Miracle Q's
Which is not capable of phagocytosis?
-NKT cells -Helper T cells
Effects of bacterial toxins could best be counteracted by a) Antibody binding and neutralization of the toxin b) Antibody opsonisation and phagocytosis of toxin producing bacteria c) B cell binding to Toxin and producing bacteria d)Cytotoxic Tcell binding and lysis of toxin producing bacteria
a) Antibody binding and neutralization of the toxin
Besides the direct contact between the B lymphocytes and the antigen ,antibody production by B lymphocytes requires a) Help from a T helper cell b) Help from a macrophage c) Help from a NKT cell d) Help from a T cytotoxic cell
a) Help from a T helper cell
Laboratory examination results IgG antibodies specific to cytomegalovirus (CMV) in the serum of pregnant woman. What is your conclusion? a- A person was infected with CMV sometime during his/her life b- A person has primary CMV infection c- A person was not exposed to CMV d- A person has an autoimmune disease
a- A person was infected with CMV sometime during his/her life
Autoimmunity results from: a- Antigen driven self reactive lymphocytes b- Accelerating clearance of apoptotic cells c- Elimination of extracellular pathogens d- Activation of Treg cells
a- Antigen driven self reactive lymphocytes
Identify the surface molecule expressed on the antigen presenting cells participating in active naïve T cell: a- B-7 b- CD28 c- CTLA-4 d- CD4
a- B-7
B cells in bone marrow undergo negative selection if they: a- Bind antigen b- Do not bind antigen c- Recognize class II MHC protein d- Recognize class I MHC protein
a- Bind antigen
Identify the marker on T cells in the blood sample: a- CD3 b- CD4 c- CD8 d- CD20
a- CD3
Inflammatory cytokines produced by macrophages activate all of the following EXCEPT: a- Complement system via classical pathway b- Integrin on leukocytes to bind more strongly to vascular CAMs c- Neutrophils to be more cytotoxic d- NK cells to kill virus infected cells
a- Complement system via classical pathway
IgA can be secreted from the body because: a- Dimeric IgA binds poly-Ig receptor on mucosal epithelial cells b- Dimeric IgA has a specialized II chain called secretory chain c- IgA is small enough to pass between mucosal epithelial cells and leave the body d- IgA is synthesized by mucosal epithelial cells and secreted directly into the intestinal ....
a- Dimeric IgA binds poly-Ig receptor on mucosal epithelial cells
Which cells die by apoptosis they do not induce inflammation and damage to the surrounding tissue because they: a- Do not release the cytoplasmic contents b- Are not subsequently phagocytized c- Migrate into the blood stream prior to death d- Are rarely malignant or infected by virus
a- Do not release the cytoplasmic contents
Which one of the following mechanism maybe involved in the clinical efficacy of immunotherapy with allerger extracts(hyposynsetization) a- Enhanced production of IgG, which binds allergen before it reaches mast cells b- Enhanced production of IgE, which binds IgG receptor before it reaches antigen c- Activation of mast cells that induces production of large amount of antihistamines d- Local recruitment of eosinophils
a- Enhanced production of IgG, which binds allergen before it reaches mast cells
Which is NOT characteristic for both type II and type III hypersensitivity reactions? a- Involve attack by Tc cells b- Involve IgG antibodies c- Is likely to result in kidney damage d- Can be evoked by exposure to a pathogen
a- Involve attack by Tc cells
What is the major consequences of the bone marrow transplantation in an immunocompromised patients? a- Potentially lethal graft-versus-host disease b- High risk of T cell leokemia c- Inability to use a liver donor d- Delayed hypersensitivity
a- Potentially lethal graft-versus-host disease
Which of the following statements BEST explains the relationship between inflammation of the heart and infection with group A beta haemolytic streptococci? a- Streptococcal antigens induce antibodies cross-reactive with heart tissue b- Streptococci are polyclonal activators of b cells c- Streptococcal antigens bind to IgE on the surface of heart tissue and histamine is released d- Streptococci are ingested by neutrophils that release proteases that damage heart tissue
a- Streptococcal antigens induce antibodies cross-reactive with heart tissue
A 59-year-old woman was treated with antibiotic for acute respiratory infection, ten minutes after the ingestion patient developed pruritus, generalized urticarial, wheezing and edema of the larynx. This is most likely to be due to: a- Systemic anaphylaxis b- Serum sickness c- Deposition of immune complex d- Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
a- Systemic anaphylaxis
To elicit the best antibodies to rat self-antigen, you should inject rat cells into: a. An animal of different species b. A rat of same strain c. A rat of different strain d. the rat you isolated it from
a. An animal of different species
Identify the fundamental different between the antigen recognition by B and T cells a. Antigen must be presented in different ways b. clonal selection after antigen recognition c. heterogeneity of TCR and BCR from one lymphocyte to the next d. membrane location of antigen specific receptors
a. Antigen must be presented in different ways
Priming of naive T helper cells by mature dendritic cells in the lymph node involves a. CD40 on DC with CD40L on naive T cell b. CTLA-4 on T-cell with peptide presented by DC c. CD56 on naive T cell with CD28 on DC d. CD8 on naive Tcell with MHC Class I on DC
a. CD40 on DC with CD40L on naive T cell
Defect in neutrophil NADPH oxidase system produce: a. Chronic granulomatous disease b. Chedail Higashi disease c. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency d. Hashimoto's disease
a. Chronic granulomatous disease
An antibody Fab fragment a. contains complementarily determining regions b. H and L chain constant regions c. different antigen binding regions d. binds to Fc receptors
a. contains complementarily determining regions
Type IV hypersensitivity reactions result in a. formation of granulomas b. development of anaphylactic reaction c. complement mediated lysis of infected cells d. serum sickness
a. formation of granulomas
T cell located at the bacteria a. helper t cell b. cytotoxic t cell c. d.
a. helper t cell
lymphocytes are stored antigen binding a. thymus b. blood stream c. spleen d. liver
a. thymus
Complement activated ny pathogenic bacteria can contribute to the destruction of this bacteria a) By solubilisation of immune complexes b) By assisting phagocytes to attack to baterical cells c) By attracting more treg cells to the site of infection d) By deposition of immune complexes insite blood vessels
b) By assisting phagocytes to attack to baterical cells
which category of hypersensitivity best describes transfusion reactions when a recipient has antibodies against donor erythrocytes? a) Anaphylactic b) Cytotoxic c) Immune complex d) Delayed
b) Cytotoxic
positive skin test showing delayed type hypersensitivity such as for mumps or tuberculosis indicate that a) humoral immune response has occurred b) a cell mediated immune response c) only B cell system is functional d) the patient has immune deficiency
b) a cell mediated immune response
Peripheral lymphoid organs a) Are located in the abdomen to protect their viral functions b)Maximise contact between antigen and lymphocytes c) Produce antigen specific lymphocytes from stems cells d)S sequester antigen to minimize its damage to the body
b)Maximise contact between antigen and lymphocytes
Amoxicillin is a small molecule that does not induce antibody formation. However it binds to serum protein and forms a complex that in several people induces allergic reactions. Amoxicillin is therefore: a- An antigen b- A hepatin c- An immunogen d- A super antigen
b- A hepatin
Antibody effector functions include all of the following EXCEPT: a- Activation of complement on the bacterial surface b- Activation of proteolysis of endocytosed proteins c- Blocking uptake of bacterial toxins d- Coating bacteria to promote their phagocytosis
b- Activation of proteolysis of endocytosed proteins
Lymphocyte circulation: a- Activates inflammatory cytokines to promote antigen presentation to T cells b- Allows lymphocytes to encounter an appropriate antigen c- Circulates lymphokines efficiently throughout the body d- Circulates chemokines efficiently throughout the body
b- Allows lymphocytes to encounter an appropriate antigen
Hyperacute responses differs from a first set response in that it involves: a- Tissue damage by activated CTLs b- Antibodies, which mark the tissue for ADCC c- Coordination of the response by DTH cells d- Recombination of foreign MHC I and
b- Antibodies, which mark the tissue for ADCC
Chemically-induced tumours have tumour-associated transplantation antigens that: a- Are always the same for a given carcinogen b- Are different for two tumours of different biological type, even if induced by the same carcinogen c- Are very strong antigens d- Do not induce an immune respons
b- Are different for two tumours of different biological type, even if induced by the same carcinogen
Lupus erythematosus is: a- Free from an immune complex disease component b- Associated with antibodies against neucleic acid c- A disease of red and white cells d- An organ specific autoimmune disease
b- Associated with antibodies against neucleic acid
Phagocytes attach to the bacterial cell wall surface using any of these mechanisms, EXCEPT: a- Directly attaching to the bacterial cell wall polysaccharides b- Attaching to molecules on the bacterial cell surface using MHC class II molecules on the ..... c- Using an antibody molecule that is specific for an antigen on the surface of the bacterial cell wall d- Using a fragment resulting from complement activation by the bacterial cells
b- Attaching to molecules on the bacterial cell surface using MHC class II molecules on the .....
Complement receptors (CRs): a- Activate complement system on the surface of pathogens b- Bind only activated complement proteins c- Are involved in elimination of immune complexes d- On macrophages signal host cells to make openings
b- Bind only activated complement proteins
Complement activated by pathogenic bacteria can contribute to destruction of this bacteria: a- By solubilisation of immune complexes b- By assisting phagocytes to attack to bacterial cells c- By attracting more Treg cells to the site of infection d- By depression of immune complexes inside blood vessels
b- By assisting phagocytes to attack to bacterial cells
The most important receptors that act as coreceptors for HIV are a- CXCR5 and CCR6 b- CXCR4 and CCR5 c- CXCR7 and CCR5 d- CXCR6 and CCR4
b- CXCR4 and CCR5
Which of the following statements about type I hypersensitivity is true? a- It is also known as delayed type hypersensitivity b- Cytokines involved in this type of reactions are IL-4, IL-13, IL-5 c- Cytokines involved in this type of reactions are IFN-gamma, IL-17, IL-7 d- It is independent from pharmacologic mediators
b- Cytokines involved in this type of reactions are IL-4, IL-13, IL-5
Which category of hypersensitivity best describes the transfusion reactions when a recipient has antibodies against donor erythrocytes? a- Anaphylactic b- Cytotoxic c- Immune complex d- Delayed
b- Cytotoxic
A CD3+ cell that secretes perforin and granzyme is a: a- Gamma/delta T cell b- Cytotoxic T cell c- Helper T cell d- Regulatory T cell
b- Cytotoxic T cell
Lymphocytes completely recirculate through peripheral lymphoid in order to: a- Be killed before they cause autoimmunity b- Efficiently encounter antigen c- Mature from stem cells into lymphocytes d- Phagocytose antigen and kill it
b- Efficiently encounter antigen
Both class I and class II MHC molecules are: a- Expressed constantly on all nucleated cells b- Expressed on the surface of antigen-presenting cells c- Part of the T cell receptor for antigen d- Synthesized in response to antigen processing
b- Expressed on the surface of antigen-presenting cells
Which of the following is the common cause of hypersensitivity diseases? a- Failure of lymphocyte maturation b- Failure of self-tolerance c- Treatment with corticosteroids d- Diseminated cancer
b- Failure of self-tolerance
The immunoglobulin isotype is determined by the: a- Antigen specificity b- H chain constant region c- L chain variable region d- Number of antigen-binding sites
b- H chain constant region
For specific antigen recognition by T cells: a- CD25 molecules are required b- HLA molecules are required c- Soluble antigen is bound directly without processing d- Antigen exposure during T cell maturation is required
b- HLA molecules are required
A CD3+ cell which secretes IL2 when activated is: a- Respiratory T cell b- Helper T cell c- Cytotoxic T cell d- Gammadelta T cell
b- Helper T cell
Identify a major interleukin produced by naïve CD+ T helper lymphocytes: a- IL-1 b- IL-2 c- IL-4 d- IL-8
b- IL-2
Which antibodies are typically involved in both type II and type III hypersensitivity? a- IgA b- IgG c- IgD d- IgE
b- IgG
Which of the following is the neutralizing antibody? a- IgM b- IgG c- IgD d- IgE
b- IgG
The signal transduction molecules associated with TCR are: a- CD21 and CD81 b- Iga and Igb c- IgD and IgM d- ITAMs and ITIMs
b- Iga and Igb
Type II hypersensitivity differs from type III in that: a- Mast cells trigger II, neutrophils trigger III b- In II phagocytes attack cells with surface antigen antibody, in III they engulf immune complexes. c- Pencillin has not been identified as a trigger of 2 ,but it does trigger 3 d- 2 puts a person at risk for kidney damage,3 does not
b- In II phagocytes attack cells with surface antigen antibody, in III they engulf immune complexes.
Strongly immunogenic tumours appear: a- In virtually all cancers b- In immunosuppressed patients c- Mostly in lymphoma and leukemia d- In case liver cancer
b- In immunosuppressed patients
- Somatic recombination occurs: a- After affinity maturation b- In the progenitor cells as it is becoming a B cell c- After isotype switching d- In the plasma cells after antibody secretion
b- In the progenitor cells as it is becoming a B cell
Rapid but non-antigen specific immune responses are produced by the: a- Adaptive immune system b- Innate immune system c- Lymphocytes d- Lymphatic system
b- Innate immune system
Interferon gamma: a- Is released as a consequence of antigen-induced activation of Th2 lymphocytes b- Is released as a consequence of antigen-induced activation of Th1 lymphocytes c- Is released as a consequence of antigen-induced activation of Th17 lymphocytes d- Is released as a consequence of antigen-induced activation of treg lymphocytes
b- Is released as a consequence of antigen-induced activation of Th1
Removal of immune complex is correctly described by which of the following statements? a- It is independent of C3 for particular complexes b- It occurs primarily in the spleen and liver c- It is independent of size of immune complexes d- It occurs primarily in the thymus and spleen
b- It occurs primarily in the spleen and liver
A cell producing cytotoxic compounds following Th1 cell activation is a (an): a- Immature dendritic cell b- Macrophage c- Eosinophils d- Mature dendritic cell
b- Macrophage
Antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) requires the involvement of : a- Dendritic cell and infected cell b- Macrophage and cancer cell c- Erythrocyte and antibodies d- Antibodies and follicular dendritic cell
b- Macrophage and cancer cell
Which cells in the body are involved in the antibody-mediated allergic reactions? a- Macrophages and NK cells b- Mast cells and basophils c- Gammadelta T cells d- Any phygocytic cell
b- Mast cells and basophils
A product of vaccination is: a- Naïve mature B cells b- Memory B cells c- Naïve mature T cells d- Plasma cells
b- Memory B cells
Antigens normally expressed only on embryonic cells but also found in certain tumors are known as: a- Cryptic antigen b- Oncofetal antigen c- Superantigen d- HTLV-1
b- Oncofetal antigen
Why do ........ treat patients by injecting them with an allergen they are sensitive to? a- If allergen is present in high enough levels, it maybe mistaken for a self protein and ignored b- Over a longer period of time there is a progressive decrease in IgE in the serum c- An injection into muscle will direct the immune responses from the upper respiratory tract d- This prevents the allergen from decreasing as it crosses the epithelial barrier 73- Wh
b- Over a longer period of time there is a progressive decrease in IgE in the serum
Against which pathogen IgE antibodies can provide immunity? a- Human hepatitis C virus b- Shistosoma mansoni c- Staphylococcus aureus d- Salmonella species
b- Shistosoma mansoni
The principal difference between cytotoxic (type II) and immune complex (type III) hypersensitivity: a- The clone (isotype) of antibody b- The site where antigen-antibody complexes are formed c- The participation of complement d- The participation of T cells
b- The site where antigen-antibody complexes are formed
The major mechanism of host resistance to M.Leprae is: a- Humoral antibodies b- Type IV hypersensitivity c- High level of calcium in serum d- Type I hypersensitivity
b- Type IV hypersensitivity
Staphylococci resistant to penicillin G produce a. Beta catalase b. Beta lactase c. Gamma catalase d. Gamma lactamase
b. Beta lactase
Which of the following immune effector mechanism is the most important in completely clearing of infection caused by S. Pneumoniae a. antibody dependent cells cytotoxicity b. Complement mediated opsonization c. Cytotoxic T cell lymphocytes d. Natural killer cells
b. Complement mediated opsonization
hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh blood group incompatibility requires maternal antibody to enter the fetal bloodstream. Therefore, the mediator of this disease is a. IgE b. IgG c. IgM d. IgA
b. IgG
Which of the following is NOT correct regarding autoimmune diseases? a. genetic factors play a role in development of autoimmune diseases b. abrogation of CD25+ cells leads to down regulation of the autoimmune response c. an individual can have more than one autoimmune disease d. autoantibody production alone does not equal autoimmune disease
b. abrogation of CD25+ cells leads to down regulation of the autoimmune response
If pathogen block the fusion of lysosomes with the phagocytic vesicles, they can be killed through the effector function of a. Memory B cells b. complement c. cytotoxic t cells d. opsonizing antibody
b. complement
Which of the following has the MAJOR influence on the antibody response carried out by a B lymphocyte a. a t-cytotoxic cell b. cytokines released by a T-helper cell c. anaphylatoxins d. phagocytes presenting peptides to t-helper cells
b. cytokines released by a T-helper cell
Positive selection induces apoptosis in developing T cells that bind to a. both MHC I and II b. neither MHC I nor II c. self-antigen d. foreign antigen
b. neither MHC I nor II
The specificity of any lymphocyte is determined by a. the type of CD molecules on that cell b. the specificity of the antigen receptors on that cells c. MHC Class I molecules d. PAMP recognition receptors
b. the specificity of the antigen receptors on that cells
CD8 is a co receptor in T cells that binds a) Exogenous antigen peptide b) Endogenous antigen peptide c) Alpha chain of class 1 MHC molecule d) Beta 2 microglobulin of class 1 MHC molecule
c) Alpha chain of class 1 MHC molecule
A common strategy by which microbes survive their hosts immune response involves changing the structures of the molecules they produce so that they no longer recognized by the hosts immune system. This strategy called antigenic variations is most likely to allow evasion of which type of immune recognition? a) Toll like receptor dependent recognition b)Mannose receptor dependent recognition c) Antibody recognition of microbial cell surface molecules d)Natural killer cell inhibitory receptor recognition of class 1 major histocompatability complex (MHC) molecules on infected cells
c) Antibody recognition of microbial cell surface molecules
Antibody Fc fragments a) Contain antigen binding sites b)Contain complementarity determining regions c) Bind to complement component d) Binds to toll like receptors
c) Bind to complement component
Tc cell can mount a cytotoxic attack on a viral infected cell if it binds to a cell displaying a) Insufficient MHC 1 b) InsufficientMHC2 c) MHC 1 bearing foreign antigen d) MHC 2 bearing foreign antigen
c) MHC 1 bearing foreign antigen
secondary immune response compare to primary contains a) Low level of specific of IgG antibodies b) HighlevelofofspecificofIgMantibodies c) high level of specific of IgG antibodies d) high level of specific of IgD antibodies
c) high level of specific of IgG antibodies
Reactions of M.tuberculosis and eggs of schistosomiasis is: a- An IgG-mediated response b- An IgE-mediated response c- A T cell-mediated response d- Antibody mediated response
c- A T cell-mediated response
Grafts between genetically identical individuals (e.g. identical twins) a- Are subject to acute rejection b- Are subject to hyperactive rejection c- Are not rejected, even without immunosuppression d- Are not rejected if a kidney is grafted, but skin grafts are rejected
c- Are not rejected, even without immunosuppression
Allergy symptoms are produced when antigen binds to IgE on FcR on: a- NKT cells b- Macrophages c- Basophils d- Neutrophils
c- Basophils
Identify the NK marker(s): a- CD3 b- CD14 c- CD16 and CD36 d- CD19 and CD20
c- CD16 and CD36
Which of the following statement are correcty describe type 3 hypersensitivity? a- It occurs within 72 hours of re-exposure to antigen b- It is not mediated by compliment-fixing IgG c- Compliment is an important mediator d- Desensitization is used for its control
c- Compliment is an important mediator
A delayed hypersensitivity reactions is characterized by: a- Edema without a cellular infiltrate b- An infiltrate composed of neutrophils c- Differentiation of macrophages into epitheloid cells d- An infiltrate composed on eosinophils
c- Differentiation of macrophages into epitheloid cells
An example of a known oncogenic virus is: a- Herpes zoster b- HIV-2 c- Epstein-Barr virus d- Proteus mirabilis
c- Epstein-Barr virus
1- TCR most closely resembles: a- Class I MHC b- Class II MHC c- Fab region of immunoglobulin d- Fc region of immunoglobulin
c- Fab region of immunoglobulin
Exogenous peptides are presented in association with: a- IgG heavy chains b- HLA-A, B or C molecules c- HLA-DR, DP or DQ molecules d- T cell receptor
c- HLA-DR, DP or DQ molecules
Which histomolecules may correlate with frequencies of certain autoimmune diseases? a- Forms of proteasome enzyme subunits b- V,D,J gene fragments used to produce receptors specific for cancerassociated peptides c- Histocompatibility antigens d- CD4 or CD8 surface molecules
c- Histocompatibility antigens
Which components of MICs transplant can initiate graft rejection? a- Histocompatibility antigen that are also found in the body of the recipient b- HLA DP,DR,DQ that are also found in the body of the recipient c- Histocompatibility antigens that are not found in the body of the recipient d- Histocompatibility antigens that can induce donor-specific tolerance
c- Histocompatibility antigens that are not found in the body of the recipient
Hypersensitivity to ......... and hypersensitivity to nickel are both: a- Mediated by IgE antibodies b- Mediated by TH17 cytokines c- Initiated by haptines d- Initiated by Th2 cells
c- Initiated by haptens
Certain HLA genes are linked to autoimmune diseases because: a- It maybe the result of a single genetic defect b- It maybe the result of decreased helper T cells c- It maybe the result of cross-reactivity between self antigen and infectious agent d- It carries no increased risk for a specific disease for those individuals with the gene
c- It maybe the result of cross-reactivity between self antigen and infectious agent
Identify molecules on the surface of an infected cell that are responsible for recognition by host CD8+ cell: a- CD4 b- CD8 c- MHC class I d- MHC class II
c- MHC class I
It was observed that milkmaids infected with cowpox were later immune to smallpox infections, this is an example of: a- Innate immunity to a cross-reactive agent b- Innate immunity of milkmaids to smallpox c- Memory response to a cross-reactive agent
c- Memory response to a cross-reactive agent
Somatic hypermutation: a- Occur by somatic recombination b- Occur during T cell proliferation c- Occur in the B cell following antigen stimulation d- Result in decreased affinity of antibodies
c- Occur in the B cell following antigen stimulation
Which is the best method of reducing the effect of graft-versushost disease in a bone marrow? a- Matching a complement component of donor and recipient b- Administrating alpha interferons c- Removing mature T cells from the graft d- Removing mature B cells from the graft
c- Removing mature T cells from the graft
A typical IgM isotype antibody does NOT consist of: a- Two identical light chains b- Two identical heavy chains c- Secretory component d- A "J" (joining) chain
c- Secretory component
The most likely clinical consequence of a genetic deficiency of complement component C3 is increased: a- Susceptibility to viral infections b- Susceptibility to mycobacteria c- Susceptibility to bacterial infections d- Incidence of malignancy
c- Susceptibility to bacterial infections
Viruses cause tumours in "nude mice"(which do not have a thymus because of genetic defect) but ............... normal mice. The BEST interpretation is that: a- Macrophages are required to reject polymavirus-induced tumours b- Natural killers can reject polymavirus-induced tumours without help from T lymphocytes c- T lymphocytes play an important role in rejection of polymavirusinduced tumours d- B lymphocytes play no role in rejection of polymavirus-induced tumours
c- T lymphocytes play an important role in rejection of polymavirusinduced tumours
T cells are MHC-restricted in their ability to respond to antigen because: a- During an infection, all cells in the body present antigen on MHC class I b- MHC binds antigen more specifically than TCR does c- TCR must recognize both antigen and MHC molecules d- The T cells should not respond to antigen on allogenic cells
c- TCR must recognize both antigen and MHC molecules
The tuberculin skin test is performed by injecting 0.1 ml of tuberculin purified protein derivative (PPD) into the inner surface of the forearm. Histologically the reaction site would MOST probably show: a- Mast cells b- Neutrophils c- Th cell and macrophage d- T and B cells
c- Th cell and macrophage
Just before they enter the blood circulation from the lymphatic system, circulating lymphocytes will be found in the: a- A high endothelial venule b- A lymph node c- The thoracic duct d- The bone marrow
c- The thoracic duct
Di George syndrome results from a defect in: a- Purine nucleoside phosphorylase b- WASP c- Thymic development d- DNA repair
c- Thymic development
Immunologic tolerance is defined as: a- The removal of microbes expressing the antigen, so that the host can tolerate the infection b- Activation to only B cells, and not T cells, on exposure to an antigen c- Unresponsiveness of the immune system to an antigen, which is induced by previous exposure to the antigen d- The production of memory B cells and T cells on primary exposure to an antigen
c- Unresponsiveness of the immune system to an antigen, which is induced by previous exposure to the antigen
Examples of primary T-cell deficiency disease includes: a- Hereditary angioneurotic edema b- Chronic granulation disease c- Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome d- Leukocyte adhesion deficiency
c- Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
Plasma cell secreting IgA antibodies would most likely to associate with a. tumors b. lymph nodes c. MALT d. bone marrow
c. MALT
T cells are MHC restricted in their ability to respond to antigen because: a. during an infection, all cells in the body present antigen on MHC Class I b. MHC binds antigen more specifically than TCR does c. TCR must recognize both antigen and MHC molecules d. the T cells should not respond to antigen on allogenic cells
c. TCR must recognize both antigen and MHC molecules
The lesions in immune complex induced glomerulonephritis are dependent on a. erythrocytes and complement b. production of urine c. complement and neutrophils d. presence of macrophages
c. complement and neutrophils
What statement about antigen epitopes is FALSE a. an epitope may be shared by two different antigens b. a protein molecule usually contains multiple epitopes c. epitope is a part of an antibody which recognizes and binds to an antigen d. some epitopes are more immunogenic than others
c. epitope is a part of an antibody which recognizes and binds to an antigen
the naive lymphocytes encounter the antigens for which they are specific during priming phase a. in the primary lymphoid organs b. in the thoracic duct c. in the secondary lymphoid organs d. in the blood
c. in the secondary lymphoid organs
destruction of virus infected cells by T cytotoxic cells is initiated by interactions between a) CD4 on T cytotoxic cell and MHC class 1on virus infected cell b) CD8 on virus infected cell and MHC class 1 on T cytotoxic cell c) MHC class 2 on virus infected cell and CD4 on T cytotoxic cell d) CD8 on T cytotoxic cell and MHC class 1 on virus infected cell
d) CD8 on T cytotoxic cell and MHC class 1 on virus infected cell
which statement about Treg cells is false? a) Natural Treg cells differentiate in the thymus b)Treg cells differentiate in the periphery c) Tregs secrete immunosuppressive cytokines d) Tregs secrete proinflammatory cytokines
d) Tregs secrete proinflammatory cytokines
Opsonin treated bacteria are more readily engulfed by phagocytes than are untreated bacteria because a) The capsule is removed by opsonin b)Opsonin digest the wall component c) Opsonin induces lysosomal enzymes d)Phagocyte contains receptors that bind antibodies
d)Phagocyte contains receptors that bind antibodies
Patients with Di George syndrome have: a- Increased number of T cells b- Selective IgA deficiency c- Abnormal antigen-presenting cells d- A decreased number of T cells
d- A decreased number of T cells
Which one of the following on the surface of the macrophages initiates phagocytosis of capsulated bacteria? a- An antigen on the macrophage surface that is identical to the antigen on the capsule surface b- MHC class II molecules on the macrophage surface c- A receptor for a fragment of activated complement d- An Fc receptor on the macrophage surface
d- An Fc receptor on the macrophage surface
Select INCORRECT answer. Complement that has been activated bu bacterial cells can contribute to the destruction and elimination of these cells: a- By destroying the bacterial cell membrane b- By assisting phagocytes to attach to bacterial cells c- By attracting more phagocytes to the area of complement activation d- By assisting phagocytes to produce memory cells
d- By assisting phagocytes to produce memory cells
Identify the component that does NOT actually help a phagocyte to attach to the surface of a bacterial cell? a- IgG b- C4b c- C3b d- C3a
d- C3a
In case of C2 and C4 deficiencies: a- C5 can still be cleaved by the chemical pathway b- C3b will not be able to bind to bacteria c- C9 will not polymerize and lyse host cells d- C3b production will be reduced
d- C3b production will be reduced
Which marker or markers is present on the B class and could be used to specifically identify such cells in a flow cytometric analyser? a- CD3 b- CD8 c- CD16 and CD56 d- CD19 and CD20
d- CD19 and CD20
In the thymus, T cells that recognize MHC class II molecules differentiate to become: a- CD8 lymphocyte b- Gamma-delta T cell c- Natural killer cell d- CD4+ lymphocyte
d- CD4+ lymphocyte
A diagnostic marker for tumours of the colon is: a- Alpha-fetoprotein b- Common acute hyphoblastic leukemia antigen (CALLA) c- EBV-related antigen d- Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
d- Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Individuals with a genetic deficiency of C6 have: a- Decreased resistance to viral infections b- Increased hypersensitivity reactions c- Increased frequency of cancer d- Decreased resistance of Neisseria bacteraemia
d- Decreased resistance of Neisseria bacteraemia
Choose the distinction between innate and adaptive immune responses: a- Adaptive responses (phagocytosis, complement activation) improve significantly with each exposure to pathogens b- Innate responses often can take 1-2 weeks to begin destroying infection microorganisms, while adaptive responses destroy infections about immediately after the very first encounter with a pathogen c- An adaptive response does not improve significantly with repeated exposure to the same non-....... d- Each cell involved in innate responses (e.g. phagocytes) can be stimulated to respond by many ...... molecules, while each cell involved in adaptive responses (e.g. lymphocytes) can be stimulated to respond by only one molecular structure (called an antigen)
d- Each cell involved in innate responses (e.g. phagocytes) can be stimulated to respond by many ...... molecules, while each cell involved in adaptive responses (e.g. lymphocytes) can be stimulated to respond by only one molecular structure (called an antigen)
Immune system cell adhesion molecule: a- Do not allow macrophages to leave circulation b- Do not allow T cells to come to peripheral lymphoid tissue c- Help activated B cell producing high affinity antibody d- Help cytotoxic T cell to bind specific target
d- Help cytotoxic T cell to bind specific target
Isotype switching: a- Decreases the functional diversity of Ig molecules b- Improves the antigen binding specificity of an Ig molecule c- Increases the affinity of antibodies in a process called affinity maturation d- Increases the functional diversity of Ig molecules
d- Increases the functional diversity of Ig molecules
Class II MHC does not efficiently present endogenous antigen because: a- Antigen synthesized inside the cell never makes it to the endosomal compartments b- Endogenous antigens cannot be processed into peptides small enough c- HLA DM transport class II to the surface before it can bind endogenous peptide d- Invariant chain blocks binding endogenous peptide in the ER
d- Invariant chain blocks binding endogenous peptide in the ER
The IgG isotype is often used as an example of the typical immunoglobulin. Identify the physical or biological characteristics of one antibody molecules that has the IgG isotype: a- Has one heavy chain and two identical light chains b- Is able to bind two different antigens/epitopes c- Papain treatment will produce two identical Fc fragments d- Is able to bind to specific antigen
d- Is able to bind to specific antigen
Which of the following statements is characteristic of contact sensitivity? a- The best therapy is administration of the antigens b- It requires secretory component to work c- Can be transferred with a serum from an allergic individual d- It is an eczematous skin reaction at the site of contact with allergen
d- It is an eczematous skin reaction at the site of contact with allergen
Clonal selection a- Begins with inflammation b- Occurs for all leukocytes c- Occurs in response to cell antigen d- Occurs for all lymphocytes
d- Occurs for all lymphocytes
Which of the following is not correct regarding immunity to cancer? a- Despite immune responses tumour continues to grow b- Activation of CD25+ cell lead to protective tumour immunity c- Vaccination can be used to treat cancer d- Patient with cancer have successful tumour immunity
d- Patient with cancer have successful tumour immunity
A cell which secretes large quantities of antibodies but does not express surface immunoglobulin is a: a- Naïve mature B cell b- Memory B cell c- B-1 cell d- Plasma cell
d- Plasma cell
All of the following are true for immune haemolytic anemia EXCEPT: a- It is the clinical condition in which IgG antibodies bind to red cell surface antigens b- Is is the clinical condition in which IgM antibodies bind to red cell surface antigens c- Antibodies initiate red cell destruction via the complement system and phagocytes d- Red cell destruction occurs by T cytotoxic and NK cells.
d- Red cell destruction occurs by T cytotoxic and NK cells.
Which of the following antibodies would be considered to have the greatest specificity for an epitope? a- The antibody with the lowest affinity for the epitope b- The antibody that forms the fewest non-covalent bonds with the epitope c- The antibody that forms no bonds with the epitope d- The antibody with the highest affinity for the epitope
d- The antibody with the highest affinity for the epitope
Th2 cells are responsible for fighting against: a- Tuberculosis bacteria b- Flu virus c- Tumour cells d- Worms
d- Worms
A transplant of tissue between individuals of different species is called: a- Autograft b- Isograft c- Allograft d- Xenograft
d- Xenograft
Formation of MAC is initiated by a. C3a b. C3b c. C5a d. C5b
d. C5b
Type II hypersensitivity is a. antibody independent b. complement independent c. caused by antibodies against soluble antigen d. caused by antibodies against cell surface antigen
d. caused by antibodies against cell surface antigen
Inflammation does not involve a. cytokine production by macrophages b. migration of leukocytes out of the circulation c. swelling of tissues and pain d. production and maturation of lymphocytes
d. production and maturation of lymphocytes
All of the following are true for immune hemolytic anemia EXCEPT a. it is a clinical condition in which IgG antibodies bind to red cell surface antigens b. it is a clinical condition in which IgM antibodies bind to red cell surface antigens c. antibodies initiate red cell destruction via complement system and phagocytes d. red cells destruction occurs by T cytotoxic and NK cells
d. red cells destruction occurs by T cytotoxic and NK cells
Which of the following statements is FALSE: a- As example of passive humoral immunity is treatment with horse antisnake venin b- Antigen recognized by Th cells must be associated with class II MHC molecules c- Each lymphocyte has many antigen binding receptor, each receptor capable of binding the same antigen d- The cytokines produced by T cells subunits determine their effector functions e- The cytokines that drive the development of T cell subunits are NOT produced by antigen-presenting cells
e- The cytokines that drive the development of T cell subunits are NOT produced by antigen-presenting cells