions without O2 recycles NADH to NADH+ does NOT use all the energy
fermentation
internal microtubule filaments (9+2) kinetosome (9+0) motility & biofilm formation
flagella
infection starts at one site, breaks loose, establishes itself in another
focal infections
inanimate objects that can harbor & transmit pathogens
fomite
E) all of the above
for mutations to affect a population of microbes, they must be A)inheritable B)permenent C)beneficial D)A & B E)all of the above
mycology not photosynthetic cell wall live on something else
fungi
parasitology multicellular complex lifestyles not always need a microscope to see
helminths
gain nutrients from organic sources
heterotrophic
A) NADH & CO2
in TCA cycle, when isocitrate is converted to alpha-ketogluterate, ___ & ___ are made? A) NADH & CO2 B) NAD+ & CO2 C) NADH & H2O D) FADH2 & H2O E) succinyl CoA & CO2
B) stationary
in this phase of growth, cells are either not growing, or growing at a rate that is the same as cell death rate. thus, no net increase in cell number is observed A) death B) stationary C) lag D) exponential E) this condition may describe more than one of the above
the # of new cases over a certain time compared to a normal ,healthy population
incidence
conditions needed to grow organisms
incubation
enzymes regulated closely, only used when substrate is present
induced enzyme
entry, establishment, and multiplication of pathogenic organisms
infection
growing the organism in plates, liquid cultures, & live organisms
inoculation
B) there is a #2-#3 interaction in the leader sequence which allows transcription to continue
int the Trp operon, when theres a lower mid-level amount of the animo acid, what happens? A) enzyme repression occurs preventing any mRNA production B) there is a #2-#3 interaction in the leader sequence which allows transcription to continue C) the ribosome keeps up with the RNA polymerase forming a #3-#4 interaction in the leader sequence thereby terminating transcription D) the MRNA is degraded after transcription E) we see positive control occur due to the interaction of the inducer and the activator protein, leading to increased transcription
D. these diseases are caused by viruses
is inappropriate to prescribe antibacterial agents to treat colds or flu because A. the microbes involved can develop resistance rapidly. B. these diseases are transmitted by endospores, which are hard to kill. C. these diseases exhibit cross resistance. D. these diseases are caused by viruses. E. these diseases can act synergistically with each other.
get electrons and hydrogen from from inorganic sources
lithotrophs
restricted to one site
local infections
digestion & self-destruction
lysosomes
F) nowhere
mRNA posttranscriptional processing in prokaryotes occurs: A) in the nucleus B) in the ribosome C) in the cytoplasm D) in the periplasmic space E) in the mitochondria F) nowhere
CHNOPS very abundant
macronutrients
the apparent increase in an object's size
magnification
isnt being spread as a part of the animal's lifestyle, its just picked up by the animal
mechanical vector
all of the chemical rxns and physical workings of a cell
metabolism
need O2, grow just below surface
microaerophile
trace elements essential, but dont need a lot Zn, Mn, Fe, Ni, Mb
micronutrients
carbon from organic sources get electrons and hydrogen from inorganic sources
mixotrophs
pre-formed immunity from someone else (breastfeeding)
natural passive immunity
ph 5.5-8
neutrophile
system for naming
nomenclature
will not go back to liquid
non convertible solid agar
often picked up from nonliving reservoirs
non-communicable infections
hospital-acquired infections
nosocomial infections
how chemical compounds get from the environment to an organism to be used for cellular activities
nutrition
4x, 10x, 40x, 100x
objective lens magnifications
A) obligate aerobes
organisms the must use oxygen as a final electron acceptor in electron transport chains are_ A) obligate aerobes B) facultative aerobes C) anaerobes D) obligate anaerobes E) aerotolerant
can survive/grow in high osmolarity with something other than salt
osmophile
a cross-continental epidemic
pandemic
lag phase: adaptation, some growth log phase: exponential growth stationary phase: cells made=cells dying death phase: exponential death
parts of as growth curve
capacity of a microbe to cause disease in a healthy host qualitative
pathogenicity
degrades wastes from aerobic reactions self-replicate
peroxisomes
get energy from light
phototroph
self-replicating, circular in prokaryotes, few fungi, & protozoa not essential, but have additional attributes
plasmid
total of new and existing cases within a defined time in a defined population
prevalence
inorganic, lightly bound to enzyme
prosthetic group
eukaryotes unicellular no cell wall
protozoa
protozoology single celled eukaryotes most free living sexual, asexual, or both (do whatever it takes)
protozoa
where an infection naturally resides
rerservoir
ability to distinguish two close objects dependent on wavelength & numeric aperture
resolution
cleansing technique to reduce (not 100%) microbes on inanimate surfaces
sanitation
gain organic matter from dead sources
saprobes
D) transposons
self moving pieces of DNA that can be incorporated into plasmid & chromosomes are known as A) conjugates B) palindromes C) lysogens D) transposons E) transformations
A) each daughter DNA molecule is made of one original strand and one new strand
semiconservative DNA replication means that A)Each daughter DNA molecule is made of one original strand and one new strand B)nucleotides are constantly being recycled as cells make DNA C)the cell can proofread its newly synthesized DNA only part of the time D) the sequence of a DNA molecule is preserved as it is being replicated E) each DNA strand if replicated differently
individual or object from which the infection is acquired NOT always identical
source
rigid twisting structure external flagella
spirilla
flexible twitsting structure flagella on inside
spirochetes
occasional, irregular
sporadic
enclosed in sporangium
sporangiospores
grape-like bunches random division
staphylo-
halt the function of
static
chains of cocci same-plane division
strepto-
no noticeable symptoms
subclinical
System for organizing, classifying & naming living things
taxonomy
F) glyoxylate bypass
the ability of prokaryotes to grow on small carbon molecules yet still maintain a balance btwn their energy generating and carbon retaining abilities is provided for by which metabolic process? A) Pentose phosphate pathway B) electron transport C) entner-douderoff pathway D) TCA cycle E) glycolysis F) glyoxylate bypass
A) post-translational modification
the covalent attachment of a phosphate to a protein after its formation is an example of A) post-translational modification B) transcriptional regulation C) protein degredation D) protein secretion E) oxidative phosphorylation
E) is an example of negative control AND is affected by catabolic repression
the lac operon A) Is an example of negative control B) is affected by catabolic repression C) produces lactose D) is an example of a regulation E) is an example of negative control AND is affected by catabolic repression
A) commensalism
the obligatory relationship where one organism benefits from the association while the other is unharmed is A) commensalism B) synergism C) antagonism D) mutualism E) parasitism
B) DNA pol III
the primary enzyme needed in the continuous replicsation of DNA in the 5' to 3' direciton is___ A)DNA pol I B) DNA pol III C) DNA gyrase D) primase E) helicase F) DNA ligase G) primase
F) A & C
the termination of transcription can be done by___ A) the forming of a stem-loop structure at the end of the mRNA B) the reaching of a stop codon C) the association of rho to specific sequences D) A & B E)B & C F) A & C
D) conjugation
transfer of genetic info via direct cell-cell contact via a pilus is called A) trandformation B) transduction transfection C) conjugation D) conjugation E) replication
D) A change in a nucleotide in DNA
two offspring cells are most likely to inherit which of the following from the parent cell? A) A change in a nucleotide in mRNA B) A change in a nucleotide in tRNA C) A change in a nucleotide in rRNA D) A change in a nucleotide in DNA E) A change in a protein
D) 36
under ideal conditions, the complete aerobic oxidation of one molecule of a glucose by a yeast allows a net gain of how many ATP? A) 2 B) 4 C) 38 D) 36 E) 0
transfer from mother to fetus (not common)
vertical transmission
quantifiable measure of pathogens ability to cause disease
virulence
F) A & D
what characteristics differentiate aerobic respiration from anaerobic respiration? A) the molecule utilized as the terminal electron carrier B) the loss of substrate level phosphorylation during the process C) the forming of water after reaching the final electron acceptor D) the amount of ATP generated E)A & C F) A & D G) all of the above
B) the reduction potential btwn the redox reactions is smaller in this complex thereby releasing less energy which decreases the ability to move more protons
when considering the movement of protons across the membrane via various complexes in the ETC, why fors complex IV move less protons across the membrane compared to the other pumps? A) the enzymes in complex IV divert some of the energy to regenerate NAD+, therefore leaving less for proton movement B) the reduction potential btwn the redox reactions is smaller in this complex thereby releasing less energy which decreases the ability to move more protons C) the presence of ATP synthetase next to complex preventing pumping due to the movement of electrons into the cell & ATP production D) the reduction potential btwn the redox reactions in the complex releases a lot of energy that gets lost as heat, instead of being harnessed for moving the protons E) the cell has moved so many protons by this point and is unable to push against the concentration gradient that has formed
E) lactose loss results in a repressor conformational change leading to operator binding & repression of transcription
when lactose is low, how is the operon regulation A) the repressor binds to the operator independent of lactose allowing for transcription to occur B) lactose acts as a corepressor which binds to the repressor leading to binding of the operator C) lactose is the inducer which by binding to the repressor prevents binding to the operator leading to transcription D) lactose controls the relative amount of transcription by reducing the mRNA available for translation E) lactose loss results in a repressor conformational change leading to operator binding & repression of transcription
C) a series of chemical reactions in which NADH is produced from the oxidation of pyruvic acid
which best describes the krebs cycle? A) the oxidation of pyruvic acid B) the way cells produce CO2 C) a series of chemical reactions in which NADH is produced from the oxidation of pyruvic acid D) a method of producing ATP via phosphorylating ADP E) a series of chemical reactions in which lots of ATP are directly produced from the oxidation of pyruvic ascid
C) enzymes always require cofactors
which is false about enzymes? A) enzymes are greatly affected by temp. and pH B) enzymes have unique shape, specificity, and function C) enzymes always require cofactors D) enzymes are not consumed or permanently damaged by the reaction E) enzymes act as organic catalysts to speed up the rate of cellular reactions F) all are correct G) none are correct
E) all are true
which is/are true about DNA replication A) it starts at the origin of replication B) nucleotides are added to the 3' end C) it required an RNA primer to get started D) it utilizes polymerases E) All are true
C) macromolecules are converted into cell structures via catabolism
which of the following statements about cellular metabolism issues FALSE A) energy obtained from nutrients or light is stored in ATP bonds B) enzymes are used in both catabolic & anabolic reactions C) macromolecules are converted into cell structures via catabolism D) the goal of metabolism is reproduction of the organism E) ATP is used in the forming of macromolecules
E. All of the above
Which of the following influence(s) the efficiency of an antimicrobial agent? A. concentration of the agent B. duration of exposure C. temperature D. pH E. All the above choices
C. support
Which of the following is a primary bacterial cell wall function? A. transport B. motility C. support D. adhesion E. genetic exchange
C. Nonionizing radiation
Which of the following processes is used to disinfect not sterilize? A. Steam under pressure B. Ionizing Radiation C. Nonionizing Radiation D. Dry Heat E. None of the above
phycology photosynthetic eukaryotes
algae
poor aseptic techniques that introduce an unknown into a culture
contaminated culture
distinguish objects from their background
contrast
waterborne or foodborne
fecal-oral transmission
C) RNA polymerase
gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks ___ from initiating transcription A) DNA ligase B) DNA polymerase C) RNA polymerase D) the operator E) a corepressor
chemical agent used on both surfaces, primarily target pathogens
germicide
anhered to cell membrane -protects from dehydration -cell-cell recognition & communication not in cells with cell walls
glycocalyx
get carbon from organic sources (ex. saprobes & parasites)
heterotroph
due to normal life memory of pathogens
natural active immunity
only protein
simple enzyme
cause disease in healthy host
true pathogens
E) all are involved
which is involved in translation A) rRNA B) tRNA C) mRNA D) both mRNA & tRNA E) mRNA, rRNA, & tRNA
C. slime
A ___ layer consists of unorganized polysaccharide material outside the cell wall that can be easily removed. A. capsule B. glycocalyx C. slime D. biofilm E. lipopolysaccharide
D. A & B
A disadvantage of chlorine is what? A. susceptibility to organic load B. susceptible to light and pH C. bacteria can quickly gain resistance to them D. A and B E. B and C F. A and C G. All the above
C. they cause diarrhea by targeting normal flora
A disadvantage of the broad-spectrum penicillin is A. they can't be taken orally B. they only target a small subset of microorganisms C. )they cause diarrhea by targeting normal flora D. they are very expensive E. are not effective against gram positive organisms
C. reducing the internal concentration of the drug by active removal from the cell
A drug efflux pump is responsible for A. coupling group translocation with enzymatic inactivation of a drug B. attaching adenyl groups to a drug thereby preventing it from binding its target C. reducing the internal concentration of the drug by active removal from the cell D. complexing with the drug so it can't bind with its cellular target E. creating point mutations that cause an increase in drug resistance.
B) a string of nucleotides that can be decoded by an enzyme to produce a functional RNA molecule
A gene is: A) an organisms entire complement of DNA B) a string of nucleotides that can be decoded by an enzyme to produce a functional RNA molecule C) a string of nucleotides that can be decoded by an enzyme to produce a protein D) an enzyme involved in the conversion of DNA into RNA E) All of the above
A. complement
A group of interacting serum proteins that provide a nonspecific defense mechanism is A. complement. B. interferon. C. glycoprotein. D. lysozyme. E. leukotriene
A. acidic conditions
A human obligate intracellular parasite can grow in phagolysosomes. From this information we can assume that this organism can grow in A. acidic conditions. B. alkaline conditions. C. temperatures greater than 42°C. D. environments extremely high in sodium chloride. E. very salty conditions
D. selective medium
A medium that enhances the growth of one organism in a mixed population is termed a(n) A. synthetic medium. B. specific culture medium. C. complex medium. D. selective medium. E. differential medium
E. only A & C
A microorganism can limit access of an antibiotic by all the following except: A. modify the permeability of outer membrane porins B. RNA methylation C. providing active efflux pumps D. All are correct mechanisms for limiting access of the antibiotic into the cell E. Only A and C are correct
A) parasite
A pathogen would most accurately be described as a___ A) parasite B) commensal C) saprobe D)symbiont E)autotroph
E. IgG
A person who has received multiple vaccinations against a disease should have primarily which of these types of antibodies against that agent 2 years later? A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE D. IgM E. IgG
B. mycelium
A tangle of fungal strands is generally known as a A. bud. B. mycelium. C. germ tube. D. spore. E. hyphae
D. immunoglobulin
A term synonymous with antibody is A. antigen. B. epitope. C. determinant. D. immunoglobulin. Е. МНС
B. nutrient gathering and growth
A trophozoite is a life cycle stage involved in A. dormancy. B. nutrient gathering and growth. C. passage between hosts. D. sexual reproduction. E. host targeting
C. Sporangiospores
A type of fungi reproduces by asexual spore formation and the spores are enclosed in a membrane. This fungus is in what group? A. Conidiospores B. Zygospores C. Sporangiospores D. Ascospores E. Chlamydospores
E. both A and C
Activation of B cells which is caused by communication between the cytokines results in A. increase in DNA synthesis B. decrease in overall organelle content C. increase in overall size D decrease in metabolic activity E. both A and C
C. To become activated, lymphocytes require exposure to the antigenic determinant for which they are specific.
Adaptive immunity is sometimes also called acquired immunity. Which of the following statements provides a basis for the alternative name? A. Lymphocytes of the adaptive immune system are highly specific for a single antigenic determinant. B. Activated lymphocytes produce daughter cells that are identical in specificity and function. C. To become activated, lymphocytes require exposure to the antigenic determinant for which they are specific. D. Activated lymphocytes may persist for years in the body. E. Lymphocytes reactive to normal body components are removed
C. antibodies
After activation, B cells that differentiate into plasma cells produce lots of A. antibiotics B. complement C. antibodies D. cytotoxins E. granzymes
B. selects for and expands the correct clonal cell to be able to deal with the foreign entity
After the immune system has come in contact and recognized a foreign antigen, the second step of the clonal selection theory explains how the immune system ___ A. begins to produce antibody B. selects for and expands the correct clonal cell to be able to deal with the foreign entity C. undergoes the amnestic response and the subsequent isotype switch necessary to deal with an antigen D. recognizes primarily proteins as the dominant antigen type used to dictate the immune response E. eliminates clonally produced lymphocytes that have developed a receptor that recognizes self as a foreign entity.
D. dehydrate the cells
Alcohols at a concentration of 100% will do what. A. denature proteins В. sterilize the treated target C. bind prosthetic groups within enzymes D. dehydrate the cells E. dissolve cell membrane lipids
G. A & C
Alcohols work by A. dissolving membranes B. cross-linking proteins C. coagulating proteins D. reducing protein translation E. A and B F. B and C G. A and C
B. low level of toxicity
All of the following are advantages to using aldehydes to control microbial growth EXCEPT: A. Penetrates very well B. Low level of toxicity C. High level sterilant D. Potent even with high organic loads E. Only a short exposure time is necessary
E. cell wall
All of the following are found in some or all protozoa except: A. motility B. ectoplasm and endoplasm C. heterotrophic nutrition D. formation of a cyst stage E. cell wall
C. have high toxicity
All of the following pertain to fluoroquinolones except: A. broad spectrum B. include ciprofloxacin C. have high toxicity D. used to treat respiratory, urinary, and sexually transmitted infections E. readily absorbed from intestines
E. requires an ultraviolet radiation source
All of the following pertain to the transmission microscope except: A. produces a very high resolution B. requires heavy metal salts to produce contrast C. samples must be dead D. requires special sample preparation before visualization E. requires an ultraviolet radiation source
A. It is found only in Gram-positive bacteria.
All of the following statements about the periplasmic space are true except: A. It is found only in Gram-positive bacteria. B. It is located between the plasma membrane and outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria. C. It contains hydrolytic enzymes and binding proteins involved in nutrient acquisition. D. It is well defined in Gram-negative bacteria. E. All the above are true.
D. fast degredation
All of these are good drug characteristics EXCEPT: A. selective toxicity and low side effects B. complements the hosts defenses C. does not lead to resistance D. fast degradation E. no hypersensitivity (allergy) to the drug
C. catalase
All staphylococci can be differentiated from all streptococci because only staphylococci produce the enzyme ___ that is easily detected in the lab. A. coagulase B. mucinase C. catalase D. hyaluronidase E. erythrogenic toxin
F. A & C
Amoxicillin has the advantage over penicillin G because A. better absorption in the gut B. less drug resistance C. acid stability D. A and B E. B and C F. A and C G. A, B and C
progressed microscopes first protozoa & bacteria led to fields of study (all except virology)
Antoni van Leeuwenhoek
C. Cell-mediated response
As a clinician, I perform an organ transplant without adequately typing the person and donor. Based on this information, what adaptive response is the most likely to occur? A. Humoral response B. Complement response C. Cell-mediated response D. Inflammatory response E. Phagocytic response
E) Silent mutation
As bacterial DNA replicates, a point mutation occurs in which an adenine is changed to a cytosine. Although the mutation changes the codon nsequence, it does not change the resulting amino acid in the protein. This would be best described as a__ A) Nonsense mutation B) Missense mutation C) Splicing site mutation D) Frameshift mutation E) Silent mutation
A. Bind & prevent the action of B-lactamases
Augmentin was created to do what? A. Bind and prevent the action of B-lactamases B. Target the 30S subunit of ribosomes C. Prevent mutation in the RNA polymerase so the antimicrobial can function D. Block the active site of enzymes involved in folic acid synthesis E. Reduce penicillin allergies
humoral immunity
B cells
B. cleaving the ring structure of penecillin
B-lactamase provides resistance to penicillin by A. modifying the transpeptidase involved in cell wall synthesis. B. cleaving the ring structure of penicillin. C. pumping penicillin out of the bacterial cell. D. none of the above. E. preventing uptake of the antibiotic into the cell
D) shrivel
Bacteria living in a freshwater stream thatre moved to salty seawater would: A) be in a hypotonic solution B) gain water C) be in an isotonic solution D) shrivel E) none are correct
A. are anchored to the cell by a basal body.
Bacterial flagella A. are anchored to the cell by a basal body. B. are composed of pilin. C. are surrounded by an extension of the cytoplasmic membrane. D. are composed of tubulin in hollow microtubules in a "9+2" arrangement. E. utilize the kinetosome to produce movement
C. herd immunity
Be vaccinating the bulk of the population we are trying to provide protection by A. artificial active immunity B. complement priming C. herd immunity D. plasma cell production of antibiotics E. natural immunity
E. blocking the release of acetylcholine thereby preventing muscular contraction
Botulin works by: A. lysing red blood cells causing inflammation and tissue destruction B. preventing protein synthesis C. preventing the release of a neurotransmitter causing severe muscular contractions D. breaking down connective tissues and basement membranes, facilitating rapid spread E. blocking the release of acetylcholine thereby preventing muscular contraction
D) it has 5' to 3' excision activity
DNA polymerase I can remove the primers generated during lagging strand synthesis because: A) it has a 3' to 5' excision activity B) it can ligate complementary DNA strand together C) it is considered the replicative enzyme D) it has 5' to 3' excision activity E) it is a topoisomerase
E. screens and selects for T cells that can interact with MHC.
During development, positive selection ____ A. verifies that the B cell receptor can bind to MHC B. allows for general macrophage Fe receptors to binding to the constant region of antibody molecules. C. eliminates B cell receptors that would recognize self-molecules as foreign. D. clonally expands the number of specific T cell clones so that there is enough present to respond to a threat. E. screens and selects for T cells that can interact with MHC. F. all the choices are correct.
D. all of the above
Edema is beneficial during inflammation because: A. it allows for more neutrophils to infiltrate the area B. it prevents the spread of the pathogen C. it dilutes any toxic substances that have been introduced D. all the above E. A and C only
A. A dormant cell type
Endospores are A. a dormant cell type. B. a form of reproduction. C. an obligate intracellular parasite. D. sensitive to damaging environmental conditions. E. reproductive structures formed on the inside of cells.
understanding role of microbial communities (biofilms), bioremediation, role of synthesis
Environmental microbiology
C) constitutive enzymes
Enzymes thatre produced all the time are___ A) exoenzymes B) endoenzymes C) constitutive enzymes D) induced enzymes E) apoenzymes
E. determination of G + C base concentration
Genetic and molecular analysis for bacterial identification can involve: A. specific antibodies to the bacterial cell antigens B. methods to identify cell enzymes C. analysis of the appearance of colonies D. a microscope to determine cell morphology E. determination of G + C base concentration
A. Bacillus are aerobic, while Clostridium are anaerobic.
How are Bacillus species differentiated from Clostridium species? A. Bacillus are aerobic, while Clostridium are anaerobic. B. Bacillus form endospores, while Clostridium do not. C. Bacillus are Gram negative, while Clostridium are Gram positive. D. Bacillus are catalase negative, while Clostridium are catalase positive. E. Bacillus are rods, while Clostridium are cocci.
D. They have hyaluronic acid capsules
How do group A streptococci camouflage themselves from white blood cells? A. They stain as Gram-positive. B. They grow in chains or pairs. C. They produce streptokinase, which breaks down blood clots. D. They have hyaluronic acid capsules. E. They have protein M in their capsule, which destabilizes complement and interferes with opsonization.
C. As free-living and harmless organisms
How do most microorganisms exist in nature? A. As parasites B. As mutualists (as in the stomach of cattle) C. As free-living and harmless organisms D. Derive nutritional support from other organisms. E. As single, solitary organisms
swan neck flask (allow dust to activate growth) shut down abiogenesis germ theory & metabolism
Louis Pasteur
C. Dust in the air was the source for microorganisms.
Louis Pasteur used a "swan-necked" flask to prove that A. Air contained vital forces for the generation of life. B. Anaerobic bacteria required this set-up for growth. C. Dust in the air was the source for microorganisms. D. Contamination is due to abiogenesis.
tobacco mosiac disease virus contagium vivum fluidium, virology
Martinus Beijerinck & Dimitri Ivanoski
discovered microbes tole in N & S cycles environmental microbio (role of microbes & decomposers) biomediation
Martinus Beikerinck & Sergei Winogradsky
A. irreverisble coagulation of proteins
Moist heat kills microorganisms by A. irreversible coagulation of proteins. B. destruction of carbohydrates in the cell wall. C. denaturation of nucleic acids. D. dissolving the capsule. E. dehydration of proteins
E. the characteristic size, shape and arrangements of the organism
Morphology is defined as the A. the study of organisms that are too small to be seen without the aid of a microscope B. evolutionary relatedness between organisms C. the environment in which an organism lives D. organelle used to produce energy for the cell E. the characteristic size, shape and arrangements of the organism
B. granulocytes
Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are called that, in a stained blood smear, appear with identifying, characteristic colors. A. erythrocytes B. granulocytes C. agranulocytes D. lymphocytes E. platelets
C. the ability to distinguish between two adjacent objects
Resolution is best described as A. the ability to view something that is small. B. the ability to magnify a specimen. C. the ability to distinguish between two adjacent objects. D. the difference between two waves of electromagnetic radiation E. the ability to distinguish an object from the background.
Koch's postulates: -agent is always present -have to be able to isolate agent -once isolated, must be able to reproduce
Robert Koch
E. cilia
Short, hairlike structures used only by eukaryotic cells for movement are called A. pili. B. flagella. C. fimbriae. D. pseudopodia. E. cilia.
B. Directly respond to extracellular antigens
T Helper 1 cells do all except... A. Helps increase chemotaxis, phagocytosis and make more TNF B. Directly respond to extracellular antigens C. Increase Tc cell activity D. Assist in cell mediated immunity E. Use CD4 to recognize pathogens
D. cytotoxic T cells
T cells that eliminate intracellular infections are ___ A. regulatory I cells B. helper T cells C. suppressor T cells D. cytotoxic T cells E. neutrophils
B. suppress cell-mediated immunity OR E. All are correct functions of T helper 2 cells
T helper 2 cells do all the following except: A. activate B cells B. suppress cell-mediated immunity C. assist in B cell antigen recognition D. interact with antigen presenting cells E. All are correct functions of T helper 2 cells
E. Koch's postulates
Taxonomy does not involve: A. nomenclature B. classification C. taxa D. identification E. Koch's postulates
C) the binding site of RNA polymerase
The -35 sequence found within promoters is: A) the site where DNA unwinding occurs prior to transcription B) the point where the ribosome binds to mRNA C) the binding site of RNA polymerase D) the sequence responsible for transcription & translation E) the initiation point for primase, helicase, and ssb protein interaction prior to replication
1 and 2
The Archaebacteria (Select all thatre true) 1. are microscopic 2. are commonly found in extreme environments 3. are pathogenic to animals 4. contain mitochondria 5. are commons soil organisms
D. memory cells were nonexistent within the human population
The COVID-19 outbreak was dangerous like various major outbreaks of influenza for what reason? A antibody is not effective against the viruses B. too many people received the vaccine leading to adaption of the pathogen C. the disease progresses quickly so that the activate immune system can't respond D. memory cells were nonexistent within the human population E. it developed tremendous antibiotic resistance
D. cell wall carbohydrates
The Lancefield classification scheme differentiates streptococci based on: A. patterns of hemolysis on blood agar B. the presence of capsules C. ability to produce catalase D. cell wall carbohydrates E. All of the above are correct
C. MHC class I
The MHC class of genes found on all nucleated cells and is important in tissue rejection of transplants is A. MHC class II B. MHC class II C. MHC class I D. toll-like class E. CD8
D) is the site where amino acids are linked together on the ribosome
The P-site A) is found on the polymerase enzyme B) is an allosteric site C) is a promoter site D) is the site where amino acids are linked together on the chromosome E) is the site where incoming charged tRNA come into the ribosome F) is an allosteric site AND is a promoter site
A. exfoliation toxin
The S. aureus product that causes scalded skin syndrome is/are A. exfoliation toxin. B. lipases. C. leucocidins. D. protein M. E. All the choices are correct.
C. morphological differences
The Whittaker system uses what primary criteria in arranging and classifying organisms? A. phylogenetic data B. size C. morphological differences D. chemical composition E. rRNA sequence differences
C. Tetracylines
The ___ are drugs that deposit in developing teeth and cause a permanent discoloration. A. Sulfonamides B. Beta-lactams C. Tetracyclines D. Macrolides E. Polymyxins
A) induced fit
The ___ model is the current model for explaining how the active site of an enzyme holds its substrate into place A) induced fit B) hydrogen bond C) lock and key D) allosteric E) reduction
B. spinal interneurons
The action of tetanus exotoxin is on the A. neuromuscular junction B. spinal interneurons C. sensory neurons D. cerebral cortex E. All the above are targeted
B. Diplobacilli
The arrangement of bacilli in pairs is described as a ___ A. Palisade B. Diplobacilli C.Vibrio D. Streptobacilli E. Staphylobacilli
B. infections often lead to pus formation
The bacteria Streptococcus and Staphylococcus are considered pyogenic because A. they often cause fevers B. infections often lead to pus formation C. they produce catalase D. they activate macrophage E. they are gram positive cocci
C. refraction
The bending of light as it passes from one medium to another is termed A. reflection B. resolution C. refraction D. reaction E. reasoning
E. erythrogenic toxin
The bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever is due to: A. enterotoxins B. hemolysins C. toxic shock syndrome toxin D. exfoliative toxin E. erythrogenic toxin
D. the spirilla is shorter rigid twisting bacterium, and a spirochete is longer flexible twisting bacterium.
The difference between a spirilla and a spirochete is that A. the spirilla is a round cocci, and the spirochete has a negative gram stain B. the spirilla is a shorter rigid twisting bacterium, and a spirochete has the sarcina morphology C. the spirilla is a longer flexible twisting bacterium, and a spirochete is shorter, rigid twisting bacterium D. the spirilla is shorter rigid twisting bacterium, and a spirochete is longer flexible twisting bacterium. E. the spirilla is often found in palisades whereas the spirochete is typically in tetrads
E. erysipelas
The disease caused by Streptococcus pyogenes is characterized by significant edema of the affected area plus tenderness and a shiny, bright red lesion with clearly defined borders. It often will target the face. A. scarlet fever B. impetigo C. necrotizing fasciitis D. cellulitis E. erysipelas
B) ATP
The enzyme aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase needs __ to be able to attach an amino acid to its cognate tRNA molecule A) NADH B) ATP C) ADP D) FADH E) NADPH
A) Fructose-1,6-bisP
The enzyme pyruvate kinase is an allosteric enzyme that converts phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate. Based on what you understand about the pathway & basic biochemical control, which metabolic product would most likely be involved in activating its expression? A) Fructose-1,6-bisP B) glyceraldehyde-3-P C) pyruvic acid D) ribulose-5-P E) succinate
E. environmental microbiology
The field of ___ studies the role of microorganisms within and in the function of the planet. A. immunology B. bioremediation C. protozoology D. epidemiology E. environmental microbiology F. industrial microbiology
A. biofilm
The glycocalyx contributes to the formation of a ___, a structure that provides properties not seen in planktonic bacteria, such as increased desiccation resistance A. biofilm B. inclusion C. capsule D. peptidoglycan E. capsid F. endospore
D. transfer of genetic material between cells
The glycocalyx of a eukaryotic cell performs all the following functions EXCEPT A. protection against dehydration. B. anchoring cells to each other. C. cellular recognition and communication. D. transfer of genetic material between cells E. strengthening the cell surface.
D. prevents bursting and collapse of the cell.
The glycocalyx of prokaryotic cells has a variety of functions. Which of the following is not a function of the glycocalyx? A. protects the cell from desiccation. B. provides adherence. C. formation of biofilms D. prevents bursting and collapse of the cell. E. provides resistance to antibiotics and disinfectants
C. ADCC
The process of binding of the Fe region to a receptor found on natural killer cells to activate the function of the NK cell is known as ___ A. neutralization B. oxidation C. ADCC D. opsonization E. agglutination
D. add contrast to see them better
The purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to: A. kill them B.secure them to the side C. enlarge the cells D. add contrast to see them better E. see motility
D. virulence
The quantitative measurement or capacity of a pathogens to invade and harm host cells is known as its___ A. infection B. disease C. pathogenicity D. virulence E. infectious dose
C) Synthesis of nucleic acids
The ribose-5-P generated in the pentose phosphate pathway can be used for: A) Recycling of NADH B) fermentation reactions C) Synthesis of nucleic acids D) Generation of ATP E) Formation of lipid macromolecules
D. Attaching and replicating at the site
The second step that leads to the formation of a disease involves what event? A. Receiving the infectious dose B. Maximal expression of the virulence factors C. Reaching the portal of entry D. Attaching and replicating at the site E. Host immune responses causing secondary damage as it combats the pathogen.
E. cell membrane
The site/s for most ATP synthesis in prokaryotic cells is/are the: A. ribosomes B. mitochondria C. cell wall D. inclusions E. cell membrane
C. Antigen is concentrated and contained based on its location, namely the point of entry, within the MALT of mucosal sites or in the spleen, liver, bone marrow and kidneys if intravenous.
Upon the first breach of the innate immune defenses by a pathogen, what begins to happen? A. Inflammation begins allowing an influx of neutrophils which phagocytose the pathogen and prepares it for presentation. B. Antibody begins to accumulate so that pathogen is agglutinated so it is contained at the entry point. C. Antigen is concentrated and contained based on its location, namely the point of entry, within the MALT of mucosal sites or in the spleen, liver, bone marrow and kidneys if intravenous. D. T helper cells recognize and immediately activate in effort to produce cytokines that will direct the immune system to contain and destroy the pathogen E. Red blood cells lyse, to form platelets which plug the breach in the system and induces a response from the adaptive system.
double helix structure, h bonds, DNA is antiparallel, A,C,T,G
Watson & Crick
D. A & B
What are some ways we can reduce bacterial resistance? A. Take your full prescription B. Develop vaccines that utilize other host defenses C. Treat poultry houses to reduce the number of pathogens that can be transmitted to us D. A and B are correct E. B and C are correct F. A and C are correct G. All are correct
B. Lymphocytes
What cells work closely with macrophages to provide the elegance and complexity of immune function? A. Neutrophils B. Lymphocytes C. Monocytes D. Granulocytes E. Red blood cells
D. IL-1
What cytokine is produced by the macrophage to activate T cells? A. IL-2 B. Histamine C. Interferon D. IL-1 E. Leukotriene
B. The T cells require some type of MHC recognition before activation
What does, "T cells are restricted" mean? A. The T cell acts directly in contact with the antigen B. The T cells require some type of MHC recognition before activation C. The T cells stimulate other T cells, B cells, and phagocytes D. That I cells only have three subsets: T helper cell 1, T helper cell 2, and T cytotoxic cell E. That T cells can only secrete antibodies when they are absolutely essential
E) levels of cAMP are reduced, preventing lac promoter binding via CAP & supersedes the local regulation through the inducer/repression influence at the lac operator. the net effect is repression of the lac operon
What happens to control of the lac operon when glucose & lactose levels are high? A) the inducer releases the repressor from the operator allowing for expression of the lac genes B) levels of cAMP are reduced, allowing binding of the lac promoter & activation of the lac operon via release of the repressor from the operator C) the inducer releases the repressor from the operator thereby preventing the expression of the lac genes D) the CAP protein is inhibited which opens the promoter for RNA pol binding. the further removal of the repressor due to high lactose allows for lac gene expression E) levels of cAMP are reduced, preventing lac promoter binding via CAP & supersedes the local regulation through the inducer/repression influence at the lac operator. the net effect is repression of the lac operon
A. Mitochondria contain own DNA and ribosomes
What is a supporter of the endosymbiotic theory? A. Mitochondria contain own DNA and ribosomes B. Smooth ER has no ribsomes attached C. Endospores are made from certain bacteria D. capsids help to protect the structure E. Mitochondria can survive outside of the eukaryotic organisms
B) 2 protons per electron
What is the contribution of Complex I to the proton motive force during electron transport A) 1 proton per electron B) 2 protons per electron C) 4 protons per electron D) No contribution as it doesnt act as a proton pump E) not enough info provided
B. Folliculitis
What is the most common infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus? A. Food poisoning B. Folliculitis C. Toxic Shock Syndrome D. Osteomyelitis E. Pneumonia
B. dust & soil
What is the usual habitat of endospore-forming bacteria that are agents of disease? A. the intestines of animals B. dust and soil C. water D. foods
G. all of the above
What molecule/structure can be used to adhere a bacterium to a surface? A. capsules B. lipoteichoic acid C. fimbriae D. A and B E. B and C F. A and C G. All the above
B. Golgi Complex
What organelle is considered the final protein modification station? A. Endoplasmic Reticulum B. Golgi Complex Mitochondria D. Nucleus E. Cytoskeleton
D. Staphylokinase
What stapylococcus virulence factor can lyse cells to gain hidden nutrients within other cells? A. Coagulase B. Hyaluronidase C. Lipase D. Staphylokinase E. Penicillinase
B) the pathway generates ATP via substrate level phosphorylation
What statement is not an accurate description of fermentaion A) the electron acceptor is an organic molecule B) the pathway generates ATP via substrate level phosphorylation C) the process is used to regenerate NAD+ D) the process does not extract all the energy available within the carbon compound being metabolized E) process occurs in the absence of oxygen
E. naturally acquired active immunity
What type of immunity is produced by the body when a person gets a disease? A. innate immunity B. naturally acquired passive immunity C. artificially acquired active immunity D. artificially acquired passive immunity E. naturally acquired active immunity
D. protozoologist
What would be the technical name of a microbiologist who researches the protozoa found the gut of a termite? A. mycologist B. phycologist C. bacteriologist D. protozoologist E. virologist
D) the first involves the transfer of DNA via a bacteriophage wheras the other is the natural uptake of DNA from the environment
Whats the difference btwn transduction & transformation A) the first involved the uptake of DNA from the environment whereas the other involves the mating of two closely related bacteria B) the first involved bacterial mating wheras the other requires the transfer of DNA via a bacteriophage C) there is no difference D) the first involves the transfer of DNA via a bacteriophage wheras the other is the natural uptake of DNA from the environment E) the first involves plasmids & the other utilizes transposons
E. vasoconstriction
When an injury first occurs, what immediately occurs to the blood vessels? A. vasodilation B. diapedesis C. respiratory burst D. histamine release E. vasoconstriction
B. slower
When comparing dry heat and moist heat sterilization, dry heat is A. faster. B. slower. C. equally as fast. D. sometimes faster but sometimes slower.
A. Penicillin V
Which B-lactam drug is considered bactericidal? A. Penicillin V B. Isoniazid C. Nalidixic acid D. All the above E. None of the above
D. sulfonamide + Trimethoprim
Which antibiotic drug combination works in synergism to block targeted metabolic pathways A. Trimethoprim + Erythromycin B. Amoxicillin + Tetracycline C. Erythromycin + Rifampin D. Sulfonamide + Trimethoprim E. Tetracycline + Sulfonamide
D) all of the above
Which can cause mutations? A) Chemical mutagens B) UV radiatin C) spontaneous mutations during DNA replications D) all of the above E) none of the above
D. ceftriaxone
Which cephalosporin(s) are often administered for hospital acquired infections? A. cephalexin B. sulfonamide С. ciprofloxacin D. ceftriaxone E. A and B C and D G. All the above
D) a holoenzyme contains the cofactors and substrate
Which definition of enzyme structure is incorrect A) the catalytic site is where the actual binding of the enzyme to the substrate occurs B) coenzymes are organic molecules that work with apoenzymes to help after the substrate C) metallic factors participate directly in chemical reactions and are one of the main reasons why organisms require trace elements of specific metals D) a holoenzyme contains the cofactors and substrate E) the bond btwn enzyme and substrate are specific & referred to as being an induced fit mechanism
D. Penicillin G
Which drug is most effective against Gram + cell walls? A. Isoniazid B. Tetracycline C. Polymyxin D. Penicillin G E. Trimethoprim
A. Lysozyme
Which enzyme in tears has antimicrobial properties? A. lysozyme B. B-lactamase C. hemolysin D. mucinase E. coagulase
B. forms the antigen binding sites
Which is incorrect about the Fe region of an immunoglobulin? A. is called the crystallizable fragment B. forms the antigen binding sites C. contains a site that can bind to cells such as macrophages and mast cells D. contains a site that can fix complement E. determines the class to which the immunoglobulin belongs
D. histamine - causes vasodilation and increased mucous production
Which is mismatched: A.interferon - inhibits viral replication B. tumor necrosis factor - increases chemotaxis and phagocytosis C. leukotriene - activates degranulation of granulocytes D. histamine - causes vasodilation and increased mucous production E. interleukin-2 - stimulate T and B cells
C. soluble in lipids
Which is not a characteristic of a good antimicrobial agent? A. useful at high dilutions B. target many types of organisms C. soluble in lipids D. toxic for the target E. extended shelf life
B. photosynthetic
Which is not a characteristic of fungi? A. cells have cell walls B. photosynthetic C. include single-celled and filamentous forms D. heterotrophic nutrition E. can use a wide variety of nutrients
D. hexose groups
Which is not a functional group added to an antibiotic by bacteria to inactivate the drug? A. acetyl groups B. adenyl groups C. phosphoryl groups D. hexose groups E. All are effectively used by bacteria
B. allow Te cells to directly attack an infected cell containing the antigen
Which is not a role of antibody? A. call attention to an antigen B. allow Tc cells to directly attack an infected cell containing the antigen C. neutralize an antigen D. immobilize the antigen to the site of infection E. All are roles of antibody.
E) pyruvic acid accepting electrons from NADH
Which is not involved in the reaction that occurs btwn glycolysis & TCA cycle? A) Reduction of NAD+ B) Decarboxylation of pyruvic acid C) Coenzyme A attaching to an acetyl group D) Oxidation of pyruvic acid E) Pyruvic acid accepting electrons from NADH
D. RNA polymerase modification
Which is the most common means of gaining resistance to rifampin? A. ribosome protection B. antibiotic tolerance C. enzymatic inactivation D. RNA polymerase modification E. penicillinase
pharmaceutical microbio microbial penicillin
Alexander Flemming
Public heath (stablished hospital procedures & controlled spread)
Florence Nightgale
B. honey
Intestinal botulism, especially in infants, has been linked to ingestion of A. seafood. B. honey. C. applesauce. D. milk. E. soda
DNA is made of nucleotides in no order
Chargaff
handwashinh eliminated childbirth fever
Ignaz Semmelweis
Aseptic techniques surgery aerosol phenol prevent contamination
Joseph Lister
cell-mediated immunity
T cells
D. IgG
Which antibody is the major circulating antibody and crosses the placenta? A. Igb B. IgE С. IgM D. IgG E. IgA
B. vector
A ___ is an animal that transmits an infectious agent from one host to another. A. carrier B. vector C. fomite D. vehicle E. adhesion
B. helper, cytotoxic
CD4 cells are ___ cells and CD8 cells are ___ cells. 1. killer, T helper 2 B. helper, cytotoxic C. cytotoxic, helper D. B, T E. cytotoxic, antigen presenting
D. autoantigens
Certain body sites contain sequestered molecules, called ___ that escaped assessment during development of immune tolerance and are mistaken as foreign. A superantigens B. mosaic antigens C. alloantigens D. autoantigens E. haptens
E. sarcina
Cocci that divide along three planes will often form which morphological arrangement? A. tetrad B. staphylococci C. streptococci D. palisade E. sarcina
will go back to liquid melts at 96 degrees C resolidifies at 45 degrees C
Convertible solid agar
E) transfer of electrons from complex III to complex IV
Cytochrome C is responsible for: A) transportation of hydrogen ions & electrons to complex III B) pumping of protons out of the cell after converting FADH2 to FAD+ C) pumping of protons out of the cell after converting NADH to NADH+ D) transfer of electrons to oxygen during water formation E) transfer of electrons from complex III to complex IV F) transfer of electrons & protons from complex III to complex IV G) transportation of only electrons to complex III
E. play key roles in both specific and non-specific immunity and are required for regulation of the immune response.
Cytokines A. cause lysis of invading microorganisms. B. play key roles in both specific and non-specific immunity. C. are required for regulation of the immune response. D. allow for complement polymerization E. play key roles in both specific and non-specific immunity and are required for regulation of the immune response.
F. A and C
For cells that have a centriole, what is the proposed function of this structure? A. nuclear division B. transport of proteins C. Formation of flagella and cilia D. A and B E. B and C F. A and C G. All the above
B. They obtain nutrients from dead matter.
Fungi fall under the category of saprobes which mean A. They live on the surface of other organisms. B. They obtain nutrients from dead matter. C. They live in a symbiosis community. D. They obtain nutrients from living plants only. E. They obtain nutrients from sunlight.
A. producing reactive molecules such as superoxide & hydroxyl free radicals that result in cleavage of the DNA backbone
Gamma rays cause biological damage in living systems by A. producing reactive molecules such as superoxide and hydroxyl free radicals that result in cleavage of + the DNA backbone B. causing tiny gravity sinks and black holes to be formed in the substance. C. introducing toxins. D. making the substance radioactive. E. producing covalent bonds between adjacent thymine bases
Manipulation of genes for practical application & production of needed products
Genetic Engineering
B) they dont code for a specific tRNA thereby allowing specific release factors into signal translational termination
How do the stop codons terminate translation? A) they align a specific anticodon of a tRNA into the A-site to block the addition of anymore amino acids B) they dont code for a specific tRNA thereby allowing specific release factors into signal translational termination C) they form a specific secondary structure that prevent translocation of the ribosome D) they remove the ssb proteins so the complementary bases can pair up again E) they have enzymatic properties which clip off the polypeptide that has been made
G. all of the above
How does one reduce to possibility of generating resistant bacteria? A. Use antimicrobials synergistically B. Limit use to necessary cases C. Take the full prescription D. A and B E. B and C F. A and C G. All the above
A. formation of very oxidative hydroxyl free radicals
Hydrogen peroxide mode of action is A. formation of very oxidative hydroxyl free radicals B. oxidation of sulfhydryl bonds within proteins C. cross-linking of various reactive groups within proteins and DNA D. elimination of cell membranes E. targeting of transcription and translation
B) promoter A transcription will be much higher
I have two promoters. Promoter A has a defined consensus sequence whereas promoter B has multiple differences to the consensus sequence. what effect will these two promoters have on gene expression A) Promoter B will bind RNA polymerase very tightly wheras promoter A wont B) promoter A transcription will be much higher C) translation rates will be reduced for the gene controlled by promoter B D) there will be no difference in gene expression E) promoter A translation will be faster than with promoter B translation
A. 35% hydrogen peroxide
If I need to sterilize a very heat-sensitive medical device which would be an effective agent/process to do this? A. 35% hydrogen peroxide B. autoclaving C. UV light D. iodophors E. A and B F. A and C G. B and C
E. Slants
If I needed to maintain a stock of bacteria in the refrigerator for a long time, what media type would be best suited for A. Broths B. Differential medias C. Plates D. Transport E. Slants
A. Serology
If I was utilizing antibodies for the classification and identification of bacterial within the species level, I would be using what form of complex criteria? A. Serology B. Biochemical characterization C. rRNA analysis D. Phage typing E. Chemical analysis
B. dealing with significant allergic responses
If a person had high levels of IgE circulating in their bloodstream, this person is likely ___ A. fighting a viral infection B. dealing with significant allergic responses C. in the middle of a primary antigen response D. in the middle of a secondary antigen response E. in the process of activating T cells in an B cell independent manner
C. focal
If a pneumonia-causing microbe causes pneumonia, then spreads to cause a new infection in the liver we would call this a infection. A. toxemic B. localized C. focal D. mixed E. invasive
B. invasion stage
If someone is experiencing a high fever and showing specific signs of a cough, rashes, diarrhea, and swelling (i.e. of the throat) during which the infectious agent multiplies at high levels, this person is considered to be in which stage in the process of infection? A. prodromal stage B. invasion stage C. incubation period d. convalescent period E. adherence stage
C. complex broth
If you are making a liquid medium that calls for the addition of meat extract, how could you describe the finished product? A. complex agar B. synthetic gelatin C. complex broth D. defined agar E. defined broth
A. handwashing
Ignaz Semmelweis demonstrated the importance of ___ as a means of preventing disease transmission. A. handwashing B.vaccination C. cleanliness D. chemotherapy E. gene therapy
E. Presentation of the foreign antigen leads to the production of T helper 1 cells thereby activating T cytotoxic cells, leading to the attack of the graft.
In the above question, why is the said response occurring? A. The antibodies produced interact with Cl and result in a complement cascade. B. Presentation of the antigen results in T helper cell action, which leads to the expansion of T helper 2 cells. This process drives a B cell response. C. The presence of the foreign graft is detected by toll-like receptors thereby accentuating the activation of phagocytes. D. The host recognizes this as a non-self-entity and secretes tremendous amounts of TNF leading to massive edema. E. Presentation of the foreign antigen leads to the production of T helper 1 cells thereby activating T cytotoxic cells, leading to the attack of the graft.
C. sore throat
Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all the following except: A. folliculitis B. carbuncles C. sore throat D. osteomyelitis E. pneumonia
A. physical barriers, innate immunity, adaptive immunity
Invading microbes usually need to overcome host defenses in which following order? A. physical barriers, innate immunity, adaptive immunity B. physical barriers, adaptive immunity, innate immunity C. adaptive immunity, innate immunity, physical barriers D. adaptive immunity, physical barriers, innate immunity E. innate immunity, physical barriers, adaptive immunity
B. is the use of heat to reduce pathogenic/spoilage bacteria to a safe level.
Pasteurization A. is the use of heat to sterilize food products. B. is the use of heat to reduce pathogenic/spoilage bacteria to a safe level. C. is a process which uses intense cold to kill microorganisms on foods. D. is a process which uses short bursts of radiation to kill microorganisms on foods. E. is the process of mixing phenolics with your target in an effort to reduce bacteria to a safe level
A. DNA relatedness
Phenotypic properties used to classify bacteria include all the following except: A. DNA relatedness B. Colonial morphology C. Biochemical properties D. Antibiotic resistance patterns E. Microscopic morphology
iv, i, iii, ii
Place the 4 main tenets of the Koch's postulates in order i. agent must be isolated and grown. ii. reisolate iii. disease replicated in a healthy host. iv. agent must be present in every case.
E. Skin and throat
Primary infections caused by Streptococcus pyogenes are due to the organisms invading what two body sites? A. Nose and vagina B. Skin and eyes C. Eyes and gastrointestinal tract D. Mouth and urethra E. Skin and throat
D) binary fIssion
Prokaryotic cells divide by a process known as___ A) conjugation B) mitosis C) binary fUssion D) binary fIssion E) meiosis
B. ribosome
Protein synthesis occurs in the ___ A. nucleus. B. ribosome. C. metachromatic granule. D. mesosome. E. lysosome.
B. autoimmune reaction to M proteins
The symptoms in rheumatic fever are due to A. streptolysin B. autoimmune reaction to M proteins C. erythrogenic toxin D. production of coagulase E. production of hemolysins
C) gets energy from sunlight
The term "phototroph" refers to an organism that: A) Uses CO2 for its carbon source B) Must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs C) gets energy from sunlight D) gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds E) does not need an energy source
C. ocular and objective
The two magnifying lenses found in a light microscope are the A. basic and transverse. B. small and large. C. ocular and objective. D. simple and phase. E. convex and concave
C. Hyaluronidase
The virulence factor that is known as a "spreading factor" is ___ A. Hemolysins B. Enterotoxin C. Hyaluronidase D. Exfoliative E. None of the above
A. Sporozoa
There are four basic groups of protozoa that cause human infection. Malaria is caused by Plasmodium, which is a genus of organisms that are nonmotile. This parasite is classified in the ___ group. A. Sporozoa B. Flagellates C. Ciliates D. Sarcodina E. Algae
E. natural killer (NK) cells
These lymphocytes lack specificity for antigen and are cells that attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells: A. helper 1 T cells B. Helper 2 T cells C. cytotoxic T cells D. B cells E. natural killer (NK) cells
A. epitopes
These molecule fragments, also called antigenic determinants, are the primary signal that an antigen is foreign. A. epitopes B. haptens C. alloantigens D. autoantigens E. intravenous antigens
C) substrate-level phosphorylation
This type of ATP generation is seen during fermentative catabolsim of glucose A) oxidative phosphorylation B) repsiration C) substrate level phosphorylation D) B-oxidation E) post-translational modification
B. protein A
This virulence factor produced by Staphylococcus aureus allows the bacteria to interfere with the binding of antibody by adhering to the Fc region of the antibody. A. coagulase B. protein A C. exfoliative toxin D. hyaluronidase E. lipase
D. phagocytes that recognize various broad antigen motifs
Toll-like receptors are proteins on A. PAMPs that elicit an immune response B. viruses that stimulate immune reactions C. skin cells that secrete acidic by-products D. phagocytes that recognize various broad antigen motifs E. eosinophils that target large eukaryotic pathogens
B) the movement of a ribosome along mRNA during translocation
Translocation is____ A) the conversion of a DNA sequence into its specific mRNA B) the movement of a ribosome along mRNA during translocation C) the active form of protozoa D) the term to describe bacteria that can grow at high temps. E) the enzyme used to introduce supercoils back into DNA after replication
F. A and C are correct
Transmission of tetanus involves ___ A. an injury that introduces the endospores deep into tissue B. ingestion of endospores C. significant reduction of oxygen levels D. inhalation of endospores E. A and B are correct F. A and C are correct G. All are correct
C) glycolysis is a cyclic pathway that takes in carbon, reduces electron acceptors, & eventually regenerates the starting carbon of the pathway
Which statements does not describe glycolysis? A) glycolysis spends 2 ATP to phosphorylate glucose during the breakdown to pyruvate, with reactions forming 4 ATP B) The pathway of glucose breakdown to pyruvate is incomplete because it generates two NADH C) glycolysis is a cyclic pathway that takes in carbon, reduces electron acceptors, & eventually regenerates the starting carbon compound of the pathway D) glycolysis occurs with an increase of entropy because one large molecule is broken down to two molecules of pyruvate E) glycolysis produces intermediates thatre essential for the synthesis of other cellular intermediates due to various anabolic pathways
C. Joseph Lister
Who developed and pioneered aseptic techniques for preventing disease spread within hospitals? A. Sergei Winogradsky B. Louis Pasteur C. Joseph Lister D. Robert Koch E. Florence Nightingale
D. Ivanowski and Beijernick
Who discovered the first virus? A. Ivanowski and Winogradsky B. Louis Pasteur C. Robert Koch D. Ivanowski and Beijernick E. Alexander Fleming
C. van Leeuwenhoek
Who of the following was the first to observe and accurately describe microorganisms? A. Pasteur B. Lister C. van Leeuwenhoek D. Jenner E. Koch
D. Sterilization- Used on inanimate objects and targets vegetative cells.
With regards to controlling microbes, which of the following is incorrectly paired? A. Antiseptic- applied to living surfaces and used in the prevention of infection. B. Disinfection- destroys vegetative cells on inanimate objects C. Degermation- a cleansing technique used on living tissue. D. Sterilization- Used on inanimate objects and targets vegetative cells. E. Sanitization- a cleansing technique used on inanimate objects
A) proton motive force
___ is the storing of potential energy as a combo of a concentration & voltage gradient across a membrane A) proton motive force B) metabolism C) chemiosmosis D) free energy E) reduction potential
C. IgM, IgG
____ Is the first immunoglobulin produced during the primary exposure and ____ is produced in the largest amount during the secondary exposure. A. IgE, IgG B. IgM, IgA C. IgM, IgG D. IgG, IgM E. IgG, IgA
B) psychrophiles
a microbiologist explores the Upper Peninsula. he takes a sample from a snow drift & under a microscope discovers living organisms. these microbes would be classified as___ A) mesophiles B) psychrophiles C) osmophiles D) thermophiles E) psychrotrophs
E) all of the above
a nucleotide contains which of the following? A) 5 Carbon sugar B) nitrogen base C) phosphate D) B & C only E) all of the above
ph 0-5.5
acidophile
rapid, severe, short-lived
acute
fine particles expelled that can travel far
aerosols
grow in low O2 levels
aerotolerant
use knowledge of chemical rxns to derive better diagnosis, monitoring, & treatment of illness
biochemistry
biogenesis: something comes from something abiogenesis: something comes from nothing
biogenesis vs. abiogenesis
the carrying animal that the host uses for multiplication
biological vector