Midterm Study Set

Chapter 7 - What is the second step in the procedure for developing a guide for a structured situational interview? A) rate the job's main duties B) create interview questions C) create benchmark answers D) appoint the interview panel

A

Chapter 7 - What is the type of interview which lists the questions ahead of time? A) structured interview B) unstructured interview C) situational interview D) behavioral interview

A

Chapter 4 - Jack is an employee at a Best Western Hotel. Some weeks he works with the catering group, and other weeks he assists the reservations clerk or the parking attendant. This is an example of ________. A) job enlargement B) job rotation C) job enrichment D) job specialization

B

Chapter 8 - Which of the following training methods is most frequently used by employers? A) job instruction training B) apprenticeship training C) on-the-job training D) classroom training

C

Chapter 8 - With job instruction training, which of the following should most likely be included beside each step listed? A) sources for more information B) any legal requirements C) key points or guidelines D) quality requirements

C

Chapter 4 - Experts at the ________ performed the earliest form of job analysis and published the Dictionary of Occupational Titles. A) EEOC B) DOL C) BLS D) DHS

B

Chapter 3 - Like the scientific method, evidence-based HR management should have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT ________. A) use of data B) experimentation C) subjectivity D) prediction

C

Chapter 1 - What is the term for workforces like those at the company Uber, where freelancers and independent contractors work when they can, on what they want to work on, and when the company needs them? A) tele-commuters B) human capital C) job-analysts D) on-demand workers

D

Chapter 2 - Which of the following appoints the members of the EEOC? A) U.S. Congress B) U.S. Supreme Court C) U.S. President D) U.S. voters

C

Chapter 1 - Over the next few years, employers may face a severe labor shortage because ________. A) there are fewer people entering the workforce than there are retiring baby boomers B) one-third of single mothers are not employed in the U.S. labor force C) there are too many nontraditional workers holding multiple jobs D) older employees are more family-centric than younger employees

A

Chapter 1 - Strategic human resource management refers to ________. A) formulating and executing human resource policies and practices that produce the employee competencies and behaviors the company needs to achieve strategic aims B) planning the balance of internal strengths and weaknesses with external opportunities and threats to maintain competitive advantage C) emphasizing the knowledge, education, training, skills, and expertise of a firm's workers D) extending a firm's sales, ownership, and manufacturing to new markets

A

Chapter 1 - Which SHRM HR manager competency involves the ability to provide guidance to organizational stakeholders? A) consultation B) ethical practice C) business acumen D) critical evaluation

A

Chapter 1 -Which of the following is NOT one of the five main types of digital technologies driving the transfer of functionality from HR professionals to automation? A) Email B) Social media C) Mobile applications D) Cloud computing

A

Chapter 4 - Which of the following is an example of business process reengineering? A) using computerized systems to combine separate tasks B) creating a visual chart for work flow procedures C) assigning additional activities to new employees D) developing employee skills and behaviors

A

Chapter 4 - Which of the following most likely depends on a job's required skills, education level, safety hazards, and degree of responsibility? A) employee compensation B) organizational culture C) annual training requirements D) OSHA and EEO compliance

A

Chapter 4 - Which of the following refers to the human requirements needed for a job, such as education, skills, and personality? A) job specifications B) job analysis C) job placement D) job descriptions

A

Chapter 4 - Which of the following terms refers to systematically moving workers from one job to another? A) job rotation B) job enrichment C) job enlargement D) job adjustment

A

Chapter 5 - Dixon Industries wants to engage in predictive workforce monitoring. As the HR manager at Dixon, you should most likely ________. A) continuously monitor workforce planning issues B) primarily use recruiters for top executive jobs C) frequently assess the online HR scorecard D) regularly implement the Markov analysis

A

Chapter 5 - Smith Industries is thinking of having another company take care of its benefits management. This is called: A) outsourcing B) recruiting C) telecommuting D) screening

A

Chapter 5 - Succession planning requires making forecasts of in three steps: ________, develop inside candidates, assess and choose those who will fill the key position. A) identify key needs B) job specifications C) global trends D) labor relations

A

Chapter 5 - A recruiting yield pyramid is the historical arithmetic relationship between all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) internal and external candidates B) offers made and offers accepted C) recruitment leads and invitees D) interviews and offers made

A

Chapter 6 - What type of screening is used to reduce absenteeism and establish a baseline for future insurance claims? A) physical exams B) personality tests C) substance abuse screening D) fine motor skills assessments

A

Chapter 7 - Which of the following interview formats will most likely result in the highest validity? A) structured, situational B) unstructured, situational C) structured, behavioral D) unstructured, behavioral

A

Chapter 7 - Which of the following is a common characteristic of computerized interviews? A) multiple-choice questions B) puzzle questions C) follow-up questions D) open-ended questions

A

Chapter 7 - Which of the following statements is representative of what might be asked in a behavioral interview? A) "Consider a time when you were faced with an angry client. What did you do to turn the situation around?" B) "We are concerned with employee pilferage. As a manager here, how would you go about discouraging this behavior?" C) "Employees in this division are frequently under a great deal of pressure. How do you think you would handle the stress of the position?" D) "What would you do if a subordinate threatened to sue the company for discrimination?"

A

Chapter 7 - During an interview, Tanya discusses her numerous accomplishments at previous jobs and praises the interviewer frequently. Tanya is most likely using ________. A) impression management B) talent management C) mixed motives D) behavior modification

A

Chapter 7 - In a structured situational interview, interview questions should primarily address ________. A) essential job duties B) occupational benefits C) salary requirements D) personality issues

A

Chapter 7 - The following are interviewing errors to avoid EXCEPT ________. A) asking prepared questions B) first impressions C) pressure to hire D) not clarifying what the job involves

A

Chapter 7 - Which of the following is an example of a job knowledge question? A) "What are the legal restrictions regarding the use of telemarketing for consumers who have a past relationship with a company?" B) "Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue the company. What would you do?" C) "Mike and Todd have $21 between them. Mike has $20 more than Todd has. How much has Mike and how much has Todd?" D) "Can you tell me about a time in the past when you used leadership skills to handle a difficult situation?"

A

Chapter 7 - Which of the following questions would most likely be asked during a stress interview? A) "I see that you switched colleges four times before finally earning your degree. I think that reflects an inability to make good decisions and remain focused. What do you think?" B) "Can you tell me about a time in the past when you used leadership skills to handle a difficult situation?" C) "Mike and Todd have $21 between them. Mike has $20 more than Todd has. How much does Mike have and how much does Todd have?" D) "Why are you leaving your current position and changing careers?"

A

Chapter 9 - Which appraisal method combines the benefits of narrative critical incidents and quantified scales by assigning scale points with specific examples of good or poor performance? A) behaviorally anchored rating scale B) constant sums rating scale C) alternation ranking D) forced distribution

A

Chapter 9 - Which of the following has most likely occurred when a supervisor conducting a performance appraisal is influenced by a subordinate's individual differences such as age, sex, and race? A) bias B) halo affect C) central tendency D) unclear standards

A

Chapter 9 - Which of the following is NOT one of performance management's six basic elements? A) habit creation B) goal alignment C) ongoing feedback D) direction sharing

A

Chapter 9 - Which of the following is most likely NOT a role played by the HR department in the performance appraisal process? A) conducting appraisals of employees B) monitoring the appraisal system's effectiveness C) providing performance appraisal training to supervisors D) ensuring the appraisal system's compliance with EEO laws

A

Chapter 9 - Which of the following measurement methods is similar to grading on a curve? A) forced distribution B) graphic rating scale C) constant sums rating D) behaviorally anchored rating scale

A

Chapter 9 - Which of the following terms refers to a performance appraisal based on surveys from peers, supervisors, subordinates, and customers? A) 360-degree feedback B) team appraisals C) upward feedback D) rating committee

A

Chapter 9 - Which of the following terms refers to an appraisal that is too open to interpretation? A) unclear standards B) halo effects C) leniency D) biased

A

Chapter 1 - All of the following are the most common reasons that firms decide to globalize EXCEPT ________. A) lower costs B) supervising quality control methods C) make employees more productive D) to do things better

B

Chapter 1 - Jolene, a manager, delegates the authority for a project to Lee, her subordinate. Jolene is most likely involved in which function of the management process? A) staffing B) organizing C) motivating D) leading

B

Chapter 1 - ________ is the process of acquiring, training, appraising, and compensating employees, and attending to their labor relations, health and safety, and fairness concerns. A) Labor relations B) Human resource management C) Behavioral management D) Organizational health and safety management

B

Chapter 1 - ________ is the right to make decisions, to direct the work of others, and to give orders. A) Leadership B) Authority C) Management D) Responsibility

B

Chapter 1 - ________ refers to the tendency of firms to extend their sales, ownership, and/or manufacturing to new markets abroad. A) Expansion B) Globalization C) Export growth D) Diversification

B

Chapter 1 - All of the following are examples of human resource specialties EXCEPT ________. A) job analyst B) financial advisor C) compensation manager D) labor relations specialist

B

Chapter 1 - An HR generalist at Wilson Manufacturing has been assigned to the sales department to provide HR management assistance as needed. Which of the following best describes the structure of the HR services provided at Wilson Manufacturing? A) shared HR teams B) embedded HR teams C) centers of expertise D) corporate HR teams

B

Chapter 1 - Approximately how many people now use information technology to work from remote locations at least once per month? A) 1 million B) 5 million C) 17 million D) 50 million

B

Chapter 1 - Tools such as Twitter, Facebook, and LinkedIn that can be used to recruit new employees are known as: A) data analytics B) social media C) mobile applications D) cloud computing

B

Chapter 1 - What term refers to the knowledge, skills, and abilities of a firm's workers? A) human resources B) human capital C) intangible assets D) contingent personnel

B

Chapter 1 - Which SHRM HR manager competency involves the ability to effectively exchange information with stakeholders? A) relationship management B) communication C) ethical practice D) controlling

B

Chapter 3 - Which of the following activities most likely indicates that a firm is implementing a vertical integration strategy? A) selling unprofitable divisions B) producing raw materials C) aggressively selling a new product D) purchasing a competitor's firm

B

Chapter 5 - Marcus, an HR manager for Samsung, must decide what positions the firm should fill in the next six months, which means Marcus is currently working on ________. A) screening job candidates B) personnel planning C) interviewing job candidates D) writing job descriptions

B

Chapter 7 - Which of the following refers to a procedure designed to predict future job performance based on an applicant's oral responses to oral inquiries? A) work sample simulation B) selection interview C) reference check D) arbitration

B

Chapter 7 - Which of the following refers to an error of judgment on the part of the interviewer due to interviewing one or more very good or very bad candidates just before the interview in question? A) context error B) contrast error C) recency error D) primacy error

B

Chapter 7 - Which of the following statements is most likely true? A) Interpersonal skills are difficult to judge from phone interviews. B) Phone interviews can generate spontaneous answers from candidates. C) Candidates prefer phone interviews more than face-to-face interviews. D) Interviewers usually judge candidates the same in phone and face-to-face interviews.

B

Chapter 9 - All of the following are usually measured by a graphic rating scale EXCEPT ________. A) generic dimensions of performance B) performance of co-workers C) achievement of objectives D) job-related competencies

B

Chapter 1 - Gerard is authorized to direct the work of subordinates and is responsible for accomplishing the organization's tasks. Gerard is most likely a ________. A) training specialist B) staff manager C) line manager D) recruiter

C

Chapter 1 - Larry, a manager at a commercial real estate firm, has established a monthly sales quota for his sales team. Which basic function of management best describes Larry's actions? A) planning B) organizing C) controlling D) staffing

C

Chapter 1 - ________ refers to ensuring that the human resources management function is delivering its services efficiently. A) Strategic planning B) Strategic human resource management C) HR department lever D) Human resource scorecard approach

C

Chapter 1 - According to the textbook, approximately what percentage of job seekers used Glassdoor during their job search to learn about a company they might apply for? A) 11% B) 32% C) 48% D) 70%

C

Chapter 1 - Pablo has the ability to understand and apply information with which to contribute to his organization's overall strategic plan. This is the SHRM HR competency of: A) communication B) critical evaluation C) business acumen D) leadership & navigation

C

Chapter 4 - Janice, a department store manager, is in the process of writing job descriptions using O*NET. Janice has already reviewed the company's business plan, so what should be her next step? A) interview employees B) compose a list of job duties C) develop an organization chart D) observe employees performing their duties

C

Chapter 3 - Winchester Rugs operates a Web site called www.buyrugsdirect.com, so Winchester Rugs is most likely using a strategy of ________. A) consolidation B) geographic expansion C) vertical integration D) concentration

C

Chapter 4 - Jerome, a manager at an electronics company, needs to gather job analysis information from a large number of employees who perform similar work. Which of the following would be most appropriate for Jerome? A) observing all employees B) interviewing the HR manager C) holding a group interview with a supervisor D) conducting telephone surveys of all employees

C

Chapter 4 - Job ________ means assigning workers additional same-level activities. A) enrichment B) assignment C) enlargement D) rotation

C

Chapter 4 - One of the problems with direct observation is ________, which is when workers alter their normal activities because they are being watched. A) flexibility B) falsification C) reactivity D) diversion

C

Chapter 4 - A workflow analyst would most likely focus on which of the following? A) methods used by the firm to accomplish tasks B) behaviors needed to complete specific work C) a single, identifiable work process D) a quantifiable worker skill

C

Chapter 4 - A(n) ________ is used to collect quantifiable data concerning the duties and responsibilities of various jobs. A) electronic diary/log B) group interview C) position analysis questionnaire D) Internet-based survey

C

Chapter 4 - Allison, a manager at a large clothing retail store, needs to determine essential duties that have not been assigned to specific employees. Which of the following would most likely provide Allison with this information? A) work activities B) job context C) job analysis D) performance standards

C

Chapter 4 - During the job analysis process, it is important to ________ before collecting data about specific job duties and working conditions. A) test job questionnaires on a small group of workers B) confirm the job activity list with employees C) select a sample of similar jobs to analyze D) assemble the job specifications list

C

Chapter 4 - For which of the following jobs is direct observation NOT a recommended method for collecting job analysis data? A) assembly-line worker B) accounting clerk C) attorney D) nurse

C

Chapter 4 - The ________ classifies all workers into one of 23 major groups of jobs that are subdivided into minor groups of jobs and detailed occupations. A) Department of Labor Procedure B) Position Analysis Questionnaire C) Standard Occupational Classification D) Dictionary of Occupational Titles

C

Chapter 4 - The fourth step in conducting a job analysis most likely involves collecting data about all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) required employee abilities B) typical working conditions C) employee turnover rates D) specific job activities

C

Chapter 4 - The primary drawback of performing a job analysis regards the ________. A) unverifiable data a job analysis typically provides B) certification required to conduct a job analysis C) amount of time a job analysis takes to complete D) redundant information gathered during a job analysis

C

Chapter 4 - What are the three main categories used in the Dictionary of Occupational Titles to rate, classify, and compare different jobs? A) reasoning, language, mathematics B) skills, communication, education C) data, people, things D) people, skills, reasoning

C

Chapter 4 - Which of the following best supports the argument that jobs should be described in terms of competencies rather than duties? A) New employees in high-performance work systems receive extensive job skills training for their specific positions. B) Managers in global firms are empowered to implement job rotation, job enlargement, and job enrichment in order to maximize productivity. C) In high-performance work systems, employees serve as team members rotating among various jobs. D) Globalization and telecommuting require workers to be able to self-manage and perform duties without close supervision

C

Chapter 4 - Which of the following is a written statement that describes the activities, responsibilities, working conditions, and supervisory responsibilities of a job? A) job specification B) job analysis C) job description D) job context

C

Chapter 4 - Which of the following terms refers to the procedure used to determine the duties associated with job positions and the characteristics of the people to hire for those positions? A) job description B) job specification C) job analysis D) job context

C

Chapter 4 - Who argued that the best way to motivate workers is to build opportunities for challenge and achievement into their jobs via job enrichment? A) Adam Smith B) Frederick Taylor C) Frederick Herzberg D) Abraham Maslow

C

Chapter 9 - What usually occurs when employees rate themselves for performance appraisals? A) Ratings are reliable but invalid. B) Ratings are subject to halo effects. C) Ratings are higher than when provided by supervisors. D) Ratings are about the same as when determined by peers.

C

Chapter 9 - Which component of performance management refers to communicating a firm's higherlevel goals throughout the organization and then translating them into departmental and individual goals? A) goal alignment B) performance monitoring C) direction sharing D) developmental support

C

Chapter 9 - Which of the follow is the best method for reducing the problems of leniency or strictness in performance appraisals? A) keep critical incident logs B) require multiple appraisals C) impose a performance distribution D) reconsider the timing of the appraisal

C

Chapter 9 - Which of the following best describes the purpose of an appraisal interview? A) training supervisors in the rating process B) identifying potential interpersonal problems C) making plans to correct employee weaknesses D) discussing and scheduling training programs

C

Chapter 9 - Which of the following is NOT one of the recommended guidelines for setting effective employee goals? A) creating specific goals B) assigning measurable goals C) administering consequences for failure to meet goals D) encouraging employees to participate in setting goals

C

Chapter 9 - Which of the following is the primary advantage of using graphic rating scales as performance appraisal tools? A) eliminates central tendency errors B) offers extremely high rate of accuracy C) provides quantitative rating for each employee D) links with mutually agreed upon performance objectives

C

Chapter 9 - Which performance appraisal tool requires supervisors to categorize employees from best to worst on various traits? A) graphic rating scale B) critical incident method C) alternation ranking method D) electronic performance monitoring

C

Chapter 9 - Which performance appraisal tools require a supervisor to maintain a log of positive and negative examples of a subordinate's work-related behavior? A) alternation ranking B) paired comparison C) critical incident D) graphic rating

C

Chapter 9 - Which term refers to ranking of employees from best to worst on a trait or traits, choosing highest than lowest until all are ranked? A) performance management B) paired comparison C) alternation ranking D) direction sharing

C

Chapter 9 - A supervisor working for a firm that uses performance management should most likely expect to ________. A) conduct annual performance appraisals B) compare team goals to industry standards C) re-evaluate how employees accomplish tasks D) use paper forms to handle performance appraisals

C

Chapter 2 - In Bakke v. Regents of the University of California, which of the following claims was made by Allen Bakke? A) sexual harassment B) racial discrimination C) reverse discrimination D) affirmative action

C The case serves as an example of reverse discrimination. In Bakke v. Regents of the University of California (1978), the University of California at Davis Medical School denied admission to white student Allen Bakke, allegedly because of the school's affirmative action quota system, which required that a specific number of openings go to minority applicants. In a 5-to-4 vote, the U.S. Supreme Court struck down the policy that made race the only factor in considering applications for a certain number of class openings and thus allowed Bakke's admission.

Chapter 7 - Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using structured interviews during the employee selection process? A) higher potential for bias B) limited validity and reliability C) inconsistency across candidates D) reduced opportunities for asking follow-up questions

D

Chapter 7 - Which of the following most likely combines aspects of behavioral and situational questioning? A) computerized interviews B) panel interviews C) mass interviews D) case interviews

D

Chapter 8 - ________ attempts to foster harmonious working relationships and to develop cross-cultural sensitivity among the employees of a firm. A) Adaptability screening B) Multicultural simulation C) Mandatory arbitration D) Diversity training

D

Chapter 8 - All of the following topics are typically addressed during employee orientation EXCEPT ________. A) employee benefits B) personnel policies C) work behavior expectations D) wage curves

D

Chapter 8 - Employers will most likely use all of the following methods to identify training needs for new employees EXCEPT ________. A) analyzing job descriptions B) reviewing performance standards C) questioning current job holders D) conducting a work sampling

D

Chapter 8 - John is currently being trained on the job and is at the first step in the OTJ process, which is: A) showing the trainee how do the task B) verbalizing the steps of the task C) checking to make sure the task was learned by the trainee D) familiarizing the trainee with equipment, tools, and trade terms

D

Chapter 1 - Which of the following describes one of the most significant demographic trends facing the U.S. workforce? A) increased number of aging workers B) decreased number of contingent workers C) increased number of blue-collar workers D) decreased number of bilingual workers

A

Chapter 1 - Which of the following is the person responsible for accomplishing an organization's goals by managing the efforts of the organization's people? A) manager B) entrepreneur C) generalist D) marketer

A

Chapter 1 - Which of the following refers to the standards someone uses to decide what his or her conduct should be? A) ethics B) strategies C) preferences D) competencies

A

Chapter 2 - The ________ gives all persons the same right to make and enforce contracts and to benefit from the laws of the land. A) Fifth Amendment B) Civil Rights Act of 1866 C) Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act D) Thirteenth Amendment

B

Chapter 7 - How many interviewers usually make up a panel interview? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3-6 D) 8-10

C

Chapter 9 - Peer appraisals have been shown to result in a ________. A) reduction of social loafing B) reduction of group cohesion C) decrease in task motivation D) decrease in group satisfaction

A

Chapter 1 - ________ involves using statistical techniques, algorithms, and problem-solving to identify relationships among data for the purpose of solving particular problems. A) Data analytics B) Social media C) Cloud computing D) Gaming

A

Chapter 1 - In most organizations, human resource managers are categorized as ________, who assist and advise ________ in areas like recruiting, hiring, and compensation. A) staff managers; line managers B) line managers; middle managers C) line managers; staff managers D) functional managers; staff managers

A

Chapter 3 - A company's business-level strategy identifies the ________. A) ways to strengthen a firm's long-term competitive position in the marketplace B) tools for diversifying a business portfolio through the acquisition of MNEs C) means to becoming a low-cost leader within a highly competitive industry D) ways to carve out a market niche in order to compete for high-end customers

A

Chapter 3 - A diversification corporate strategy implies that a firm will _______. A) expand by adding new product lines B) reduce the company's size to increase market share C) save money by producing its own raw materials D) increase profits by offering one popular product

A

Chapter 3 - John is a manager is looking at HR scorecard data through a ________, which presents the manager with desktop graphs and charts, showing a computerized picture of how the company is doing on all the metrics from the HR scorecard process. A) digital dashboard B) strategy map C) HR audit D) mission plan

A

Chapter 3 - The ________ of the California Energy Commission indicates that the organization assesses and acts through public and private partnerships to improve energy systems that promote a strong economy and a healthy environment. A) mission statement B) strategic plan C) code of ethics D) vision statement

A

Chapter 3 - ________ involves setting objectives, making forecasts, reviewing alternative courses of action, evaluating options and implementing the plan. A) The management planning process B) Financial auditing C) Employee testing D) Employee benchmarking

A

Chapter 3 - Executives at Hartford Clothing, a retail department store chain, want to find out what products their customers buy, when they purchase products, and what days of the week are most popular for shopping. Executives want to discover customer patterns and make predictions about their customers' buying habits. What would be the most effective tool for Hartford? A) data mining system B) talent value model C) financial audit D) strategy map

A

Chapter 3 - Formulating and executing human resource policies and practices that produce the employee competencies and behaviors a company needs to achieve its strategic aims is known as ________. A) strategic human resource management B) human resource performance systems C) high-performance personnel management D) personnel management by objectives

A

Chapter 3 - In order to generate the desired workforce skill, competencies, and behaviors that a firm needs to achieve its strategic goals, human resource management must first develop ________. A) strategic plans B) HR policies C) employee skills D) company norms

A

Chapter 3 - Reese Enterprises seeks to fill upper-level positions internally whenever possible and uses validated selection tests when considering external hires. This most likely suggests the company is developing a ________. A) high-performance work system B) scorecard management system C) benchmark and metric analysis D) management by objectives strategy

A

Chapter 3 - Strategic management is best defined as the process of identifying and executing the organization's strategic plan by matching the company's capabilities with its ________. A) environmental demands B) competitive standards C) natural resources D) hierarchical skills

A

Chapter 3 - The 2008 announcement by Starbucks that it would be closing approximately 600 of its stores suggests the firm was using a ________ strategy. A) consolidation B) diversification C) geographic expansion D) vertical integration

A

Chapter 3 - The ________ is a process for assigning financial and nonfinancial goals or metrics to the human resource management-related strategy-map chain of activities required for achieving the company's strategic aims. A) HR scorecard B) vision statement C) digital dashboard D) benchmarking process

A

Chapter 3 - What is a company's plan for how it will match its internal strengths and weaknesses with external opportunities and threats to maintain a competitive advantage? A) strategic plan B) situation analysis C) SWOT analysis D) tactical plan

A

Chapter 3 - What tool might be best used to assess recruitment effectiveness? A) computerized applicant tracking systems B) benchmarking C) data mines D) strategy map

A

Chapter 3 - Which of the following terms refers to the process of comparing and analyzing the practices of one firm with those of a high-performing company? A) benchmarking B) diversifying C) strategizing D) outsourcing

A

Chapter 4 - Job analysts collecting information through observations and interviews benefit from the use of a(n) ________ to guide the process and ensure consistency. A) structured list B) electronic diary C) job description D) organization chart

A

Chapter 4 - The information resulting from a job analysis is used for writing ________. A) job descriptions B) corporate objectives C) personnel questionnaires D) training requirements

A

Chapter 4 - A ________ is the time it takes to complete a job. A) work cycle B) work week C) shift D) duty

A

Chapter 4 - An employer is required to make a "reasonable accommodation" for a disabled individual in which of the following situations? A) if a disabled person has the necessary skills, education, and experience to perform the job but is prevented by the job's current structure B) when an employer fails to provide a job description for a position that a disabled person would most likely be able to perform C) if making changes would present the employer with an undue hardship D) each time that a disabled individual applies for a position

A

Chapter 4 - Connor, a manager at a boat manufacturing firm, takes a talent management approach to his duties. Which of the following would Connor most likely do? A) coordinate recruitment and compensation activities B) use different competencies for recruitment and development C) rely primarily on applicant testing results for hiring decisions D) manage employees based on their experience with the organization

A

Chapter 4 - During the job analysis process, the primary purpose of having workers review and modify data collected about their current positions is to ________. A) confirm that the information is correct and complete B) provide a legal benchmark for employer lawsuits C) encourage employees to seek additional job training D) validate the job specification list provided by HR

A

Chapter 4 - Jennifer, a manager at an engineering firm, has been assigned the task of conducting a job analysis. What should be Jennifer's first step in the process? A) deciding how the gathered information will be used B) collecting data on job activities and working conditions C) selecting representative job positions to assess D) reviewing relevant background information

A

Chapter 4 - Joaquin records every activity in which he participates at work along with the time it takes him to complete each activity. Which of the following approaches to job analysis data collection is most likely being used at Joaquin's workplace? A) diaries B) interviews C) observations D) questionnaires

A

Chapter 4 - Murray, Inc. emphasizes a desire for detail-oriented, motivated employees with strong social skills as indicated in the firm's job ________. A) specifications B) analysis C) reports D) descriptions

A

Chapter 4 - The Department of Labor procedure uses a set of standard basic activities known as ________ to describe what a worker must do with respect to data, people, and things. A) worker functions B) employee duties C) job procedures D) job requirements

A

Chapter 4 - The most important consideration when developing an online job analysis is to ________. A) make questions and the process as clear as possible B) provide monetary rewards for timely completion C) limit the number of questions to less than twenty D) ask open-ended questions to ensure honest responses

A

Chapter 4 - What is the final step in conducting a job analysis? A) writing a job description and job specifications B) validating all of the collected job data C) collecting data on specific job activities D) reviewing relevant background information

A

Chapter 4 - What type of information is contained in the job identification section of a job description? A) job title B) job summary C) major functions or activities D) standards of performance

A

Chapter 4 - Which data collection method is most frequently used in conjunction with direct observation? A) interview B) questionnaire C) electronic log D) survey

A

Chapter 4 - Which of the following describes a job in terms of measurable and observable behaviors that an employee must exhibit to do the job well? A) competency-based job analysis B) Department of Labor procedure C) functional job analysis D) high-performance work matrix

A

Chapter 5 - All of the following are common concerns that have been expressed to researchers by temporary employees EXCEPT ________. A) being in compliance with equal employment laws B) feeling insecure about their employment situation C) worrying about the lack of insurance benefits D) being treated impersonally by employers

A

Chapter 5 - Kate works as a nurse on temporary assignment for hospitals throughout the region on an asneeded basis. Kate is most likely ________. A) working as a contingent worker B) participating in a job rotation C) using job enlargement D) benchmarking jobs

A

Chapter 5 - Newton Manufacturing is using a private employment agency to recruit individuals for management positions. As the HR manager at Newton, you need to ensure that applicants are screened properly, so you should ________. A) provide the agency with an accurate job description B) post jobs on the firm's intranet and bulletin boards C) develop applicant screening software for internal hires D) send HR experts to monitor the agency's recruiting activities

A

Chapter 5 - One type of workers is ________, who do all or most of their work remotely, often from home, using information technology. A) telecommuters B) temps C) walk-ins D) recruiters

A

Chapter 5 - Pamlico River Productions is seeking a top-level manager to oversee its finance division. Qualified candidates can be difficult to find, so the business would most likely benefit from using a(n) ________ to recruit potential candidates. A) executive recruiter B) temporary agency C) Internet-based job site D) alternate staffing recruiter

A

Chapter 5 - Qualifications inventories can be tracked and maintained by using all of the following EXCEPT a ________. A) ratio analysis matrix B) personnel replacement chart C) position replacement card D) skills inventory software

A

Chapter 5 - What is the typical compensation structure for on-demand recruiting services? A) hourly rate B) commission C) percentage fee D) signing bonus

A

Chapter 5 - Which of the following determines future staff needs by using ratios between a causal factor and the number of employees required? A) ratio analysis B) forecasting ratio C) personnel ratio D) ratio matrix

A

Chapter 5 - Which of the following factors plays the greatest role in determining the best medium for a job advertisement? A) skills needed for the job B) job compensation and salary C) time allowed to fill the position D) graphics used in the advertisement

A

Chapter 5 - Which of the following is typically responsible for paying the fees charged by a private employment agency when an applicant is placed in a job? A) employers B) employees C) state employment commissions D) independent recruiters

A

Chapter 5 - Which of the following terms refers to the background investigations, tests, and physical exams that firms use to identify viable candidates for a job? A) selection tools B) job analysis methods C) personnel techniques D) forecasting tools

A

Chapter 6 - A reliable employment test will most likely yield ________. A) consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test B) improved scores when a person takes the same test more than once in a single day C) high scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test on different occasions D) similar scores when two different people are administered the test at different times

A

Chapter 6 - ________ represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active. A) Extroversion B) Conscientiousness C) Agreeableness D) Openness to experience

A

Chapter 6 - According to a survey, most employers who administer tests to applicants are measuring ________. A) job skills B) psychological behaviors C) interpersonal behaviors D) ethical opinions

A

Chapter 6 - Carl recently participated in a selection test for a position at Northern Aeronautics. The test measured Carl's finger dexterity and reaction time, so it was most likely a(n) ________ test. A) motor ability B) personality C) cognitive D) interest

A

Chapter 6 - Mike Simmons recently applied for a position with Pfizer Pharmaceuticals. Which personality trait most likely has the strongest correlation to Mike's success as a pharmaceutical sales representative? A) extroversion B) agreeableness C) conscientiousness D) openness to experience

A

Chapter 6 - Tina is applying for a job as an assembly worker at Honda. As part of the selection procedure, Tina received classroom instruction and was asked to practice assembling windshield wipers onto cars. Tina most likely participated in ________. A) miniature job training and evaluation B) situational judgment tests C) assessment centers D) management games

A

Chapter 6 - What is the primary disadvantage of using concurrent validation? A) Current employees may not be representative of new applicants. B) New applicants are recent college graduates with limited experience. C) Limited correlation exists between high test scores and job performance. D) Test batteries have not been administered by professional industrial psychologists.

A

Chapter 6 - Which of the following is the primary advantage of the work sampling technique? A) Applicants find it difficult to fake answers. B) Employers learn about an applicant's personality. C) Applicants can evaluate their own performance. D) Fine motor skills can be accurately assessed over time.

A

Chapter 6 - Which of the following methods for gathering background information about a job applicant is NOT recommended because of potential legal violations? A) searching social networking sites for posted information about the applicant B) using a database to access information about the applicant's credit history C) locating references other than the ones provided by the applicant D) using a search engine to find information about the applicant

A

Chapter 6 - Which of the following personality dimensions represents a tendency to exhibit poor emotional adjustment and experience negative effects such as anxiety, insecurity, and hostility? A) neuroticism B) extroversion C) conscientiousness D) openness to experience

A

Chapter 6 - What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding tolerance of others who steal and other forms of counter productivity? A) honesty tests B) interest inventories C) personality tests D) graphology

A

Chapter 7 - Which question below is an example of a behavioral question? A) "Can you tell me about a time when you solved a really difficult problem?" B) "What is your attitude about working with a sales team instead of independently?" C) "What factors do you consider before underwriting an insurance policy for a new client?" D) "What are your long-term goals and aspirations as a social worker?"

A

Chapter 7 - Which question below is an example of a situational question? A) "Suppose you were giving a sales presentation and a difficult technical question arose that you could not answer. What would you do?" B) "Based on your past work experience, what is the most significant action you have ever taken to help out a co-worker?" C) "What work experiences, training, or other qualifications do you have for working in a teamwork environment?" D) "What factors should one consider when developing a television advertising campaign?"

A

Chapter 7 - Which type of interview questions are most likely designed to probe an applicant's motivation to meet the job's requirements through activities such as physical labor, customer service, and frequent travel? A) willingness B) behavioral C) personality D) job knowledge

A

Chapter 8 - Which process involves assessing the company's strategic needs, appraising the current performance of managers, and building skills of managers? A) management development B) performance management C) strategic management D) management by objectives

A

Chapter 8 - ________ training is a method in which trainees learn on actual or simulated equipment but are trained away from the job. A) Vestibule B) Virtual-reality C) Programmed D) Job instruction

A

Chapter 8 - According to Kurt Lewin, in order for organizational change to occur, which stage must occur first? A) unfreezing B) moving C) refreezing D) freezing

A

Chapter 8 - All of the following are literacy training methods used by employers EXCEPT ________. A) providing computerized simulations B) assigning writing exercises to employees C) holding math and reading classes at work D) sending employees to adult education classes

A

Chapter 8 - All of the following are types of on-the-job training EXCEPT ________. A) programmed learning B) understudy method C) special assignments D) job rotation

A

Chapter 8 - James, an HR manager, is currently identifying the specific knowledge and skills required for a telemarketing position at Newman Enterprises. James is most likely involved in which of the following? A) task analysis B) program evaluation C) employee development D) screening

A

Chapter 8 - Rebekah was hired soon after graduation and assigned to complete a management trainee program. She will move to various jobs each month for a nine-month period of time. Her employer is utilizing the ________ form of training. A) job rotation B) understudy C) job expansion D) informal learning

A

Chapter 8 - Tyler, a new accounts representative at Martin Marketing, is learning the job by actually doing job-related tasks such as contacting customers. Tyler is most likely participating in ________. A) on-the-job training B) socialization C) social learning D) modeling

A

Chapter 8 - United Airlines utilizes a checklist of things that pilots should do prior to take-off and landing. This checklist is an example of a(n) ________. A) job aid B) skill sheet C) work function analysis D) electronic support system

A

Chapter 8 - What is the final step in the ADDIE training process? A) evaluating the program's successes or failures B) rewarding employees for program participation C) conducting a budget and needs analysis D) training the targeted group of employees

A

Chapter 8 - When jobs consist of a logical sequence of steps and are best taught step-by-step, the most appropriate training method to use is ________. A) job instruction training B) apprenticeship training C) programmed learning D) job rotation

A

Chapter 8 - Which of the following best describes the first step in a performance analysis? A) comparing a person's actual performance to the ideal performance B) investigating employee-related customer complaints C) evaluating supervisor performance reviews D) conducting job knowledge assessments

A

Chapter 8 - Which of the following terms refers to helping new employees appreciate the values and culture of a firm? A) onboarding B) outsourcing C) organizing D) offshoring

A

Chapter 8 - Which of the following would most likely occur during the fourth step of the ADDIE training process? A) holding on-the-job training sessions B) selecting employees for training C) preparing online training materials D) asking participants for feedback

A

Chapter 8 - ________ are special software tools that support Internet training by helping employers identify training needs, and to schedule, deliver, assess, and manage the online training itself. A) Learning management systems B) Intelligent tutoring systems C) Computer simulations D) Learning portals

A

Chapter 9 - In most organizations, who is primarily responsible for appraising an employee's performance? A) employee's direct supervisor B) company appraiser C) human resources manager D) employee's subordinates

A

Chapter 9 - SMART goals are best described as ________. A) specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and timely B) straightforward, meaningful, accessible, real, and tested C) strategic, moderate, achievable, relevant, and timely D) supportive, meaningful, attainable, real, and timely

A

Chapter 9 - The best way to reduce the problem of central tendency in performance appraisals is to ________. A) rank employees B) use graphic rating scales C) limit the number of appraisals D) appraise personal characteristics

A

Chapter 9 - When an employee's performance is so poor that a written warning is required, the warning should ________. A) identify the standards by which the employee is judged B) provide examples of employees who met the standards C) provide examples of times when the employee met the standards D) be written by a labor law attorney in accordance with federal guidelines

A

Chapter 5 - Finding or attracting applicants for an employer's open positions is known as ________. A) succession planning B) employee recruiting C) personnel planning D) job posting

B

Chapter 9 - Which of the following would most likely result in a legally questionable appraisal process? A) basing appraisals on subjective supervisory observations B) administering and scoring appraisals in a standardized fashion C) using job performance dimensions that are too clearly defined D) assigning specific trait names when using graphic rating scales

A

Chapter 1 - Which of the following is an aspect of "distributed" HR? A) more centralized HRM decisions B) HRM tasks redistributed to the company's employees and line managers C) more paperwork D) HR professional embedded in all departments

B

Chapter 1 - Which organization of the human resource function involves dedicated HR members that assist top management in issues such as developing the personnel aspects of the company's longterm strategic plan? A) embedded HR teams B) corporate HR teams C) centers of expertise D) shared services

B

Chapter 1 - Which organization provides professional certification for human resource managers? A) Association of Certified HR Managers B) Society for Human Resource Management C) Academy of Human Resource Executives D) Association of Business Administration

B

Chapter 1 - Which term refers to exporting jobs to lower-cost locations abroad? A) freelancing B) offshoring C) rightsizing D) warehousing

B

Chapter 1 - Which term refers to the HR manager putting into place the policies and practices that produce the employee competencies and skills the company needs to achieve its strategic goals? A) HR department lever B) strategic results lever C) practices D) employee cost lever

B

Chapter 3 - According to the text, approximately what percentage of the U.S. workforce feels engaged? A) 5% B) 30% C) 50% D) 75%

B

Chapter 3 - Which of the following is NOT one of the steps KIA UK used in their employee engagement HR strategy? A) set measurable objectives B) focused on bonus-based compensation C) held an extensive leadership development program D) improved internal communications

B

Chapter 3 - ________ defines the nature of the company's business in terms of how it will match its internal strengths and weaknesses with its external opportunities and threats in order to maintain a competitive position. A) Financial auditing B) Strategic planning C) Employee benchmarking D) Employee testing

B

Chapter 3 - A firm's functional strategies identify the broad activities that each ________ will do in order to help the business accomplish its strategic goals. A) supplier B) department C) executive D) employee

B

Chapter 3 - All of the following are services that human resource consulting companies provide during mergers and acquisitions EXCEPT ________. A) aligning compensation programs B) overseeing database recovery systems C) helping to determine which employee is best for which role in the new organization D) identifying key talent and suitable retention strategies

B

Chapter 3 - All of the following practices are most likely implemented by companies with highperformance work systems EXCEPT ________. A) hiring employees based on validated selection tests B) providing pay increases based on service years C) extensive training of the workforce D) utilizing self-managing work teams

B

Chapter 3 - Companies like Ferrari are known as ________ because they carve out a market niche and compete by providing a product that customers can attain in no other way. A) cost leaders B) focusers C) visionaries D) market leaders

B

Chapter 3 - Human resource strategies are the ________ used to support a firm's strategic goals. A) visions and objectives B) policies and practices C) missions and goals D) theories and tools

B

Chapter 3 - Sweet Leaf Tea, a Texas-based maker of bottled iced tea, is a small but fast-growing firm that has gained a loyal following for its use of fresh, organic ingredients in its beverages. Although beverage industry experts recommended that Sweet Leaf replace the organic cane sugar and honey it uses with less costly high-fructose corn syrup, Sweet Leaf refused because of the company's mission to provide a high-quality, organic beverage to consumers. The 11-year old company has 50 employees, and its products are available in 30% of the U.S. market. Sweet Leaf Tea recently received multi-million dollar investments which will enable the business to expand its national presence. Which of the following, if true, best supports the idea that Sweet Leaf Tea has implemented a competitive strategy of differentiation? A) New Sweet Leaf Tea customers are initially attracted to the unique labels and logo on the bottles. B) Loyal customers of Sweet Leaf Tea seek products that are USDA certified organic despite the associated higher costs. C) Other brands of bottled iced tea compete with Sweet Leaf Tea by offering new flavors at competitive prices. D) Sweet Leaf Tea sells both lemonade and teas in a variety of flavors that appeal to consumers of all ages.

B

Chapter 3 - The concise measurement system used by companies to show the quantitative standards the firm uses to measure HR activities, employee behaviors resulting from the activities, and the strategically relevant organizational outcomes of those employee behaviors is called a(n) ________. A) evaluation system B) HR scorecard C) appraisal system D) evaluation benchmark

B

Chapter 3 - The primary purpose of strategic human resource management is to ________. A) develop human resource policies that align with industry standards B) integrate a company's strategic plan with its human resource strategies C) create stringent appraisal systems that highlight employee weaknesses D) use offshoring to reduce human resource costs and to initiate globalization

B

Chapter 3 - What is the first step in the strategic management process? A) formulating a strategy B) asking, "Where are we now as a business?" C) evaluating the strategic plan D) implementing an environmental scan

B

Chapter 3 - Which of the following is a simple guide used to compile relevant information about a company's environment including economic, competitive, and political trends that may affect a firm? A) workforce requirement matrix B) environmental scan worksheet C) external resource system table D) potential globalization network

B

Chapter 3 - Which of the following is used to manage employee performance and to align all employees with the key objectives a firm needs to achieve its strategic goals? A) functional planning system B) HR scorecard C) annual HR benchmarks D) high-performance work system

B

Chapter 3 - Which of the following questions would LEAST likely be answered by the use of workforce analytics software? A) Which departments need improvement? B) What hiring policies are standard in the industry? C) How many workers will the firm need in five years? D) Why do employees choose to leave the organization?

B

Chapter 3 - Which of the following refers to a process for assigning financial and nonfinancial goals to the HR management-related chain of activities required for achieving the company's strategic aims and for monitoring results? A) strategy map B) HR scorecard C) HR feedback scale D) digital dashboard

B

Chapter 3 - Which of the following refers to any factors that allow a company to differentiate its product or service from those of its competitors to increase market share? A) functional strategy B) competitive advantage C) distinctive competency D) related diversification

B

Chapter 3 - Which of the following terms refers to the quantitative measure of a human resource management yardstick such as employee turnover or qualified applicants per position? A) human resource audits B) human resource metrics C) management by objectives D) human resource scorecards

B

Chapter 3 - Which term indicates the course of action for getting from where you are to where you want to go? A) goal B) plan C) proposition D) assessment

B

Chapter 3 - Which term refers to software applications used to analyze and draw conclusions from HR data? A) data mines B) talent analytics C) HR scorecards D) digital dashboards

B

Chapter 4 - A manager uses the information in a job analysis for all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) assessing training requirements B) complying with FCC regulations C) determining appropriate compensation D) providing accurate performance appraisals

B

Chapter 4 - A(n) ________ shows the flow of inputs to and outputs from a job being analyzed. A) organization chart B) process chart C) job analysis D) job description

B

Chapter 4 - According to research, each of the following work behaviors is considered important in all jobs EXCEPT ________. A) attendance B) experience C) schedule flexibility D) industriousness

B

Chapter 4 - According to the ADA, job duties that employees must be able to perform, with or without reasonable accommodation, are called ________. A) job requirements B) essential job functions C) work activities D) job specifications

B

Chapter 4 - According to the ________, an individual must have the requisite skills, educational background, and experience to perform a job's essential functions. A) DOL B) ADA C) FCC D) SIC

B

Chapter 4 - Pocket dictating machines and pagers have replaced traditional diary/log methods in many firms. Which of the following problems have the modern methods most likely eliminated? A) work time required to fill out forms and surveys B) employee forgetfulness regarding daily activities C) costs associated with copying and filing paperwork D) employee frustration towards bureaucratic requirements

B

Chapter 4 - The rethinking and redesign of business processes to achieve dramatic improvements in performance is called ________. A) job redesign B) reengineering C) process engineering D) job enlargement

B

Chapter 4 - What has been the most significant impact of modern technology on job analysis methods? A) Extensive use of the Internet by HR managers enables more people to telecommute from locations far from corporate headquarters. B) Corporate use of the Internet and intranet has enabled HR managers to distribute and collect job analysis surveys to employees in multiple geographic locations. C) Worker functions have changed as a result of modern technology, so the DOL procedure for data collection has been modified and categories have been altered. D) The ability to falsify information on Internet surveys has led to an increase in interviews and observations by HR managers to collect accurate job analysis information.

B

Chapter 4 - Which of the following data collection techniques would be most useful when writing a job description for a software engineer? A) distributing position analysis questionnaires B) interviewing employees C) analyzing organization charts D) developing a job process chart

B

Chapter 4 - Which of the following is identified by the FLSA status section of a job description? A) whether the employer is a non-profit organization B) whether a job is exempt or nonexempt C) whether the employer is a private or public firm D) whether a job requires a college degree

B

Chapter 4 - Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using interviews to collect job analysis data? A) Interviews are a complicated method for collecting information. B) Employees may exaggerate or minimize some information. C) Interviews provide only general information about a worker's duties. D) Interviews may require managers to reveal the job analysis function

B

Chapter 4 - Which of the following terms refers to redesigning jobs in a way that increases the opportunities for the worker to experience feelings of responsibility, achievement, growth, and recognition? A) job rotation B) job enrichment C) job reengineering D) job enlargement

B

Chapter 5 - In regards to on-campus recruiting, which of the following is most likely to help sell the employer to the interviewee? A) recruiter's professional attire B) sincerity of the recruiter C) emphasis on the job location D) well-written job descriptions

B

Chapter 5 - Counselors in state-run employment agencies conduct all of the following activities EXCEPT ________. A) reviewing employer job requirements B) filing employer tax reports C) visiting employer work sites D) writing job descriptions

B

Chapter 5 - Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotels to manage staffing for the regional hotel chain. Barnum intends to open two new hotels within the next three years and will have many job positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company's goals for the future and improve employee retention rates. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that a scatter plot is the most appropriate tool for Marie to use in estimating future personnel needs? A) Productivity levels for Barnum employees typically vary from month to month. B) The size of the two new Barnum hotels will be similar to the chain's other hotels. C) Barnum requires HR to maintain qualifications inventories for all current employees. D) Personnel replacement charts serve as useful tools when filling Barnum's managerial positions.

B

Chapter 5 - Newton Building Supplies hopes to generate an extra $4 million in sales next year. A salesperson traditionally generates $800,000 in sales each year. Using ratio analysis, how many new salespeople should Newton hire? A) 2 B) 5 C) 10 D) 20

B

Chapter 5 - The ________ run by the U.S. Department of Labor enables public employment agency counselors to advise applicants about local and national job openings. A) U.S. Career Center B) National Job Bank C) National Employment Agency D) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

B

Chapter 5 - The ongoing process of systematically identifying, assessing, and developing organizational leadership to enhance performance is known as ________. A) employee mentoring B) succession planning C) work sampling D) employee recruiting

B

Chapter 5 - The process of deciding how to fill executive positions at a firm is known as ________. A) internal recruiting B) succession planning C) long-term forecasting D) advanced interviewing

B

Chapter 5 - What is an advantage of using employee referral campaigns? A) Local, hourly workers can be recruited quickly. B) Applicants have received realistic job previews. C) Rewards and incentives are eliminated. D) Applicants have community ties.

B

Chapter 5 - What is the first step in succession planning? A) creating an applicant pool B) identifying and analyzing key position needs C) selecting who will fill key positions D) developing the strengths of current employees

B

Chapter 5 - When constructing a job advertisement, all of the following are aspects of the AIDA guide EXCEPT ________. A) attracting attention to the ad B) implying long-term benefits C) prompting applicant action D) developing interest in the job

B

Chapter 5 - When managers need to determine which current employees are available for promotion or transfer, they will most likely use ________. A) scatter plots B) skills inventories C) estimated sales trends D) personnel forecasts

B

Chapter 5 - Which of the following contains data regarding employees' education, career development, and special skills and is used by managers when selecting inside candidates for promotion? A) computerized forecasting tools B) qualifications inventories C) trend records D) scatter plots

B

Chapter 5 - Which of the following has improved the ability of executive recruiters to find potential candidates? A) mobility premiums B) Internet databases C) corporate intranets D) broad banding

B

Chapter 5 - Which of the following is NOT a tool used by firms to recruit outside candidates? A) newspaper advertising B) intranet job postings C) employment agencies D) online job boards

B

Chapter 5 - Which of the following is most likely a true statement about mandatory alternative dispute resolution agreements? A) Most federal courts have found the documents unenforceable. B) Judicial appeals and reconsideration are available if legal errors occur. C) Employees absorb most of the costs associated with the arbitration process. D) Job applicants are typically more interested in firms that require arbitration

B

Chapter 5 - Which of the following is the primary disadvantage for employers who use private employment agencies to fill positions? A) White-collar applicants are difficult to attract. B) Applicant screening may not be thorough. C) Applicant processing time is too lengthy. D) Application procedures are complicated.

B

Chapter 5 - Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using internal sources of candidates to fill vacant positions in a firm? A) lack of knowledge regarding a candidate's strengths B) potential to lose employees who aren't promoted C) questionable commitment of candidates to the firm D) significant training and orientation requirements

B

Chapter 5 - Which of the following motivates most employees over 65 to work? A) overtime payments B) schedule flexibility C) supportive work environments D) additional sick days

B

Chapter 5 - Which of the following terms refers to studying a firm's past employment needs over a period of years to predict future needs? A) ratio analysis B) trend analysis C) graphical analysis D) computer analysis

B

Chapter 5 - Workforce planning often involves paying continuous attention to workforce planning issues which is called: A) personnel replacement chart B) predictive workforce monitoring C) personnel replacement charts D) yield pyramids

B

Chapter 6 - ________ validation is considered the most dependable method of validating an employment test. A) Applicable B) Predictive C) Concurrent D) Statistical

B

Chapter 6 - According to experts known as human lie detectors, which of the following characteristics most likely indicates that a job candidate is being deceptive? A) uncrossed legs B) irregular breathing C) unchanging pupils D) slow verbal responses

B

Chapter 6 - According to surveys of HR managers, which of the following is most frequently verified during an employment background investigation? A) age B) references C) credit ratings D) driving records

B

Chapter 6 - All of the following are most likely assessed on personality tests EXCEPT ________. A) extraversion B) reasoning C) sensitivity D) emotional stability

B

Chapter 6 - Carter Vacuums needs to hire 20 new employees to fill positions at its manufacturing facility. The HR department wants to minimize the costs related to screening applicants but also wants the assessment method to be highly valid to the specific jobs. Which of the following would be the best choice for Carter Vacuums? A) structured interviews B) cognitive ability tests C) assessment centers D) work samples

B

Chapter 6 - Grafton Industries administers selection tests to job candidates. The tests measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability, so they are most likely ________ tests. A) standardized B) intelligence C) achievement D) personality

B

Chapter 6 - The Big Five personality dimensions include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) neuroticism B) optimism C) extroversion D) conscientiousness

B

Chapter 6 - Which of the following is most likely true regarding substance abuse screening? A) According to federal law, all employers must test all employees for illegal drugs. B) Some urine sample tests cannot distinguish between legal and illegal substances. C) Most employers test potential applicants during the recruitment process. D) Most urine sample tests measure the degree of impairment

B

Chapter 6 - Which of the following measures reliability by administering two different yet comparable tests and then comparing the two test scores? A) retest estimate B) equivalent form estimate C) internal comparison estimate D) criterion validity measurement

B

Chapter 6 - Which of the following terms refers to hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards? A) employment malpractice B) negligent hiring C) improper hiring D) invalid screening

B

Chapter 6 - Which of the following terms refers to the accuracy with which a test fulfills the function for which it was designed? A) reliability B) validity C) expectancy D) consistency

B

Chapter 6 - Which of the following terms refers to the consistency of scores obtained by the same person when retested with alternate forms of the same test? A) equivalency B) reliability C) expectancy D) validity

B

Chapter 6 - While some personality characteristics are associated with success in different types of jobs, which personality trait is most frequently associated with job performance in all jobs? A) openness to experience B) conscientiousness C) extroversion D) agreeableness

B

Chapter 6 - With the work sampling technique, applicants are ________. A) asked to submit examples of projects they have completed for other employers B) tested on their ability to perform several tasks crucial to performing the job of interest C) tested on their ability to perform a range of tasks related to several positions in a firm D) given video-based situational interviews to assess their critical thinking skills

B

Chapter 7 - According to studies, which of the following has the most influence on the outcome of a job interview? A) thank-you notes sent from the candidate to the interviewer B) an interviewer's first impression of the candidate C) favorable information about the candidate D) a candidate's extroverted personality

B

Chapter 7 - The primary purpose for conducting a case interview is to ________. A) provide a candidate with a realistic job preview B) form a realistic assessment of a candidate's skills C) ensure that a candidate's needs are expressed D) determine how a candidate handles criticism

B

Chapter 7 - Career FAQs lists things that interviewees should keep in mind when doing an online video interview. Which of the following is NOT one of them? A) clean up the room B) use a new computer C) do a dry run D) look presentable

B

Chapter 7 - Consider the question: "Can you provide an example of a specific instance where you provided leadership in a difficult situation?" What type of question is this? A) background question B) behavioral question C) situational question D) job knowledge question

B

Chapter 7 - Dr. Ross is interviewing for a position as Assistant Professor of Biology. His interview is conducted by a team of other faculty members in the department who interview him simultaneously and then combine their ratings into one score. This is an example of a ________ interview. A) serial B) panel C) one-on-one D) mass

B

Chapter 7 - How do situational interviews differ from behavioral interviews? A) Situational interviews are based on an applicant's responses to actual past situations. B) Situational interviews are based on how an applicant might behave in a hypothetical situation. C) Situational interviews ask applicants job-related questions to assess their knowledge and skills. D) Behavioral interviews ask applicants to describe their emotions in different hypothetical situations.

B

Chapter 7 - In a stress interview, the interviewer ________. A) provides an applicant with a task to complete in a set amount of time B) tries to make the applicant uncomfortable in order to spot sensitivity C) gives a word problem to see how the candidate thinks under pressure D) describes a hypothetical situation to assess how the applicant responds

B

Chapter 7 - In order to conduct an effective interview, interviewers should NOT ask job candidates about their ________. A) knowledge B) lifelong goals C) willingness D) motivation

B

Chapter 7 - What is the best way to avoid most interview errors? A) conduct panel interviews B) use a structured interviewing format C) utilize computerized interviewing technology D) ask only situational questions during the interview

B

Chapter 7 - What type of interview would most likely include the statement, "Tell me about a time when you worked successfully in a team environment"? A) situational B) behavioral C) puzzle D) stress

B

Chapter 7 - When an interview is used to predict future job performance on the basis of an applicant's oral responses to oral inquiries, it is called a ________ interview. A) screening B) selection C) benchmark D) background

B

Chapter 7 - Which of the following is another term for an unstructured interview? A) directive B) nondirective C) unformatted D) administrative

B

Chapter 7 - Which of the following statements is representative of what might be asked in a situational interview? A) "Tell me about a time you showed leadership in a difficult situation." B) "Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue the company. What would you do?" C) "Can you think of a time when you were especially proud of your management skills? Tell me about that." D) "In this position, you are responsible for hiring and firing subordinates. Have you ever fired anyone before? Describe how you handled the situation."

B

Chapter 7 - Which of the following terms refers to a group of interviewers working together to question and rate one applicant? A) serial interview B) board interview C) sequential interview D) mass interview

B

Chapter 7 - Which of the following traits is most likely to be assessed accurately during an interview? A) intelligence B) agreeableness C) conscientiousness D) emotional stability

B

Chapter 7 - Which of the following would most likely increase candidate-order errors? A) applicant gender B) recruiting pressure C) poor first impression D) lack of job knowledge

B

Chapter 8 - ________ is a detailed study of the job to determine what specific skills the job requires. A) Needs analysis B) Task analysis C) Training strategy D) Development planning

B

Chapter 8 - A graphic model that presents a precise overview of the knowledge, skills, and behaviors someone would need to perform a job well is known as a(n) ________. A) scatter plot B) competency model C) classification table D) organizational chart

B

Chapter 8 - According to Kurt Lewin, all of the following should occur in the moving stage of organizational change EXCEPT ________. A) developing a vision B) mobilizing commitment C) consolidating gains D) creating a leading coalition

B

Chapter 8 - American Airlines uses flight simulators to train pilots about airplane equipment and safety measures. This is an example of ________. A) on-the-job training B) vestibule training C) virtual reality training D) programmed learning

B

Chapter 8 - John is doing is doing a training method to learn a new job where there are sequence of steps he is supposed to learn step-by-step. This method is called: A) task analysis B) job instruction training (JIT) C) informal learning D) job rotation

B

Chapter 8 - MTR Enterprises failed to provide adequate safety training to one of its employees. As a result, the employee harmed a customer. A court would most likely find MTR liable for ________. A) discrimination B) negligent training C) occupational fraud D) hazardous training

B

Chapter 8 - The methods used to give new or present employees the skills they need to perform their jobs are called ________. A) orientation B) training C) development D) management

B

Chapter 8 - Trainees should be provided adequate practice and be allowed to work at their own pace during a training session in order to ________. A) screen applicants based on ability B) transfer skills more easily to the job C) reduce training costs D) determine appropriate pay scales

B

Chapter 8 - Travel agents at Apollo Travel Services follow a computer program that displays question prompts and dialogue boxes with travel policies as the agent enters information about the consumer's travel plans. This is an example of a(n) ________. A) audiovisual-based training method B) electronic performance support system C) intelligent tutoring system D) computer-based training module

B

Chapter 8 - Which of the following consolidates information regarding required tasks and skills in a format that is helpful for determining training requirements? A) training assessment form B) task analysis record form C) organizational skills sheet D) work function analysis

B

Chapter 8 - Which of the following enables management trainees to work full-time analyzing and solving problems in other departments? A) management games B) action learning C) role playing D) job rotation

B

Chapter 8 - Which of the following is a systematic method for teaching job skills that involves presenting questions or facts, allowing the person to respond, and giving the learner immediate feedback on the accuracy of his or her answers? A) job instruction training B) programmed learning C) apprenticeship training D) simulated learning

B

Chapter 8 - Which of the following terms refers to a teaching method that uses special collaboration software to enable multiple remote learners to participate in live audio and visual discussions via a PC or laptop? A) computer simulation B) virtual classroom C) intelligent tutoring system D) learning portal

B

Chapter 8 - Which of the following will most likely occur during the third step of the ADDIE training process? A) training a targeted group B) creating training materials C) evaluating the success of the program D) estimating a budget for the training program

B

Chapter 8 - ________ means collecting data about a group, department, or organization, and feeding the information back to the employees so they can analyze it and develop hypotheses about what the problems might be. A) Laboratory training B) Action research C) Group therapy D) Diversity training

B

Chapter 9 - Employee performance appraisals are conducted by all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) peers B) competitors C) subordinates D) rating committees

B

Chapter 9 - Which of the following is the easiest and most popular technique for appraising employee performance? A) alternation ranking B) graphic rating scale C) forced distribution D) constant sum rating scale

B

Chapter 9 - Which of the following terms refers to the process of allowing subordinates to rate their supervisor's performance anonymously? A) supplemental evaluation B) upward feedback C) paired evaluation D) peer evaluation

B

Chapter 9 - All of the following are reasons for appraising an employee's performance EXCEPT ________. A) correcting any work-related deficiencies B) creating an organizational strategy map C) determining appropriate salary and bonuses D) making decisions about promotions

B

Chapter 9 - All of the following guidelines will most likely improve the effectiveness of a performance appraisal EXCEPT ________. A) maintaining a diary of employees' performance during the year B) using a graphic rating scale to ensure fair and consistent ratings C) knowing the advantages and disadvantages of different appraisal tools D) developing a plan to assist employees with performance improvement

B

Chapter 9 - In most firms, a rating committee used for performance appraisals consists of ________ members. A) 2-3 B) 4-5 C) 6-8 D) 9-10

B

Chapter 9 - John, the supervisor of the manufacturing department at a computer firm, is in the process of evaluating his staff's performance. He has determined that 15% of the group will be identified as high performers, 20% as above average performers, 30% as average performers, 20% as below average performers, and 15% as poor performers. Which performance appraisal tool has John chosen to use? A) behaviorally anchored rating scale B) forced distribution C) alternation ranking D) paired comparison

B

Chapter 9 - Nick supervises a team of data entry specialists. Lately, productivity has been down, and Nick believes his subordinates are not working as efficiently as possible. Which of the following tools would provide Nick with daily information about each employee's rate, accuracy, and time spent entering data? A) digital dashboard device B) electronic performance monitoring system C) Web-based management oversight device D) electronic performance support system

B

Chapter 9 - Stacey is using a behaviorally anchored rating scale as a performance appraisal tool. She has already asked employees and supervisors to describe critical incidents of effective and ineffective job performance. What should Stacey most likely do next? A) create a final appraisal instrument B) develop performance dimensions C) reallocate the incidents D) rate the incidents

B

Chapter 9 - The first step in developing a behaviorally anchored rating scale is to ________. A) develop performance dimensions B) write critical incidents C) reallocate incidents D) scale incidents

B

Chapter 9 - The most popular method for ranking employees is the ________ method. A) graphic ranking scale B) alternation ranking C) paired comparison D) forced distribution

B

Chapter 9 - The primary purpose of providing employees with feedback during a performance appraisal is to motivate employees to ________. A) apply for managerial positions B) remove any performance deficiencies C) revise their performance standards D) enroll in work-related training programs

B

Chapter 9 - What is the first step of any performance appraisal? A) giving feedback B) setting work standards C) making plans to provide training D) assessing the employee's performance

B

Chapter 9 - What is the primary goal of using mixed standard scales? A) improving validity B) reducing rating errors C) clarifying performance standards D) illustrating feedback for subordinates

B

Chapter 9 - When a supervisor must criticize a subordinate in an appraisal interview, it is most important for the supervisor to ________. A) limit negative feedback to once every year B) provide specific examples of critical incidents C) acknowledge the supervisor's personal biases in the situation D) hold the meeting with other people who can document the situation

B

Chapter 9 - Which of the following best describes a behaviorally anchored rating scale? A) chart of paired subordinates ranked in order of performance B) combination of narrative critical incidents and quantified performance scales C) diary of positive and negative examples of a subordinate's work performance D) list of subordinates from highest to lowest based on specific performance traits

B

Chapter 9 - Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause a supervisor's performance appraisal of a subordinate to be biased? A) purpose of the appraisal B) location and time of the appraisal C) personal characteristics of the subordinate D) relationship between supervisor and subordinate

B

Chapter 9 - Which of the following is a downside of the critical incident method of compiling incidents? A) doesn't provide examples of excellent work performance B) doesn't produce relative ratings for pay raise purposes C) doesn't make the supervisor think about the subordinate's appraisal all year D) doesn't compile examples of ineffective work performance

B

Chapter 9 - Which of the following is a performance appraisal problem that occurs when a supervisor's rating of a subordinate on one trait biases the rating of that person on other traits? A) recency effect B) halo effect C) central tendency D) stereotyping

B

Chapter 9 - Which of the following is one of the primary complaints regarding the use of the forced distribution method for performance appraisals? A) difficult to implement B) harm to employee morale C) high costs of administration D) time consuming to administer

B

Chapter 9 - Which of the following terms refers to setting specific measurable goals with each employee and then periodically reviewing the progress made? A) behaviorally anchored rating scale B) management by objective C) mixed standard scales D) forced distribution

B

Chapter 9 - Which of the following terms refers to the process of evaluating an employee's current and/or past performance relative to his or her performance standards? A) employee selection B) performance appraisal C) employee orientation D) organizational development

B

Chapter 9 - Which performance appraisal problem is associated with supervisors giving all of their subordinates consistently high ratings? A) central tendency B) leniency C) strictness D) halo effect

B

Chapter 9 - Which performance appraisal technique lists traits and a range of performance values for each trait? A) behaviorally anchored rating scale B) graphic rating scale C) forced distribution D) critical incident

B

Chapter 1 - Roberta Whitman has recently been hired by Jackson Pharmaceuticals as the senior vice president of human resources. Jackson Pharmaceuticals has a history of problems within its HR department including difficulties recruiting and retaining qualified employees, EEO violations, inadequate employee training programs, and confusion regarding health benefit enrollment and coverage. With years of experience transforming HR departments in other firms, Whitman believes she can correct the problems at Jackson Pharmaceuticals. Which of the following best supports Whitman's idea to develop a shared services arrangement to handle benefits administration? A) An embedded HR unit would assist top management with big picture issues as well as benefits administration. B) Extensive training has been provided to line managers so that they fully understand the different insurance options available to employees. C) Outside vendors specializing in all aspects of benefits administration would provide improved support to the firm's employees. D) Lower insurance premiums would eliminate the need for outsourcing services and improve employee health coverage.

C

Chapter 1 - The recent trend where in some occupations (such as high-tech) unemployment rates are low, while in others unemployment rates are still very high and recruiters in many companies can't find candidates, while in others there's a wealth of candidates is called: A) talent analytics B) globalization C) the unbalanced labor force D) human capital

C

Chapter 1 - The vice president of marketing tells a marketing manager to prepare a presentation by the end of the week. The vice president is most likely exercising which of the following? A) staff authority B) procedural authority C) line authority D) functional authority

C

Chapter 1 - Which HR specialty involves preparing job descriptions? A) compensation manager B) EEO coordinator C) job analyst D) recruiter

C

Chapter 1 - Which of the following best describes a nontraditional worker? A) workers near retirement age B) ethnically diverse workers C) workers with multiple jobs D) service-based workers

C

Chapter 1 - Which of the following is NOT a HR certification? A) HRCI's Professional in Human Resources (PHR) B) HRCI's Senior Professional in Human Resources (SPHR) C) SHRM Junior Professional D) SHRM Certified Professional

C

Chapter 1 - Which of the following would most likely provide assistance to executives about long-term strategic plans? A) centers of expertise B) embedded HR teams C) corporate HR teams D) professional employee organizations

C

Chapter 1 - ________ involves formulating and executing human resource policies and practices that produce the employee competencies and behaviors the company needs to achieve its strategic aims. A) Employee engagement B) Data analytics C) Strategic human resource management D) Sustainability

C

Chapter 3 - What is the primary reason that mergers and acquisitions fail? A) technology B) financing C) personnel D) stock prices

C

Chapter 3 - Which of the following terms refers to a set of human resource management policies and practices that promote organizational effectiveness? A) management by objectives system B) human resource metric C) high-performance work system D) strategic human resource map

C

Chapter 3 - A company's ________ strategy identifies the portfolio of businesses that comprise a firm and the ways in which these businesses relate to each other. A) functional B) business unit C) corporate-level D) competitive

C

Chapter 3 - A course of action that a firm can pursue to achieve its strategic aims is known as a ________. A) vision B) goal C) strategy D) mission

C

Chapter 3 - All of the following are commonly addressed in an HR audit EXCEPT ________. A) exempt workers B) job descriptions C) accounting expenses D) workers' compensation benefits

C

Chapter 3 - Harley-Davidson sells a line of boots, helmets, and leather jackets indicating that the firm is pursuing which of the following strategies? A) consolidation B) geographic expansion C) diversification D) horizontal integration

C

Chapter 3 - John wants his shoe store to adopt the strategy of having the lowest prices on shoes in town. John is adopting which competitive strategy? A) focusers B) differentiation C) cost leadership D) providing input to top management about industry trends

C

Chapter 3 - John wants to perform external and internal audits as part of the strategic management process. What is a frequently used tool to organize relevant information on positive and negative aspects of the company and environment? A) BCG matrix B) QSPM matrix C) SWOT chart D) EPS/EBIT table

C

Chapter 3 - Lauren is identifying what each department in her company must do to help the business accomplish its strategic goals. These are known as ________ strategies. A) competitive advantage B) competitive C) functional D) vertical integration

C

Chapter 3 - Sweet Leaf Tea, a Texas-based maker of bottled iced tea, is a small but fast-growing firm that has gained a loyal following for its use of fresh, organic ingredients in its beverages. Although beverage industry experts recommended that Sweet Leaf replace the organic cane sugar and honey it uses with less costly high-fructose corn syrup, Sweet Leaf refused because of the company's mission to provide a high-quality, organic beverage to consumers. The 11-year old company has 50 employees, and its products are available in 30% of the U.S. market. Sweet Leaf Tea recently received multi-million dollar investments which will enable the business to expand its national presence. Which of the following, if true, would best support the argument that Sweet Leaf Tea should implement a corporate-level strategy of concentration? A) Sweet Leaf Tea can develop a national name by adding new product lines, such as organic snack foods and organic coffee. B) Sweet Leaf Tea's marketing research indicates that customers would purchase the organic beverages more frequently if the prices were lower. C) Market data suggests that customers really only want the tea itself, not related products. D) Sweet Leaf Tea's competitors primarily focus their marketing and distribution efforts on regional grocery-store chains rather than big box national retailers.

C

Chapter 3 - The primary purpose of implementing high-performance practices such as recruiting, screening, and training is to ________. A) foster a strong organizational culture B) create management opportunities for new hires C) develop a trained, flexible, and self-motivated workforce D) utilize benchmarks to compare personnel skills within an industry

C

Chapter 3 - The sales director at WebMD is calculating annual sales revenue targets and the number of new medical-related content providers that the firm needs to maintain a competitive advantage. In which step of the strategic management process is the sales director involved? A) evaluating the firm's internal and external strengths B) defining the business and its mission C) choosing specific strategies or courses of action D) evaluating the strategic plan

C

Chapter 3 - What is the first step in the basic planning process? A) evaluating the possible alternatives B) implementing a course of action C) setting an objective D) comparing options

C

Chapter 3 - When Apple opened its own Apple stores, this was an example of ________. A) market penetration B) concentration C) vertical integration D) consolidation

C

Chapter 3 - Which of the following is a strategic planning tool that offers an overview of how each department's performance contributes to achieving the company's overall strategic goals? A) digital dashboard B) HR scorecard C) strategy map D) HR audit

C

Chapter 3 - Which of the following is the final step in the strategic human resource management process? A) The manager asks, "What employee skills and behaviors will we need to achieve these plans and goals?" B) The manager formulates strategic plans and goals. C) The manager asks, "Specifically what recruitment, selection, training, and other HR policies and practices should we put in place so as to produce the required employee skills and behaviors?" D) The manager asks, "How much profit can we make on this?"

C

Chapter 3 - Which of the following provides a summary of a firm's intended direction and shows, in broad terms, "what we want to become"? A) mission statement B) strategic plan C) vision statement D) marketing plan

C

Chapter 5 - Jessica Garza is a manager at a large retail store. Currently, Jessica has four temporary workers under her supervision that a local staffing agency has provided. In which of the following tasks related to the temporary workers should Jessica become directly involved? A) negotiating the pay rate B) setting the time-off policies C) answering task-related questions D) providing online training and development

C

Chapter 5 - A Markov analysis is primarily used to ________. A) predict the long-term employment needs in an industry B) assess the productivity and tenure of a job applicant C) forecast the availability of internal job candidates D) analyze the effectiveness of recruitment sources

C

Chapter 5 - A ________ is a graphical method used to help identify how two variables are related. A) trend analysis B) ratio analysis C) scatter plot D) productivity chart

C

Chapter 5 - A ________ is used to calculate the number of applicants a firm must generate to hire the required number of new employees. A) trend analysis B) ratio analysis C) recruiting yield pyramid D) scatter plot

C

Chapter 5 - An employer will most likely use a private employment agency in order to ________. A) receive assistance writing job ads B) adhere to federal hiring practices C) fill a specific job opening quickly D) spend more time recruiting applicants

C

Chapter 5 - Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotels to manage staffing for the regional hotel chain. Barnum intends to open two new hotels within the next three years and will have many job positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company's goals for the future and improve employee retention rates. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that Marie should implement a computerized skills inventory database? A) Barnum offers its employees the opportunities to participate in job rotation and job expansion experiences. B) Barnum's recruiting yield pyramid indicates that the firm should generate 1,000 leads in order to fill 100 positions. C) Barnum executives would like to transfer the firm's most qualified employees to the new hotels to fill supervisory positions. D) HR managers at Barnum frequently receive discrimination complaints that must be investigated by the EEOC.

C

Chapter 5 - Smith Industries has set a goal of recruiting minority applicants. Which of the following methods is LEAST likely to be successful for Smith Industries? A) offering flexible work schedules B) providing flexible benefits plans C) utilizing executive recruiters D) collaborating with professional organizations

C

Chapter 5 - The fastest growing labor force segment in the United States over the next few years will be those from ________ years old. A) 23-29 B) 30-44 C) 45-64 D) 65+

C

Chapter 5 - What is the primary purpose of an applicant tracking system? A) sorting resumes based on an applicant's years of work experience B) generating advertisements for attracting and gathering applicants C) assisting employers in attracting, screening, and managing applicants D) assisting recruiters with locating internal applicants for key positions

C

Chapter 5 - What mathematical process do employers use to forecast availability of internal job candidates that shows the probabilities that feeder positions in a chain will be filled? A) trend analysis B) access analysis C) Markov analysis D) workforce analysis

C

Chapter 5 - When using either a trend analysis or a ratio analysis, it is assumed that ________ will remain the same. A) staffing levels B) currency rates C) productivity levels D) recruitment plans

C

Chapter 5 - Which Web site is increasingly serving as a recruitment source for passive job candidates? A) Career Builder B) You Tube C) LinkedIn D) Monster

C

Chapter 5 - Which of the following is a service that provides short-term specialized recruiting to support specific projects without the expense of retaining traditional search firms? A) top-executive searches B) contingent-based searches C) on-demand recruiting services D) just-in-time recruiting services

C

Chapter 5 - Which of the following is information that should NOT be requested on application forms? A) experience B) technical skills C) marital status D) training

C

Chapter 6 - A(n) ________ is a multi-day simulation in which candidates perform realistic tasks in hypothetical situations and are scored on their performance. A) work sampling event B) situational judgment test C) management assessment center D) applicant personality test

C

Chapter 6 - According to experts, most people are hired for their qualifications and fired because of attitude, motivation, and ________. A) physical limitations B) lack of aptitude C) temperament D) psychological issues

C

Chapter 6 - According to the American Psychological Association, all of the following are rights of test takers EXCEPT the right to expect ________. A) informed consent regarding the use of test results B) scores to be interpreted by qualified individuals C) tests to be the only selection tools for a job D) fairness of the test for all who take it

C

Chapter 6 - All of the following are measured by aptitude tests EXCEPT ________. A) deductive reasoning B) numerical ability C) temperament D) memory

C

Chapter 6 - An interest inventory compares an applicant's current interests with the interests of ________. A) retired workers B) other people in the same industry C) other people in various occupations D) managers and executives in the firm

C

Chapter 6 - As part of the selection process for a position at UPS, Jack has been asked to lift weights and jump rope. Which of the following is most likely being measured by UPS? A) interpersonal skills B) cognitive skills C) physical abilities D) achievements

C

Chapter 6 - As the HR manager at Johnson Manufacturing, Derek is responsible for deciding which selection tools are most appropriate. When deciding on a specific selection tool, Derek should most likely consider all of the following factors EXCEPT the tool's ________. A) return on investment B) adverse impact C) persistence D) usability

C

Chapter 6 - Blue Bay Hotels is in the process of modifying the assessment methods the company uses to hire new employees. In the past, the hotel chain has been accused by minority organizations of violating EEO laws in its hiring practices. Which of the following applicant assessment methods would most likely have the LEAST adverse impact on minorities? A) aptitude tests B) cognitive ability tests C) work sampling technique D) job knowledge tests

C

Chapter 6 - Demonstrating the content validity of a test can be best accomplished by showing that ________. A) tasks performed on the test are general enough to apply to any type of job B) higher test scores are statistically equivalent to proven, long-term job success C) the test is representative of important aspects of performance on the job D) scores on the test are both internally and externally reliable

C

Chapter 6 - Employers most likely conduct background investigations and reference checks to verify a candidate's ________. A) age B) marital status C) military service D) disability history

C

Chapter 6 - For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests. Which of the following, if true, supports the argument that Golden Creamery should require franchise owners to use the firm's preemployment tests? A) Hourly employees at Golden Creamery stores typically remain with the company long enough to be promoted to management positions. B) Golden Creamery franchise owners pay an initial franchise fee and receive a percentage of sales royalties in return. C) Annual turnover rates for hourly employees of Golden Creamery stores are three times the rate of comparable businesses. D) Individuals interested in working at a Golden Creamery store can complete online applications on the firm's Web site.

C

Chapter 6 - If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that this test is ________. A) valid B) invalid C) reliable D) unreliable

C

Chapter 6 - The first step in the test validation process is ________. A) creating a test battery B) administering tests C) analyzing the job D) cross-validating

C

Chapter 6 - The tendency for one to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle is the personality dimension known as ________. A) extroversion B) conscientiousness C) agreeableness D) openness to experience

C

Chapter 6 - Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) the in-basket B) leaderless group discussions C) motor skills assessments D) management games

C

Chapter 6 - When repetitive questions appear on a questionnaire, which of the following is most likely being measured? A) test validity B) retest estimate C) internal consistency D) criterion validity

C

Chapter 6 - Which if the following is a projective personality test? A) MMPI B) California Psychological Inventory C) Make a Picture Story D) Myers Briggs Test

C

Chapter 6 - Which of the following is the primary reason that firms conduct background investigations of job applicants? A) adhere to legal hiring practices B) limit the number of applicants C) uncover false information D) report criminals to police

C

Chapter 6 - Which of the following is used to measure job knowledge? A) aptitude tests B) interest inventories C) achievement tests D) projective tests

C

Chapter 6 - Which personality characteristic is comprised of both achievement and dependability? A) neuroticism B) extroversion C) conscientiousness D) agreeableness

C

Chapter 6 - Work sampling, miniature job training, and video-based tests are examples of ________. A) intelligence tests B) personality tests C) situational tests D) interests inventories

C

Chapter 6 - E-Verify is primarily used by employers to ________. A) review an applicant's employment records B) file an applicant's income tax information C) determine if an applicant is eligible to work in the U.S. D) report an applicant's work status to the U.S. government

C

Chapter 6 - Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called ________. A) numerology B) reasoning analysis C) handwriting analysis D) polygraph output assessment

C

Chapter 7 - After creating questions for a structured situational interview, ________ need to be developed for scoring purposes. A) grade definitions B) alternative rankings C) benchmark answers D) human resource metrics

C

Chapter 7 - All of the following will most likely improve the structure of an interview EXCEPT ________. A) using the same questions for all candidates B) rating candidate answers against a scale C) asking candidates to describe themselves D) using a standardized interview form

C

Chapter 7 - An employer can most likely increase the reliability of a panel interview by ________. A) using an unstructured interview format B) interviewing multiple candidates simultaneously C) providing interviewers with scoring sheets and sample answers D) requiring candidates to participate in work sampling techniques

C

Chapter 7 - Antone is applying for a job with Boscom Manufacturing as a chemical engineer. During the interview, Antone is asked the following question: "How does extreme heat affect hydrochloric acid?" The interviewer is most likely trying to assess Antone's ________. A) motivation B) flexibility C) knowledge D) leadership

C

Chapter 7 - Ellen is interviewing along with several other talented candidates for a position as a journalist at a newspaper. A team of interviewers will meet with all the candidates at once. The team will pose problems to the candidates and see which candidate takes the lead in formulating an answer. This is most likely an example of a ________ interview. A) serial B) board C) mass D) panel

C

Chapter 7 - Kevin is interviewing for a position as a public relations specialist in a communications firm. He first meets with the HR manager. Afterwards, he meets with the department manager. Finally, he meets with the company president. Kevin is most likely experiencing a ________ interview. A) board B) panel C) serial D) mass

C

Chapter 7 - What type of interview would most likely include the following: "It must be difficult to leave a company after such strong accusations of unethical behavior. Tell me about that"? A) situational B) behavioral C) stress D) puzzle

C

Chapter 7 - When developing a structured situational interview, the first step in the process is ________. A) rating the job's main duties B) creating interview questions C) analyzing the job D) creating benchmark answers

C

Chapter 7 - When interviewing an applicant with a disability who uses assistive technology, which of the following questions should NOT be asked? A) Have you ever experienced any problems between your technology and an employer's information system? B) How have you addressed any barriers or obstacles that you may have encountered in previous jobs? C) What is the severity and exact nature of your disability and how does the technology assist you? D) What specific technology have you successfully used in previous jobs that facilitated your work?

C

Chapter 7 - Which of the following best describes telegraphing during an interview? A) drawing out the most useful information from an applicant B) searching for hidden meanings in an applicant's answers C) smiling at an applicant to suggest a desired answer D) allowing an applicant to dominate an interview

C

Chapter 7 - Which of the following best explains why most firms do not provide rejected applicants with detailed explanations about the employment decision? A) lack of technical abilities B) adherence to federal laws C) concerns about legal disputes D) time required of line managers

C

Chapter 7 - Which of the following characteristics of an interview would most likely raise concerns about interview discrimination? A) job-related questions B) multiple interviewers C) subjective interview questions D) standardized interview administration

C

Chapter 7 - Which of the following is an advantage of using a nondirective format when interviewing job candidates? A) allows candidates to ask questions B) uses a manager's time more effectively C) pursues points of interest as they develop D) scores and compares candidates with consistency

C

Chapter 7 - Which of the following is recommended advice for conducting an effective interview? A) Telegraph the desired answer to the candidate. B) Allow the candidate to control the interview. C) Ask the candidate for specific examples. D) Ask the candidate about work-related injuries

C

Chapter 7 - Which of the following is the most commonly used selection tool? A) telephone reference B) reference letter C) interview D) personality test

C

Chapter 7 - Which of the following terms refers to individuals asked by the EEOC to apply for employment which they do not intend to accept, for the sole purpose of uncovering unlawful discriminatory hiring practices? A) spies B) moles C) testers D) insiders

C

Chapter 7 - With phone and tablet video functionalities FaceTime™ and Skype™, Web-based "inperson" interview use is widespread; In a recent year about ________ of candidates took such interviews . A) 2% B) 7% C) 18% D) 45%

C

Chapter 8 - All of the following are on-the-job training methods used for managerial positions EXCEPT ________. A) job rotation B) action learning C) case study method D) understudy approach

C

Chapter 8 - ________ identifies the training employees will need to fill future jobs. A) Competency modeling B) Performance analysis C) Strategic training needs analysis D) Screening

C

Chapter 8 - ________ is an approach to organizational change in which the employees formulate the change that's required and implement it. A) Action research B) Succession planning C) Organizational development D) Participative talent management

C

Chapter 8 - A structured process by which people become skilled workers through a combination of classroom instruction and on-the-job training is called ________. A) job instruction training B) programmed learning C) apprenticeship training D) coaching technique

C

Chapter 8 - All of the following are characteristics of most interactive training programs, such as simulations, EXCEPT ________. A) mastery of learning B) responsive feedback C) increased learning time D) increased retention rate

C

Chapter 8 - Amy, an accounting supervisor, has been asked to provide training for her subordinates about new tax laws. In order to motivate the individuals who attend her training session, Amy should most likely do all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) use as many visual aids as possible during the session B) provide an overview of the material to be covered C) use new terminology and technical concepts D) give information in logical, meaningful sections

C

Chapter 8 - Any attempt to improve managerial performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes, or increasing skills is called ________. A) human resource management B) performance enhancement C) management development D) talent management

C

Chapter 8 - Eric is in a group with five other management trainees at Coca-Cola. Eric's group is competing against other management trainees at the firm in a simulated marketplace. Each group must decide how much to spend on advertising and how many products to manufacture over the next three years. In which of the following activities is Eric most likely participating? A) on-demand learning B) apprenticeship training C) management games D) behavior modeling

C

Chapter 8 - Mario hopes to be promoted to the head of his department next year. In the meantime, he has been assigned to spend a year as an assistant to the current department head. Which type of training is most likely being used in this example? A) job rotation B) job instruction C) coaching method D) informal learning

C

Chapter 3 - Which of the following strategies identifies the broad activities that each department will pursue in order to help a business attain its competitive goals? A) competitive B) business-level C) corporate-level D) functional

D

Chapter 8 - On Alicia's first day of work at a software firm, she attended a meeting with the HR manager and other new employees. Alicia learned about employee benefits packages, personnel policies, and the structure of the company. In which of the following did Alicia most likely participate? A) recruitment B) selection C) employee orientation D) employee development

C

Chapter 8 - Surveys estimate that as much as X% of what employees learn on the job they learn through informal means. A) 10% B) 50% C) 80% D) 95%

C

Chapter 8 - The on-the-job method of ________ involves give lower-level executives firsthand experience in working on actual problems. A) coaching B) informal learning C) special assignments D) programmed learning

C

Chapter 8 - The process of verifying that there is a performance deficiency and determining if such deficiencies should be corrected through training or through some other means is called ________. A) needs analysis B) training assessment C) performance analysis D) performance appraisal

C

Chapter 8 - What is the first step in the ADDIE training process? A) assessing the program's successes B) appraising the program's budget C) analyzing the training need D) acquiring training materials

C

Chapter 8 - What is the primary purpose of implementing a cross training program at a firm? A) compiling skills records B) creating a diverse environment C) facilitating flexible job assignments D) assessing employee technical skills

C

Chapter 8 - What is the second step in the ADDIE training process? A) developing training aids B) defining the training objectives C) designing the overall training program D) designating employees who need training

C

Chapter 8 - Which form of on-the-job training usually involves having a learner study under the tutelage of a master craftsperson? A) programmed learning B) mentoring C) apprenticeship training D) coaching

C

Chapter 8 - Which of the following is NOT an advantage of programmed learning? A) Training time is significantly reduced. B) Trainees can work at their own pace. C) Trainees benefit from a skilled coach. D) Trainees receive immediate feedback.

C

Chapter 8 - Which of the following is most likely NOT measured when evaluating a training program? A) what trainees learned from the program B) participants' reactions to the program C) overall organizational productivity D) changes in on-the-job behavior

C

Chapter 8 - Which of the following is most likely NOT one of the goals of a firm's employee orientation program? A) making new employees feel like part of a team B) helping new employees become socialized into the firm C) assisting new employees in selecting the best labor union D) teaching new employees about the firm's history and strategies

C

Chapter 8 - Which of the following is the primary advantage of lecturing as a method of training? A) motivational for employees B) effective for informal learning C) appropriate for large groups D) requires limited preparation

C

Chapter 8 - Which of the following terms refers to a formal method for testing the effectiveness of a training program? A) electronic performance monitoring B) factor comparison method C) controlled experimentation D) performance management

C

Chapter 8 - Which of the following will most likely help a speaker improve the effectiveness of a training lecture? A) opening with a familiar joke B) talking from a prepared script C) watching the audience's body language D) using exaggerated hand gestures to emphasize points

C

Chapter 9 - Which of the following is the best way for a supervisor to correct a performance appraisal problem caused by unclear standards? A) focusing on performance instead of personality traits B) using graphic rating scales to rank employees C) using descriptive phrases to illustrate traits D) allowing employees to rate themselves first

C

Chapter 9 - ________ means making sure that the manager and the subordinate agree on the subordinate's job standards and the appraisal method to be used. A) SMART goals B) Organizational development C) Defining the job D) Forced distribution

C

Chapter 9 - A supervisor who frequently rates all employees as average on performance appraisals most likely has a problem known as ________. A) halo effect B) stereotyping C) central tendency D) leniency

C

Chapter 9 - According to research, what is the typical result of upward feedback? A) Firms are protected against biased appraisals. B) Managers get defensive. C) Managers improve their performance. D) Managers seek to find out who gave them bad ratings.

C

Chapter 9 - All of the following are considered best practices for administering fair performance appraisals EXCEPT ________. A) explaining how subordinates can improve their performance B) basing the appraisal on observable job behaviors C) using subjective performance data for appraisals D) training supervisors how to conduct appraisals

C

Chapter 9 - Graphic rating scales are subject to all of the following problems EXCEPT ________. A) unclear standards B) halo effects C) complexity D) leniency

C

Chapter 9 - Jason is a conscientious employee, but he is viewed by most of his co-workers as unfriendly. Jason's supervisor rates him low on the traits "gets along well with others" and "quality of work." Which of the following problems has most likely affected Jason's performance appraisal? A) central tendency B) leniency C) halo effect D) recency effect

C

Chapter 9 - Kendra needs to rate five of her subordinates. She makes a chart of all possible pairs of employees for each trait being evaluated. Then, she indicates the better employee of each pair with a positive symbol on the chart. Finally, she totals the number of positive symbols for each employee. Which method of performance appraisal has Kendra most likely used? A) graphic ranking scale B) alternation ranking C) paired comparison D) forced distribution

C

Chapter 9 - The ________ problem occurs when supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently low. A) central tendency B) leniency C) strictness D) halo effect

C

Chapter 1 - About what percentage of all job openings are now posted online? A) 15% B) 35% C) 50% D) 70%

D

Chapter 1 - Evidence-based human resource management relies on all of the following types of evidence EXCEPT ________. A) scientific rigor B) existing data C) research studies D) qualitative opinions

D

Chapter 1 - ________ refers to being psychologically involved in, connected to, and committed to getting one's jobs done. A) Ethics B) Sustainability C) Human capital D) Employee engagement

D

Chapter 1 - Between 2012 and 2022 what ethnic group is projected to decrease as a percentage of the workforce? A) black B) Hispanic C) Asian D) white

D

Chapter 1 - Which was NOT a change in the economic and political philosophies that drove the globalization boom causing U.S. imports and exports to rise from $47 billion in 1960, to $562 billion in 1980, to about $5.1 trillion recently? A) government dropped cross-border taxes or tariffs B) economic free trades areas were formed C) steps were taken to encourage free flow of trade among countries D) instability in the world labor market

D

Chapter 3 - A company's ________ strategy identifies how to build and strengthen the business's longterm competitive position in the marketplace. A) functional B) corporate-level C) horizontal D) competitive

D

Chapter 3 - ________ is a strategic planning tool that shows how each department performance contributes to achieve the company's overall strategic goal. A) A strategic objective B) Visionary strategy C) Vertical strategy D) A strategy map

D

Chapter 3 - A ________ presents a manager with desktop graphs and charts that illustrate where the company stands on metrics from the HR scorecard process. A) strategy map B) business plan C) scanning worksheet D) digital dashboard

D

Chapter 3 - All of the following are steps involved in the strategic management process EXCEPT ________. A) evaluating the firm's internal and external situation B) asking, "Where are we now as a business?" C) formulating a new business direction D) offshoring low-skill jobs

D

Chapter 3 - An HR manager conducting an HR audit on compensation would most likely search for ________. A) current job descriptions B) workforce health and safety training C) completed benefit enrollment forms D) compliance with state and federal laws

D

Chapter 3 - Critical human resource tasks during mergers and acquisitions include all the following EXCEPT: A) retaining key talent B) merging the firms' cultures C) choosing top management D) enforcing current rules

D

Chapter 3 - High-performance work organizations are most likely characterized by all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) using more selection tests B) empowered front-line workers C) extensive training D) commitment to high production rates

D

Chapter 3 - The use of human resource metrics is essential for ________. A) management by objectives B) emergent employee behaviors C) corporate-level strategies D) evidence-based management

D

Chapter 3 - Which of the following is NOT part of the basic managerial planning? A) evaluation of best options B) establishment of clear objectives C) implementation of the plan D) building corporate hierarchies

D

Chapter 3 - Which of the following refers to an analysis by which an organization measures where it currently stands and determines what it has to accomplish to improve its HR functions? A) HR methodology B) HR benchmark C) HR checklist D) HR audit

D

Chapter 4 - What is the primary benefit of using a position analysis questionnaire to gather data for a job analysis? A) providing the opportunity for employees to vent job frustrations B) sorting information for government statistics and records C) classifying jobs for the purpose of assigning salaries D) uncovering important yet infrequent job tasks

D

Chapter 4 - Which method for collecting job analysis information is considered best for quantifying the relative worth of a job for compensation purposes? A) electronic log B) worker diary C) observation D) position analysis questionnaire

D

Chapter 4 - Which of the following indicates the division of work within a firm and the lines of authority and communication? A) process chart B) employee matrix C) organization chart D) corporate overview

D

Chapter 4 - All of the following requirements are typically addressed in job specifications EXCEPT ________. A) desired personality traits B) required education levels C) necessary experience D) working conditions

D

Chapter 4 - All of the following types of information will most likely be collected by a human resources specialist through a job analysis EXCEPT ________. A) work activities B) human behaviors C) performance standards D) employee benefits options

D

Chapter 4 - In order for Hollis Construction to be in full compliance with the Americans with Disabilities Act, the manager needs a ________ for each position to validate all human resource activities. A) performance appraisal B) compensation schedule C) workflow system D) job analysis

D

Chapter 4 - Interviews for the purpose of collecting job analysis data will most likely address all of the following topics EXCEPT ________. A) hazardous conditions B) primary work duties C) required education D) personal hobbies

D

Chapter 4 - Most job descriptions contain sections that cover all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) performance standards B) working conditions C) responsibilities D) required overtime

D

Chapter 4 - Purrfect Pets is a local pet supply store with a following of loyal customers who appreciate the personal service the store's employees provide. After a very profitable year, Purrfect Pets is expanding by opening two more stores. Before hiring employees for the new stores, the manager is considering the idea of conducting a job analysis for each position. Which of the following, if true, would best support the argument that the manager should conduct group interviews to gather job analysis information? A) Purrfect Pets is an excellent place to work because of the positive work environment. B) Most of the young employees of Purrfect Pets would feel awkward during a one-on-one interview. C) Employees at Purrfect Pets work well with their colleagues, and few staffing conflicts occur. D) Numerous employees at Purrfect Pets perform similar tasks during the work day

D

Chapter 4 - The ________ lists a job's specific duties as well as the skills and training needed to perform a particular job. A) organization chart B) job analysis C) work aid D) job description

D

Chapter 4 - When a sales job is being filled by an untrained individual, the job specifications list will most likely include ________ as a way to predict which candidate will perform the job well. A) age and gender B) past job performance C) relevant certification D) personality traits

D

Chapter 4 - Which of the following Web sites was developed by the U.S. Department of Labor and serves as a source for managers who need to write job descriptions? A) bls.gov B) opm.gov C) usajobs.gov D) onetcenter.org

D

Chapter 4 - Which of the following guidelines is most likely recommended to managers conducting a job analysis? A) Use one tool for gathering information to maintain the validity of the final results. B) Rely on the human resource manager to complete questionnaires and verify data. C) Conduct group interviews without supervisors present to ensure accuracy. D) Ensure that the questions and the process are clarified to employees.

D

Chapter 4 - Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using questionnaires to gather job analysis information? A) Questionnaires are the most expensive method of collecting data. B) Supervisors are required to verify all collected questionnaire data. C) Questionnaires are too open-ended for statistical information. D) Developing and testing questionnaires is time-consuming.

D

Chapter 4 - Which of the following questions will most likely be addressed by a manager who is writing a job description based on a competency-based job analysis? A) What are the typical duties associated with this job? B) What are the working conditions and safety issues related to this job? C) What opportunities for advancement are available to an employee in this job? D) What should the employee be able to do in order to competently perform this job?

D

Chapter 4 - Which of the following requires workers to make daily listings of the activities in which they engage as well as the amount of time each activity takes? A) flowchart B) agenda C) outline D) log

D

Chapter 4 - Which term refers to the holistic, integrated and results and goal-oriented process of planning, recruiting, selecting, developing, managing, and compensating employees? A) job analysis B) HR alignment C) strategic planning D) talent management

D

Chapter 4 - While performing the fifth step of a job analysis, it is essential to confirm the validity of collected data with the ________. A) EEOC representative B) HR manager C) legal department D) worker

D

Chapter 5 - ________ are special employment agencies retained by employers to seek out top management talent for their clients. A) State-run employment agencies B) Private employment agencies C) Temporary agencies D) Executive recruiters

D

Chapter 5 - ________ is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill and how to fill them. A) Recruitment B) Selection C) Job analysis D) Workforce planning

D

Chapter 5 - A firm's ________ should guide employment planning and determine the types of skills and competencies the firm needs. A) job analysis B) organization chart C) marketing planning D) strategic business planning

D

Chapter 5 - A small software firm is seeking several permanent employees with experience in the semiconductor industry and advanced degrees in computer science. The firm is a small one and cannot afford to pay a traditional recruiting firm a fee of 30% per each hire's salary. Instead, this firm should consider using a(n) ________. A) contingency-based recruiter B) temporary staffing agency C) outsourcing staffing service D) on-demand recruiting service

D

Chapter 5 - A trend analysis is limited in its usefulness because it ________. A) overlooks the passage of time in regards to staffing B) addresses only the financial impact of employment changes C) assumes constant increases in worker productivity D) overlooks the potential for changes in skills needed

D

Chapter 5 - All of the following are characteristics of a job posting EXCEPT ________. A) listing the job's attributes B) providing the job's pay rate C) publicizing the open job to employees D) indicating the preferred number of applicants

D

Chapter 5 - All of the following are methods used by firms to develop high-potential candidates for future positions EXCEPT ________. A) providing internal training B) implementing job rotation C) offering global assignments D) developing skills inventories

D

Chapter 5 - Approximately what percentage of new college graduates are hired to fill externally filled jobs that require a college degree? A) 7% B) 83% C) 16% D) 38%

D

Chapter 5 - Bob needs to find and attract applicants to his company's open positions, which is known as ________. A) trend analysis B) engagement C) staffing D) employee recruiting

D

Chapter 5 - Pablo wants to figure out likely future employment needs for Slate Industries by examining past organizational employment needs of the company. This is an example of: A) a qualification inventory B) ratio analysis C) succession planning D) trend analysis

D

Chapter 5 - Recruiting is necessary to ________. A) determine whether to use inside or outside candidates B) forecast the short-term supply of outside candidates C) create positive word-of-mouth about a firm D) develop an applicant pool

D

Chapter 5 - What is the first step in the recruitment and selection process? A) performing initial screening interviews B) building a pool of candidates C) performing candidate background checks D) deciding what positions to fill

D

Chapter 5 - Which of the following best explains why firms are using temporary workers more frequently? A) low cost when hired through agencies B) workers' desires for flexible schedules C) high cost of workers' compensation insurance D) weak economic confidence among employers

D

Chapter 5 - Which of the following is a primary goal of college recruiters? A) building relationships with college career centers B) cutting future recruiting costs for the firm C) developing a pool of temporary workers D) attracting good candidates

D

Chapter 5 - Which of the following refers to company records showing present performance and promotability of inside candidates for a firm's top positions? A) yield pyramids B) trend analysis charts C) succession planning tools D) personnel replacement charts

D

Chapter 5 - Which of the following terms refers to the use of nontraditional recruitment sources? A) negligent hiring B) personnel planning C) human resource management D) alternative staffing

D

Chapter 5 - Which of the following would be the best option for a business that needs to attract local applicants for hourly jobs? A) employee referral campaigns B) on-demand recruiting services C) college recruiting D) walk-ins

D

Chapter 6 - In which of the following situations is it NOT legal to require an applicant to take a polygraph test as part of the selection process? A) electrical engineer at the Department of Energy B) pharmacist's assistant at Walgreen's C) security guard at Wells Fargo Bank D) cashier at J.C. Penney's

D

Chapter 6 - ________ is used as an estimate of reliability and involves administering a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic and then statistically analyzing the degree to which responses to the items vary together. A) Retest estimate B) Equivalent form estimate C) Content validity estimate D) Internal comparison estimate

D

Chapter 6 - ________ tests include assessments of general reasoning ability and of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning. A) Motor ability B) Personality C) Achievement D) Cognitive

D

Chapter 6 - According to state and federal laws, which of the following actions is NOT required of employers who check background information on applicants? A) disclosing to the applicant that a credit report will be requested B) certifying to the reporting agency of the employer's legal compliance C) providing copies of reports to the applicant if adverse action is considered D) providing a detailed rationale explaining the reason for any adverse action

D

Chapter 6 - All of the following are used for estimating reliability of a test EXCEPT ________. A) test-retest estimate B) internal comparison estimate C) equivalent form estimate D) content validity measurement

D

Chapter 6 - Applicant tracking systems are mostly used by employers to ________. A) develop work samples B) develop specific job descriptions C) verify a candidate's U.S. citizenship D) screen and rank candidates based on skills

D

Chapter 6 - Elliot, a manager at Harwood Publishing, gave a bad reference to a former employee. Elliot could most likely be accused of ________ if the information is both false and harmful. A) discrimination B) adverse impact C) arbitration D) defamation

D

Chapter 7 - Which of the following is a true statement regarding structured situational interviews? A) Answers are compared to industry standards. B) Hypothetical questions are typically avoided. C) Job descriptions are written after the interview. D) Interviews are usually conducted by a panel

D

Chapter 7 - Which of the following is the most likely outcome of using the same questions with all candidates being interviewed? A) responses improved B) weaknesses revealed C) reliability limited D) bias reduced

D

Chapter 6 - For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests. Which of the following best supports the argument that Golden Creamery should use a certified psychologist to develop preemployment tests? A) Golden Creamery needs to comply with all federal and state laws. B) Golden Creamery competitors use psychologists for test development. C) Golden Creamery strives to create a conscientious organizational culture. D) Golden Creamery needs to ensure that tests are legally and ethically appropriate.

D

Chapter 6 - If a person scores a 70 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 110 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that this test is ________. A) valid B) invalid C) reliable D) unreliable

D

Chapter 6 - Make a Picture Story and the Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test are examples of ________ tests. A) intelligence B) apperception C) self-reported D) projective

D

Chapter 6 - The process of cross-validating a test involves all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) using a new sample of employees B) administering additional tests C) evaluating the relationship between scores and performance D) developing and analyzing a scatter plot of scores versus performance

D

Chapter 6 - The unreliability of a test is best explained by all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) poor sampling of question material B) lack of equivalence between tests C) inconsistent testing conditions D) failure to predict job performance

D

Chapter 6 - Which of the following best describes how to use a test-retest reliability estimate to assess reliability? A) administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to effectively perform the job in question B) administer the same test to different people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1 C) administer different tests to a group of people and compare the range of collected test scores D) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with their scores at time 1

D

Chapter 6 - Which of the following is a graph that shows the relationship between test scores and job performance for a group of people? A) performance standard B) digital dashboard C) competency model D) expectancy chart

D

Chapter 6 - Which of the following is the primary advantage of using management assessment centers in the selection process? A) Development costs are very low. B) Minimal time is required for test administration. C) Industrial psychologists are involved in the testing process. D) Experts observe and appraise each candidate's leadership potential

D

Chapter 6 - Which of the following terms refers to training candidates to perform several of the job's tasks and then assessing the candidates' performance prior to hire? A) achievement testing B) work sampling technique C) management assessment center D) miniature job training

D

Chapter 6 - Which personality characteristic refers to the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, and unconventional? A) extroversion B) conscientiousness C) neuroticism D) openness to experience

D

Chapter 6 - For an employer to administer a polygraph exam during an ongoing investigation of theft, an employer must do all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) prove that the accused had access to the property B) document a reasonable suspicion prior to requesting a polygraph C) explain the details of the investigation and the questions to be asked during the polygraph D) subject all employees with access to the property in question to the same polygraph examination as the accused employee

D

Chapter 7 - What type of interview would most likely include the following statement? "Imagine that you have just been assigned the task of winning the business of our competition's biggest client. How would you proceed?" A) behavioral B) stress C) puzzle D) situational

D

Chapter 7 - A manager who begins an interview by asking the applicant about the weather is most likely attempting to ________. A) seek a spontaneous answer from the candidate B) identify the candidate's leadership abilities C) assess the candidate's interpersonal skills D) put the candidate at ease

D

Chapter 7 - According to the text, selection interviews are classified by all of the following factors EXCEPT ________. A) administration B) structure C) content D) length

D

Chapter 7 - All of the following are common characteristics of computerized selection interviews EXCEPT ________. A) questions presented rapidly B) response times measured for any delays C) questions focused on experience and skills D) essay questions based on hypothetical situations

D

Chapter 7 - All of the following are guidelines for conducting an effective interview EXCEPT ________. A) taking brief notes during the interview B) scheduling a private room for the interview C) showing courtesy and friendliness towards the candidate D) asking the candidate questions that require yes or no answers

D

Chapter 7 - Consider the question: "What factors should be considered when developing a customer database?" What type of question is this? A) background question B) past behavior question C) situational question D) job knowledge question

D

Chapter 7 - In a ________ interview, a panel questions several candidates simultaneously. A) formal B) topical C) panel D) mass

D

Chapter 7 - The primary purpose of conducting a stress interview is to determine ________. A) why an applicant wants to work for the firm B) how an applicant solves complex problems C) why an applicant lied on the resume D) how an applicant handles criticism

D

Chapter 7 - Which of the following applicant characteristics is LEAST likely to be assessed accurately during a selection interview? A) extroversion B) agreeableness C) job knowledge D) conscientiousness

D

Chapter 8 - Mark Caffrey, vice president of sales at Samson Pharmaceuticals, manages a sales team of ten employees. Members of Mark's sales force vary in experience level. Four members of the sales team have worked at Samson for less than one year. The other six salespeople have been with Samson anywhere from three to seven years. Mark recently received the annual sales report and noticed that sales have been dropping steadily over the last year. Mark is considering the idea of providing training to his sales team as a way to boost sales. Which of the following best supports the argument that the drop in Samson's sales can be solved through training? A) Attitude surveys sent to Samson personnel suggest that the firm's elimination of year-end bonuses has angered many employees. B) Recent studies suggest that sales of name-brand pharmaceuticals, such as Samson, are dropping as more people are choosing to use generic drugs instead. C) The rising costs associated with college recruiting have forced Samson to hire sales associates through online job sites. D) Members of the sales team have expressed that they do not fully understand the benefits and side effects of the latest medications released by Samson.

D

Chapter 8 - Which of the following involves a trainer in a central location teaching groups of employees at remote locations over cable broadband lines or the Internet? A) audiovisual-based instruction B) programmed learning C) vestibule training D) videoconferencing

D

Chapter 8 - Which of the following terms refers to a section of an employer's Web site that provides employees with online access to job-related training courses? A) virtual classroom B) videoconferencing C) job simulation D) learning portal

D

Chapter 8 - Which of the following terms refers to a set of instructions, diagrams, or similar methods available at the job site to guide the worker? A) task analysis record form B) position replacement card C) skills sheet D) job aid

D

Chapter 8 - Which of the following terms refers to computer-based training systems that adjust to meet each trainee's specific learning needs? A) virtual learning systems B) video-based simulations C) multi-media training plans D) intelligent tutoring systems

D

Chapter 8 - Which of the following will most likely NOT help employers protect themselves against charges of negligent training? A) confirming an employee's claims of skill and experience B) providing extensive and appropriate training C) evaluating the effectiveness of the training D) paying employees for their training time

D

Chapter 8 - Which organizational development application involves methods like performance appraisals, reward systems, and diversity programs? A) human process B) strategic applications C) technostructural D) human resource management

D

Chapter 9 - All of the following are benefits of using computerized or Web-based performance appraisal systems EXCEPT ________. A) merging examples with performance ratings B) helping managers maintain computerized notes C) combining different performance appraisal tools D) enabling managers to monitor employees' computers

D

Chapter 9 - Stephanie manages the accounting department at an advertising agency. She needs to conduct performance appraisals for the eight employees in her department. Stephanie wants a performance appraisal tool that is highly accurate, ranks employees, and uses critical incidents to help explain ratings to appraisees. Which performance appraisal tool is best suited for Stephanie? A) graphic rating scale B) alternation ranking method C) critical incident method D) behaviorally anchored rating scale

D

Chapter 9 - The continuous process of identifying, measuring, and developing the performance of individuals and teams and aligning their performance with the organization's goals is known as ________. A) strategic management B) performance analysis C) performance appraisal D) performance management

D

Chapter 9 - When conducting an appraisal interview, supervisors should do all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) ask open-ended questions B) give specific examples of poor performance C) write up an action plan with goals and dates D) compare the person's performance to that of other employees

D

Chapter 9 - Which of the following enables supervisors to oversee the amount of computerized data an employee is processing each day? A) computerized performance appraisal system B) online management assessment center C) digitized high-performance work center D) electronic performance monitoring system

D

Chapter 9 - Which performance appraisal tool is being used when a supervisor places predetermined percentages of appraisees into various performance categories? A) behaviorally anchored rating scale B) graphic ranking scale C) alternation ranking D) forced distribution

D

Chapter 9 - Who is in the best position to observe and evaluate an employee's performance for the purposes of a performance appraisal? A) customers B) rating committees C) top management D) immediate supervisor

D

Chapter 9 - You are conducting an appraisal interview with an employee whose performance is satisfactory but for whom promotion is not possible. Which incentive listed below would be the LEAST effective option for maintaining satisfactory performance in this situation? A) time off B) small bonus C) recognition D) professional development

D

Chapter 1 - The basic functions of the management process include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) planning B) organizing C) outsourcing D) leading

C

Chapter 1 - Which of the following human resource management specialties calls for collecting data to write job descriptions? A) job analyst B) job training specialist C) compensation manager D) EEO coordinator

A

Chapter 1 - ________ functions involve assisting and advising line managers. A) Staff B) Advocacy C) Line D) Coordinative

A

Chapter 1 - Human resource managers generally exert ________ within the human resources department and ________ outside the human resources department. A) line authority; staff authority B) staff authority; line authority C) functional authority; line authority D) staff authority; implied authority

A

Chapter 1 - In the management process, which of the following is an activity associated with the leading function? A) motivating subordinates B) setting performance standards C) training new employees D) developing procedures

A

Chapter 1 - Which function of the management process requires a manager to establish goals and standards and to develop rules and procedures? A) planning B) organizing C) staffing D) leading

A

Chapter 1 - Will works at a position in his organization where he maintain contacts within the local community and travels to search for qualified job applicants. Will's position is best described as: A) recruiter B) manager C) labor relations specialist D) job analyst

A

Chapter 2 - Which of the following factors is NOT an acceptable basis for different pay for equal work under the Equal Pay Act of 1963? A) gender B) seniority C) production quality D) production quantity

A

Chapter 2 - All of the following are ways for an employee to prove sexual harassment EXCEPT by proving that ________. A) the verbal remarks of a co-worker were sexually flirtatious B) the rejection of a supervisor's sexual advances led to a demotion C) a hostile work environment was created by a co-worker's sexual conversation D) a hostile work environment was created by a nonemployee's sexual advances

A

Chapter 2 - All of the following are ways that an employer can minimize liability in sexual harassment claims EXCEPT ________. A) having an informal policy for dealing with sexual harassment B) taking all complaints about harassment seriously C) establishing a management response system that includes an immediate reaction and investigation D) training supervisors and managers to increase their awareness of the issues

A

Chapter 2 - An employer that uses a screen-reading program to meet the needs of a blind employee is most likely ________. A) making a reasonable accommodation B) fulfilling job analysis requirements C) identifying essential job functions D) complying with Title VII rules

A

Chapter 2 - In Griggs v. Duke Power Company, Griggs sued the power company because it required coal handlers to be high school graduates. The Supreme Court ruled in favor of Griggs because ________. A) high school diplomas were not related to success as a coal handler B) Duke Power Company intentionally discriminated based on race C) no business necessity existed for Duke Power Company D) Title VII forbids job testing

A

Chapter 2 - Race, color, religion, sex, or national origin is a motivating factor in a particular termination case, but the employee would have been terminated for failure to perform anyway. Which of the following most likely exists in this situation? A) mixed motive B) disparate impact C) liability defense D) burden of proof

A

Chapter 2 - Sanders Sporting Goods, an international sporting goods chain, is being sued for sexual harassment by a Jill, who is a former Sanders employee. The plaintiff asserts that she was the victim of numerous unwanted sexual advances from a male co-worker, John. Jill claims that Sanders' management condoned a hostile work environment and that the company is liable for the actions of John. All of the following are most likely relevant questions to address in this court case EXCEPT ________. A) Does Sanders have a record of employees who claim disparate treatment in the workplace? B) Did Sanders take reasonable care to prevent sexual harassment in the workplace? C) Does Sanders have a policy statement regarding sexual harassment? D) Did Jill take advantage of any corrective opportunities provided by the employer?

A

Chapter 2 - The EEOC was initially established to investigate complaints about ________. A) job discrimination B) unfair business practices C) sexual harassment in schools D) structural accommodations for disabled people

A

Chapter 2 - What is the most common next step in the EEOC enforcement process after a person files an employment discrimination claim? A) The EEOC either accepts or refers the charge. B) The two parties are required to participate in mediation. C) A commission investigates the claim in an open meeting. D) The employer and EEOC bring a civil suit in a federal district court.

A

Chapter 2 - When companies utilize ________, they take steps to eliminate the present effects of past discrimination. A) affirmative action B) executive orders C) rehabilitation D) due process

A

Chapter 2 - Which law allows an employer to claim that an employment practice is a bona fide occupational qualification for performing the job? A) Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act B) Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973 C) Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008 D) 1972 Equal Opportunity Act

A

Chapter 2 - Which of the following will be the most likely result of the ADA Amendments Act of 2008? A) Employees will find it easier to prove that their disabilities are limiting. B) The number of major life activities considered disabilities will be narrowed. C) Employers will be required to make fewer accommodations for workers with disabilities. D) Employers will be required to hire a specific percentage of disabled workers to be in compliance.

A

Chapter 1 - Which of the following is NOT considered one of the line supervisor's responsibilities for effective human resources management under the general headings outlined by a major company discussed in the textbook? A) protecting employees' health and physical condition B) changing employees' attitudes regarding work C) developing the abilities of each person D) interpreting the company policies and procedures

B

Chapter 2 - All of the following are principles established by Griggs v. Duke Power Company EXCEPT ________. A) burden of proof is on the employer B) performance standards should be unambiguous C) business necessity is a defense for an existing program D) discrimination does not have to be overt to be illegal

B

Chapter 2 - One of Alexis' male co-workers has been making sexually suggestive comments to Alexis about her clothing and her appearance, which makes Alexis feel uncomfortable at work. What is the first step Alexis should take to address the problem? A) filing a complaint with the local EEOC office B) filing a verbal complaint with the harasser's boss C) writing a letter to the accused D) consulting an attorney

B

Chapter 2 - Which Supreme Court case was used to define unfair discrimination in conjunction with EEO laws? A) Brown v. Board of Education B) Griggs v. Duke Power Company C) West Coast Hotel Co. v. Parrish D) Abington School District v. Schempp

B

Chapter 2 - Which of the following requires employers to make reasonable accommodations for disabled employees? A) Civil Rights Act of 1991 B) Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 C) Equal Pay Act D) Disability Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967

B

Chapter 2 - According to the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967, it is unlawful to ________. A) sue an employer for age-based pay B) require employees to retire at age 65 C) allow juries to determine age discrimination D) institute a minimum age for employees

B

Chapter 2 - Employers primarily use bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ) as a defense against charges of discrimination based on ________. A) religion B) age C) gender D) nationality

B

Chapter 2 - Gus is always making sexual jokes at work. Many employees find the jokes funny, but Shelley, Gus's executive assistant, is uncomfortable with the jokes. Eventually, she decides to quit her job rather than endure the jokes any longer. What form of sexual harassment has Shelley experienced? A) quid pro quo B) hostile environment created by supervisors C) hostile environment created by co-workers D) hostile environment created by nonemployees

B

Chapter 2 - How many members serve on the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission? A) 3 B) 5 C) 9 D) 10

B

Chapter 2 - The 13th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution addresses the subject of ________. A) due process B) slavery C) private property D) trial by jury

B

Chapter 2 - The EEOC describes ________ as an informal process in which a neutral third party assists the opposing parties to reach a voluntary, negotiated resolution of a charge of discrimination. A) a fact-finding conference B) voluntary mediation C) mandatory arbitration D) alternative dispute resolution

B

Chapter 2 - The ________ provides that a person who commits a crime of violence motivated by gender that deprives another of rights shall be liable to the party injured. A) Civil Rights Act of 1991 B) Federal Violence Against Women Act of 1994 C) Pregnancy Discrimination Act D) Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973

B

Chapter 2 - The ________ requires certain federal contractors to take affirmative action for disabled persons. A) Equal Pay Act B) Vocational Rehabilitation Act C) Age Discrimination in Employment Act D) Civil Rights Act

B

Chapter 2 - Under the Civil Rights Act of 1991, once a plaintiff shows disparate impact, who has the burden of proving that the challenged practice is job related? A) employee B) employer C) judge D) EEOC

B

Chapter 2 - Under the principles established by Griggs v. Duke Power Company, ________ can be used as a defense for any existing program that has adverse impact. A) occupational qualification B) business necessity C) affirmative action D) burden of proof

B

Chapter 2 - Which amendment to the U.S. Constitution states that "no person shall be deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of the law"? A) First Amendment B) Fifth Amendment C) Tenth Amendment D) Thirteenth Amendment

B

Chapter 2 - Which court case provided details regarding how employers could validate the relationship between screening tools and job performance? A) Oncale v. Sundowner Offshore Services Inc. B) Albemarle Paper Company v. Moody C) Griggs v. Duke Power Company D) Burlington Industries v. Ellerth

B

Chapter 2 - Which of the following best explains why employers win the majority of ADA cases? A) Employers make the necessary reasonable accommodations for employees. B) Employees fail to prove that their disabilities affect daily living activities. C) Conservative judges are sympathetic towards most small-business owners. D) Employee attorneys fail to draw connections between Title VII and ADA.

B

Chapter 2 - Which of the following does NOT participate in the issuance of uniform guidelines? A) Department of Labor B) Better Business Bureau C) Department of Justice D) Civil Service Commission

B

Chapter 2 - Which of the following is used by lawyers in disparate impact cases to show intentional disparate treatment? A) disparate rejection rates B) restricted policy approach C) population comparisons D) McDonnell-Douglas test

B

Chapter 2 - Which of the following refers to an informal meeting held early in an EEOC enforcement investigation that attempts to define issues and determine if settlement is possible? A) voluntary mediation B) fact-finding conference C) collective bargaining D) mandatory arbitration

B

Chapter 2 - Which of the following requires equal pay for equal work regardless of sex? A) Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act B) Equal Pay Act of 1963 C) Pay Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 D) Civil Rights Act of 1991

B

Chapter 2 - Which of the following would LEAST likely foster diversity in the workplace? A) changing the culture through diversity training education programs B) appointing a small group of minorities to high-profile positions C) recruiting minority members to the board of directors D) using metrics to evaluate diversity programs

B

Chapter 2 - Which type of disability accounts for the greatest number of ADA claims? A) drug-related B) mental C) vision D) hearing

B

Chapter 2 - ________ exists when an employer treats an individual differently because that individual is a member of a particular race, religion, gender, or ethnic group. A) Disparate impact B) Disparate treatment C) Adverse impact D) Prima facie

B

Chapter 1 - All of the following are major areas in which an HR manager assists and advises line managers EXCEPT ________. A) recruiting B) hiring C) strategic business planning D) compensation

C

Chapter 1 - Approximately what percentage of people in the United States work for small firms? A) 10% B) 25% C) 50% D) 80%

C

Chapter 1 - Ralph works in the HR department and is in charge of developing the plans for how people are paid and how the employee benefits program is run. Ralph is most likely holding the position of: A) training specialist B) recruiter C) compensation manager D) job analyst

C

Chapter 1 - When managers use metrics to assess performance and then develop strategies for corrective action, they are performing the ________ function of the management process. A) planning B) leading C) controlling D) organizing

C

Chapter 1 - Which of the following includes five basic functions—planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling? A) a job analysis B) strategic management C) the management process D) adaptability screening

C

Chapter 1 - Which of the following refers to the authority a manager has to advise other managers or employees? A) staff authority B) line authority C) functional authority D) corporate authority

C

Chapter 2 - According to Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act, which of the following employers would be legally allowed to refuse employment to an individual based on race, religion, or sex? A) a state agency with 65 employees B) a medical office with 25 employees C) a local restaurant with 10 employees D) a department store with 100 employees

C

Chapter 2 - According to the Americans with Disabilities Act, which of the following would NOT be considered a disability? A) cosmetic disfigurement B) anatomical loss C) pyromania D) physiological disorder

C

Chapter 2 - Connor Concrete, a construction firm chain, is being sued for sexual harassment by a former employee. The plaintiff asserts that she was the victim of numerous unwanted sexual advances from a male co-worker. The woman claims that Connor Concrete's management condoned a hostile work environment and that the company is liable for the actions of the male employee. Which of the following, if true, would most likely undermine the plaintiff's claim that Sanders is liable for the male employee's conduct? A) The male employee physically threatened the plaintiff on three occasions. B) The male employee made sexual advances towards the plaintiff on a daily basis. C) The male employee was required by HR to participate in a sexual harassment awareness course. D) The male employee's conduct significantly interfered with the plaintiff's ability to perform her job.

C

Chapter 2 - If a person is in a protected class, he or she is protected by which of the following? A) Department of Labor guidelines B) Sarbanes-Oxley Act C) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act D) Consumer Protection Act

C

Chapter 2 - In which of the following situations does sexual harassment NOT violate Title VII? A) if the conduct substantially interferes with a person's work performance B) if the conduct creates an intimidating work environment C) if the conduct is completely consensual D) if the conduct creates an offensive work environment

C

Chapter 2 - Sanders Sporting Goods, an international sporting goods chain, is being sued for sexual harassment by a former Sanders employee. The plaintiff asserts that she was the victim of numerous unwanted sexual advances from a co-worker. The employee claims that Sanders' management condoned a hostile work environment and that the company is liable for the actions of the employee. Which of the following, if true, would best support the plaintiff's argument that Sanders is liable for sexual harassment? A) Sanders re-published its sexual harassment policy twice within the last year. B) The HR department at Sanders has records of the plaintiff's initial complaints. C) Sanders lacks a management response system for handling sexual harassment complaints. D) Sanders recently lost a court case filed by former employees who claimed disparate treatment

C

Chapter 2 - The formula used by federal agencies to determine disparate rejection rates is based on a selection rate for any racial, ethnic, or sex group less than ________ percent of the rate for the group with the highest rate. A) 40 B) 60 C) 80 D) 100

C

Chapter 2 - Which of the following involves comparing the percentage of the minority/protected group and white workers in an organization with the percentage of the corresponding group in the labor market? A) personnel population comparison approach B) restricted policy comparison method C) population comparisons approach D) McDonnell-Douglas test

C

Chapter 2 - Which of the following is most likely an example of a discriminatory selection standard? A) measuring a software designer applicant's knowledge about a computer language B) requiring a high school teacher applicant to have a four-year college degree C) requiring engineer applicants to meet specific height standards D) asking prison guard applicants to reveal their arrest records

C

Chapter 2 - Which of the following refers to the overall effect of employer practices that result in significantly higher percentages of members of protected groups being rejected for employment, placement, or promotion? A) disparate treatment B) disparate impact C) adverse impact D) prima facie

C

Chapter 2 - The ________ Amendment to the U.S. Constitution outlawed slavery, and courts have held that it bars racial discrimination. A) Fifth B) Tenth C) Thirteenth D) Fourteenth

C

Chapter 1 - Claire spends most of her time at work establishing goals for her staff of fifty employees and developing procedures for various tasks. In which function of the management process does Claire spend most of her time? A) leading B) controlling C) organizing D) planning

D

Chapter 1 - One of the ________ functions of a human resource manager includes directing the activities of his or her subordinates in the HR department. A) coordinative B) corporate C) staff D) line

D

Chapter 1 - Personnel activities associated with human resource management most likely include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) orienting and training new employees B) appraising employee performance C) building employee commitment D) developing customer relationships

D

Chapter 1 - A line manager's human resource responsibilities most likely include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) maintaining department morale B) controlling labor costs C) protecting employees' health D) marketing new products and services

D

Chapter 1 - Since human resources is important to all managers, which is NOT a personnel mistake a manager wants to avoid making while managing? A) waste time with useless interviews B) hire the wrong person C) have your people not doing their best D) experience low turnover

D

Chapter 1 - The HR staff member who has the job of advising management on all aspects of union management aspects is the ________. A) recruiter B) line manager C) compensation manager D) labor relations specialist

D

Chapter 1 - Which function of the management process includes selecting employees, setting performance standards, and compensating employees? A) organizing B) planning C) motivating D) staffing

D

Chapter 1 - Which of the following best defines line authority? A) management over a small staff in a public firm B) management with flexible decision-making powers C) a manager's right to advise other managers or employees D) a manager's right to issue orders to other managers or employees

D

Chapter 1 - Which of the following focuses on using centralized call centers and outside vendors as a way to provide specialized support in day-to-day HR activities? A) embedded HR units B) corporate HR groups C) HR centers of expertise D) shared HR groups

D

Chapter 1 - Which of the following is most likely a line function of the human resource manager? A) ensuring that line managers are implementing HR policies B) advising top managers about how to implement EEO laws C) representing the interests of employees to senior management D) directing the activities of subordinates in the HR department

D

Chapter 2 - In which of the following jobs would gender most likely be appropriate to use as a BFOQ? A) fire fighter in a metropolitan fire department B) prison guard at a federal penitentiary C) teacher at a private, all-girls school D) actor in a toothpaste commercial

D

Chapter 2 - The last step a worker should usually take when they are sexually harassed is: A) file a verbal contemporaneous complaint with the harasser's manager B) file written reports regarding the unwelcome conduct with the human resource director C) file a verbal contemporaneous complaint with the harasser D) file a claim with the EEOC

D

Chapter 2 - Which of the following is NOT a form of sexual harassment according to EEOC guidelines? A) unwelcome sexual advances that create an intimidating work environment B) verbal conduct of a sexual nature that unreasonably interferes with work performance C) physical conduct of a sexual nature that creates an offensive work environment D) mutually consensual physical conduct of a sexual nature between co-workers

D

Chapter 2 - According to the Civil Rights Act of 1991, an employee who claims intentional discrimination can sue for all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) back pay B) job reinstatement C) compensatory damages D) substantive consolidation

D

Chapter 2 - All of the following recruitment practices are potentially discriminatory EXCEPT ________. A) spreading information about job openings through word-of-mouth among a firm's predominantly Hispanic workforce B) providing misleading information to Asian and Indian job applicants C) posting help wanted ads that specify young, male applicants D) posting job advertisements only in local newspapers

D

Chapter 2 - Paul is a 49-year-old American of Anglo-Saxon descent. What legislation is most likely intended to protect Paul from discrimination? A) Executive Order 11375 B) Equal Pay Act of 1963 C) Executive Order 11246 D) Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967

D

Chapter 2 - Pictures and Promotions Modeling Studio seeks to hire male models for an upcoming fashion show featuring men's wear. The studio is using ________ as a justification for not considering women for the jobs. A) BARS B) ADEA C) EEOC D) BFOQ

D

Chapter 2 - Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act explicitly prohibits employers from discrimination based on all of the following characteristics EXCEPT ________. A) race B) religion C) color D) sexual orientation

D

Chapter 2 - Under ADA, those who can carry out the essential functions of the job are known as which of the following? A) protected class B) career anchors C) staff authorities D) qualified individuals

D

Chapter 2 - Uniform guidelines from the EEOC are recommended for employers to use in matters regarding all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) employee selection B) record keeping C) sexual harassment D) psychological testing

D

Chapter 2 - Which legislation was responsible for the creation of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission? A) Equal Pay Act of 1963 B) Civil Rights Act of 1866 C) Executive Orders 11246 and 11375 D) Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act

D

Chapter 2 - Which of the following is responsible for implementing Johnson administration Executive Orders 11246 and 11375? A) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission B) Pension Benefits Guarantee Corporation C) Occupational Safety and Health Administration D) Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs

D

Chapter 2 - Which of the following is used by lawyers in disparate impact cases to show intentional disparate treatment? A) disparate rejection rates B) restricted policy approach C) population comparisons D) McDonnell-Douglas test

D

Chapter 2 - Which of the following refers to highly recommended procedures issued by federal agencies regarding employee selection and record keeping? A) job specifications B) employment metrics C) process charts D) uniform guidelines

D

Chapter 2 - Which of the following tests for adverse impact involves demonstrating that the employer's policy either intentionally or unintentionally excludes members of a protected group? A) McDonnell-Douglas test B) BFOQ approach C) systemic method D) restricted policy

D

Chapter 2 - A workforce comprised of two or more groups of employees with various racial, gender, cultural, handicap, age, and religious backgrounds is best described as ________. A) competitive B) ethnocentric C) globalized D) diverse

D

Chapter 2 - Judy was up for a promotion at Simpson Consulting when her supervisor, Will, encouraged her to develop a sexual relationship with him. He suggested that her promotion would be a sure thing if they were involved. When Judy declined his advances, Will fired her. Which of the following would Judy most likely be able to prove in court if she decided to sue Simpson Consulting? A) hostile environment created by supervisors B) hostile environment created by co-workers C) disparate treatment D) quid pro quo

D