MKT304 - CHAP3A, MKT304 - CHAP 16A, MKT304-CH16B, MKT304 - CHAP 8A, MKT304 - CHAP 8B, MKT304 - CHAP 9A, MKT304 - CHAP 10B, MKT304 - CHAP 10A, MKT304 - CHAP 11B, MKT304 - CHAP 11A, MKT 304-Chap 1B, MKT304-Chap 1A, MKT 304-Chap 2A, MKT 304-Chap 2B, MKT...

¡Supera tus tareas y exámenes ahora con Quizwiz!

29. (p. 476) Which of the following statements is true about the growth of direct marketing? A. Direct marketing is being used as a promotional media only after the invention of Internet. B. All the purchases being made with the use of credit cards are as a result of direct marketing. C. One of the major factors contributing to the success of direct marketing is that so many Americans are now 'time rich and money poor'. D. Increase in poverty has led to a rapid increase in direct marketing. E. The rapid technological advancement of the electronic media and the Internet has led to growth in direct marketing.

29. (p. 496) _____ is the place where providers make information available to users of the Internet. A. Computer B. Interstitials C. Web site D. Links E. E-commerce

23. (p. 474) Which of the following promotional media create an immediate response in the form of an inquiry, a purchase or even a vote? A. Trade advertising B. Publicity C. Public relations D. Direct marketing E. Synchro marketing

False

3. (p. 476) It is not possible to generate a behavioral response by relying solely on direct marketing.

FALSE

3. (p. 496) When major corporations first began to conduct business on the Internet, they put up websites primarily for creating a strong brand image

50. (p. 479) With an offer to subscribe to a cooking magazine, Rosina was offered the opportunity to buy a set of cookware, an electric can opener, and a coffee maker that were featured in the publication and selected by the magazine editors as the best value for the money. This is an example of: A. cross-selling. B. renewal marketing. C. an unethical business practice. D. membership-based marketing. E. remarketing.

76. (p. 482) The lower cost and convenience of which of the following media have raised concerns among traditional direct-mail marketers but at the same time created better opportunities? A. Television B. Radio C. Internet D. Outdoor advertising E. Transit advertising

10. (p. 523) Which of the following serves as a reason for the increase in sales promotion? A. Power shift in market place from manufactures to retailers B. Increasing brand loyalty of the customers C. Need for long-term increase in sales D. Decreased promotional sensitivity E. Decreased competition

107. (p. 560) Intel and several different manufacturers of personal computers have joined to create and sponsor ads that promote both the computer and the microprocessor by sharing the cost of advertising. Intel and the PC manufacturers are using: A. cooperative advertising .B. forward promotion. C. dyadic communications. D. comparative advertising. E. diverting.

108. (p. 560) _____ is advertising sponsored in common by a group of retailers or other organizations offering a product or service to the market. A. Horizontal cooperative advertising B. Vertical cooperative advertising C. Indirect advertising D. Ingredient-sponsored cooperative advertising E. Dyadic communication

115. (p. 565) According to attribution theory, a consumer who purchases a product on promotion may not repurchase it because the: A. purchase behavior is attributed to an external incentive. B. relationships between promotions and attitudes are weak. C. primary reinforcement is the brand, and not the promotional incentive. D. consumer really does not care about which brand is purchased. E. purchase is internally motivated and unaffected by an external incentive.

24. (p. 18) Which of the following is NOT an element of the traditional promotional mix? A. Packaging B. Advertising C. Personal selling D. Sales promotion E. Public relations

26. (p. 18) _____ is defined as any paid form of nonpersonal presentation of ideas, goods, or services by an identified sponsor using predominantly mass media communication. A. Advertising B. Personal selling C. The promotional mix D. Publicity E. Sales promotion

27. (p. 18) Advertising is defined as any: A. paid forms of nonpersonal communication about a good, service, or company. B. any communication about a good, service, or company. C. any communication that moves a product from one level to another level of the distribution channel. D. personal communication from a company's representative to prospective buyers. E. nonpersonal communication about a good or service that is not paid for or run under identified sponsorship.

28. (p. 18) Which of the following is a characteristic of advertising as a form of promotion? A. Low cost per contact B. Non-paid form of promotion C. The sponsor or advertiser is not identified D. Immediate feedback and capability to close sales E. Makes use of non-traditional media

51. (p. 536) Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with couponing? A. It can be difficult to estimate how many consumers will use a coupon and when. B. It is not useful in encouraging trail. C. Response to a coupon is immediate. D. It does not help in encouraging non - users to try a brand. E. It may encourage regular users to trade down to inexpensive brands.

A _____ advertising organizational system has the advantages of concentrated managerial attention, rapid response to problems, and increased flexibility. A. centralized B. decentralized C. democratic D. collateral system E. functionally-incorporated

A _____ audit of an agency focuses on factors such as costs, expenses and payments to outside suppliers while a _____ audit focuses on factors such as the agency's efforts in planning, development and implementing the advertising program. A. financial; qualitative B. qualitative; financial C. financial; creative D. qualitative; quantitative E. fixed costs; variable costs

A _____ is a desire for something that one does not have. A. need B. want C. product D. problem E. mnemonic

A client who manufactures maternity clothes for businesswomen wants a new advertising campaign. Visits to obstetrician's offices to observe the clothes being worn and to maternity shops at the mall to see how they were selected could be a part of the _____ step of the creative process. A. preparation B. verification C. revision D. reality check E. incubation

A major threat to conventional broadcast radio is: A. the emergence of satellite radio. B. low-powered local radio broadcasting. C. the creation of communications cartels. D. the fact consumers prefer to pay a subscription fee for their radio. E. the ability to zip and zap radio commercials.

Advertisements that create feelings, meanings, images or beliefs about a product or service that can be activated when consumers use it are known as _____ ads. A. rational B. transformational C. nostalgic D. affective E. informational

Advertisements that focus on the dominant attributes or characteristics of a product or service are known as _____ appeals. A. feature B. news C. price D. product popularity E. generic

Advertisers create emotional advertising appeals by using: A. comparative advertisements. B. feature appeals. C. transformational advertising. D. news appeals. E. popularity appeals.

Advertisers have little control over the placement of their commercials within a program when they advertise using a(n) _____ arrangement. A. sponsorship B. participation C. daypart D. exclusivity E. run-of-station (ROS)

According to the Foote Cone & Belding (FCB) planning model, the _____ strategy is for highly involving products where rational thinking and economic considerations prevail. A. habitual B. informative C. affective D. satisfaction E. dissonance reduction

According to the _____ model, marketers may experience negative publicity if their product endorser is accused of immoral behavior. A. celebrity expertise B. meaning transfer C. celebrity popularity D. endorsement shift E. consumer-celebrity merging

According to the _____ model, the major impact of the mass media occurs after the purchase is made. A. low-involvement B. standard learning C. dissonance/attribution D. cognitive response E. elaboration likelihood

According to the concave-downward model, A. the effects of advertising quickly begin to diminish. B. the carryover effect is especially true for low-priced, frequently purchased consumer products. C. sales decrease rapidly if the price is too high. D. initial outlays of the advertising budget have little impact on sales. E. sales are not directly related to the size of the advertising budget.

According to the elaboration likelihood model (ELM), a receiver lacks the ability or motivation to process information under the _____ route to persuasion. A. central B. peripheral C. cognitive D. high-involvement E. affective

44. (p. 533) Samples would be an appropriate promotional strategy to: A. support an every day low price (EDLP) strategy. B. as the key tactic in a push promotional strategy. C. introduce a new flavor of sport drink to the marketplace. D. support reminder advertising for a product in the decline stage of its product life cycle. E. to build long term relationship with customers.

34. (p. 530) Which of the following is an example of a nonfranchise building promotion? A. Consumer sampling B. Contests targeted to ultimate consumers C. Price-off deals D. Event sponsorship E. Frequency programs

43. (p. 533) _____ is generally considered the most effective method for generating trial of a new product. A. Event marketing B. Sampling C. A rebate award D. A bonus pack E. A contest

44. (p. 20) _____ advertising focuses on creating demand for a specific company's brand. A. Primary-demand B. Selective-demand C. Trade D. Secondary-demand E. Industrial

71. (p. 24) Because of the perceived objectivity of the source, which of the elements of the promotional mix is usually regarded as most credible? A. Advertising B. Publicity C. Packaging D. Sales promotion E. Direct marketing

47. (p. 534) _____ is used when it is important to control where the sample is delivered. A. Mail Sampling B. Couponing C. Door-to-door sampling D. On package sampling E. Mobile coupon

5. (p. 8) Price, product, place and promotion together form the: A. value. B. promotional mix. C. marketing mix. D. integrated marketing communication. E. distribution channel.

50. (p. 20) Ads for Wagner Brake Products, Champion spark plugs, MOOG chassis parts, and Keystone wheels in Tire Review, a journal written and published especially for owners/operators of auto shops, are examples of _____ advertising. A. retail B. direct-response C. business-to-business D. direct - mail E. primary-demand

88. (p. 26) _____ are planned marketing communication messages created by the company such as advertisements, websites, news/press releases, packaging, brochures, and sales promotion etc. A. Distributive touch points B. Public relations C. Company created touch points D. Intrinsic touch points E. Extrinsic touch points

96. (p. 557) Another term used for push money that is given to retailers' or wholesalers' sales staff to encourage them to promote and sell a company's product is: A. pull money. B. a rebate. C. a spiff. D. an off-invoice allowance. E. a slotting fee.

98. (p. 30) The second stage of the IMC planning process is the: A. development of a mission statement. B. development of marketing job descriptions. C. promotional analysis. D. development of an advertising plan. E. preparation of a marketing plan.

91. (p. 553) May is National Arthritis Month. To celebrate this month, the manufacturer of Aleve pain reliever sponsored fundraiser walks to raise money to find a cure for arthritis. Aleve's manufacturer engaged in: A. a self-liquidating premium. B. a trade show. C. an exhibition. D. event marketing. E. a corporate contest.

Canadian researchers went into people's homes and observed how they watched television and more specifically what they did when commercials came on. This was an example of _____ research. A. psychographic B. demographic C. ethnographic D. perceptual E. quantitative

30. (p. 18) The best-known and most widely discussed form of promotion is: A. personal selling. B. sales promotion. C. direct marketing. D. advertising. E. publicity/public relations.

31. (p. 18) Which the following is NOT possible through the use of advertising? A. Ability to control the message B. Low cost per contact C. Ability to create brand images and symbolism D. Immediate feedback E. Control of message content and media placement

For which of the following situations is a consumer's purchase behavior most likely to be characterized by extended problem solving? A. The purchase of laundry detergent B. The purchase of a new pair of running shoes by a consumer who runs regularly C. The purchase of a new set of skis by an avid skier D. The selection of a restaurant for lunch with friends E. The first time purchase of a personal computer by someone with no prior knowledge of PCs

For which of the following would an advertiser be most likely to use a sales-oriented objective? A. A direct response ad for a record album B. A commercial for a new type of electric-powered automobile C. A political announcement D. An anti-drug public service announcement E. A commercial comparing Verizon to AT&T

From the perspective of a product manager, a commercial is likely to be judged as creative if it: A. is novel and innovative. B. has a high level of artistic or aesthetic value. C. communicates the message clearly and leaves a favorable impression on the target audience. D. wins creative awards. E. is unlike anything currently in the marketplace.

Individuals who have the responsibility of coordinating efforts of various product or brand managers for a particular product class are known as: A. category managers. B. superordinate managers. C. account executives. D. account supervisors. E. media planners.

The ad for Jergens lotion indicated that it has both beta hydroxy to defoliate dry skin and alpha hydroxy to moisturize skin. Someone who knew something about these additives work might respond to the ad by thinking, "If it has both those ingredients, it must be really good for my skin. I'm going to buy a bottle." The individual's response to the ad's copy would be an example of a: A. negative ad execution thought. B. source derogation. C. support argument. D. counterargument. E. positive execution thought.

The Potato Board ran ads recognizing the perception held by many people that potatoes are fattening but then presenting information countering this belief. This is an example of: A. conclusion drawing. B. a fear appeal. C. a refutational appeal. D. a humorous appeal. E. an affective conclusion.

The Rogers Agency wants to test a creative idea it has for a new commercial before moving ahead with the production of the spot. To make the test more realistic it wants to test both the visual layout of the commercial as well as the audio portion of the message. The commercial should be tested in which of the following forms? A. Storyboard B. Animatic C. Reaction profile D. Print copy E. Rough layout

The S-shaped response curve suggests that: A. advertising effectiveness will not be related to spending. B. very low advertising budgets will not work. C. advertising effectiveness will vary inversely with the spending levels. D. the carryover effect is especially true for low-priced, frequently purchased consumer products. E. sales and spending on advertising are not directly related.

The S-shaped response function implies that: A. initial advertising expenditures will have little impact on sales. B. advertising expenditures will have major impact on sales. C. sales effects will follow the microeconomic law of diminishing returns. D. sales will immediately increase then decrease. E. sales will immediately decrease then increase.

The WB assembled a group of affiliated independent television stations to which it supplied programming and other services. The WB is an example of a: A. syndicated station. B. superstation. C. television network. D. cable station. E. television station.

The _____ model explains the decision-making process when a consumer buys a high-involvement product for which there is a high amount of differentiation among brands. A. standard learning B. dissonance/attribution C. low-involvement D. cognitive response E. 5-Ws

The _____ of communication is the person or organization that has information to share with another person or group of people. A. essence B. source C. message D. decoder E. channel

The _____ step of the creative process deals with refining and polishing the idea and seeing if it is an appropriate solution. A. immersion B. incubation C. digestion D. preparation E. verification

The ad for Tempur-Pedic's weight control mattress describes the mattress as "a perfect refuge from the cares of the day." This description indicates that the mattress maker is using _____ segmentation to define its market. A. benefit B. demographic C. geographic D. behavioristic E. SRI

The ad for the Disney Institute at Walt Disney World describes vacations during which an individual can immerse him or herself in the joys of gardening for a week and take classes with horticulturists. This is an example of _____ segmentation. A. psychographic B. demographic C. behavioristic D. usage E. geographic

The advertiser needs to know _____ to determine how many readers an advertiser gets for every dollar spent in print media. A. the pass-along readership B. cost per point C. frequency estimates D. gross ratings points E. average frequency

The carryover effect: A. has no impact on sales objectives. B. has no effect on the relationship between advertising and sales. C. encourages the use of nonspecific objectives. D. is particularly apparent with mature, low-priced, and frequently purchased products. E. helps in determining the precise relationship between advertising and sales.

The category development index is similar to the Brand Development Index (BDI) except that it: A. uses information about the product category. B. is more specific. C. is concerned with companies and not with products. D. is tied to an economic index. E. is less reliable.

The fact that marketing and advertising people have backgrounds and interests that are often quite different from consumers who comprise mass markets for many products and services makes it difficult to establish: A. decoding. B. feedback mechanisms. C. response hierarchies. D. a common ground. E. fields of experience.

The function of gathering, analyzing and interpreting information that is useful in developing advertising is the responsibility of the agency's _____ department. A. production B. traffic C. media D. account management E. research

The more specific the firm's advertising objectives, the: A. easier it becomes to measure advertising effectiveness. B. more difficult it is for competitor's advertising to be effective. C. easier it is to measure the advertising-sales response function. D. smaller the funding needed to meet advertising goals. E. more difficult it is for a competitor to use competitive parity budgeting.

The task and objective method of budgeting as well as the payout plan are both examples of the _____ approach. A. trading up B. top-down C. bottom-up D. build-up E. trickle up

The visual portion of an advertisement may reduce its persuasiveness because: A. the picture may attract too much attention to the product. B. the processing stimulated by the picture may be less controlled and less favorable than the processing stimulated by words. C. pictures are always low in imagery value. D. pictures may have a negative effect on recall. E. verbal communication is always more effective than nonverbal communications.

The use of the gecko lizard in the Geico Direct insurance company commercials indicates a positioning strategy based on: A. price/quality. B. use or application. C. cultural symbol. D. product class. E. distribution intensity.

Under a centralized organizational system, the responsibility for planning and controlling the advertising and promotional function lies with the: A. brand manager. B. advertising manager. C. product manager. D. in-house agency. E. vice president of marketing.

When a _____ is used, most of a company's advertising and promotional activities will be the responsibility of the advertising manager. A. brand manager system B. decentralized marketing system C. centralized system D. media buying service E. creative boutique

Which of the following is at the top of the communication effects pyramid? A. awareness B. knowledge C. liking D. preference E. purchase/repurchase

Which of the following is the amount of client money that agencies spend on media purchases and other equivalent activities? A. Billings B. Media commissions C. Retainers D. Activity fees E. Traffic compensation

_____ are defined as external areas where there are favorable demand trends, customer needs and wants are not being satisfied, and where a company thinks it can compete effectively. A. Market opportunities B. Market segments C. Competitive advantages D. Market strengths E. Market plans

_____ involves ignoring segment differences and offering just one product or service for the entire market. A. Marketing mix B. Positioning C. Concentrated marketing D. Synchro marketing E. Undifferentiated marketing

_____ is a method for allocating budgets designed to determine the investment value of the advertising appropriation. A. Payout planning B. Percent of sales method C. Competitive parity D. Arbitrary allocation E. Objective and task

_____ is a preference for a particular brand that results in its repeated purchase. A. A purchase intention B. Brand affectation C. Cognitive dissonance D. Brand loyalty E. A heuristic

_____ is a summary measure that combines reach and frequency. A. Brand development index (BDI) B. Program rating C. Category development index (CDI) D. Target ratings points (TRPs) E. Gross ratings points (GRPs)

_____ is a technique to probe into the mind of a customer in which an individual is asked to respond to the first thing that comes to his mind when he or she is given a word or a picture. A. In-depth interview B. Delphi technique C. Association tests D. Focus groups E. Evoked set

_____ is about building and maintaining a favorable identity and image of the company and/or its products or services in the mind of the consumer. A. Positioning B. Repositioning C. Segmentation D. Branding E. Targeting

_____ is advertising that, either directly or indirectly, names competitors and compares the brands on one or more attributes. A. One-sided advertising B. Two-sided advertising C. Comparative advertising D. Verbal appeals E. Refutation

_____ is an internal factor that may influence the determination of media strategy. A. The size of the media budget B. Competitive factors C. Changes in the economy D. The development of new media E. The rising costs of media

_____ is the ability to perceive a stimulus that is below the level of conscious awareness. A. Selective perception B. Selective attention C. Selective comprehension D. Subliminal perception E. Selective retention

_____ is the measure of the number of different audience members exposed at least once to a media vehicle. A. Frequency B. Reach C. Viewer number D. Coverage E. Exposure

_____ is the process by which an individual receives, selects, organizes, and interprets information to create a meaningful picture of the world. A. Information search B. Problem solving C. Perception D. Motivation E. Integration

_____ is viewed as "something that moves people, speaks to their wants or needs, and excites their interest." A. Advertising appeal B. Execution style C. Creativity D. Big idea E. Needledrop

_____ occurs when an unconditioned stimulus and a conditioned stimulus occur in close proximity in time and space. A. Association B. Repetition C. Frequency D. Contiguity E. Generalization

_____ occurs when consumer's expectations are either met or exceeded. A. Cognitive Dissonance B. Satisfaction C. Dissatisfaction D. Shaping E. Post purchase evaluation

_____ perform specialized functions that the various participants in integrated marketing communication process use in planning and executing advertising and other promotional functions. A. Media services B. Compensation services C. Collateral services D. Traffic services E. In-house agencies

_____ refers to situations where the advertised brand of a product or service is of personal interest to consumers. A. Animatic B. Brand-to-consumer relevance C. Storyboard D. Ad-to-consumer relevance E. Elaboration ad

_____ refers to the extent to which an ad contains elements that are novel, different, or unusual. A. Divergence B. Relevance C. Illumination D. Animatic E. Positioning

_____ research involves anthropologists or other types of trained researchers observing consumers in their natural environments. A. Psychographic B. Internalization C. Demographic D. Sociocultural E. Ethnographic

_____ segmentation is most closely related to the "80-20 rule," which states that 80 percent of a company's business comes from 20 percent of its customers. A. Geographic B. Behavioristic C. Demographic D. Psychographic E. Benefit

_____ segmentation is the grouping of customers on the basis of attributes sought in a product. A. Benefit B. Geographic C. VALS D. Demographic E. Lifestyle

_____ views a consumer's attitude toward a brand as possessing a number of attributes that provide the basis on which consumers form their attitudes. A. A multiattribute attitude model B. An affect referral attitude model C. Heuristics D. Stimulus-response theory E. Operant conditioning

______ are programs designed to persuade the retailer to promote a manufacturer's products. A. Promotional pull strategies B. Spot television campaigns C. Spot radio campaigns D. Promotional push strategies E. Progressive adherence policies

______ is a research technique whereby consumers are asked to generate an exhaustive list of things that bother them or difficulties they encounter when using a product or service. A. Consumer brainstorming B. General preplanning input C. Perceptual mapping D. Problem detection E. Market profiling

______ is an attempt to provide some standardization of relative costing procedures for making media selections. A. Daily inch rate B. Cost per repetition (CPR) C. Cost per ratings point (CPRP) D. Absolute cost E. Cost per thousand (CPM)

Clients and creative boutiques that have developed their own media strategies may employ _____ to execute them. A. media specialist companies B. full-service agencies C. in-house agencies D. media departments E. product managers

Clothing manufacturers like Calvin Klein and DKNY often employ sexy models in an attempt to attract attention to their ads. The theoretical explanation that would most support the idea that stimulating the consumer's sex drive would lead to product purchase is an application of: A. the cognitive learning theory. B. the psychoanalytic theory. C. the behavioral learning theory. D. affective modeling. E. shaping.

Lower level needs such as hunger and thirst are important to marketers because these needs: A. are the hardest to satisfy. B. are an ongoing source of motivation for most consumer purchase behavior. C. provide marketing opportunities for international marketers who do not want to make major financial investments in product adaptation. D. offer marketers a basis for differentiating their products. E. are the source for most market development strategies.

_____ are drawings that show what the print ad will look like and from which the final artwork will be produced. A. Creative briefs B. Copywriters C. Layouts D. Designs E. Logos

_____ are factors that compel or drive a consumer to take a particular action. A. Motives B. Impulses C. Wants D. Evaluative criterion E. Attributes

_____ are groups or segments in a society that possess similar beliefs, values, norms and patterns of behavior that set them apart from the larger mainstream. A. Demographic groups B. Subcultures C. Neighborhoods D. Social classes E. Reference groups

_____ are independent local television stations that send their signals via satellite to cable operators to make available to their subscribers. A. Networks B. Interconnects C. Superstations D. Affiliates E. Cable operators

_____ are individuals who act as salespersons for a number of local stations and represent them in their dealings with national advertisers. A. Station managers B. Affiliates C. Negotiators D. Station reps E. Sponsors

_____ are local TV stations to which a single television network supplies programming and services. A. Syndicates B. Adjacencies C. Full-run spots D. Affiliates E. Zappers

_____ are messages that mention only positive product attributes or benefits. A. One-sided messages B. Two-sided messages C. Refutational appeals D. Conclusive messages E. Slice-of-life messages

_____ are plans of action designed to obtain specific media objectives. A. Sweeps periods B. Programs ratings C. Media strategies D. Media vehicles E. Recency planning

_____ are reruns of network shows that are bought by individual stations to broadcast. A. Off-network syndications B. Sponsorships C. First-run syndications D. Network spots E. Local syndications

_____ are shows that are sold or distributed on a station-by-station, market-by-market basis. A. Spot broadcasts B. Televised advertorials C. Affiliate programs D. Participation programs E. Syndicated programs

Which media scheduling strategy would be most likely to be used by a marketer of dishwashing detergent? A. Ratings B. Share C. Flighting D. Pulsing E. Continuous

Which media vehicle is described as having few valid measurement techniques, a flexible message platform, and limited creative capabilities? A. Television B. Interactive media C. Radio D. Outdoor E. Newspapers

Which of following is a likely problem for a manager who uses sales as a measure of advertising effectiveness? A. Sales results offer little guidance or direction to those responsible for planning and developing the advertising program. B. There is a short, often immeasurable, time period between when advertising is run and when sales actually occur. C. Sales results are affected by no marketing mix variable other than price and promotion. D. No internal environmental variables have any significant influence on sales results. E. With the correctly selected promotion variables, no external environmental variables have any significant influence on sales results.

_____ are the abstract outcomes of product or service usage that are intangible, subjective and personal. A. Functional consequences B. Psychosocial consequences C. Bundles of attributes D. Service assessments E. Psychological stimuli

"Try new OHM by Olay Body Wash. It's better for your skin than Bath & Body Works, Origins, Aveda, or Clinique." This headline from an Olay Body Wash ad in Ladies Home Journal is an example of: A. confrontational advertising. B. two-sided advertising. C. comparative advertising. D. a recency appeal. E. refutational advertising.

) The _____ department coordinates all phases of production to ensure the proper progression of the advertisement. A. research B. production C. art D. traffic E. media

False

1. (p. 474) Direct marketing is synonymous to direct-marketing media.

FALSE

1. (p. 495-496) Like the other media, which are essentially unidirectional, the Internet also provides only for one way flow of information.

True

10. (p. 480) For CRM to work effectively, a database is required

TRUE

10. (p. 498) It is not easy to create a brand image on the Internet.

100. (p. 490) As postal rates increase, direct-mail advertising has frequently been replaced with: A. billboards. B. e-mail. C. use of Fedex. D. telemarketing. E. radio advertising

False

11. (p. 480) Ideally, collecting names and information about customers is sufficient in order to maintain and utilize a database effectively.

TRUE

11. (p. 498) Web sites that offer samples, promotions, and sweepstakes designed to encourage trial.

False

12. (p. 481) In the two steps approach to direct marketing, the first effort generates the sales and the second effort reduces the post purchase dissonance.

TRUE

12. (p. 499) Companies could make use of both 'brick and mortar stores' as well as Internet for generating sales.

False

13. (p. 481) Direct marketing is restricted to small companies seeking business.

TRUE

13. (p. 499) Web 1.0 ended with the 'bursting of the dot com bubble'.

True

14. (p. 482) Keys to the success of direct mail are the mailing lists.

36. (p. 498) Cheerwine is a cherry-flavored cola. A visit to its Web site shows consumers where the regional cola can be purchased, offers visitors a store where they can purchase clothes and other items bearing the Cheerwine brand, a selection of recipes using Cheerwine, and links to the Cheerwine NASCAR site. From this information, which of the following communications objective does this site have? A. To generate interest in Cheerwine B. To create disintermediation C. To serve as a point-of-purchase display D. To replace traditional advertising E. To disseminate information to nonusers

True

4. (p. 476) Direct marketing activities are supported by the other elements of the promotional mix.

DNA

59. (p. 481) The announcer on the television commercial said, "Get your credit card and call now to order the Monster Ballads of Rock & Roll CD." This is an example the _____ direct marketing approach. A. two-step B. group C. one - to - one D. one-step E. three-step

84. (p. 484) Which of the following statements about infomercials is true? A. By definition, infomercials must be at least 30 minutes in length. B. Retail stores are experiencing dramatic drops in sales as a result of the growing number of infomercials. C. Studies have proven infomercials are not watched and do not sell. D. Infomercials are never used by reputable, Fortune 500-type companies. E. Some consumer groups are concerned that infomercials may be confused with regular television programming.

85. (p. 484) Infomercials are: A. primarily designed to sell products that would be classified as fads. B. always televised during off-viewing hours. C. never appear on network television. D. part of a two-step program, and their effectiveness cannot be measured. E. typically produced by the advertiser.

False

9. (p. 478) The one and only objective of direct marketing is to obtain a direct behavioral response.

16. (p. 09) The goal of an integrated marketing communications program is to: A. have all of a company's marketing and promotional activities project a consistent unified image to its customers. B. control all facets of a product's distribution. C. communicate with customers primarily through advertising. D. have complete control over all the channel partners in the distribution channel. E. create a brand image so strong that it destroys all of its competition.

29. (p. 528) Which of the following is an example of consumer franchise building promotion? A. Frequent flyer program of Lufthansa airways that gives the customer points on each travel that can be redeemed against various other purchases. B. 'Buy one get one free' offer by Heinz ketchup. C. 'Flat 30%' off on all merchandise at Nike exclusive stores only. D. Limited offer of 'Get a toothbrush free along with a 50gm toothpaste' by Crest. E. A premium by Kellogg's that provides the customer with 'Zip Zap toy' along with the purchase of a 200gm pack of 'Kellogg's Chocos'.

32. (p. 19) Which promotional mix would a firm use if it wanted to reach a large consumer audience while keeping cost per contact low and create a symbolic image or appeal for a new brand? A. Advertising B. Personal selling C. Sales promotion D. Coupons E. Door-to-door selling

36. (p. 20) Stylo, a perfume manufacturing company, spends about $1,000,000 annually in order to advertise and remind its customers in the United States about its company, brand, its features, benefits, uses, and mainly to reinforce its image and attract customers to purchase its products. Which type of advertising is it making use of? A. National advertising B. Primary demand advertising C. Trade advertising D. Business-to-business advertising E. Professional advertising

4. (p. 521) Coupons, bonus packs, premiums, and samples are promotional offers that are targeted towards: A. consumers.B. retailers.C. wholesalers.D. salespeople.E. employees

47. (p. 20) Which of the following best describes selective-demand advertising? A. Advertisement of 'Complan' that compares its benefits against its competitor 'Bournvita'. B. Beef council stimulating the demand for beef through an ad. C. Advertisement of Coca-Cola placed in progressive grocer, a trade magazine to promote Coca-Cola to food store managers. D. Lufthansa ad that appears in the newspapers all across the country. E. Ad for a 3 day discount in a restaurant located in San Diego which appears in the local newspaper.

49. (p. 536) The oldest, most widely used, and most effective sales promotion tool is: A. cents-off coupons. B. sampling. C. rebates. D. event sponsorship. E. bonus packs.

53. (p. 538) The most popular method for distributing coupons is: A. newspaper freestanding inserts. B. direct mail. C. in/on packs. D. magazines. E. newspaper supplements.

54. (p. 19) Which of the following statements is true about direct marketing? A. Traditionally, it has not been considered an element of the promotional mix. B. It is synonymous with direct mail. C. Indirect-response advertising is considered as one of its major tools. D. It is seldom, if ever, used by companies that have an external sales force. E. It does not exist beyond direct mail and mail-order catalogs.

54. (p. 538) What advantage does distribution of coupons through direct mail have over other forms of coupon delivery? A. Precise reach B. Lower cost C. Lower redemption rate D. Lack of geographic and demographic specialization E. Cooperative advertising opportunities

56. (p. 21) One of the major tools of direct marketing is ______ advertising, where a product is promoted through an ad that encourages the consumer to purchase directly from the manufacturer. A. direct-response B. primary-demand C. business-to-business D. trade E. selective-demand

57. (p. 21) The ad for the Bose Wave radio/CD player in Newsweek magazine has a coupon that you can use to order the radio/CD player, a toll-free number you can call to place an order, and a website to place orders. This ad is an example of _____ advertising. A. direct-response B. primary-demand C. business-to-business D. trade E. secondary demand

59. (p. 21) Coldwater Creek is a retailer that uses its website to promote and sell new merchandise. Coldwater Creek views the Internet as a(n) _____ medium. A. interactive B. indirect C. primary-demand D. print E. traditional

59. (p. 540) A package of Gillette Sensor razor blades contains a 75-cent-off coupon for Gillette Foamy shaving cream. This is an example of a(n) _____ coupon. A. cross-ruff B. bounce back C. same purchase coupon D. instant coupon E. rebate coupon

6. (p. 08) Prior to the development of integrated marketing communications, the promotional function in most companies was dominated by: A. advertising. B. sales promotion. C. public relations. D. publicity. E. direct marketing.

63. (p. 23) Sales promotions targeted to the ultimate users of a product such as sampling, coupons, contests, or sweepstakes are known as: A. consumer-oriented sales promotion. B. trade-oriented sales promotion. C. direct marketing incentives. D. public relations. E. strategic promotions.

64. (p. 23) Chicken of the Sea includes coupons in their magazine advertisements. This is an example of: A. consumer-oriented sales promotion. B. direct-response advertising campaign. C. primary-demand advertising campaign. D. trade-oriented sales promotion. E. service-oriented sales promotion.

69. (p. 542) Quaker Oats cereal included tubes of Colgate Junior toothpaste inside each box of Life brand cereal. This is an example of a: A. free premium. B. self-liquidating premium. C. rebate. D. bonus pack. E. non-subsidized premium.

72. (p. 543) Which of the following statements about the use of premiums as a sales promotion tool is true? A. The use of premiums is very popular among fast food restaurants as a way of attracting children. B. Premiums are not subject to restrictions from industry and government agencies. C. Redemption rates for mail-in premium offers are very high. D. Consumers are always required to pay at least some of the costs of a premium offer. E. Mail-in premiums offer immediate reinforcement to the purchaser.

73. (p. 543) Which of the following statements about the use of premium offers by fast-food chains such as McDonald's and Burger King is true? A. Many of the premiums used by these companies have cross-promotional tie-ins with popular movies. B. Most of the premiums used by these companies are self-liquidating. C. Many of the premium offers used by these companies are targeted at adults. D. Most of the premium offers used by these restaurants are not effective at generating incremental sales. E. Free premiums always produce positive public relations for the company providing them.

74. (p. 544) Kellogg's promoted a Bart Simpson watch to consumers who mailed in $2.95 and 3 UPCs from boxes of Kellogg's cereal. The appearance of Bart Simpson on the watch instead of the Kellogg's logo would: A. detract from the consumer franchise building value of the promotion. B. create problems in supply and demand. C. make inventory forecasting easier. D. fully support Kellogg's in its consumer franchise building promotion. E. make it unnecessary for Kellogg's to run a nonfranchise building promotion.

79. (p. 25) A lawsuit charged a mortgage lender with racism because it allegedly charged African-American borrowers higher rates than other borrowers. In response to allegations that it charged African-Americans higher mortgage rates than others, the mortgage lender created a mystery shopper program in which it sent out African-American customers to report on their experience with the firm's lending offices. Their reports were released to the news media. This is an example of: A. public relations. B. advertising. C. media-selling. D. sales promotion. E. cause marketing.

89. (p. 26) _____ are interactions that occur with a company or brand during the process of buying or using the product or service. A. Intrinsic touch points B. Company created touch points C. Sales promotions D. Extrinsic touch points E. Seamless communications

89. (p. 552) Why have frequency programs become so popular with marketers? A. Frequency programs support the goal of customer retention. B. Frequency programs are especially effective when used for a new product introduction. C. Frequency programs are a type of sweepstakes that generate a great deal of consumer interest. D. Frequency programs allow marketers to set cookies so they can track consumers' activities. E. Frequency programs are a promotional form of brand extension strategies.

9. (p. 523) How has the view of sales promotions changed during the past decades? A. Sales promotions are now considered an essential part of an organization's branding strategies. B. Sales promotion tactics are now developed before the strategy is determined. C. Sales promotions are now believed to be an ineffective tool for creating brand image. D. Creatives have become more sophisticated, and this sophistication has led to a decline in their dependence on sales promotion. E. There is no difference between how marketers used to treat sales promotions and how they treat them now.

94. (p. 557) Which of the following promotions is targeted toward the trade rather than consumers? A. spiffs B. coupons C. premiums and sweepstakes D. bonus packs E. bounce back coupons

A commercial that begins, "Is it just forgetfulness or Alzheimer's disease?" and then lists the warning signs of Alzheimer's is stating its strongest point first to gain reader attention on a subject that most people would rather not consider. The rest of the ad describes a new prescription medicine used to treat mild and moderate cases of Alzheimer's. The advertising is using a _____ to arouse interest. A. primacy effect B. recency effect C. sleeper effect D. credibility effect E. compliance hierarchy

A commercial that places the strongest points at the end of the message assumes a ____, whereby the last arguments presented are the most persuasive. A. recency effect B. primacy effect C. sleeper effect D. credibility effect E. compliance hierarchy

A company that uses an in-house agency might turn its advertising and promotion tasks over to an outside agency to: A. get more control over the advertising process. B. save money. C. get an objective. D. make coordination of the advertising and promotional process easier. E. save media commissions.

A dental hygienist in an ad for toothpaste is quoted as saying, "If patients could see what I see, they'd all use Colgate Total." Since everyone who goes to a dentist regularly is worried about plaque, gingivitis, and cavities, and her statement implies other brands do a poorer job than Colgate Total at preventing dental problems, Colgate is using a(n) _____ appeal. A. comparative B. irrational C. humor D. fear E. nonverbal

A direct mail piece, advertising a collection of home maintenance books, would have its information: A. externally paced. B. self-paced. C. virtually paced. D. controlled by the message recipient. E. placed in qualitative media.

A disadvantage associated with the _____ method is its assumption that because firms have similar promotional expenditures their programs will be equally effective. A. return on investment B. affordable C. competitive parity D. objective and task E. payout planning

A disadvantage associated with the use of syndicated shows for advertising is: A. that syndicates do not supply as much research information as the networks do. B. more zipping. C. their popularity among Gen Xers. D. the absence of programming at undesirable times. E. their lack of popularity when compared to network shows in certain dayparts, such as daytime, early prime time, and late fringe.

A reference group to which one does not wish to belong is a(an) _____ group. A. aspirational B. disassociative C. disconnected D. confrontational E. segregated

A marketing firm decides to purchase media time in an attempt to sell its new product. After purchasing approximately $1 million dollars of time, it has noticed no impact on the sales of the product. However, at $3 million, a substantial increase is shown. This might best be explained by: A. arbitrary allocation method. B. the objective and task method. C. competitive parity method. D. an S-shaped response function. E. rapidly diminishing returns.

A slice-of-life commercial that shows an average head of household having great difficulty filing his federal income tax is designed to utilize which source characteristic? A. Power B. Compliance C. Expertise D. Similarity E. Attractiveness

A study by the Corporate Executive Board's Advertising and Marketing Roundtable found: A. consumers are more interested in integrated marketing communications. B. clients prefer full service agencies over brokered advertising services. C. situational factors are creating a promotional overlay effectively synthesizing. D. integrated marketing communications in most organizations. E. marketers are using numerous partners to access the special talents and expertise as needed.

A study conducted by Roobina Ohanian about consumers' perceptions of celebrity endorsers found that the characteristic which influenced consumers' intentions to purchase a product endorsed by a celebrity is his/her perceived: A. expertise. B. attractiveness. C. trustworthiness. D. similarity. E. likability.

AIO stands for: A. activities, innovation and opinions. B. activities, interests and opportunities. C. activities, innovations and opportunities. D. activities, interests and opinions. E. actions, interests and opinions.

According to A. Jerome Jeweler, the _____ is the strongest singular thing an advertiser can say about its product or service and should be the central point in every ad. A. unique selling plan (USP) B. mission statement C. major selling idea D. brand equity statement E. competitive advantage

According to Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, the highest level of needs is ______ needs. A. physiological B. social C. self actualization D. esteem E. safety

According to Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of needs, the basic level of needs is: A. physiological needs. B. social needs. C. self actualization needs. D. esteem needs. E. safety needs.

According to Advertising Age, experts in creative advertising don't write books or espouse theories. They see advertising as: A. an inherent drama working to offset the reality of social issues. B. an uplifting social force, as a way to inspire and entertain. C. the replacement for the 20th century salesperson. D. publicity created through unique selling propositions. E. a cultural force redefining societal needs and wants.

Ace Computer has an objective of increasing its share of the home personal computer market by 5 percent during the upcoming year. This is an example of a(n) _____ objective. A. marketing B. organizational C. advertising D. functional E. communication

All Nippon Airways (ANA) is the largest airline in the Far East. Its ads focus on the Japanese hospitality that is offered on its planes—everything from elegant tableware to the finest Far Eastern cuisine. If comfort and fine food is important to you when you travel, then you should think of ANA next time you are booking a flight to Asia. This development of a strong, memorable identity for ANA is an example of: A. a universal selling proposition. B. image advertising. C. an animatic. D. attribute-based positioning. E. refutational appeal.

All nonnetwork television advertising by a national advertiser is known as _____ advertising. A. up-front B. national spot C. local D. regional E. scatter

All nonprogram material that appears in a broadcast environment including commercials, public service announcements, and promotions for upcoming programs contribute to the _____ problem. A. message comparison phenomenon B. comparative advertising C. clutter D. media reduction E. quantitative media effect

An ad agency that offers its clients a complete range of marketing, communication, and promotion services is known as a(n): A. creative boutique. B. media buying service. C. in-house agency. D. full-service agency. E. integrated marketing organization.

An approach to finding a major selling idea that uses consumer benefits as a foundation with an emphasis on presenting these benefits in a dramatic way is the _____ approach. A. unique selling proposition B. positioning C. inherent drama D. brand image E. benefit

An arrangement where a group of cable systems in a geographic area are joined together for advertising purposes is known as: A. a geographic connection. B. an interconnect. C. an adjacency. D. multiplexing. E. cable syndication.

Arden's task is to determine what was accomplished by his company's advertising and promotional program for a vinyl siding cleanser. You can tell him that: A. his task is impossible. B. all he needs is the sales results to determine what the program accomplished. C. his task could be made easier by setting specific communication objectives. D. he just requires the post-promotional consumer awareness levels to determine what the program accomplished. E. this is the easiest task his company has ever asked him to perform.

As a tool for budget allocation, multiple regression analysis is most often employed in budget models using: A. computer simulation B. competitive parity C. arbitrary allocation D. percentage of sales E. a top-down approach

As you are watching television, have you ever seen the same commercial repeated numerous times over a period of days? The best explanation for the repetitive ads is the advertisers' desire to create: A. selective attention. B. selective exposure. C. selective comprehension. D. selective retention. E. subliminal perception.

1. (p. 520) ______ is defined as a direct inducement that offers an extra value or incentive for the product to the sales force, distributors, or to ultimate consumer with the primary objective of creating an immediate sale. A. Brand advertising B. Sales promotion C. Direct marketing D. Promotional allowance E. Specialty marketing

10. (p. 09) "The 4As" stands for: A. Association for Awareness of Advertising and Action. B. American Association of Advertising Agencies. C. Asian Association for Advertising Agencies. D. Advertising aimed at Americans, Africans and Asians. E. Advertising Agencies Association of America.

103. (p. 559) A _____ is a configuration of products that occupy a shelf section in a store offered to resellers by manufacturers. A. slotting plan B. planogram C. promotional layout D. retail format E. store layout

109. (p. 560) _____ is advertising supported by raw materials or component part manufacturers to help establish end products making use of their materials. A. Vertical cooperative advertising B. Ingredient-sponsored cooperative advertising C. Horizontal cooperative advertising D. Support advertising E. Integrated dyadic communications

116. (p. 565) Delta Airlines began offering triple miles to members of its frequent flyer program when they took any Delta flight from New York to Miami. Then United and other airlines immediately matched the offer, and it was believed for a long time that they all must continue the program or lose their competitive position. This situation is an example of: A. a synergistic effect. B. a sales promotional trap or spiral. C. a multilevel sales promotion. D. a trade-off allowance. E. the attribution theory in operation.

14. (p. 09) Terms such as new advertising, orchestration, and seamless communication have been used to describe: A. the marketing mix. B. integrated marketing communications. C. the promotion mix. D. relationship marketing. E. the 4 A's.

18. (p. 526) Another name for account-specific marketing is: A. a planogram program. B. comarketing. C. dual sponsorship. D. piggyback marketing. E. key-account communications.

21. (p. 15) _____ is the sum of all points of encounter or contact that consumers have with the brand, and it extends beyond the experience or outcome of using it. A. Touch point B. Brand identity C. Marketing mix D. Customization E. Interactive marketing

22. (p. 16) Traditionally, _____ has been the cornerstone of brand-building efforts. A. interactive media B. mass-media advertising C. public relations D. product placement E. personal selling

23. (p. 527) A promotional offer in an ad can _____ that is prevalent in most media today. A. increase the clutter B. break through the clutter C. decrease competition D. increase brand loyalty E. inhibit flighting

26. (p. 527) Brand equity is also known as: A. customer loyalty. B. customer franchise. C. brand position. D. brand logo. E. trademark.

28. (p. 528) Sales promotion activities that communicate distinctive brand attributes and contribute to the development and reinforcement of brand identity are known as: A. nonfranchise building promotions. B. franchise building promotions. C. high-involvement sales promotions. D. sales promotion traps.E. event marketing.

30. (p. 528) In a sales promotion sponsored jointly by Puerto Rico Tourism Board and Rums of Puerto Rico, couples were invited to enter a contest for a chance to win the perfect wedding. According to the ad, enjoying Puerto Rican hospitality is "As Easy As Saying I Do." The contest is an example of: A. a nonfranchise building promotion. B. a franchise building promotion. C. a high-involvement sales promotion. D. a sales promotion trap. E. event marketing.

31. (p. 528) Tropicana developed a "Win the Perfect Vacation" sweepstakes to complement an advertising campaign theme promoting its grapefruit juice as the perfect beverage. This is an example of: A. a nonfranchise building promotion.B. a franchise building promotion.C. a high-involvement sales promotion.D. a sales promotion trap.E. event marketing.

32. (p. 528) Which of the following is an example of a sales promotion that can be used to contribute to franchise building? A. A 50-cents off coupon on a box of Minute Rice to encourage repurchase. B. A sweepstakes or contest that uses a theme which is consistent with the image or positioning of the brand. C. A $50-rebate offer on the purchase of a Lane cedar chest. D. A price reduction of $5 on a pair of Lee jeans. E. A 'buy one get one free' offer on a pack of noodles.

36. (p. 530) Promotional activities designed to accelerate the purchase process and generate an immediate increase in sales without communicating information about a brand's unique features or benefits are known as: A. consumer franchise-building promotion B. nonfranchise-building promotion. C. sweepstakes. D. image promotions. E. trade promotions.

38. (p. 531) When Campbell Soup Company introduced its V8 Splash fruit medley juices, the company gave out free samples at Sam's Clubs and distributed millions of 50-cents-off coupons. The objective(s) of these sales promotion tools was to: A. defend the brand's customer base. B. obtain trial and repurchase. C. target a specific market. D. increase consumption of an established brand. E. create long-term brand equity.

4. (p. 08) Product, price, promotion, and _____ are the 4Ps of the marketing mix. A. people B. place C. package D. print E. privilege

Degree of usage as a basis of segmentation is best reflected by: A. demographic segmentation variables. B. the iceberg principle. C. the benefit rule. D. the rule of equity. E. the 80-20 rule.

45. (p. 534) Sampling for a product such as expensive skin cream that is designed to reduce wrinkles over a long period of time might not be feasible because: A. it cannot be broken down into small sizes. B. it may be too expensive to give away sample sizes that would be adequate to demonstrate the cream's benefits since it has to be used repeatedly. C. it may be too difficult to find a way to distribute the samples. D. consumers may think it is of poor quality since samples are being given away. E. it would create an easily imitated competitive advantage.

48. (p. 535) _____ is a common sampling technique for small, lightweight products that are nonperishable. A. Door-to-door sampling B. Sampling through the mail C. In-store sampling D. On-package sampling E. Location sampling

5. (p. 521) Consumer-oriented sales promotions are part of a promotional _____ strategy. A. cooperative B. pull C. trade D. premium E. push

55. (p. 540) An in/on package coupon that is redeemable for a future purchase of the same brand is known as a(n) _____ coupon. A. cross-ruff B. bounce-back C. instant D. cross sell E. same purchase

56. (p. 540) _____ coupons are on/in pack coupons that are redeemable on the purchase of a different product, usually one made by the same company but occasionally through a tie-in with another manufacturer. A. Bounce back B. Cross-ruff C. Instant D. Cross sell E. In-store

58. (p. 540) On the inside of the Tortino's brand pizza box was a $1-off coupon for the purchase of the next Tortino's pizza. Tortino's used a(n) _____ coupon. A. cross-ruff B. bounce-back C. instant D. cross sell E. same purchase

60. (p. 540) Kellogg's places a 50-cent-off coupon for Rice Krispies brand cereal on the outside of a box of its Frosted Mini-Wheats brand of cereal. This is an example of a(n) _____ coupon. A. bounce-back B. cross-ruff C. instant D. premium E. cross-sell

63. (p. 541) _____ couponing is a method for distributing coupons by identifying a customer's purchases through bar codes scanners and then printing the coupon for a competing or complementary product. A. On-package B. In-Store C. Shelf-dispensed D. Cross-ruff E. Instant

65. (p. 23) Sales promotion programs targeted toward marketing intermediaries such as wholesalers, distributors, and retailers are known as: A. consumer-oriented sales promotion. B. trade-oriented sales promotion. C. functional inducement. D. direct marketing. E. integrated promotions.

66. (p. 23) Florafax Wire Service allows a consumer in Alaska to go to his or her local florist and order roses to be sent to a friend in Maine. The Alaskan florist uses Florafax to order the roses from a florist in Maine who will arrange and deliver them. An ad for Florafax in a trade journal for florists offers retail florists a $4 rebate when they send 20 orders and an additional $.75 per order when they use florafax.net online sending. In its ad, Florafax is using: A. consumer-oriented sales promotion. B. trade-oriented sales promotion. C. functional inducement. D. telemarketing. E. integrated promotions.

69. (p. 24) One of the primary advantages inherent in the use of publicity is its: A. ability to be personalized. B. credibility. C. negligible variable costs. D. tangibility. E. ability to be closely controlled and monitored by the organization that is being publicized.

7. (p. 08) _____ involves coordinating the various promotional elements and other marketing activities that communicate with a firm's customers. A. Marketing mix B. Integrated marketing communications C. Relationship marketing D. Sales promotion E. Mass media advertising

70. (p. 24) When the individual voted off of The Survivor, a reality series, appears on David Letterman as a guest to discuss the series and his or her role in the series, it is an example of _____ for the CBS television show. A. advertising B. publicity C. sales promotion D. personal selling E. direct marketing

70. (p. 543) Consumers must pay the manufacturers' out-of-pocket costs for a _____ premium. A. cost-covered B. self-liquidating C. subsidized D. cost-plus E. base-cost

75. (p. 544) An effective premium is one that: A. distracts consumers from the firm's main reason for existing. B. ties into the overall positioning and communications campaign of the brand. C. induces one-time trial purchase of a brand for which there is low awareness. D. encourages repeat purchase of some brand other than that for which the premium is delivered. E. has no impact on an organization's pioneering advertising.

76. (p. 24) A review of a movie in Newsweek magazine or on the Good Morning America television show is an example of: A. personal selling. B. publicity/public relations. C. direct marketing. D. advertising. E. media-selling.

77. (p. 545; 546) With a _____ consumers compete for prizes and/or money on the basis of skills or ability, while with a(n) _____ winners are determined purely by chance. A. sweepstakes; contest B. contest; sweepstakes C. contest; event sponsorship D. sweepstakes; event sponsorship E. contest; rebate

78. (p. 546) Because they are easier to enter, _____ attract more entries than _____ and have become a more widely used sales promotion technique. A. contests; sweepstakes B. sweepstakes; contests C. sweepstakes; premiums D. contests; premiums E. contests; rebates

8. (p. 521) Which of the following statements is true about sales promotion programs? A. Sales promotion programs are targeted only at consumers. B. Many sales promotion programs are designed to motivate distributors and retailers to carry a product and push it to their customers. C. Nearly three quarters of all sales promotion dollars are spent on consumer promotions. D. Sales promotion strategies aimed at customers are called push strategies. E. Sales promotion strategies aimed at marketing intermediaries are called pull strategies.

80. (p. 545) Sweepstakes and contests: A. are primarily used to move consumers into the conviction stage of the hierarchy of effects model. B. can be used to generate excitement and involvement with a popular and timely event. C. contribute minimally to consumer franchise building. D. do not distract from consumer franchise building activities. E. are synonymous to one another.

83. (p. 25) Which of the following statements accurately describe how mass communication differs from personal communication? A. To reach a large audience, interpersonal communication is faster. B. Interpersonal communication messages are more easily adapted to the receiver. C. Mass communication has a greater ability to attract attention. D. Cost per individual reached tends to be higher with mass communication. E. Feedback tends to be more accurate with mass communication.

88. (p. 552) Every time Beth buys a book at Waldenbooks, she presents her Waldenbooks card, and the sales associate enters her purchase in a database. When she has purchased five books at regular price, she is sent a coupon for a free book to be picked out on her next visit to the store. This is an example of a: A. bonus program. B. frequency program. C. customer rewards contest. D. self-liquidating promotion. E. subsidized program.

94. (p. 28) _____ is the process for planning, executing, evaluating, and controlling the use of the various promotional-mix elements to effectively communicate with target audiences. A. Integrated advertising marketing B. Integrated marketing communications management C. Market auditing D. Situation analysis E. Communications process accounting

96. (p. 29) The _____ is a written document that describes the overall marketing strategy and programs developed for an organization, product line, or brand. A. promotional plan B. marketing plan C. communications plan D. marketing audit E. situation analysis

99. (p. 34) _____ refer to what is to be accomplished by the overall marketing program and is stated in terms of sales, market share, and profitability. A. Communication objectives B. Marketing objectives C. Advertising platforms D. Segmentation approaches E. External analysis factors

BMW's positioning of its convertible as "the ultimate tanning machine" would reflect a positioning strategy based on: A. product attributes and benefits. B. cultural symbols. C. product user. D. price/quality. E. competitors.

Barter syndication is also called: A. advertiser-supported syndication. B. station-sponsored syndication. C. participation syndication. D. first-run programming. E. presold programming

Based on the findings of the study conducted by Elizabeth Hirschman, which of the following individuals is most likely to be risk averse and prefer commercials that focus on the product rather than creative impact? A. Product and brand managers B. Art directors C. Copywriters D. Creative directors E. Product consumers

Before beginning its new advertising campaign, Landmark Bank conducted a study to determine consumers' level of awareness and knowledge of the bank and its services as well as consumers' perceptions of the bank's image. This was done to: A. communicate advertising goals. B. communicate tasks. C. establish benchmark measures. D. communicate DAGMAR objectives to the audience. E. establish marketing research goals.

Beliefs concerning specific attributes or consequences that are activated and form the basis of an attitude are known as: A. affective beliefs. B. cognitive beliefs. C. heuristics. D. evaluative beliefs. E. salient beliefs.

Boxing champion Evander Holyfield is a popular role model for young African-American children, especially in his home state Georgia. An anti-litter ad campaign that features Holyfield attempts to convince children to "Keep Georgia Peachy Clean" just like Evander does. This ad campaign hopes children will want to emulate Holyfield and convince others to emulate the fighter. Thus, a(n) _____ reference group will be created. A. aspirational B. disassociative C. evoked D. acquisitive E. integrated

Bubba's Frozen Barbecue Sandwiches contain pork drenched with a vinegar-based barbecue sauce. It would not be popular in Texas where barbecue lovers want goat meat, or in the Carolinas where a mustard-based sauce is preferred. Given this information, Bubba's should use _____ segmentation. A. demographic B. buying condition C. personality D. geographic E. behavioristic

Business-to-business advertisers often assume their ads must contain a lot of information so potential customers can use this information to solve their problems. The basis for this type of advertising would be the application of: A. cognitive learning theory. B. psychoanalytic theory. C. behavioral learning theory. D. affective modeling. E. shaping.

104. (p. 34) According to the planning model, the most involved and detailed step of the promotional planning process is: A. reviewing the marketing plan and situation analysis. B. determining the promotional budget. C. developing the integrated marketing communications (IMC) program. D. monitoring, evaluating, and controlling the promotional program. E. determining the media strategy.

104. (p. 559) Nordica provides sales personnel in ski shops with training classes, detailed manuals, and other tools to help them better understand how to sell the company's ski boots. This is an example of: A. cooperative advertising. B. a planogram. C. sales training programs. D. event marketing. E. spiffs.

11. (p. 09) The central theme of the concept of _____ is that all of an organization's marketing and promotional elements and activities communicate consistently and in a unified manner with its customers. A. the marketing mix B. exchange C. integrated marketing communications D. the promotional mix E. relationship marketing

112. (p. 561) Advertising implemented by retailers and paid for (at least in part) by a manufacturer is called: A. joint sales promotions. B. horizontal cooperative advertising. C. vertical cooperative advertising. D. joint trade promotions. E. reseller advertising.

114. (p. 563) Which of the following statements is true about the coordination of advertising and sales promotion efforts? A. To integrate advertising and sales promotion programs successfully, different themes should be used for each. B. Consumers are less likely to redeem a coupon or respond to a price-off deal for a brand they are familiar with than one they know nothing about. C. Product trial created through sales promotion techniques such as sampling or couponing is more likely to result in long-term use of the brand when accompanied by advertising. D. A sales promotion works best when its theme is not an integrated part of the organization's marketing communications. E. Media support for a sales promotion program should not be coordinated with the media program for the ad campaign.

117. (p. 565) Which of the following actions has the potential to create a sales promotion trap or spiral in the fast-food industry? A. the use of celebrity spokespersons such as Shaquille O'Neill B. the addition of new items to the menus of fast food chains C. the use of 99-cent specials to promote popular items such as Burger King's Whopper and McDonald's Big Mac D. the location of fast food restaurants in airports and on college campuses E. the promotional tying of fast food with movies

12. (p. 09) Integrated marketing communications requires a "big picture" approach to planning marketing and promotion programs, requiring advertising agencies to develop a(n): A. alternative approach for each media method. B. support system for production differentiation. C. total marketing communications strategy. D. reduced emphasis on information advertising and increased emphasis on persuasive marketing. E. different marketing mix for the same product in different countries.

12. (p. 524) Which of the following developments have resulted in a transfer of power from manufacturers to retailers? A. The advent of optical scanners and computers gave manufacturers access to sales information. B. Manufacturers are spending more money on media advertising. C. Consolidation in the grocery industry has resulted in larger chains with greater buying power and clout. D. Manufacturers are spending more money on marketing research. E. Manufacturers are introducing more private-label brands.

14. (p. 525) How are marketers responding to the fragmentation of the consumer market? A. They are using more direct selling to make event sponsorship more successful. B. They are using less direct marketing. C. They are using more sales promotions that are tied to local events. D. They are employing clipping services to determine the effectiveness of their press releases. E. They have basically ignored the fragmentation of the consumer market and continued doing business as usual.

16. (p. 526) Marketers who are being held accountable for strategy implementation often need concrete methods to show the effectiveness of their decision-making. For this reason, many marketers rely on: A. personal selling instead of mass-media advertising. B. a strategy that eliminates any advertising carryover effect. C. sales promotions such as coupons and price discounts. D. event sponsorships. E. out-of-home advertising media.

17. (p. 526) _____ is a recent development whereby companies are customizing their sales promotion programs for key retailers. A. Incentive marketing B. Accountability marketing C. Account-specific marketing D. Trade marketing E. Franchise building

18. (p. 10) _____ has been described as one of the "new-generation" marketing approaches being used by companies to better focus their efforts in acquiring, retaining, and developing relationships with customers and other stakeholders. A. Marketing Mix B. Promotion C. Integrated Marketing Communications D. Mass media advertising E. Mass marketing

19. (p. 11) To respond to media fragmentation, marketers are moving away from mass marketing and engaging in: A. mass media communication. B. television advertising. C. micromarketing. D. mass production. E. relationship management.

2. (p. 07) Which of the following statements is true about marketing? A. Most marketers are seeking a one-time exchange or transaction with their customers. B. The focus of production-driven companies is on developing and sustaining relationships with their customers. C. Successful companies recognize that creating and delivering value to their customers is extremely important. D. Though marketing plays an important role in developing relationships with customers, it cannot do much to maintain them.

24. (p. 527) Critics of sales promotions contend the increase in sales promotions is leading to a decrease in: A. retailer power. B. ad readership scores. C. brand equity. D. promotional traps. E. consumer primacy.

25. (p. 527) _____ is an intangible asset of added value or goodwill that results from consumers' favorable image, impressions of differentiation, and/or strength of attachment to a brand. A. Brand position B. Patent C. Brand equity D. Customer loyalty E. Logo

27. (p. 527) Which of the following statements describes how brand equity is affected by the increased role of sales promotion? A. Critics argue sales promotions generally result in higher brand equity. B. Sales promotions do not contribute to the erosion of brand equity. C. Proponents of brand equity argue increased spending on sales promotion is coming at the expense of media advertising, and this is leading to decline in brand equity. D. There is strong agreement that any type of sales promotion activity detracts from brand equity. E. Marketing experts generally agree that sales promotion plays an important role in building and maintaining a brand's image and position.

3. (p. 521) When a marketer distributes coupons for a brand with a specific expiration date, they are attempting to use sales promotion as a(n): A. brand franchise building promotion. B. brand equity building promotion. C. acceleration tool. D. value added tool. E. promotional marketing tool.

33. (p. 19) Which of the following is true about advertising? A. It attempts to create a personal relationship with the customers. B. The nature and purpose of advertising is usually the same across various industries. C. It is a valuable tool for building company and brand image. D. Advertising is used only for the promotion of mass consumer products. E. One disadvantage of advertising is that it gets too personal with consumers.

38. (p. 20) Big bazaar, a supermarket in India, recently placed an ad in the newspapers circulated in Bangalore city that it would provide 10 vegetables at a flat rate of Rs.10 to consumers from Monday to Wednesday between 1 p.m. and 3 p.m. at select locations in the Bangalore city. Which of the following types of advertising did it make use of? A. National advertising B. Trade advertising C. Retail advertising D. Primary-demand advertising E. Direct response advertising

40. (p. 20) Which of the following is true about retail advertising? A. It is done by large companies on a nationwide basis or in most regions of the country. B. It takes the form of direct-response advertising. C. It is done to build store traffic and sales. D. It designed to stimulate demand for the general product class or entire industry. E. It is targeted to marketing channel members such as wholesalers, distributors, and retailers.

40. (p. 532) The objective of a $.75-off coupon for Selsun Blue dandruff shampoo was most likely to: A. attract non-users of the product category. B. identify new uses for the brand. C. defend current customers. D. show new usage situation for the brand. E. target a specific market segment.

41. (p. 20) A used bookstore that runs an ad which announces a "12-hour, everything must go" sale is using: A. homogeneous marketing. B. direct-response advertising. C. a direct-action promotion. D. an indirect-response advertising. E. bait and switch advertising.

42. (p. 533) _____ involves a variety of procedures whereby consumers are given some quantity of a product for no charge to induce trial. A. Rebates B. Refunds C. Sampling D. Couponing E. Sweepstakes

51. (p. 20) DocStock, a company that manufactures stethoscopes, has placed an ad in DocsMag, a magazine targeted at doctors. This is an example of: A. business-to-business advertising. B. trade advertising. C. professional advertising. D. primary-demand advertising. E. direct action advertising.

53. (p. 20) Which of the following is an example of trade advertising? A. Advertisement of a health drink i.e. 'Complan' that specifies the benefits of drinking it. B. The Silk Federation of Asia advertising the importance of silk and the various purposes that it could be used for. C. Advertisement of Coca-Cola placed in Progressive grocer, a magazine to promote Coca-Cola to food store managers. D. SouthWest Airlines ads that appears in the newspapers all across the country. E. Ad for a 3 day discount in a restaurant located in a remote area in San Diego which appears in the local newspaper.

55. (p. 19; 21) Bradford Exchange is a company that sells collectible plates. If you order one plate from the company, you will receive multiple mails each month providing you with information of new issues and encouraging you to place your order for additional plates. Given this information, which promotional element does Bradford Exchange depend upon? A. Advertising B. Sale promotion C. Direct marketing D. Publicity E. Pricing

57. (p. 540) One of the main types of on package coupons is the _____ coupon which is attached to the outside of the package so the consumer can rip it off and redeem it immediately at the time of purchase. A. bounce back B. cross-ruff C. instant D. cross sell E. premium

58. (p. 21) _____ is a tool of direct marketing that is used to call customers directly and attempt to sell the products and services, or qualify them as sales leads. A. Advertising B. Buzz marketing C. Telemarketing D. Direct response marketing E. Door-to-door selling

61. (p. 22) Which of the following is true about the Internet media? A. It is considered as traditional media. B. It essentially allows for one-way communication. C. It enables marketers to gather valuable personal information from customers and prospects. D. The effect of using Internet media can be closely and precisely measured by advertising and other forms of promotion. E. One major disadvantage of Internet media is that it cannot be integrated with other media programs.

61. (p. 540) Affixed to the front of a bag of Aunt Jemima corn meal was a(n) _____ coupon that could be torn off (without damaging the bag) and redeemed at the time of the purchase. A. bounce-back B. cross-ruff C. instant D. premium E. cross-sell

67. (p. 24) _____ is nonpersonal communication neither directly paid for nor run under identified sponsorship. A. Advertising B. Sales promotion C. Publicity D. Public relations E. Personal selling

67. (p. 542) A(n) _____ is an offer of an item of merchandise or service either free or at a reduced price that is used to provide an extra incentive to purchase. A. coupon B. sample C. premium D. rebate E. off-price deal

68. (p. 24) Which of the following statements describe the difference between publicity and advertising? A. Advertising is done by manufacturers, and publicity is done by retailers. B. Advertising is personal, and publicity is nonpersonal in nature. C. Advertising is paid for by the sponsoring organization, and publicity is not. D. Advertising is never institutional (i.e., promoting the company itself), and publicity usually is institutional in character. E. Advertising typically utilizes mass media, and publicity does not.

68. (p. 542) Serta, the manufacturer of mattresses, gave away a Serta Sheep Plushie toy to any customer who purchased a mattress from a Serta dealer. The toy was only available for a limited time. The stuffed toy is an example of a: A. coupon. B. sample. C. free premium. D. rebate. E. self-liquidating premium.

72. (p. 25) Which of the following statements about publicity and public relations is true? A. Publicity generally has a broader purpose and objective than public relations. B. Publicity is the only tool used in a firm's public relations efforts. C. Publicity is one of the most important communication techniques used in public relations. D. Publicity has more of a long term, on-going purpose than public relations. E. Publicity and public relations are synonyms for each other.

73. (p. 24) Which of the following statements describe a disadvantage of publicity? A. Publicity is expensive to implement. B. Publicity has relatively low credibility. C. Publicity is not always under the control of the organization that reaps the negative and positive benefits from it. D. Publicity is not useful with a market segmentation strategy. E. Publicity makes a market aggregation strategy ineffective.

76. (p. 544) Which of the following would be the best example of a premium offer that contributes to consumer-franchise building efforts for a brand? A. A free tube of Colgate toothpaste in a box of Life cereal B. A pack of baseball cards in a box of Cheerios cereal C. A free sport bottle with the purchase of a four-pack of Gatorade D. A dish towel in a box of Tide laundry detergent E. A pack of golf tees inside a box of golf balls

8. (p. 08; 09) British Airways employed _____ when it used product placement to make sure that viewers of the movie Die Another Day knew that James Bond flies first class on British Airways. The airline ran advertising campaign based around the slogan, "Save your Pennys, fly like Bond," referring to the secretary that Bond flirts with in each film. British Airways also paid for the rights to screen the film on its flights before the movie was available at video stores. A. the marketing mix B. sales promotion activities C. integrated marketing communications D. the 4As E. relationship marketing

80. (p. 25) Which of the following is true about public relations? A. It is another name for publicity. B. It is narrower in perspective than publicity. C. Publicity is a tool used for public relations. D. It uses a variety of tools such as sponsorship, publicity, special events etc. except advertising. E. It is a tool for publicity.

81. (p. 547) Which of the following sales promotion techniques is impacted negatively by the presence of professionals or hobbyists who take advantage of the promotion without making a purchase? A. Sampling B. Premiums C. Contests and sweepstakes D. Event sponsorships E. Bonus packs

82. (p. 547) Which of the following statements is true about rebates? A. Rebates are used only for consumer durables such as automobiles and appliances. B. Most retailers want to be involved with rebate programs. C. Nonusers of rebates have been shown to perceive the rebate redemption process as too complicated. D. Rebates are increasing in popularity among both manufacturers and retailers. E. Rebates are ineffective in encouraging repeat purchases.

Cable networks such as CNN that can transmit multiple channels from one network engage in: A. multiplexing. B. interconnects. C. single sourcing. D. multiple sourcing. E. adjacencies.

Campbell's ads contain quick and easy recipes that can be made using Campbell's soups. This is an example of positioning by: A. product class. B. product use. C. price/quality. D. competitor. E. cultural symbol.

Campbell's uses coupons, premiums and sweepstakes to promote its soup. This reflects an application of: A. cognitive theory. B. psychoanalytic theory. C. operant conditioning. D. affective theory. E. the multiattribute motivational model.

China is the world's second-largest beer market after the U.S. It is also one of the fastest growing with annual growth of 10 percent. Anheuser-Busch responded to this _____ in China when it established Budweiser Wulhan International Brewing in central China. There it brews Budweiser and Budweiser Ice which are sold to the local market. A. market opportunity B. market aggregation C. competitive advantage D. market strength E. market threat

Civic organizations like Rotary Clubs, Kiwanis and Lions Clubs offer their members camaraderie and a chance to help others through donations of time and money. By being positive forces in their communities, these organizations become: A. disassociative groups. B. aspirational reference groups. C. social class referents. D. subcultural referents. E. external referents.

Concentrated marketing is based around focusing marketing efforts on: A. different countries. B. one particular segment. C. mass market. D. a number of segments. E. a particular country.

Consider the following media buy: 70 percent of the audience is reached 1 time. 20 percent of the audience is reached 4 times. 10 percent of the audience is reached 6 times. Based on this information, what does the media buyer know? A. The media buyer can use this information to calculate GRP and should not be concerned that 70 percent of the audience will only see the ad once. B. The media buyer will need to use this in making a final decision because effective frequency cannot be determined. C. The media buyer will not be able to maximize reach even if he or she has established a minimum frequency goal. D. The media buyer can only calculate average frequency from these figures because average frequency is often misleading. E. The media buy will be cost-effective.

Cost per thousand (CPM) is an expression of ______ for various media vehicles. A. relative cost B. absolute cost C. reach D. frequency E. mode

Creative boutiques are agencies that: A. limit their client service to creative planning and execution. B. have resulted from advertisers wanting to save money in buying media space. C. perform the same functions as full-service agencies for their clients, but charge more. D. are used only when advertising is not important to the marketing success of the company that hired them. E. that wants its employees to develop expertise in servicing a variety of accounts.

Crest has come up with three types of toothpastes for different segments - whitening toothpaste for individuals who buy for aesthetic reasons, strawberry-flavored toothpaste for those concerned with the taste, and germi-check toothpaste for those looking to protect their teeth all day long. On what basis has it segmented the market? A. Demographic B. Geographic C. Socio economic D. Benefit E. Socio cultural

Critics argue the use of _____ can encourage agencies to ignore cost accounting systems and avoid media such as direct mail and sales promotions. A. percentage charges B. fixed fee arrangements C. cost-plus agreements D. the commission system E. the objective-and-task compensation system

Critics of psychoanalytic theory believe any results from motivation research are unusable because: A. results are too predictable. B. the theory is too responsive to external environmental stimuli. C. the research requires the use of very large samples. D. the theory is too vague. E. the research is too structured.

Crossings is the name of a book club designed to appeal to conservative Christians. It sells inspirational fiction and nonfiction books that express moral values consistent with the views of these Christians. Crossings uses _____ segmentation. A. psychographic B. demographic C. behavioristic D. usage E. geographic

1. (p. 07) Which of the following is an example of a marketing exchange? A. The waitress gave Cyrus a menu, and he placed his food order. B. Griffin helped Mandy replace the air filter in her lawn mower. C. Ken and Maggie gave their son an MP3 player for his birthday. D. In return for painting her fence, Mrs. Maloney gave Larry a box of homemade fudge. E. Jenny asked Melisa if she could borrow her pen for a while since her pen had stopped working.

19. (p. 526) Marketing planning and reward systems may lead to an increase in the use of sales promotion because sales promotions encourage: A. managers to use advertising to build brand equity. B. managers to use consumer-oriented sales promotion to meet long-term performance goals. C. marketing managers not to use promotions to help get orders from retailers. D. the use of price-oriented promotions to generate short-term sales. E. long - term increased sales of the companies.

20. (p. 15) Arm & Hammer UltraMax deodorant contains time-released baking soda and provides "extra muscle for the game of life." Ads for the product featured a baseball star saying "When your day goes into extra innings, you need a deodorant with extra muscle," appeared in television and print ads. At the same time, Arm & Hammer ran sweepstakes in which people could enter to win a chance to meet the baseball star plus other great prizes. To enter sweepstakes customers had to fill out a $1-off coupon for deodorant or visit the website ahultramax.com. Through the use of IMC, Arm & Hammer is hoping to create _____ for its new product. A. a marketing plan B. competition C. mass customization D. brand identity E. market segments

20. (p. 526) Hasbro, a toy company, teamed with the retailer Toys R Us to create direct mail booklets offering discounts on Hasbro toys only at Toys R Us stores. This is an example of: A. incentive marketing. B. a franchise building promotion. C. brand equity building. D. account-specific marketing. E. brand extension.

21. (p. 526) Heinz Foods created a Cinco de Maio celebration for a large supermarket that targets Mexican-Americans, a market that Heinz sees as an area of potential growth. Heinz paid for a mariachi band to serenade shoppers during the day and also set up a food-sampling booth at the store's entry. This would be an example of: A. incentive marketing. B. a franchise building promotion. C. brand equity building. D. account-specific marketing. E. horizontal cooperative integration

22. (p. 527) Which of the following explains the reason for the increase in sales promotion activities over the last decade? A. The increase of brand loyalty in many product categories B. The tremendous decrease in the number of new products C. The increased emphasis on long term strategy and performance by most companies D. The advertising clutter problem E. Increased long-term focus of the companies

23. (p. 17) ______ is the coordination of all seller-initiated efforts to set up channels of information and persuasion to sell goods and services. A. Publicity B. Advertising C. Organizational communication D. Promotion E. Marketing

25. (p. 17) The basic elements that are used to accomplish an organization's marketing communication objectives are referred to as: A. the marketing mix. B. marketing strategy tools. C. persuasive marketing mix. D. the promotional mix. E. public relations.

3. (p. 07) _____ is the customer's perception of all the benefits of a product or service weighed against all the costs of acquiring and consuming it. A. Cost efficiency B. Information C. Range D. Value E. Exposure

35. (p. 530) Van Kamp Sea Foods devotes most of its marketing budget to trade discounts in the form of off-invoice and promotional allowances so its canned tuna and salmon brands can remain price competitive with private label brands. The heavy emphasis on trade promotion makes it difficult to: A. encourage consumers to buy on the basis of price. B. build and maintain store equity for retailers that carry the Van Kamp brand. C. build relationships with the traders. D. build a Van Kamp brand identity and image. E. encourage retailers to use Van Kamp's planograms.

37. (p. 20) _____ advertising is done by local merchants to encourage consumers to shop at a specific store, use a local service, or patronize a particular establishment. A. Trade B. Professional C. Direct response D. Retail E. National

37. (p. 530) The sales promotion tool that critics contend is most guilty of detracting from brand equity and at the same time being detrimental to a brand franchise is: A. sweepstakes. B. contests. C. frequent patronage programs. D. trade promotions. E. event sponsorships.

39. (p. 20) Advertising done by Target, Kohl's, and Macy's for the purpose of building store traffic and encouraging consumers to make a purchase now is known as _____ advertising. A. trade B. facultative C. cooperative D. direct-action E. direct-response

39. (p. 531) Promotional incentives such as coupons or refund offers are often included with a sample to: A. develop customer loyalty. B. build customer relationship management. C. create awareness. D. encourage repeat purchase. E. impart information.

49. (p. 20) _____ advertising is targeted at individuals who influence the purchase of goods and services used to make other products. A. Professional B. Primary demand C. Retail D. Business-to-Business E. Direct-response

50. (p. 536) An advantage of coupons is that they: A. elicit faster consumer response than samples. B. generally elicit immediate response from consumers. C. are very effective even without brand name awareness. D. allow a marketer to offer a price reduction to consumers who are price sensitive. E. build brand loyalty.

52. (p. 20) _____ advertising is targeted to marketing channel members such as wholesalers, distributors, and retailers in order to encourage them to stock more of a particular brand. A. National B. Selective-demand C. Professional D. Trade E. Retail

62. (p. 23) _____ includes those marketing activities that provide extra value or incentives for purchasing a product such as coupons and premiums. A. Direct marketing B. Advertising C. Public relations D. Sales promotion E. Brand equity

64. (p. 541) Gillette's market research shows that most consumers decide upon a brand of deodorant at the point-of-purchase rather than before entering the store. Based on these findings, what form of promotion should be most effective for Gillette's Right Guard brand? A. Direct mail coupons B. Event marketing C. Coupons distributed through freestanding inserts in newspapers D. In-store coupons E. Spiffs

65. (p. 541) Which of the following couponing methods allows companies to reach users of competitive brands rather than consumers who already use their brand? A. On-package coupons B. Bounce back coupons C. In package coupons D. Checkout coupons E. Direct mail coupons

66. (p. 541) Electronically dispensed checkout coupons: A. generate impulse buying and product trial. B. have no redemption deadline. C. are available at Web sites and must be printed off to be used. D. are cost-effective and can be targeted to specific categories of consumers. E. are attached to the outside of the package so they could be ripped off and redeemed immediately.

7. (p. 521) Which of the following is an example of trade-oriented sales promotion activity? A. Samples B. Coupons C. Refunds/rebates D. Trade shows E. Bonus packs

75. (p. 24) A lawsuit charged a mortgage lender with racism because it allegedly charged African-American borrowers higher rates than other borrowers. News of the lawsuit was reported by the wire service, and it appeared in several newspapers. This is an example of: A. sales detraction. B. negative advertising. C. cause selling. D. negative publicity. E. neutral publicity.

77. (p. 25) When an organization systematically plans and distributes information in an attempt to control and manage the nature of the publicity it receives and its image, it is engaging in a function known as: A. image management. B. advertising. C. integrated marketing. D. public relations. E. sales promotion.

78. (p. 25) _____ is the management function that evaluates public attitudes, identifies the policies and procedures of an individual or organization with the public interest, and executes a program of action to earn public understanding and acceptance. A. Direct marketing B. Publicity C. Corporate affairs D. Public relations E. Sales promotion

79. (p. 545) Arm & Hammer maker of Crystal Blend scoopable cat litter, Super Scoop, the baking soda clumping litter, Super Clay, the premium lightweight clay litter, and Cat Litter Deodorizer ran a contest to find the "Coolest Cat Trick." First prize was $10,000, and several smaller prizes were awarded to other participants. The most likely reason why Arm & Hammer used this contest was to: A. move consumers to the conviction stage of the hierarchy of effects model. B. reposition the brand name. C. create an easily measured ad recency effect. D. generate excitement and interest about the Arm & Hammer brand cat litters. E. get users of other brands to try Arm & Hammer brand.

85. (p. 25) Business-to-business marketers who sell expensive, risky, and often complex products rely most heavily on which of the following promotional tools? A. Print advertising B. Coupons C. Direct mail D. Personal selling E. Pricing

87. (p. 26) _____ refers to each and every opportunity the customer has to see or hear about the company and/or its brands or have an encounter or experience with it. A. Marketing mix B. Promotion C. Moment of truth D. Touch point E. Brand equity

92. (p. 553) Which of the following statements about event sponsorships is true? A. The amount of money spent on event sponsorships has been declining in recent years. B. Event sponsorships are not typically integrated into a company's marketing communications strategy. C. Event marketing and event sponsorship are synonymous. D. Decisions and objectives for event sponsorships are often part of an organization's public relations activities. E. Event marketing, unlike other forms of promotion, is ineffective in connecting with consumers in an environment where they are comfortable with receiving a promotional message.

97. (p. 29) A marketing plan usually includes: A. a corporate mission statement. B. job descriptions and job specifications. C. a media schedule. D. a detailed situation analysis. E. sales and market forecasts.

99. (p. 557) Payments offered by manufacturers to resellers for merchandising products or running special in-store programs are called: A. cooperative advertising. B. push monies. C. advertising subsidies. D. promotional allowances. E. slotting allowances.

DAGMAR MOD II was developed to alleviate problems with: A. the response hierarchy used in the original DAGMAR model. B. the costs of using DAGMAR. C. the fact that DAGMAR ignores sales results. D. setting benchmark measures. E. creating measurable communications objectives.

DAGMAR is: A. a philosophy of advertising goal setting. B. a model of consumer behavior. C. a method of setting sales objectives. D. the most often used method of setting objectives. E. an attitude measurement device.

David Pruitt owns several rental apartments. He has used many appliance brands in his apartments and has been dissatisfied with their short life span. David now purchases only Maytag brand appliances to go into his apartments. His repeat purchases indicate: A. the existence of cognitive dissonance. B. the absence of any affect referral decision rule. C. strong brand loyalty. D. extensive decision making and strong psychosocial consequences. E. a lack of evaluative criteria.

Defining the communications objectives to be accomplished and estimating the costs associated with the performance of the necessary strategies and activities are steps in the _____ method of budgeting. A. competitive parity B. payout planning C. ROI D. return on investment E. objective and task

Determining a target market's present level of awareness, knowledge and liking towards a product often requires _____ measures. A. benchmark B. sales interval C. qualitative awareness D. quantitative awareness E. reach and frequency

Disneyworld advertises itself as a vacation spot throughout the year, but it advertises more heavily during the summer months and during the Christmas season when more people are vacationing. This is an example of _____ scheduling. A. flighting B. geographical weighting C. continuity D. oscillating E. pulsing

Digital cameras, computers, and high-quality printers are allowing people to take and process their photographs. An owner of a film-processing store could advertise the benefits of professional photograph finishing when compared to printer copies, which will fade over time. The film-processing store could use positioning by: A. product class. B. product demographics. C. product user. D. competitor. E. cultural symbol.

Direct-marketing agencies, sales promotion agencies and public relations firms are examples of: A. different types of advertising agencies. B. media organizations. C. collateral services. D. specialized marketing communication services. E. in-house agencies.

Direct-response advertisers generally set objectives and measure success in terms of: A. brand awareness. B. brand attitudes. C. purchase intentions. D. sales response generated by an ad. E. brand equity.

Direct-response agencies: A. manage premium and incentive offers. B. specialize in the development of Web sites. C. engage in crisis management. D. manage clients' databases. E. respond directly to the client's customers.

Directing a company's efforts towards one or more groups of customers who share common needs is known as: A. target marketing. B. competitive advantage. C. positioning. D. market segmentation. E. branding.

Dividing the market into units such as nation, states, town, counties etc. is known as: A. demographic segmentation. B. psychographic segmentation. C. quantified aggregation. D. lifestyle aggregation. E. geographic segmentation.

Dividing the market on the basis of personality and/or lifestyles is referred to as _____. A. geographic segmentation B. demographic segmentation C. psychographic segmentation D. socio economic segmentation E. behavioural segmentation

Division of the market based on age, sex, family size, income, and other measurable characteristics is known as: A. demographic segmentation. B. psychographic segmentation. C. quantified aggregation. D. lifestyle aggregation. E. undifferentiated marketing.

Donna gets impatient during long commercial breaks, so she often records shows and fast-forwards through the commercials when she watches them. Donna engages in: A. pulsing. B. zooming. C. encoding. D. zipping. E. zapping.

15. (p. 09) Advocates of integrated marketing communications argue that: A. firms should communicate with its customers primarily through media advertising. B. nonpersonal communications is more effective than personal communications. C. package design is the most important way of communicating with customers. D. firms should communicate with its customers primarily through one-on-one communication techniques. E. firms should develop a total marketing communications strategy.

15. (p. 526) What do some businesspeople give as a reason for the increasingly short-term focus on performance and sales volume in business today? A. The primacy effect B. The more rapid movement of consumers through the hierarchy of effects model C. A habit of frequent repositioning D. Synergistic buying E. The brand management system

2. (p. 520) Which of the following elements of the integrated marketing communications programs is designed to provide an extra incentive to consumers to purchase a brand? A. Advertising B. Direct mail C. Public relations D. Price E. Sales promotion

41. (p. 532) Smucker's ran a sweepstakes promoting Smucker's ice cream toppings. The sweepstakes was designed to let NASCAR fans know Smucker's sponsored a NASCAR racing team. The purchase of any specially-marked toppings gave customers a chance to win a new Ford Taurus or thousands of other prizes instantly from Smucker's. In this example, a sales promotion was used to: A. attract non-users of the product category. B. identify new uses for the brand. C. attract users of a competitive brand. D. show new usage situation for the brand. E. target a specific market segment.

46. (p. 534) Which of the following is an advantage of the sampling method of sales promotion? A. It is the least expensive of all other methods of sales promotion. B. The costs of the sampling program can easily be recovered with just a few purchases. C. Results of sampling could be easily seen immediately for all products. D. It is extremely useful for products and services that do not have subtle features. E. Sampling generates much higher trial rates than advertising.

48. (p. 20) Which of the following is an example of retail advertising? A. Advertisement of a health drink 'Complan' that compares its benefits against its competitor 'Bournvita'. B. Beef council stimulating the demand for beef through an ad. C. Advertisement of Coca-Cola placed in Progressive grocer, a trade magazine to promote Coca-Cola to food store managers. D. Lufthansa ad that appears in the newspapers all across the country. E. A newspaper ad for a 3 day discount in a restaurant located in the outskirts of San Diego.

6. (p. 521) Which of the following is an example of consumer-oriented sales promotion activity? A. Off-invoice allowances B. Promotional allowances C. Point-of-purchase displays D. Trade shows E. Coupons

60. (p. 21) Starbucks has developed apps for the iPhone which allow customers to share drink recipes, find the nearest Starbucks, look up nutritional information, and manage their Starbucks gift cards. This is an example of _____ marketing. A. trade B. direct C. direct action D. professional E. interactive

74. (p. 24) An article in Financial Times announced that Puma had developed the Thrift shoe, based on its award-winning design. The Thrift shoe was to be made in a limited edition of 510 pairs of fabric from second-hands clothes and would not be available in the U.S. According to the article, each pair would come complete with a numbered certificate of authenticity and a private password for the dedicated Web page so all proud owners could "swap their soles." The article created interest in the shoes and is an example of: A. sales promotion. B. advertising. C. personal selling. D. sponsorship. E. publicity.

81. (p. 25) _____ is a form of person-to-person communication in which a seller attempts to assist and/or persuade prospective buyers to purchase the company's product or service or to act on an idea. A. Advertising B. Sales promotion C. Direct marketing D. Interactive marketing E. Personal selling

82. (p. 25) _____ is a promotional mix element that allows for direct contact between a buyer and seller and allows a message to be modified according to the needs or reactions of the customer. A. Advertising B. Direct mail C. Public relations D. Sales promotion E. Personal selling

84. (p. 25) The promotional mix element that allows for the most immediate and precise feedback from the customer is: A. advertising. B. sales promotion. C. public relations. D. publicity. E. personal selling.

86. (p. 25) What is the major advantage of personal selling over advertising as a communication method? A. Personal selling generates more sales per dollar invested. B. Personal selling improves the image of the firm. C. Personal selling activates the receiver's selective processes, and advertising does not. D. Personal selling results in sales responses that are more difficult to measure than those of advertising. E. Personal selling is more persuasive because the communicator can judge the sales prospect and modify his or her message accordingly.

86. (p. 550-551) When reductions from the regular price of a product are offered at the point-of- purchase through specially marked packages, a marketer is using a: A. bonus pack. B. rebate. C. refund offer. D. bounce back coupon. E. price-off deal.

91. (p. 27) Joy calls a Samsung store in order to find out about the new Samsung Wave S8500. The customer service department personnel of Samsung emails him the entire product details in a very organized manner along with the price of the product and other special specifications as requested by Joy. Which type or category of touch point has been discussed here? A. Company created touch point B. Intrinsic touch point C. Extrinsic touch point D. Unexpected touch point E. Customer-initiated touch point

For newspapers, the cost efficiency formula is based on: A. the pass-along rate. B. gross rating points (GRPs). C. column inches. D. the daily inch rate. E. the absolute reach.

For which of the following products is an advertiser most likely to use continuity scheduling? A. Swimming pool chemicals B. Flea collars C. Cake mixes D. Wood burning stoves E. Tickets to professional basketball games

Effective reach refers to the: A. number of people in the target audience exposed to the ad. B. number of people seeing the ad that took some action as a result of the ad. C. number of people who can recall the ad. D. percentage of a media vehicle's audience reached with the addition of one more showing of an ad. E. number of times an ad appears in primetime television.

For weeks, Bridgette had been trying to come up with a creative approach to advertise light bulbs. She decided to try not to think about it for a while to see if her subconscious could figure something out. As she was relaxing in her bath one night, a great idea for a creative light bulb advertising campaign just seemed to pop into her head. She leapt out of the tub and began to write it all down before she forgot it. In terms of the creative process, Bridgette has just experienced the _____ step. A. immersion B. verification C. revision D. illumination E. reality check

For which of the following advertising communication tasks should the specified time period be the longest? A. Creating brand awareness B. Increasing brand awareness levels C. Creating knowledge regarding a brand attribute D. Increasing knowledge levels about a brand attribute E. Repositioning a brand

Expertise and trustworthiness are very important when focusing on source ____, one of the categories of source attributes. A. power B. attractiveness C. credibility D. identification E. image

Factors such as time of day, store environments, or occasion for which a product will be used are examples of: A. group norms. B. cultural factors. C. subcultural influences. D. family influences. E. situational determinants.

For which of the following media is the processing of information in advertisements likely to be externally paced? A. Television and radio B. Magazines, billboards, and radio C. Magazines and newspapers D. Transit advertising, billboards, and all forms of outdoor advertising E. Magazines, newspapers, and direct mail

Financially oriented managers who view marketing communications as an expense rather than an investment are likely to prefer _____ objectives for advertising and other promotional areas. A. sales-oriented B. communication C. positioning D. image E. functional

For which of the following products is an advertiser most likely to use a flighting schedule? A. Cake mixes B. Shampoo C. Newspaper subscriptions D. Snow tires E. Candles

Florence is watching television and sees a commercial in which Sarah Jessica Parker is endorsing a hair care product. Florence thinks to herself, "That girl was on that scandalous show, Sex in the City. I wouldn't buy anything she promotes." This is an example of a: A. counterargument. B. support argument. C. source bolster. D. source derogation. E. message blockage.

For advertisers, the _____ is one disadvantage of cable television as compared to network television. A. lack of penetration B. lack of flexibility C. lack of selectivity D. cost-ineffectiveness E. limitations on the length of commercials

Generally, companies that develop Integrated Marketing Communications (IMC) programs which do not contain specific objectives: A. will have too many benchmark measures against which the success or failure of their programs can be assessed. B. will never be successful. C. may find it difficult to facilitate coordination of the efforts of various groups working on a promotional campaign since the various groups may not understand what goal they are working towards. D. will be able to save money since they won't spend too much time worrying about what they are trying to do. E. be more successful than companies that develop IMC programs with specific objectives.

Geographic segmentation is about dividing: A. consumers based on lifestyle. B. markets based on location. C. consumers based on usage. D. consumers based on income. E. markets based on benefit the product has to offer.

Gillette believes commercials for deodorants are processed primarily through a peripheral processing route. Which of the following advertising strategies should Gillette use? A. Very detailed ads with a great deal of information about the causes of body odor. B. Detailed ads with strong message arguments about Gillette brands. C. Ads that use celebrity endorsers such as basketball star Lebron James. D. Ads that pay more attention to information in the copy than executional elements such as visual imagery. E. Ads that are free of any distractions like pictures or jingles.

Given an advertising objective of achieving maximum awareness in an undifferentiated target market, the strategy should be to maximize: A. reach. B. frequency. C. gross rating points (GRPs). D. cost per thousand (CPM). E. cost per rating point (CPRP).

Graduate schools that offer MBA courses are typically rated annually by business publications. When an MBA program rates high on a list, the information is publicized. If the purpose of the communication is to make sure current students know they have made the right choice and are attending a prestigious institution, then the _____ model would be correct. A. standard learning B. dissonance/attribution C. low-involvement D. cognitive response E. 5-Ws

Honda broadcasts a commercial during Law & Order, a TV program that is seen by eight million viewers. The broadcasting of this ad takes place in a(n) _____ channel of communication. A. individualized B. direct-response C. nonpersonal D. semiotic E. personal

How do gross rating points (GRPs) differ from target ratings points (TRPs)? A. TRPs are calculated using average frequency figures, and GRP is not. B. TRPs calculations do not include waste coverage, and GRPs calculations do. C. TRPs use a duplicated reach estimate, and GRPs do not. D. TRPs are used when selecting broadcast media, and GRPs are used for selecting print media. E. The two terms are synonymous.

How does strong brand equity benefit the seller? A. Product quality becomes completely irrelevant. B. It allows the seller to use undifferentiated marketing. C. It enables the seller to hide product success from its competition. D. It allows the seller to achieve higher sales volume and/or profit. E. It allows the seller to stop all promotional activities and redirect its funds to other areas of operation.

Hubba Bubba bubble gum is the only chewing gum that lets you blow great big bubbles that won't stick to your face. This statement represents the gum's: A. unique selling proposition. B. illumination strategy. C. inherent drama. D. competitive weakness. E. brand equity.

Humor is more commonly used and is typically more effective with _____ products. A. low-involvement, thinking B. high-involvement, thinking C. low-involvement, feeling D. high-involvement, feeling E. high-involvement, analyzing

Humorous messages may be effective because they enhance _____ and reduce ____. A. counterargument; support arguing B. counterargument; attention C. attention; support arguing D. attention; counterargument E. counterargument; distraction

Hunter ceiling fans are sold to retailers who then sell them to ultimate consumer. The manufacturer of Hunter ceiling fans is using a(n): A. direct channel of distribution. B. indirect channel of distribution. C. multiple-level channel. D. direct-response advertising medium. E. reseller channel.

If an advertiser wants a very detailed accounting of how its advertising and promotional monies are being spent and what it is being charged by its ad agency, it is likely to use a(n) _____ compensation system. A. fee arrangement B. media commission C. incentive-based D. fee-combination E. cost-plus

If citizens of Georgia filled out the census form because they thought that Barnes (the message source) had the power to negatively impact their quality of life. In this case, Barnes would have influence through: A. internalization. B. compliance. C. identification. D. attractiveness. E. referent power.

If one subscribes to the theory that "sex sells," which of the following theories would best support this position? A. Cognitive theory B. Operant conditioning C. Classical conditioning D. Psychoanalytical theory E. Postmodernist theory of consumer behavior

If the ad is placed on two shows, the total number exposed once is ____. A. coverage B. unduplicated reach C. duplicated reach D. frequency E. program rating

If viewers of the commercial perceived Barnes as being able to mete out punishment if the census forms were not filled out, then Barnes, as a message source, is said to have: A. perceived control. B. control persuasion. C. perceived scrutiny. D. expertise. E. perceived concern.

If viewers of the commercial perceived Barnes as being sincerely interested in whether every citizen filled out a census form, then Barnes, as a message source, is said to have: A. perceived control. B. control persuasion. C. perceived scrutiny. D. expertise. E. perceived concern.

Ilon loves his car and does everything necessary to keep the vehicle in top running condition. When he heard a strange popping noise under the hood, he knew the car needed the services of a mechanic. The noise triggered the _____ stage of the consumer decision-making process. A. internal search B. external search C. problem recognition D. alternative evaluation E. post-purchase evaluation

Imagine you have inherited a small motel chain in the New England area. You know you need to buy advertising, but you have a limited budget. Which of the following will hold true? A. Local radio is the best advertising option as it reaches travelers in their cars and is low-cost. B. Radio commercials are expensive to produce and hence radio advertising is inadvisable. C. Advertising on network television can selectively tap the target audience. D. Though radio commercials are cheap to produce, buying time on radio is expensive. E. Television advertising is a flexible medium that has short lead times and is the best option.

In 2004, Delta Airlines was the first major airline to charge passengers for snacks and meals. The _____ model would have been most relevant for communicating this change. A. hierarchy of effects B. AIDA C. innovation-adoption D. cognitive response E. information processing

In 2006, Nielsen Media Research introduced a new media rating system, A2/M2, or: A. All Ads Make Meaning. B. Average Audience Marketing Management. C. Actual Audience Measured Meaning. D. Audience Access Monitoring Mentality. E. Anytime Anywhere Media Measurement.

In 2007, Cingular acquired AT&T but renamed itself as AT&T itself. The choice of the name reflected consumers' awareness and recognition of an established brand. To determine how successful it was in making consumers aware of its name change and its new positioning strategy, the firm could have used: A. zero-based communications planning. B. a benchmark orientation. C. DAGMAR. D. the carryover effect. E. the recency effect.

In 2007, Cingular acquired AT&T but renamed itself using AT&T. The choice of the name reflected consumers' awareness and recognition of an established brand. Advertising to make consumers aware of new combined firm would more than likely have _____ objectives. A. sales-oriented B. market-oriented C. product development D. communications E. product penetration

In terms of advertising, scheduling constant advertising without variation is referred to as: A. flighting. B. continuity. C. geographical weighting. D. circulation. E. pulsing.

In terms of the alternative evaluation stage of the consumer decision-making process, how a golf cart handles, how the brakes on a bicycle work, and how well a stain remover eliminates grass stains are all examples of: A. functional consequences. B. psychosocial consequences. C. bundles of attributes. D. service assessments. E. physiological stimuli.

In terms of the alternative evaluation stage of the consumer decision-making process, how you feel when you wear new shoes, how you think others like your new hair style, and how a new weight-loss plan makes you feel about yourself are all examples of: A. functional consequences. B. psychosocial consequences. C. bundles of attributes. D. service assessments. E. physiological stimuli.

In the _____ hierarchy, the consumer engages in passive learning and random information catching rather than active information seeking. A. standard learning B. low-involvement C. dissonance/attribution D. habit formation E. informative processing

In the _____ method of budget determination advertising is considered an investment, similar to plant and equipment. A. payout planning B. objective and task C. ROI budgeting D. competitive parity E. percentage of sales

In-depth interviews with consumers, focus groups, and observational studies of how consumers conduct their daily lives as consumers are all examples of: A. quantitative research techniques. B. qualitative research techniques. C. problem detection studies. D. econometric research. E. secondary internal research.

In-depth interviews, projective techniques and association tests in which consumers are encouraged to bring out associations related to products and brands are methodologies used primarily by: A. motivation researchers. B. attitude researchers. C. learning theorists. D. demographic researchers. E. social influence researchers.

Independent companies that specialize in the purchase of radio and television time are known as: A. creative boutiques. B. mid-sized agencies. C. full-service agencies. D. media specialist companies. E. media boutiques.

Individual and group audiences, niche markets, market segments, and mass markets are all examples of: A. different stages of the response process. B. hierarchies of effects. C. levels of audience aggregation. D. communication elements. E. nonpersonal channels of target audiences.

Inez and Troy were just strolling through the mall when they saw a mattress with adjustable levels of firmness in a store window. Once they became aware that such a product existed, they were eager to talk to a salesperson and learn more about the mattresses. After talking to the salesperson for thirty minutes, Inez and Troy realized that they wanted to own one. They used their credit cards to order a mattress and to pay for its delivery. In terms of the models of response process, Inez and Troy have just gone through the stages in the _____ model. A. AIDA B. hierarchy of effects C. innovation-adoption D. adoption response E. diffusion rate

Information from ads presented in the broadcast media is: A. externally paced. B. self-paced. C. internally paced. D. personally paced. E. qualitative media.

Intuit, a computer software company, runs an advertising campaign for Quicken that emphasizes the fact it is the most preferred brand of financial software. This is an example of a(n): A. emotional appeal. B. teaser appeal. C. product popularity appeal. D. transformational appeal. E. favorable price appeal.

Isopure positions itself as a zero-carb muscle recovery drink. Isopure is using a _____ positioning strategy. A. product class B. product attributes and benefits C. price/quality D. competitor E. cultural symbol

Jack Trout and Al Ries introduced _____ as the basis for advertising strategy and creative development in the early 1970s. A. inherent drama B. positioning C. brand image D. unique selling proposition E. transformational advertising

Jackson & Morris is an advertising agency that handles each of its clients by assigning individuals from various departments to work together as a team on their accounts. The agency is using a _____ organizational system. A. departmental B. group C. matrix D. boutique E. dedicated

Joe's Garage, in Bayview, wants to advertise a special two-day promotional offer. Which of the following methods of advertising should the garage use? A. Regional B. Trade C. Retail D. Local E. Network

Kasey hears a radio commercial for a weight loss program involving hypnosis that claims an individual can lose weight through its program. Kasey thinks to himself, "Yep, it sure does work. I wouldn't have been able to lose thirty pounds without it." This thought would be an example of a: A. source derogation. B. source bolster. C. counterargument. D. support argument. E. ad executive thought.

Kenya was asked to look at a television ad for a movie that was going to be released in December. Her reactions were noted—Did it make her want to see the movie? Did the title seem appropriate? Did she feel that she understood the subject of the movie? As a result of using _____, it was determined that the communication created the appropriate reactions. A. cognitive responses B. affective responses C. selective impressions D. elaborations E. conative impressions

Kroger supermarkets buy an insert to go into Thursday's Atlanta Journal-Constitution. The newspaper is read by over 100,000 people. The newspaper is an example of a(n) _____ channel of communication. A. individualized B. direct-response C. nonpersonal D. semiotic E. verbal

Learning occurs most rapidly under a(n) _____ reinforcement schedule, but the behavior is likely to cease when the reinforcement stops. A. continuous B. partial C. intermittent D. modeled E. flexible

Leeanne is going to buy canned vegetables for her family's meals. Her evoked set would best be described as: A. all brands of canned vegetables. B. all brands of canned vegetables that are not store brands. C. Del Monte and Stokely's canned vegetables because they are the only two brands she is aware of. D. any vegetable—fresh, frozen, or canned. E. whatever is stocked on her supermarket's shelves.

Leon is the creative director for an agency that has just been hired by a manufacturer of golfing equipment to create a new advertising campaign for the company's titanium clubs. Before starting to develop creative ideas, Leon reads some golfing magazines and spends time talking to friends and co-workers who play golf. These activities are part of which step of the creative process? A. preparation B. incubation C. illumination D. verification E. revision

Managers who use the communications effects pyramid to set objectives believe that: A. lower-level objectives such as purchase and reuse form the foundation of the communications program. B. the foundation of the communications program is set by accomplishing lower-level objectives such as awareness, knowledge, and comprehension. C. advertising and promotion should first accomplish lower-level objectives such as trial and purchase. D. advertising and promotion should first accomplish higher-order objectives such as trial and purchase and then create awareness and brand knowledge. E. advertising and promotion cannot accomplish lower-order objectives.

Many baby boomers, especially males, can easily recognize the aqua blue color that was used on many 1950s automobiles. Seeing that color on a restaurant wall or as the color used on restaurant booths will elicit a response to that restaurant that is: A. similar to that used for evaluating a product with both functional and psychological consequences. B. exemplary of cognitive planning. C. consistent with classical conditioning principles. D. related to current trends in advertising. E. reflective of the wheel of retailing hypothesis.

Marketing _____ are the set of interdependent organizations involved in the process of making a product or service available for consumption. A. channels B. hierarchies C. facilitators D. consumers E. programs

Marketing research firms: A. seldom conduct qualitative research for ad agencies. B. are one of the most widely used types of collateral service organizations. C. are actually classified as data warehouses because of their relations with ad agencies. D. are not typically used by ad agencies. E. can gather only subjective information.

McDonald's Big &Tasty burger was advertised as a juicy quarter-pounder with lettuce, tomatoes, and all the trimmings that can be purchased for $1 from McDonald's Dollar Menu. The Big & Tasty burger and other items on the Dollar Menu are positioning by: A. competitor. B. demographics. C. product user. D. price/quality. E. product class.

Micah and Jeremy both watched the Sugar Bowl on television. Micah was especially interested in the ads for Ford and GMC trucks because he is planning on buying a new truck. Jeremy did not notice the truck, but because he is a theater major, he did notice the ads for a new movie based on an Alfred Hitchcock classic. _____ accounts for why the two watched the same television show and saw different commercials. A. Selective attention B. Selective exposure C. Subliminal perception D. Selective retention E. Selective comprehension

Michael told Terry and Bill, Terry told Melissa, and Melissa told Ty, Andrew, and Beryl that the new Mexican restaurant in town had authentically prepared Mexican dishes. This word-of-mouth took place via a(n) _____ channel of communication. A. individualized B. direct-response C. nonpersonal D. personal E. customized

Nizoral A-D shampoo is the only dandruff shampoo made with the number one doctor-prescribed ingredient, an ingredient that its manufacturer holds the patent on. This is the product's unique selling proposition (USP). Which of the following statements about this USP is true? A. This USP can be easily imitated. B. This USP does not benefit a large enough target market. C. This USP creates a sustainable competitive advantage. D. This USP will cause the copy platform to be more cognitive than affective. E. This USP allows for the creation of a strong brand personality.

No matter which model of the creative process you use, the last step in the creative process is: A. resolution. B. illumination. C. verification. D. market evaluation. E. confirmation.

Nonpersonal channels of communication include: A. newspapers, magazines, billboards, and salespeople. B. salespeople, friends, relatives, and spokespeople. C. reference groups, sales clerks, and telemarketers. D. television, radio, newspapers, and magazines. E. television, salespeople, and radio.

Offering quality products that command a premium price, providing superior customer service, having the lowest production costs and lower prices etc. are ways of: A. achieving competitive advantage. B. market segmentation. C. mass marketing. D. exploiting market opportunity. E. undifferentiated marketing.

Only the _____ model has a retention stage, which is important for consumers who are considering purchase decisions and who are not ready to make a purchase. A. hierarchy of effects model B. AIDA model C. innovation-adoption model D. cognitive response model E. information processing model

Operant conditioning is sometimes referred to as _____ conditioning. A. stimulus-response B. psychoanalytical C. subliminal D. instrumental E. valence-oriented

Pace Foods has a goal of expanding its business beyond its traditional Texas market base. This goal is an example of a _____ objective while the goal of establishing a position of authenticity and making Mexican food seem fun is an example of a(n) _____ objective. A. communication; marketing B. communication; positioning C. marketing; communication D. positioning; organizational E. advertising; functional

Package design firms, market research companies, photographers, and printers are examples of: A. sales promotion agencies. B. interactive agencies. C. companies that provide collateral services. D. marketing support agencies. E. support agencies.

Perception is an important consideration when creating attention-getting ads. Obsession and other brands of perfume use scented strips in their ads to influence _____ and to increase the probability that the ad will be perceived. A. the consumer's level of sensory input B. consumer personality C. the internal information search D. perception retrieval E. subliminal perception

Peugeot ran a print advertising campaign for its automobiles that presented twenty good reasons for buying a Peugeot 505. The ad was very detailed and contained a great deal of information about the performance characteristics of the car. This type of ad campaign would be consistent with: A. instrumental conditioning B. classical conditioning C. low involvement learning D. cognitive learning theory E. multiattribute learning

Poinsettias are a very popular plant during the Christmas season. A major problem for growers of poinsettias is root rot. Syngenta has developed a patented product that eliminates root rot when it is placed in soil mix in which the plants are grown. Syngenta can use _____ to develop its creative strategy for advertising this new product. A. brand image B. illumination C. unique selling proposition D. diversified promotion E. transformational advertising

Poinsettias are a very popular plant during the Christmas season. A major problem for growers of poinsettias is root rot. Syngenta has developed a patented product that eliminates root rot when it is placed in soil mix in which the plants are grown. Unlike other unique selling propositions such as new packaging, this USP creates a(n): A. sustainable competitive advantage. B. need for a repositioning drama. C. opportunity for an flexibility ad appeal in the consumer market. D. potential weakness for Syngenta's competition. E. opportunity for ethnographic research.

Probably the most effective way for an agency to acquire new business is through: A. its image and reputation. B. its public relations effort. C. solicitations. D. referrals. E. its pricing strategy.

Psychographic studies are used by advertising agencies to: A. identify age, educational level, and ethnic background of the target audience. B. provide creative personnel with a better understanding of the target audience for whom they are developing the advertising message. C. determine how to allocate the advertising budget. D. understand specific consumption problems consumers encounter with various products and services. E. determine the problems encountered by the customers while using a product.

Purchase motives, such as convenience, comfort, economy and performance are used as a basis for _____ appeals. A. rational B. emotional C. price D. inherent drama E. refutational

Putting thoughts, ideas or information together in symbolic form is called: A. encoding. B. deciphering. C. shaping. D. flighting. E. decoding.

Radio has survived as an advertising medium by: A. competing directly with television. B. evolving into a national advertising medium. C. evolving into a primarily local advertising medium. D. charging higher rates than television. E. providing visual facilities to listeners.

Radio offers high levels of audience selectivity because of: A. the wide variety of program formats offered by different stations. B. the broadcast overlap of local radio stations. C. the transmission capability of the various stations. D. its low cost. E. image transfer capabilities.

Ramen has recently come up with instant soup packets which it advertises in the colder regions of Asia and Europe. This is an example of: A. demographic segmentation. B. psychographic segmentation. C. sociocultural segmentation. D. geographic segmentation. E. undifferentiated marketing.

Ramon participated in a study done by an advertising agency. During his interview, he was asked to gauge the services provided by a regional airline on the basis of his experiences and what others had told him. The interviewer asked Ramon specific questions about the food, the seating arrangements, the ease with which he entered and exited the plane, and the service provided by the flight attendants. Since the ad agency doing the research is the one that will develop the creative strategy for the airline's new ad campaign, you know Ramon most likely provided the agency with: A. product/service specific preplanning inputs. B. general product inputs to be stored and used later. C. secondary internal data. D. secondary external data. E. quantitative data which will be used by the client to determine market development strategies.

Rational and emotional advertising appeals: A. represent two distinctive approaches which should never be combined because they divide the focus of consumers' attention. B. are essentially the same. C. can be combined since consumers' purchase decisions are often made on the basis of rational and emotional motives. D. are used together only for low-involvement products. E. can be combined only for products and not for services.

Recreation vehicles (RVs) advertise throughout the year but typically advertise more heavily in June and September. Which of the following scheduling methods does this pattern represent? A. Flighting B. Geographical weighting C. Continuity D. Oscillating E. Pulsing

Reference groups to which one would like to belong are called _____ groups. A. aspirational B. disassociative C. evoked D. acquisitive E. integrated

Refutational appeals, where an communicator presents both sides of an issue then refutes the opposing viewpoint, may be effective because they: A. present only arguments favoring the advertiser's position. B. put the strongest arguments at the middle of the message. C. inoculate the target audience against a competitor's counterclaim. D. increase the level of counterargument. E. are easily understood.

Research on the elaboration likelihood model (ELM) has shown that: A. celebrities are effective peripheral cues in a high-involvement situation. B. celebrities are effective peripheral cues in a low-involvement situation. C. the quality of message arguments is likely to be very important in a low-involvement situation. D. the quality of the message claims is always less likely to be persuasive than the status of the celebrity endorser. E. peripheral cues are more important than detailed messages in high-involvement situations.

Research shows consumers perceive Miller beer as strong, bold, and adventurous. This is an example of how consumers assign a _____ to a brand. A. product rank B. personality C. product features D. unique selling proposition E. market rank

Research shows that about two-thirds of the new insurance policies Prudential sells will be to current policyholders. This information indicates a(n) ______ segmentation would be appropriate for Prudential to use along with demographic and psychographic segmentation. A. benefit B. geographic C. SRI D. behavioristic E. VALS

Rosa Martinez is reading a Vanity Fair magazine where she sees an ad for DKNY jeans. In this situation, the ad is a _____, while Vanity Fair is a _____. A. source; message B. channel; message C. message; receiver D. message; channel E. channel; source

Rick likes to watch Tremors: The Series on the Sci-Fi channel and police car chase videos on his local Fox affiliate. Both shows are on at the same time on Friday night. As soon as commercials begin on one of the shows, he switches to the other. Rick is engaged in: A. time shifting. B. zooming. C. zap-proofing. D. zipping. E. zapping.

Ronell missed an ad for Smythe Catering in the newspaper today because his attention was attracted by an ad for an estate sale that was on the same page. With reference to the communication process, the ad for the estate sale kept Ronell from seeing the ad for the caterer and acted as: A. an encoding hazard. B. a decoding block. C. negative feedback. D. a receptor block. E. noise.

Sachin Tendulkar, India's top cricketer, was paid $4.14 million over three years to promote motorbikes made by TVS, an Indian manufacturer. TVS hoped to use _____ to build brand credibility for its motorbikes. A. celebrity expertise B. meaning transfer C. celebrity knowledge D. endorsement shift E. consumer-celebrity merging

Sales-oriented objectives are appropriate for: A. all Internet marketing. B. retail advertising promoting a sale or special event. C. products that have been introduced in a highly volatile market. D. any advertising campaign aimed at maintaining brand awareness. E. creating favorable attitudes and images for a brand or a product before purchase could occur.

Sam Crenshaw looked at realty ads in local newspaper and in the listings magazine he found at a local restaurant, asked his friends, and called the local Chamber of Commerce before purchasing a home site in Lincoln. These activities are examples of: A. internal information search. B. external information search. C. post purchase evaluation. D. problem clarification. E. evoked set manipulation.

Seasonal products such as Mother's Day cards and Valentine candy would best make use of which scheduling alternative? A. Weighted ratings B. Market share C. Flighting D. Plighting E. Continuous

Shows such as Judge Judy and Entertainment Tonight are produced specifically for the syndication market. This is referred to as: A. off-network syndication. B. first-run syndication. C. special-purpose syndication. D. network-supported syndication. E. reruns.

Simplified decision rules such as "Always buy the largest size of the cheapest priced detergent" or "Only buy motor oil if the manufacturer is offering a rebate" are: A. the result of integration processes. B. called heuristics. C. formalized group norms. D. problem-solving consequences. E. stimulus-response benefits.

Sometimes when celebrities are convicted in drug-related cases, part of the sentencing is to perform community service by speaking to students about the evils of drug usage. Some people have questioned the value of this form of community service because it could glamorize the use of drugs. The ill feelings some people have towards celebrities in these types of programs can create: A. source derogation. B. counterargument. C. source bolster. D. source blockage. E. message blockage.

Source attractiveness leads to persuasion through a process of: A. internalization. B. identification. C. compliance. D. repositioning. E. comprehension.

Skyy Vodka's use of cinematic-inspired cocktail moments created marketing success through: A. image advertising. B. television infomercials. C. CEO spokesperson press releases. D. banner advertising. E. rational advertising.

Some marketers avoid the use of humor in their advertising because: A. humor can draw attention away from the product. B. humor has no shock value and does not draw consumers' attention to the ad. C. effective humor is no challenge for creatives to produce. D. humor can put the consumer in a good mood and increase liking of the ad. E. humor compels the receiver to engage in counterargument.

Spalding ran an advertisement promoting its Top Flight golf balls as the brand that is the most durable and goes the farthest. This ad campaign attempted to influence consumers' attitudes by: A. increasing or changing the strength or belief rating of the brand on an important attribute. B. changing consumers' perceptions of the importance or value of an attribute. C. adding a new attribute to the attitude formation process. D. ignoring the competition. E. avoiding any direct effect on consumers' attitudes.

Spanish vintners want to improve consumers' perceptions of the sparkling wine they produce, which they contend is just as good as or even better than that produced in France. The French call the sparkling wine they produce in a specified region, champagne, and this is what most people choose when they are celebrating. Which of the following methods for developing a creative strategy for Spanish sparkling wine seems most appropriate? A. Testimonials B. Image advertising C. Brand-to-consumer relevance advertising D. Benefit-based positioning E. Refutational appeal

Straight-sell message executions are commonly used with _____ advertising appeals. A. informational B. emotional C. teaser D. transformational E. emotional integration

Superagencies were formed: A. because advertisers were disenchanted with large agencies. B. because advertisers wanted agencies to be more flexible and responsive than traditional agencies. C. to save money for clients. D. so agencies could provide their clients with integrated marketing communications services worldwide. E. to lessen the need for competitive pricing.

The _____ is a specific carrier within a medium category. A. retailer B. wholesaler C. distribution channel D. media E. media vehicle

The commercial to convince people to stop smoking uses three teens bungee jumping off a bridge. When they reach the ground, each grabs a can, opens it, and takes a drink. As the third person takes a drink, the can explodes and kills him. The final screen reads, "No other product but tobacco kills every third consumer." By placing the strongest point in the ad at the end, the ad's source is hoping its message benefits from the: A. primacy effect. B. recency effect. C. sleeper effect. D. credibility effect. E. compliance hierarchy.

The communication process begins with the process of _____, which leads to the development of a _____ that contains the information or meaning a source hopes to convey. A. encoding; message B. encrypting; transmission C. encoding; response D. decoding; message E. decoding; transmission

The content of advertising with _____ emphasizes facts, learning and the logic of persuasion. A. emotional appeals B. informational appeals C. transformational appeals D. subliminal appeals E. irrational appeals

The encoding process leads to the development of: A. a message. B. noise. C. a channel. D. feedback. E. a receiver.

The major problem associated with the _____ budgeting method is that it reverses the cause and effect relationship between advertising and sales. A. percent of sales B. objective and task method C. competitive parity D. S-shaped response E. rapidly diminishing returns

The major problem with the use of readers per copy figures is: A. determining pass-along rates. B. determining time spent reading the magazine. C. calculating cost estimates efficiently. D. determining an efficient way to estimate the effects of sweep periods. E. calculating costs per ratings point (CPRP).

The major reason for the decline in the viewing audiences of the three major networks is: A. the widespread use of videocassette recorders. B. the growth of cable television. C. poor programming. D. the exponential growth of clutter. E. changes in cultural values, which are reducing television viewing time.

The notion that a low credibility source may be just as effective as a high credibility source with the passing of time is known as the: A. sleeper effect. B. time/place consequence. C. identification outcome. D. decay effect. E. mirage effect.

The number of households in a market area that own a television set is referred to as: A. households using television. B. the universe estimate. C. a program rating. D. designated market area. E. audience size.

The objective and task method is most difficult to use when: A. the product to be promoted is intangible and in the maturity stage of its product life cycle. B. the product to be promoted is in the decline stage of its product life cycle. C. the product to be promoted is a cash cow. D. the product to be promoted is new to the market. E. a service is being promoted.

The overlap that occurs due to people seeing the ad twice is referred as: A. coverage. B. unduplicated reach. C. duplicated reach. D. frequency. E. program rating.

The owner of Shane Corporation, a jewelry retail chain, is the voiceover on all of his stores' commercials. He explains how his company differs from other chain stores and gives advice on buying jewelry. Because he is recognized as a professional jewelry expert, his appearance in his company's ads can enhance the ads' source: A. credibility. B. attractiveness. C. power. D. recognizability. E. likability.

The pass-along rate refers to the: A. newspaper advertising rate charged to manufacturers by retailers placing ads for them. B. television advertising rate charged to national advertisers. C. number of persons to whom a magazine copy has been given and who have read it. D. magazine advertising rate for throw-away publications. E. percentage of people who skip over an ad while reading a publication.

The people who develop ads and commercials are known as ____. A. innovators B. animatics C. copy makers D. creative types E. illuminators

The print ad for Thomasville furniture's Louis Phillipe design shows a rumbled bed with pillows flung on the floor and two empty glasses of wine on a nearby table. The door to the balcony is open and looks as if the lovers have just stepped out to look at the moon. The use of sexual innuendoes in this ad to attract attention would be an application of: A. the cognitive learning theory. B. the psychoanalytic theory. C. the behavioral learning theory. D. affective modeling. E. shaping.

The print ads and the television ads for Maytag appliances were designed to show "The Loneliest Man in the World" was a Maytag repairman. Public appearances by the actor who appeared in the commercials as well as consumer brochures and point-of-purchase displays were also used in this interrelated and coordinated effort called a(n): A. advertising campaign. B. copy platform. C. animatic. D. campaign illumination. E. interrelated marketing campaign (IMC).

The process by which a source with high power can influence behavior is known as: A. internalization. B. identification. C. compliance. D. retention. E. scrutiny.

The proponents of creative advertising argue that: A. the more information in the ad the more effective the ad. B. the only purpose of advertising is to sell the product. C. advertising should be designed to make consumers buy products that they do not want or need. D. advertising should be designed to create an emotional bond between consumers and the brand or company. E. advertising should break through the clutter by focusing on logos and products.

The role of the advertising department in a company using a decentralized product management system is to: A. plan and coordinate the advertising campaign. B. provide advertising and promotion related support to the brand managers. C. conduct marketing research based on the problems identified during segmentation. D. develop sales programs that would be effective against the target market. E. check manufacturing of the products according to the demand in the market.

The share of a television audience indicates the: A. percentage of the defined target market that is exposed to a message at least once during the relevant time period. B. percentage of households using TV tuned to a particular program in a specified time period. C. average number of exposures to a message received by each member of the target market. D. percentage of all households using television during a specific time period. E. number of people who responded to a televised direct-response ad.

The television daypart that attracts the largest viewing audience is: A. daytime. B. early fringe. C. late news. D. morning. E. prime time.

The television time period available to local stations right before or after network programming is called: A. adjacencies. B. dayparts. C. access time. D. scatter advertising. E. sweeps.

The tendency of a commercial to lose its effectiveness when it is seen repeatedly by viewers is known as: A. repetition. B. the qualitative effect. C. wearout. D. commercial reactance. E. frequency overexposure.

The times during the year when television audiences are measured in order to set advertising rates are called: A. sweeps periods. B. GRP flighting periods. C. frequency estimates. D. availabilities. E. upgraded media scheduling.

Today many people take an aspirin at their doctor's recommendation as preventive medicine. The maker of Bayer aspirin has added calcium to its aspirin. The calcium is also often recommended by doctors to help maintain bone density. There are many types of aspirin on the market, but only one brand that contains calcium. For Bayer, this calcium additive is an example of: A. brand quality. B. brand equity. C. a competitive advantage. D. brand power. E. a market opportunity.

Top-down budgeting methods are commonly used because of: A. their effectiveness. B. upper management's desire for control. C. the growing availability of computer simulations. D. the ease with which a manager can assess the impact of sales on ROI. E. their quantitative nature.

Transformational advertising can differentiate a product or service by: A. convincing a consumer of the superior performance of a brand. B. making the consumption experience more meaningful, exciting and enjoyable. C. making a consumption experience last longer. D. showing performance superiority of one brand over another. E. proving brand superiority.

Trevor is watching a late night TV show when a low-budget commercial for a local restaurant comes on the air. He is turned off by the poor quality of the commercial and immediately tunes out the message without processing any of the information. Trevor is engaging in what type of message processing? A. Support arguing B. Central processing C. Peripheral processing D. Source bolstering E. Source blocking

Trial, purchase, adoption, and rejection are all examples of the _____ stage of the response process and appear in all of the models describing the consumer response process. A. cognitive B. affective C. behavioral D. motivational E. learning

USA Today, Sports Illustrated, and Tonight Show with Jay Leno are all examples of: A. media strategies. B. media that have sweeps periods. C. media vehicles. D. communications decoders. E. physical distribution channels.

When marketers develop an advertising message, one of their primary goals is to encode the message: A. in a way that makes their message is unique to each individual who is exposed to the ad. B. so that it can only be understood by members of the target audience. C. so that it will be understood and interpreted in a similar way by most consumers. D. using nonverbal communication so as to eliminate problems with connotations and jargon. E. so that it requires effort to decode it.

When marketers want to build attitudes that are resistant to attacks or criticism of their product by a competitor, they can use a(n): A. one-sided message. B. nonverbal message. C. emotional appeal. D. refutational appeal. E. slice-of-life appeal.

When retail buyers told the people who sold Duck Tape brand duct tape that tweens and teens were significant purchasers of the tape and used it to repair skateboards and other extreme sports equipment, the makers of Duck Tape introduced duct tape in wild neon colors specifically for this market because research showed this market liked fun colors. By targeting tweens and teens that skateboard and engage in other extreme sports, the maker of Duck Tape used _____ segmentation. A. geographic B. sociocultural C. behavioristic D. socioeconomic E. demographic

When the client assumes the entire promotional function, it is said to operate: A. on a client management basis. B. on a creative and functional basis. C. as an in-house agency. D. as a collateral service provider. E. as a self-sufficient agency.

When the coverage of the media exceeds the targeted audience, this excess is referred to as: A. plusage. B. flighting. C. waste coverage. D. geographical excess. E. oversaturation.

When trying to attain maximum coverage of the entire U.S. market, which form of advertising would be most effective? A. Transit B. Television C. Newspaper D. Outdoor E. Magazine

When using the competitive parity budgeting method, the firm: A. matches its share of total industry advertising expenditures to its market share. B. spends as much as it can. C. allocates some portion of planned sales for the period to advertising. D. spends the same total amount as its major competitors spend. E. bases its advertising and promotion expenditures on sales.

Which department within an advertising agency supervises the casting of people to appear in the ad and the setting for the scenes? A. Media department B. Art department C. Copywriters D. Traffic department E. Production department

Which medium offers the most target selectivity? A. Radio B. Outdoor C. Direct mail D. Newspapers E. Magazine

Which of the following forms of advertising would be most effective when the objective is to attain maximum coverage of a local market at low cost? A. Outdoor B. Television C. Internet D. Magazine E. Newspaper

Which of the following provides the sender of an advertising message with a way of monitoring the effectiveness of the message? A. Encoding mechanisms B. Decoding mechanisms C. Feedback D. Noise filters E. The channel

With the growth of integrated marketing communications, advertisers are being challenged to think beyond traditional mass media and develop creative advertising that: A. offsets the weaknesses associated with storyboard ad design. B. provides opportunities for effective government oversight. C. centralizes American consumer values in a global marketplace. D. engages consumers and enters into a dialogue with them. E. minimizes the risk of offending technology-savvy consumers.

With which of the following media would you find cost per rating point (CPRP) used to compare cost figures? A. Magazine B. Transit C. Newspaper D. Billboard E. Television

You know the _____ method of budgeting is being employed after hearing an experienced marketing department manager respond to a new employee's question, "How was the ad budget established last year?" by saying, "The same way it's always been done. I just have an instinct for how much should be budgeted where." A. arbitrary allocation B. percentage of sales C. ROI D. return on investment E. competitive parity

24. (p. 474) Which of the following is an example of direct-response media? A. Billboards B. Place-based media C. The Internet D. Product placement E. Guerrilla media

TRUE

24. (p. 513) One of the greatest disadvantages of the Internet is the lack of reliability of the research numbers generated.

51. (p. 480) For customer relationship management (CRM) to work effectively, a(n) _____ is required. A. database B. sweepstake C. TV spot D. product list E. informercial

"Commercial-free" blocks of music are a disadvantage for advertisers because: A. there is a restriction on the length of commercials. B. these programs attract a high number of listeners. C. contextual ads cannot be easily aired during music programming. D. they are followed by long segments of commercials that listeners can easily skip. E. there is greater competition for ad space during these programmes.

"Diamonds are forever," "Impossible is Nothing" and "Just do it" are all examples of: A. unique selling propositions. B. long-running advertising campaign themes. C. inherent drama appeals. D. copy platforms. E. creative blueprints.

"Encouraging current drinkers of Coca-Cola to drink more of the beverage," would be an example of a(n) _____ objective. A. sales-oriented B. market-oriented C. product development D. communications E. product penetration

FALSE

14. (p. 499) Facebook, Twitter, and other such interactive social networking sites form a part of the Web 1.0 era

False

15. (p. 482) Direct response advertising employs only the one step approach in order to solicit a sales response.

FALSE

15. (p. 501) Pop-ups are usually smaller than banner ads.

True

16. (p. 487) By running the same ad on different stations, a direct marketer can determine the relative effectiveness of the medium

TRUE

16. (p. 501) Advertisements that appear in form on small creatures on the screen while one accesses certain websites are known as pop-ups.

False

17. (p. 487) One disadvantage of direct marketing is that it results in a lot of waste coverage

TRUE

17. (p. 501) Ronnie is most likely to come across an interstitial while he is waiting for his favourite soap to download.

False

18. (p. 488) The program vehicles used for direct-response TV advertising are usually very expensive. Hence, the marketer cannot afford to purchase repeat times

TRUE

18. (p. 501) In case of search engine advertising, advertisers pay only when a consumer clicks on their ad or link from a search engine page.

19. (p. 474) Direct marketing: A. is not a useful tool for a company that is using an integrated marketing communications plan. B. seeks the same objectives as advertising, sales promotion, and personal selling strategies in an IMC plan. C. is one of the slowest growing forms of promotion in terms of dollar expenditures. D. can generate immediate behavioral response. E. cannot be combined with other forms of promotional media.

TRUE

19. (p. 503) A hotel advertiser who places an ad on the travel booking website is making use of contextual advertising.

True

2. (p. 476) The increase in the "money rich and time poor" people in the world have led to the success of direct marketing

TRUE

2. (p. 496) Internet offers consumers the opportunity to provide their own content, offer their own goods and services for sale, and provide feedback on the same as provided by others.

20. (p. 474) Unlike traditional marketing, the typical goal of direct marketing is to: A. create brand image. B. generate an immediate behavioral response. C. utilize telephone communication exclusively. D. create awareness. E. convey detailed information.

TRUE

20. (p. 504) Television commercials that appear on the Internet or are specifically designed for the Internet are known as online commercials.

21. (p. 474) _____ is a system of marketing by which organizations communicate directly with target customers to generate a response or transaction. A. Sales promotion B. Word-of-mouth marketing C. Synchro marketing D. Direct marketing E. Publicity

FALSE

21. (p. 507) Blogs, on the Internet, are the most expensive way to reach large audiences.

22. (p. 474) Direct marketing response can take the form of: A. an inquiry. B. awareness. C. knowledge about the product. D. sales promotion. E. push promotional strategy.

FALSE

22. (p. 511) All of the methods used to measure Internet activity and effectiveness are accurate.

TRUE

23. (p. 512) Behavior tracking, on the Internet, helps in tailoring the message to appeal to the specific needs and wants of the target audience.

25. (p. 474) _____ are tools by which direct marketers implement the communications process. A. Databases B. Sweeps C. Direct-response media D. Promotional push strategies E. Encoders

TRUE

25. (p. 515) The largest growing mediums in the United States are mobile and the Internet.

26. (p. 474) Which of the following statements is true about direct marketing? A. Direct marketing is suitable only for consumer-to-consumer advertising. B. Direct response media includes interactive TV and print media. C. Direct marketing is not popular among industrial marketers. D. Direct marketing as a promotional media is suitable only for small retailers. E. Rapid increase in dual income families in America has led to a reduction in the use of direct marketing as a promotional media

TRUE

26. (p. 515) Adoption of wireless technology in Asia has outpaced that in the United States.

27. (p. 474) The major impetus behind the growth of direct marketing was the: A. increase in the number of working women. B. invention of the printing press. C. development and expansion of the U.S. Postal Service. D. development of multinational companies and international markets. E. law that mandated public education.

27. (p. 495; 496) Which of the following statements is true about the Internet? A. Internet is interactive. B. Internet allows for a one-way flow. C. The increase in low speed internet connections has led users to spend more time online. D. Internet is a unidirectional medium. E. Internet allows consumer to control the messages but does not allow them to provide their own content.

28. (p. 476) One of the reasons for the recent, rapid growth of direct marketing in American society is due to the: A. the fact the U.S. has moved from an industrialized nation to a service nation. B. increase in the number of hours individuals spend watching television. C. proliferation of cellular phones. D. increased use of consumer credit cards. E. development of four-color printing presses.

28. (p. 496) When major corporations first began to conduct business on the Internet, they put up Web sites primarily for: A. information purposes. B. creating brand awareness. C. increasing interest. D. inducing trial. E. increasing sales.

30. (p. 476) A magazine ad for pet health insurance contains both a toll-free number to call and a Web site to visit for more information. This ad is an example of the combining of direct marketing with: A. a trade promotion. B. public relations. C. advertising. D. personal selling. E. consumer promotion.

30. (p. 498) Naomi has a small consulting business. She wants to use her Web site to provide background about her company's qualifications and answer frequently asked questions. Naomi will design her website with the primary objective of: A. brand image. B. allowing customer sampling. C. providing information. D. handling objections. E. inducing trial.

31. (p. 476) _____ was known as the stepchild of the promotional mix. A. Advertising B. Direct marketing C. Sales promotion D. Public relations E. Publicity

31. (p. 498) What was the primary objective marketers sought when they first employed the Internet as a communications tool? A. To sell their product B. To stimulate repurchase of their product C. To level the competitive playing field D. To disseminate information E. To create a competitive advantage

32. (p. 476) The print ad of 'Fedex' read 'Call 1-800-FEDEX (toll free) to send gifts this Christmas to your loved ones anywhere in the world'. This print ad uses direct marketing combined with which of the following promotional media? A. Advertising B. Sales promotion C. Publicity D. Public relations E. Personal selling

32. (p. 498) Which of the following is difficult to achieve through the Internet? A. Creating awareness B. Generating interest C. Disseminating information D. Creating an image E. Creating a strong brand

33. (p. 476) Joy receives print ads from 'HP' marketing their ink cartridges to him as it is seen that he is a regular buyer of HP ink cartridges. 'HP' is making use of which of the following combination of promotional mix? A. Advertising and sales promotion B. Direct marketing and advertising C. Sales promotion and public relations D. Direct marketing and sales promotion E. Public relations and support media

33. (p. 498) iTunes.com allows for a "sampling" of songs before you purchase in order to: A. disseminate information. B. create awareness. C. build an image. D. create a strong brand. E. stimulate trial.

34. (p. 477) OASIS, a charitable foundation, makes use of telemarketing for soliciting funds for charities that go towards child education. This is an example of the use of direct marketing along with: A. advertising. B. sales promotion. C. informercials. D. public relations. E. support media.

34. (p. 496) Which of the following statements about the role of the Web site is true? A. Web sites are only used to disseminate information. B. A Web site is the place where a provider makes information available to users of the Internet. C. The maintenance of a Web site requires very little time and effort. D. Other media cannot be integrated with the Web site. E. Making a Web site work and having one work successfully is the same thing.

35. (p. 477) Telemarketing and _____ are two methods of personal selling used to generate sales. A. advertising B. sales promotion C. direct selling D. informercials E. homeshopping

35. (p. 498) Which of the following is a valid objective for a marketer who is employing the Internet as a communications vehicle? A. To create a sustainable competitive advantage B. To implement a diversification strategy C. To create a strong brand D. To prevent a price war E. To create a target market

36. (p. 477) Airlines send out mailers or e-mails announcing promotional airfares. Which of the combinations of promotional media do they make use of? A. Advertising and sales promotion B. Advertising and direct marketing C. Sales promotion and direct marketing D. Sales promotion and public relations E. Direct marketing and personal selling

37. (p. 477) A press conference called by the Winchester County Museum informed the public of the need for major repairs to prevent water damage to the museum's collection of primitive paintings. During the conference, the museum representative announced that each family in Winchester County and neighboring counties could expect to receive a donation envelope in the mail within the next few days. This is an example of the combining of direct marketing with: A. a trade promotion. B. public relations. C. advertising. D. personal selling. E. consumer promotion.

37. (p. 498) CDW Computer Centers sells computer equipment to small- and mid-sized businesses. Its Web site provides in-depth information on its products, its customer service, its shipping policies, and its suppliers. Like most business-to-business sites, the primary objective of this Web site is to: A. create a sustainable competitive advantage. B. create an image. C. disseminate information. D. replace advertising in trade journals. E. prevent price wars.

38. (p. 477) When the University of Miami has volunteers call its alumni and ask them to make contributions to pay for the remodeling of the administration building, it is an example of the combining of direct marketing with: A. a trade promotion. B. public relations. C. advertising. D. personal selling. E. consumer promotion.

38. (p. 498) Marketers have found it most difficult to _____ on the Internet because of a need to develop creative strategies adapted to the medium. A. disseminate information B. provide current price lists C. create viable links to suppliers and other sites of interest to users D. overcome buying center barriers E. create an image

39. (p. 477) Red Bud Florist received a mail with an offer from Aquafoam, a water-soluble foam brick frequently used for arranging fresh flowers. According to the offer, if the owner of Red Bud places an order with Aquafoam, she would be automatically registered to win $10,000 in a customer appreciation contest. This is an example of the combining of direct marketing with: A. a trade promotion. B. public relations. C. advertising. D. personal selling. E. a consumer promotion.

39. (p. 498) The manufacturer of 'Aleve' pain reliever offered a free sample of the product to visitors who registered at its Web site. In this case, the communications objective for the Web site was to: A. disseminate information. B. create a route for disintermediation. C. create an e-commerce site. D. stimulate trial. E. create a brand image.

TRUE

4. (p. 496) Developing and maintaining a successful website require significant time and effort.

40. (p. 477) To encourage customers to open mail offering them a subscription to Home Companion, the front of the envelope advised there was a gift inside. Inside was an attractively laminated bookmark. This is an example of combining direct marketing with: A. personal selling. B. support media. C. place-based media. D. product placement. E. advertising.

40. (p. 499) Direct selling of goods and services on the Internet is known as: A. direct response advertising. B. consumer-to-consumer selling. C. business-to-business selling. D. e-commerce. E. blogging.

41. (p. 477) Adding a(n) _____ to a direct mailer has proved to increase response rates. A. contest B. promotional product C. informercial D. needledrop E. sweeps period

41. (p. 499) E-commerce is _____ on the Internet. A. indirect distribution B. integrated marketing commerce C. direct sales D. personal selling E. business-to-business sales

42. (p. 477) The most common direct marketing objective that is typically expected by companies is: A. to seek a direct response. B. to increase awareness about a product/service. C. to increase knowledge of use of the product. D. to reduce post purchase dissonance. E. to sell the product at a higher price.

42. (p. 499) _____ is generally referred to as the first decade or so of the World Wide Web, ending with the "bursting of the dot-com bubble". A. E-commerce B. B2B selling C. Web 1.0 D. Web 2.0 E. Interstitial

43. (p. 477) A direct marketer usually seeks ____. A. to increase the brand image of the organization B. a direct response C. to build awareness of the brand D. increase long term sales E. inform customer about the product

50._____ are the dimensions or attributes of a product that are used to compare different alternatives. A. Evaluative criteria B. Attribute assignments C. Dissonance motives D. Consequences E. Reinforcement criteria

43. (p. 499) Which of the following statements is true about Web 1.0? A. It started with the 'bursting of the dot-com bubble'. B. It consists mainly of static sites. C. It provides for two-way flow of information. D. It has led to dramatic changes in the World Wide Web, with information provided by users as contributors. E. Web 2.0 users act as contributors in Web 1.0.

44. (p. 478) The success of a direct-marketing program is in large part tied to the ability to: A. combine advertising with direct marketing. B. do group marketing. C. do homeshopping. D. combine sales promotion with public relations. E. do one - to - one marketing.

44. (p. 500) The most common form of advertising on the Web is: A. pop-ups. B. interstitials. C. banners. D. links. E. video sharing.

45. (p. 478) Direct marketers make use of _____ to segment and target their markets. A. informercials B. sweeps periods C. databases D. TV spots E. junk mails

45. (p. 500) _____ may take on a variety of forms as well as a number of names such as side panels, skyscrapers, or verticals. A. Links B. Pop-ups C. Interstitials D. Pop-unders E. Banner ads

46. (p. 478) A ____, maintained by direct marketers, contains a listing of current and/or potential customers of the organization. A. informercial B. junk mail C. spot D. database E. response bag

46. (p. 500) Banner ads are also known as: A. interstitials. B. paid searches. C. pop-ups. D. side panels. E. links.

47. (p. 478) Direct marketers make use of database in order to: A. create informercials. B. segment and target their markets. C. position their product or service. D. develop their promotional mix. E. select the direct marketing strategies to be employed.

47. (p. 500) At the Web site for Ivillage.com, there is an ad that stretches across the top of the page for 'Clinique' cosmetics. If you click on the ad, it will take you to the 'Clinique' Web site where you can purchase Clinique cosmetics. The Clinique ad that appears at the iVillage Web site is an example of a(n): A. interstitial. B. banner. C. pop-up. D. sponsorship. E. paid search.

48. (p. 478) _____ is the use of specific information about individual customers and/or prospects to implement more effective and efficient marketing communications. A. Information mining B. Public relations C. Data warehousing D. A marketing information system (MIS) E. Database marketing

48. (p. 500) _____ occur when a company pays to sponsor a section of a site. A. Paid searches B. Interstitials C. Regular sponsorships D. Content sponsorships E. Irregular sponsorships

49. (p. 479) The National Geographic Society offers a variety of products to its subscribers through direct marketing. This is an example of: A. cross-selling. B. renewal marketing. C. an unethical business practice. D. membership-based marketing. E. remarketing.

49. (p. 500) Regular sponsorship occurs when: A. the sponsor participates in providing the content. B. the sponsor approves the content of the site. C. a company pays to sponsor a section of the site. D. the sponsor contributes all or part of the content. E. advertisers pay only when a consumer clicks on their ad or link from a search engine page.

True

5. (p. 476) Direct marketing is a form of advertising

FALSE

5. (p. 497) Web sites do not serve as powerful tools for developing a brand image, sampling, loyalty, and even generating sales.

50. (p. 500) If you go to the GirlsOn.com Web site, you'll find a book section sponsored by Amazon.com. Amazon.com, the largest retailer of books on the Internet also has a similar arrangement with Dogpile.com, and at other computer search engine Web sites. Amazon.com is using: A. a button. B. a banner. C. a regular sponsorship. D. an interstitial. E. push technology.

50. Message sidedness, order of presentation, and refutation are all related to which communication variable? A. channel B. source C. message structure D. receiver E. emotional appeals

50. The model representing the stages a salesperson must take a customer through in the personal selling process is the _____ model. A. AIDA B. hierarchy of results C. diffusion rate D. innovation-adoption E. information processing

50. Tiffany is the creative director of an ad agency. The agency has just been hired to develop a promotional campaign for a company that produces exercise videos for women. As part of her preparation for developing a creative strategy, Tiffany reviews some studies conducted on the overall fitness and exercise market as well as a report on the changing roles of women in society. This information is part of: A. general preplanning input. B. product-specific preplanning input. C. problem detection studies. D. illumination studies. E. brainstorming process.

50. When an advertiser cites technical information such as the results of laboratory studies in an advertisement, a(n) _____ execution is being used. A. dramatization B. slice-of-life C. scientific evidence D. testimonial E. animation

50. Which of the following statements about the role of ad agency media departments is true? A. Large advertisers do not use media departments to purchase media time and space. B. Media departments do not have the ability or the authority to negotiate prices. C. It reviews information on demographics, and consumers' television viewing habits. D. Consolidating media buying is not cost effective and may reduce media efficiency. E. The media buyer implements the media plan by selling the actual time and space.

50. You are working in the advertising department of a large consumer products company. You have suggested that the company use the DAGMAR approach for setting advertising goals. Which of the following is an example of an argument that you are likely to hear against the use of the DAGMAR approach to setting advertising goals? A. Communication should be the measure of advertising effectiveness rather than sales - oriented goals. B. DAGMAR approach is too creative and hence, leads to difficulty in understanding. C. DAGMAR can be quite expensive due to research costs and is therefore suitable only for large companies. D. DAGMAR is too quantitative for most managers to understand. E. DAGMAR is appropriate only in case of direct - response advertising.

51. Creative executives from the advertising industry might oppose the DAGMAR approach to setting objectives because it: A. inhibits their creativity by putting too much emphasis on numbers and the quantitative assessment of an advertising campaign. B. requires that speculative presentations be created and used to set benchmark measures. C. is only successful if it produces the desired sales results. D. does not provide any type of communication guidelines. E. is too concerned with qualitative assessments of the finished campaign.

51. During which stage of the consumer decision making process are both functional and psychosocial consequences important? A. Problem recognition B. Information search C. Postpurchase evaluation D. Alternative evaluation E. Purchase decision

51. Jonathan is a creative director at the Peet, Williams & Greene advertising agency. He spends an hour every morning reading publications like Advertising Age, The Wall Street Journal and Brand Week to gain a better understanding of what is happening in the world of marketing and advertising. This activity can be characterized as: A. general preplanning input. B. product-specific preplanning input. C. verification research. D. brainstorming. E. problem detection research.

51. Presenting the strongest arguments at the beginning of the commercial message assumes that a _____ is operating. A. primacy effect B. recency effect C. sleeper effect D. credibility effect E. compliance hierarchy

51. The _____ model is a response model that was developed for setting and measuring advertising objectives. A basic premise of this model is that advertising effects occur over a period of time. A. AIDA B. hierarchy of effects C. innovation-adoption D. adoption response E. diffusion rate

52. (p. 480) One of the main concerns relating to database marketing is: A. its similarity with customer relationship management. B. the invasion of privacy. C. the high actual cost per thousand. D. lack of selectivity. E. waste coverage.

53. (p. 480) DMA, in relation to direct marketing activities, stands for: A. Direct Marketing Advertising. B. Direct Mail Ads. C. Database Marketing Advertisements D. Direct Marketing Association E. Direct Marketing Agency

54. (p. 480) SRDS, a United States organization provides information regarding both consumer and business lists. SRDS stands for: A. Standard Rate Dialling Service. B. Standard Rate and Data Service. C. Standard Rate Direct Source. D. State Residency Direct Service. E. Standard Real Data Source.

55. (p. 480) ____ conducts an annual study of customers who buy at home via mail, telephone, or Internet. It compiles information on total orders placed, types of products purchased, demographics, and purchase satisfaction, among others. A. The U.S census Bureau B. Standard Rate and Data Service (SRDS) C. The U.S Postal Service D. Direct Mail lists and data E. Simmons Market Research Bureau (SMRB)

56. "Thirteen percent of all American males are shorter than 5'6". A retail store that sells exclusively to men of this size is using: A. market aggregation. B. undifferentiated marketing. C. concentrated marketing. D. market atomization. E. demographic segmentation.

56. (p. 481) To determine the effectiveness of a database, the U.S. Postal Service recommends an RFM scoring method. The letters RFM stand for: A. recency, frequency and monetary transactions between the company and the customer. B. rate of sales, fixed use fee paid, and markets reached. C. relationship between the company and the customer, frequency of the sale, and monetary transactions between the company and the customer. D. reach, frequency, and markets reached. E. ratio of inquiries to sales, frequency of sales, and market share

57. (p. 481) _____ is a method of collecting and storing a large amount of regularly updated information about the customers in the database. A. Customer development index B. Focus groups C. Delphi method D. RFM scoring method E. Cost per order method

58. (p. 481) Walmart employs a method of collecting and storing data about their customers in which data is entered each time a purchase is made by the customer. This enables the company to track how recently purchases have been made, how often they are made, and what amounts of money are being spent. This helps it in maintaining better relation with its customers. Which of the following methods of maintaining a database is employed by Walmart? A. Delphi technique B. Cost per order method C. RFM scoring method D. Customer development index E. One step approach

True

6. (p. 476) Both direct marketing and advertising could support one another.

TRUE

6. (p. 497) Internet is both a communication as well as a direct response medium.

60. (p. 481) In the _____ approach of direct marketing, the medium is used directly to obtain an order. A. one-to-one B. one-to-many C. indirect D. one-step E. two-step

61. (p. 481) All the television commercials and other print ads that urge the customer to pick up the phone and call the toll free number to place an order immediately make use of the _____ approach of direct marketing. A. one-step B. two-step C. one-to-one D. indirect E. telemarketing

62. (p. 481) The goal of the _____ approach of direct marketing is to generate an immediate sale when the ad is shown. A. two-step B. one-step C. RFM scoring D. indirect E. all-in-one

63. (p. 481) The _____ approach of direct marketing involves the use of more than one medium. A. two-step B. one-step C. RFM scoring D. indirect E. all-in-one

64. (p. 481) Under the two-step approach of direct marketing, the first effort is designed to screen or qualify the potential buyers and the second effort: A. generates the response. B. is designed to increase awareness about the product. C. reduces the post purchase dissonance. D. increases knowledge about the use of the product. E. creates interest in the product

100. (p. 34) _____ refer to what the firm seeks to accomplish with its promotional program and are often stated in terms of the nature of the message to be communicated. A. Communication objectives B. Sales quotas C. Advertising platforms D. Shaping goals E. External analysis factors

65. (p. 481) Which of the following companies employ a one-step approach to direct marketing? A. The QVC shopping network. B. A magazine subscription service that sends an announcement of an upcoming sweepstakes. C. An ad advising television viewers to watch their mailboxes for a way to earn free calling cards. D. A company asking if a homeowner is interested in an estimate for a vinyl siding. E. An advertisement for band - aid announcing free gifts on purchase of band - aids worth $10 and above. In the one-step approach, the medium is used directly to obtain an order. You've probably seen TV commercials for products like wrench sets, workout equipment, or magazine subscriptions in which the viewer is urged to phone a toll-free number to place an order immediately. The major shopping channel in the United States (QVC) offers about 1,150 products a week for sale, broadcasting 24 hours/day and online.

66. (p. 481) To purchase cookware, music CDs, and exercise videos advertised on television consumers are asked to call a toll-free telephone number. Viewers are instructed to have their credit cards handy when they call to place the order. This form of direct marketing is referred to as: A. outbound telemarketing. B. videotext. C. the one-step approach. D. the two-step approach. E. support marketing

67. (p. 481) When a direct advertising medium is designed to directly obtain an order, the _____ approach is being used? A. two-step B. indirect C. direct D. one-step E. bulls-eye

68. (p. 481) In direct marketing situations, when it is necessary to screen or qualify potential buyers, it is advisable to use: A. the two-step approach. B. the one-step approach. C. direct mail rather than telemarketing. D. direct-response television. E. SMRB's data on direct marketing purchasers

69. (p. 481) The two-step approach to direct marketing: A. asks for an immediate sale. B. uses the first contact to screen potential buyers. C. is commonly found in direct sales. D. is followed by a professional sales call. E. is similar to missionary selling.

True

7. (p. 477) Telemarketing and direct selling are two methods of personal selling used to generate sales.

FALSE

7. (p. 497) Internet is known as a communication medium as it allows the users to both purchase and sell products through e-commerce.

70. (p. 481) A television commercial in which Publishers Clearing House urges consumers to look in their mailboxes for soon-to-arrive sweepstakes entries is an example of: A. sweeps marketing. B. add-on marketing. C. specialty advertising. D. the one-step approach to direct marketing. E. the two-step approach to direct marketing.

71. (p. 481) _____ is often called the 'junk mail'. A. Sweepstake B. Informercial C. TV spot D. Direct mail E. Database marketing

72. (p. 482) Market segmentation in the direct marketing industry: A. is not a viable strategy. B. is used effectively by only a few large companies. C. is considered less efficient than mass mailings. D. is directly tied to the mailing list. E. is unnecessary because demographic and geographic selectivity exist without any segmentation

73. (p. 482) Keys to the success of direct mail are the ____, which constitutes the database from which names are generated, and the ability to segment markets and, of course the offer. A. mailing lists B. informercials C. TV spots D. web pages E. shopping networks

74. (p. 482) Which of the following statements is true about mailing lists? A. They lead to a lot of waste coverage. B. They have become more current and selective leading to increased effectiveness. C. The most commonly used lists include a set of heterogeneous people. D. The most commonly used lists are of people who have never tried the product. E. The most commonly used lists are of individuals who have used competitor's products

75. (p. 482) Companies like A. B. Zeller, Experian, and Nielsen Business Media provide _____ on a national level, and in most metropolitan areas there are firms providing the same service locally. A. TV spots B. network communications C. mailing lists D. infomercials E. marketing loans

77. (p. 483) Which of the following statements is true about the use of catalogs in the direct-marketing industry? A. Most business-to-business marketers use print catalogs. B. The number of catalogs mailed since 1984 has decreased significantly. C. Many companies use catalogs in conjunction with their more traditional sales and promotional strategies. D. There is no company today that relies solely on catalog sales. E. The number of catalog shoppers has steadily declined since 1984.

78. (p. 483) Which of the following statements is true about the use of broadcast media by the direct-marketing industry? A. Direct-response advertising is the broadcast industry does not use support advertising. B. More direct-response advertising is broadcast on radio than on television. C. The use of broadcast media over the next five years is expected to increase at a faster rate than ever before. D. The two-step approach is often used with direct-response advertising on the radio. E. When a toll-free number is included in a direct-response ad, it is called support advertising.

79. (p. 483) In direct-response marketing, the "direct response" sought is: A. sales. B. awareness. C. attitude change. D. changes in perception. E. return on investment (ROI).

True

8. (p. 477) The main objective of direct marketing is to seek a direct response.

FALSE

8. (p. 497) Internet serves as the most effective tools for creating awareness of the organization and its products especially in case of large companies

80. (p. 483) Direct marketing in the broadcast industry involves both direct-response advertising and: A. supplementary promotions. B. support advertising. C. a one-step direct marketing approach to sales. D. add-on marketing. E. sweeps marketing

100. (p. 558) Money that must be paid to a retailer so it will take on a company's new product is known as: A. slotting allowances. B. failure fees. C. spiffs. D. new product fees. E. trade discounts.

81. (p. 483) _____ is a type of direct marketing that is designed to do exactly that—supports other forms of advertising. A. Outdoor advertising B. Publicity C. Support advertising D. Sales promotion E. Direct response advertising

82. (p. 483) A television ad for Pizza Hut telling you to look in your mailbox for coupon offers that will save you big bucks on your next pizza order is an example of: A. supplementary promotion. B. support advertising. C. a one-step direct marketing approach. D. add-on marketing. E. sweeps marketing.

83. (p. 484) Which of the following statements concerning infomercials is true? A. Infomercials are only useful for marketing fads. B. Even critics of infomercials do not consider them to be deceptive. C. The lower costs on cable and satellite channels led to the growth of the infomercial. D. By law, infomercials have to be at least 30 minutes in length. E. Infomercials typically move consumers into the conviction stage of the hierarchy of effects model.

86. (p. 486) Due to clutter and relatively high costs, the use of _____ by direct marketers does not result in returns as high as those for other forms of direct marketing media. A. magazines and newspapers B. television and radio C. direct mail and catalogs D. newspapers, television, and radio E. newspapers, magazines, and catalogs

87. (p. 486) Which of the following statements about telemarketing is true? A. Telemarketing is defined as sales without face-to-face contact between the buyer and the seller. B. One of the problems that used to be associated with telemarketing is its potential for fraud and deception, but that problem has been completely eliminated by rigorous self-monitoring. C. Business-to-business marketers do not use telemarketing. D. Telemarketing is only used by for-profit companies. E. Telemarketing relates to sales by telephone.

88. (p. 486) _____ is the direct, personal presentation, demonstration and sales of products to consumers in their homes. A. A need-stimulus sales presentation B. Direct marketing C. A personal shopper program D. Consultative selling E. Direct selling

89. (p. 486) Which of the following are forms of direct selling? A. Repetitive person-to-person selling, non-repetitive person-to-person selling, and party plans B. Home shopping, out-of-home shopping, vending, and manufacturers' agents C. Party plans, out-of-home shopping, and non-repetitive person-to-person selling D. Manufacturers' sales representatives, party plans, and non-repetitive person-to-person selling E. Brokers, manufacturers' agents, party plans, and professional sales

FALSE

9. (p. 498) Internet, though very effective in disseminating information to specific target groups, costs much more when compared to other media.

90. (p. 486) In case of ____, the salesperson visits the buyer's home, job site, or other location to sell frequently purchased products or services. A. repetitive person-to-person selling B. non-repetitive person-to-person selling C. party plans D. homeshopping E. telemarketing

91. (p. 486) In case of ____, the salesperson visits the buyer's home, job site, or other location to sell infrequently purchased products or services. A. repetitive person-to-person selling B. non-repetitive person-to-person selling C. party plans D. homeshopping E. telemarketing

92. (p. 486) An Electrolux vacuum cleaner salesperson selling door-to-door is an example of which form of direct selling? A. Repetitive person-to-person selling B. Party plan C. Two-step approach D. Non-repetitive person-to-person selling E. Support selling

93. (p. 486) In case of ____, the salesperson offers products or services to groups of people through home or office parties and demonstrations. A. repetitive person-to-person selling B. non-repetitive person-to-person selling C. party plans D. homeshopping E. telemarketing

94. (p. 487) Advertisers can measure the relative effectiveness of a direct marketing campaign quickly by looking at: A. cost per thousand (CPM). B. the breakeven point. C. reach and frequency. D. cost per order (CPO). E. net sales.

95. (p. 487) Which effectiveness measure is most commonly employed in direct marketing? A. Cost per order (CPO) B. Cost per thousand (CPM) C. Cost per man-hour (CPMH) D. Cost per new prospect (CPNP) E. Sales per database name (SDN)

96. (p. 487) _____ is a measure of cost effectiveness of advertising employed by direct marketers. A. Cost per thousand B. Cost per ratings point C. Cost per order D. frequency and reach E. Breakeven point

97. (p. 488) Which of the following describes an advantage offered by direct marketing to advertisers? A. Personalization of messages B. Ability to create a mood C. Exclusive image D. High-budgeted direct-response ads on television E. Accuracy of list

98. (p. 489) Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with direct marketing? A. Poor image B. Poor selectivity C. Inability to measure effectiveness D. Long lead time E. Lack of creative flexibility

99. (p. 489) Disadvantages inherent in the use direct marketing include: A. difficulty in obtaining effectiveness measurements. B. poor image factors. C. lack of flexibility. D. difficulty in acquiring TV time. E. lack of personalization.

101. (p. 34) _____ should be the guiding force for development of the overall marketing communications strategy and of objectives for each element of the promotional mix. A. Communication objectives B. Sales objectives C. Marketing objectives D. Promotional objectives E. Production objectives

101. (p. 558) Which of the following statements is true about the slotting allowances charged by many retailers? A. Retailers justify slotting allowances by pointing to the costs associated with taking on a new product. B. Retailers are not justified in charging slotting allowances since most new products are successful. C. Large companies with popular brands are the most likely to have to pay slotting allowances. D. Slotting allowances are illegal and banned by the federal government. E. The costs slotting allowances add to new product introductions are minimal.

102. (p. 34) What is the next stage in the IMC planning process, once marketing and communication objectives have been set? A. Budget determination B. Implementation of those objectives C. Media selection scheduling D. Recruitment of marketing and promotion personnel E. Development of the IMC program

102. (p. 558) Some retailers have demanded payment for new products that do not reach a minimum sales target. These payments are called: A. failure fees. B. slotting allowances. C. push monies. D. slotting fees. E. street monies.

103. (p. 34) The development of the advertising message that the marketer wants to convey to its target audience is called _____, and the determination of which communications channels to use to deliver the message is _____. A. creative strategy; media strategy B. media strategy; message strategy C. the marketing program; the communications program D. the Five Cs; the 4 Ms E. message strategy; channel strategy

106. (p. 560) The five resorts in the Bahamas that combined their promotional budgets to sponsor an "It's better in the Bahamas'" ad campaign, is an example of: A. horizontal cooperative advertising. B. vertical cooperative advertising. C. integrated dyadic communications. D. ingredient-producer co-op advertising. E. a joint trade promotion.

29. (p. 18) Clave, a large soap manufacturing firm, has come up with a new soap known as 'Honeydew' for the masses across various countries. It wants to promote the soap to mass audiences across various countries in a persuasive and cost effective manner and at the same time enhance the overall company image. It has a promotional budget of about $1,000,000. Which of the following forms of promotion should Clave make use of for promotion of 'Honeydew'? A. Advertising B. Direct marketing C. Personal selling D. Sales promotion E. Publicity

62. (p. 540) Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with bounce back coupons? A. It does not attract non-users of the particular brand. B. It is redeemable on the purchase of a different product. C. It does not induce customers to repurchase the brand. D. It is not useful for a brand that has reached the maturity stage. E. It is not useful for products that are in their early phases of their life cycle.

According to Robert Smith, _____ ads contain attractive shapes and colors. A. synthesis B. animatic C. originality D. artistic value E. illumination

According to Robert Smith, _____ ads contain different ideas or switch from one perspective to another. A. originality B. synthesis C. flexibility D. relevant E. animatic

According to Robert Smith, _____ ads contain elements that are rare, surprising, or move away from the obvious and commonplace. A. originality B. illuminative C. artistic value D. synthesis E. animatic

According to Robert Smith, _____ ads contain unexpected details or finish and extend basic ideas so they become more intricate, complicated, or sophisticated. A. originality B. flexibility C. elaboration D. animatic E. synthesis

Which of the following is a geographic variable for segmentation of the market? A. Family size B. Occasions C. Cities D. Age E. Gender

A _____ appeal is used when the advertiser makes either a direct or an indirect comparison to another brand and usually claims superiority on one or more attributes. A. feature B. popularity C. competitive advantage D. technical E. news

A _____ is a group of contemporaries, all born during the same period, having shared interests and attitudes. A. social class B. culture C. subculture D. generation E. reference group

A _____ is a group whose presumed perspective or values are used by an individual as the basis for his or her judgments, opinions, and actions. A. subculture B. social class C. reference group D. demographic group E. cultural mix

A _____ is an agency organizational structure in which each functional area is set up as a separate department. The parts of this structure are called on as needed to perform their particular specialty and serve all of the agency's clients. A. departmental system B. group system C. creative boutique D. matrix system E. media buying service system

A _____ is the influence the medium has on a message. A. qualitative media effect B. quantitative media effect C. media mix effect D. promotional mix influence E. self-paced effect

A brand's market position refers to its: A. relative market share. B. location on store shelves. C. image in the mind of the customers. D. distribution intensity. E. stage in the product life cycle.

A commercial for a floor-cleaner shows a young mother having to clean her kitchen floor after feeding her toddler. This _____ commercial is effective in part because it utilizes high source similarity. A. comparative B. reputational C. slice-of-life D. spokesperson-oriented E. power-based

A company that wants to generate a source bolster could: A. create a rational message. B. hire a popular celebrity to serve as a spokesperson. C. use non-traditional channels. D. eliminate noise from the communication process. E. encode without consideration for the target audience's field of reference.

A company with a limited promotional budget and few funds for advertising and promotion is likely to use: A. a promotional pull strategy. B. a promotional push strategy. C. a brand equity strategy. D. a gravity-oriented strategy. E. any of the above.

A company with a substantial advertising budget with little or no awareness in the target market should: A. maximize frequency and sacrifice reach. B. maximize reach. C. maximize coverage. D. use maximum continuity. E. use a pulsing push strategy.

A product that may be consumed throughout the year, but has seasonal periods where consumption is higher would most logically employ a(n) _____ scheduling method. A. continuous B. pulsing C. flighting D. oscillating E. weighted ratings

A consortium of nine major advertisers recently joined Television Production Partners, a new venture that develops movies, specials, and limited-run series for television. The members will choose the programs they want to be involved with and take a portion of the commercial spots during these shows. The nine advertisers are using a(n) _____ type of advertising arrangement. A. sponsorship B. spot C. adjacency D. syndication E. countertrade

A magazine ad picturing a young boy using a toilet has the headline, "Don't expect Windex Wipes to do a Clorox Wipes job," and the copy explains that Windex is a disinfectant and Clorox is a disinfectant as well as a cleanser. This ad is an example of: A. confrontational advertising. B. two-sided advertising. C. comparative advertising. D. a verbal appeal. E. refutational advertising.

A magazine entitled Natural Health: The Guide to True Wellness would have a strong _____ on an ad for organic produce. A. externally paced impact B. positive quantitative media effect C. cluttered effect D. shaping effect E. positive qualitative media effect

A major argument put forth by defenders of the commission system is that a commission: A. keeps the agencies from placing advertising in expensive media. B. ties agency compensation to the inflation in media costs. C. is very complex to administer. D. is simple and keeps the emphasis in agency compensation on non-price factors. E. encourages agencies to use noncommissionable media such as direct mail.

A major reason why some companies choose to use an in-house agency is to: A. maintain creative freshness. B. reduce advertising and promotions costs. C. compete with external advertising agencies. D. win advertising awards that will enhance the image of their brands. E. disseminate control to outside agencies.

A marketer may not want to put weak arguments at the beginning of an advertising message because this action may: A. reduce the level of counterargument. B. increase retention of the message. C. lead to a high level of counterargument. D. increase the level of interest in the message. E. deter recipients from drawing their own conclusions.

A marketer may want to use a message that draws an explicit conclusion for a target audience if the audience is: A. highly involved with the topic. B. highly educated. C. low in complexity. D. exposed to the message frequently. E. less educated.

A marketer of supercomputers would recruit individuals with backgrounds in computer science and engineering to work as salespeople in order to ensure its sales force has high levels of: A. expertise. B. trustworthiness. C. attractiveness. D. attention. E. yielding.

A marketer should present the strong points at the beginning of an advertisement only when: A. the target audience supports and can connect well with the communicators' position and the message. B. the target audience is not interested in the topic. C. the target audience is interested in the topic. D. the target audience has used the product and has favorable image of the product. E. immediate action is an objective.

A measure of potential reach in the broadcast industry is the TV or ____. A. Radio sweeps periods B. Radio frequency C. Radio index numbers D. Radio duplicated reach E. Radio program rating

A media selection problem whereby the coverage of the media vehicle goes beyond the scope of the target audience is known as: A. rate differentials. B. pass-along audience problems. C. excess frequency. D. waste coverage. E. weighted exposure.

A mobile phone company uses Catherine Zeta-Jones in all of its print and broadcast advertising. The extremely attractive and talented English-born actress is used because she is more likely to attract the potential consumers of mobile phones. In terms of the response stages of the persuasion matrix, the mobile phone company is trying to influence: A. reception. B. channel. C. attention. D. presentation. E. behavior.

A network supplies programming and services to a series of local TV stations, or ____, which contract to preempt time during specified hours for programming provided by the networks and carry national advertising within their programming. A. satellite networks B. local nets C. affiliates D. station reps E. regional networks

A personal computer manufacturer has developed a significant technological breakthrough that will make its computers easier to use for novices. The computer manufacturer will probably use _____ appeal to announce the breakthrough. A. favorable price B. emotional C. news D. popularity E. transformational

A potential problem of using advertising with a strong fear appeal message to try to discourage drug abuse by teenagers is that: A. there is no appropriate medium. B. fear appeals never work with teenagers. C. a message with a high level of fear may have inhibiting effects and be tuned out by teenagers. D. the high fear message may not work among teenagers who are low in self-confidence and want to avoid the issue. E. parents may be offended if the message is perceived as too frightening.

A print ad for flood insurance lists twenty good reasons why every homeowner should have flood insurance. This is an example of _____ advertising. A. straight-sell B. transformational C. testimonial D. teaser E. refutational

A product manager for a new brand of laundry detergent must: A. increase problem recognition for detergent purchases. B. interrupt consumers' routine choice behavior and get them to consider a new brand. C. maintain a lower price than competitors. D. provide detailed information to consumers. E. create pioneering advertising.

A radio commercial begins with the following line: "Our competitors think we can't sell furniture for so little money, but we want our customers to know that we work hard to bring you value for your dollar, and our prices are for real." The furniture store is using a(n) _____ appeal. A. one-sided B. functional C. emotional D. refutational E. slice-of-life

A retailer wants to advertise its "Back-to-School" sale in a city that has two daily newspapers. There are 450,000 subscribers to Newspaper A and 520,000 subscribers to Newspaper B. The two-page ad in Newspaper A costs $20,000, and the same ad will cost $22,000 in Newspaper B. What else would the retailer need to know to compare the CPM effectiveness of these two newspapers? A. The newspaper that has readers who have school-aged children B. The brand development index of each of the newspapers C. The CPP for both D. The daily inch rate E. The socioeconomic status of subscribers to each newspaper

A retailer wants to run an ad announcing that the new Harry Potter book will be available at the store next Saturday. There are two newspapers in the community in which the retailer operates. An ad in Newspaper A will cost $500, and an ad in Newspaper B will cost $375. Newspaper A has a circulation of 10,000, and Newspaper B has a circulation of 8,000. After calculating the cost per thousand (CPM), you know that: A. Newspaper A is the more cost-effective buy. B. both newspapers are equally cost-effective. C. Newspaper B is the more cost-effective buy. D. neither newspaper is cost-effective. E. the cost per program rating for newspaper B is $50.

A spokesperson who delivers an advertising message and/or demonstrates a product or service is known as a(n): A. direct source. B. indirect source. C. message shaper. D. source mirage. E. source echo.

A stereo speaker manufacturer developed advertising objectives, which stated that the goal of the company's new ad campaign is "To communicate our ability to create an environment of total audio ambience in the home." This statement could serve as an example of a: A. target audience delineation. B. benchmark measure. C. communications task. D. sales objective. E. short-term promotional objective.

A study by Elizabeth Hirschman examined the perceptions of individuals involved in the creation and production of television commercials and found: A. product managers view advertising from an aesthetic perspective. B. product managers and account executives both view advertising as a promotional tool whose primary purpose is to communicate favorable impressions about a brand. C. art directors and copywriters view advertising primarily as a promotional tool whose primary function is to communicate information. D. brand managers prefer creative commercials that take risks. E. art directors and copywriters evaluate advertising on the basis of how well it fulfills predefined communications objectives.

A typical direct-response agency is divided into three main departments. They are: A. customer relations, production, and traffic. B. media, customer relations, and sales. C. sales, account management, and production. D. account management, creative, and media. E. creative, traffic, and financial.

A(n) ____ is a series of drawings used to present the visual plan or layout of a commercial along with a description of the audio for each scene. A. animatic B. rough layout C. storyboard D. creative map E. copy platform

A(n) _____ doesn't actually deliver a message but draws attention to and/or enhances the appearance of the ad. A. direct source B. indirect source C. message shaper D. source mirage E. source echo

A(n) _____ is a document that evolves from an organization's overall corporate strategy and serves as a guide for specific marketing programs and policies. A. strategic marketing plan B. integrated marketing communications plan C. situation analysis D. opportunity analysis E. competitive plan

A(n) _____ is a series of advertising messages in a variety of media that center on a single theme or idea. A. advertising campaign B. copy platform C. unique proposition D. creative blueprint E. creative work plan

A(n) _____ is a work plan or checklist that is used to guide the creative development of an advertising message or campaign. A. animatic B. working document C. copy platform D. selling idea E. unique selling proposition

A(n) _____ is an advertising agency that is set up, owned, and operated by the advertiser. A. creative boutique B. full service agency C. in-house agency D. self sufficient agency E. collateral agency

A(n) _____ is an agency that specializes in and provides only creative services. A. creative boutique B. full-service agency C. in-house advertising agency D. decentralized organizational system E. media boutique

A(n) _____ is an individual who specializes in helping clients choose their advertising agencies. A. media specialist B. ad agency review consultant C. account representative D. brand manager E. compensation specialist

A(n) _____ is an outside firm that specializes in the creation, production and/or placement of the communications message and that may provide other marketing and promotions related services. A. media organization B. sales promotion firm C. research organization D. advertising agency E. creative boutique

A(n) _____ is the type of firm an organization would hire to develop and implement programs to manage the organization's publicity and affairs with consumers and other relevant publics. A. public relations agency B. advertising agency C. media mix organization D. creative boutique E. direct-response agency

A(n) _____ refers to the approach used in an advertisement to elicit some consumer response or influence feeling. The way this approach is turned into an advertising message is the ____. A. advertising appeal; advertising campaign B. creative execution style; advertising appeal C. creative execution style; advertising campaign D. advertising appeal; creative execution style E. brand image; positioning

A(n) ______ is a type of compensation arrangement where an agency charges a client a fixed monthly amount of money for all of its services and credits to the client any media commissions earned. A. fixed fee B. negotiated commission C. cost-plus agreement D. incentive-based compensation E. fee-commission combination

A(n) ______ primary function is to provide information or entertainment to its audience. A. client's B. advertising agency's C. media's D. customer's E. advertiser's

According to McCann-Erickson's concept of emotional bonding, the strongest relationship that develops between a brand and a consumer is based on: A. product benefits. B. brand personality. C. feelings or emotional attachments to the brand. D. rational motives. E. competitive advantage over similar products in the market.

According to D'Arcy Masius Benton & Bowles's agency, _____ is the vehicle that transforms the strategy into a dynamic, creative communications concept. A. the Positioning Idea B. the Illumination Idea C. the Divergence Idea D. the Power Idea E. the Imagery Idea

According to DAGMAR, advertising objectives should be written in measurable terms that specify: A. a communications task, a target market, a benchmark starting point, a time period, and degree of change sought. B. a budget, a message strategy, a media plan, and the degree of carryover effect desired. C. the reach, frequency, and point of wearout for advertising messages. D. the purchase motives, demographic composition, and buying habits of the target market. E. sales potentials, market share, return on investment, and budget forecasts.

According to DAGMAR, the basic function of advertising is to: A. create sales. B. communicate. C. increase market share. D. generate action. E. change behavior.

According to Duncan's zero-based marketing communications planning approach, A. advertising should always be the main tool for accomplishing marketing communications objectives B. sales promotion is usually the best tool for accomplishing marketing communications objectives C. big ideas for a promotional campaign can be based on public relations, advertising, sales promotion or media advertising D. integrated marketing communications programs should lead with the promotional function that least effectively addresses a company's communication problem or opportunity E. managers should focus on what the customer wants and work backward to the brand

According to James Webb Young, a former creative vice president at the J. Walter Thompson agency, the production of creative advertising ideas: A. is a random process that cannot be taught. B. does not follow a definitive plan. C. cannot be learned and controlled. D. is a definitive process that can be learned and controlled. E. has as many different routes as there are different forms of creativity.

According to McCann-Erickson's concept of emotional bonding, the most basic relationship a consumer has with a brand is how he or she thinks about the: A. emotional ties he or she has with the product and/or brand. B. brand personality. C. product benefits. D. self-actualization motives for purchasing. E. self-esteem motives that will be affected by the purchase.

According to Robert Smith, _____ ads combine, connect, or blend normally unrelated objects or ideas. A. originality B. synthesis C. flexibility D. animatic E. elaboration

According to Robert Smith, the two ways in which relevance could be achieved are: A. ad-to-brand relevance and brand-to-ad relevance. B. ad-to-producer relevance and brand-to producer relevance. C. ad-to-producer relevance and brand-to-consumer relevance. D. ad-to-consumer relevance and brand-to-producer relevance. E. ad-to-consumer relevance and brand-to-consumer relevance.

According to Robert Steiner, which of the following terms is synonymous with contribution margin? A. Total revenue generated by a product B. Net worth C. Financial optimization D. Marginal analysis E. Total profit generated by a product

According to Young's model of the creative process, the _____ step deals with gathering raw material and information through background research and immersing yourself in the problem. A. problem detection B. illumination C. immersion D. reality E. incubation

According to ____, a media buyer for a manufacturer of paintball guns would be better satisfied with the ad's performance if he or she purchased an ad in Paintball Sports magazine rather than Sports Illustrated, even though the cost per thousand of Paintball sports is much higher than Sports Illustrated. A. the theory of absolute cost B. the concept of effective reach C. target cost per thousand (TCPM) D. the gross rating points (GRPs) measurement E. the theory of duplicated reach

According to the DAGMAR model, which of the following is a characteristic of a good objective? A. A good objective is elaborative in nature. B. A good objective specifies the target audience. C. A good objective includes both positive and negative points. D. A good objective specifies the current market share. E. A good objective is based on sales results.

According to the FCB planning model, a package goods company might want to send out free samples to generate trial and follow this with discount coupons to encourage repeat purchase when using a(n) _____ strategy. A. informative B. affective C. habit formation D. self-satisfaction E. counter arguing

According to the FCB planning model, for which of the following products would an affective strategy be most appropriate? A. Storm windows B. Bag of cat litter C. Can of Planter's peanuts D. A liquid dishwasher E. Cosmetics

According to the S-shaped response curve, A. the effects of advertising quickly begin to diminish. B. the carryover effect is especially true for low-priced, frequently purchased consumer products. C. sales decrease rapidly if the price is too high. D. initial outlays of the advertising budget have little impact on sales. E. sales are not directly related to the size of the advertising budget.

According to the _____ hierarchy, advertisers of products like light bulbs, ketchup, computer paper, nail clippers, and other items bought without a lot of thought need to use a heavy repetition strategy. A. individual response B. standard learning C. dissonance-attribution D. low-involvement E. high involvement

According to the _____, the consumer is an active participant in the communication process and gathers information through active learning. A. standard learning hierarchy B. low-involvement hierarchy C. dissonance/attribution model D. peripheral processing model E. maximum likelihood model

According to the criteria outlined in DAGMAR, which of the following is the best statement of a quantitative communications objective? A. "Increase product users to 40 percent of the total market." B. "Win new customers and increase sales volume by 15 percent in 6 months." C. "Increase the number of customers mentioning the brand name when asked for brand preference from 40 percent to 50 percent in one year." D. "Increase awareness of the brand in one year." E. "Increase sales revenue by 10 percent."

According to the dissonance/attribution model, the consumer passes through which of the following response sequences during the decision making process? A. learn feel do B. learn do feel C. feel learn do D. do feel learn E. do learn feel

According to the low-involvement hierarchy, the consumer passes through which response sequence during the purchase decision making process? A. learn feel do B. learn do feel C. do feel learn D. feel learn do E. do learn feel

According to the marketing and promotions process model, the marketing process begins with the: A. development of the marketing mix. B. development of a marketing strategy and analysis. C. development of the promotional mix. D. determination of the target market. E. establishment of marketing objectives.

According to the persuasion matrix, which of the following is a dependable variable of the communications model? A. Source B. Message C. Comprehension D. Channel E. Type of message appeal

According to the persuasion matrix, which of the following is an independent variable or stage in the response process? A. Attention B. Comprehension C. Destination D. Yielding E. Retention

According to the sleeper effect phenomenon, A. the impact of persuasive messages diminishes over time. B. people retain advertising messages when they see them right before going to bed and rehearse them in their sleep. C. the impact of persuasive messages from low-credibility sources can increase over time, since the message content becomes disassociated from the source. D. the impact of persuasive messages from low-credibility sources decreases over time, since people forget the content of the message. E. people instinctively disassociate low-credibility sources from messages when they are paying less than full attention to the message.

According to the standard learning model, the consumer passes through which of the following response sequences during the decision making process? A. learn feel do B. learn do feel C. feel learn do D. do feel learn E. do learn feel

According to the universal advertising standards developed by the D'Arcy Masius Benton & Bowles agency, a creative advertising message is built around: A. an unique selling plan (USP). B. a strong brand image. C. a power idea or a creative core. D. the slice-of-life concept. E. dramatization.

According to the work of sociologist Graham Wallace, the four-step approach to the creative process includes: A. preparation, incubation, illumination, and verification. B. immersion, brainstorming, creation, and reality check. C. preparation, illumination, creation, and verification. D. preparation, immersion, creation, and verification. E. immersion, incubation, illumination, and creation.

According to those who believe in subliminal advertising, effective symbols, such as skulls and cross bones, phallic symbols and words such as "sex", are embedded in the ads. The use of these symbols to stimulate consumers' motives would receive support from _____ theory. A. cognitive B. reinforcement C. behavioral learning D. psychoanalytical E. operant learning

According to well-known advertising executive John O'Toole, a flash of insight that joins together a product benefit with what consumers desire in a fresh, involving way is called a(n): A. unique selling theme. B. epiphany. C. revelation. D. big idea. E. illumination.

Account planning has become a very important and demanding function in many agencies because: A. public relations has replaced advertising to achieve global integrated marketing communications. B. budgeting services have reduced the redundancy associated with on-task account planning. C. marketing research has expanded the creative capacity of ad agencies. D. of the increase in the number of marketing communication channels and ways of contacting consumers. E. of the reducing roles of account executives.

Account planning plays an important role during creative strategy development by: A. making sure the client knows the agency has the final say on which strategy will be used. B. driving the process from the customers' point of view. C. making sure all advertising complies with local, state, and FTC regulations. D. determining whether the account should be accepted. E. forecasting demand for the product category.

Ad campaigns centered around the theme, "Pork, the Other White Meat" is designed to show consumers that pork is not all fat as some people think. These ads are using _____ to convince consumers that pork is as lean as chicken. A. conclusion drawing B. fear appeal C. refutational appeal D. humorous appeal E. affective conclusion

AdonDemand, a new advertising agency in San Diego, is offering its clients various services such as marketing, sales promotion, research, promotion, package designing, direct marketing, publicity along with planning, creating, and producing the advertising. Company A is a(n): A. creative boutique. B. full-service agency. C. media buying organization. D. in-house agency. E. media specialist company.

Ads are often called _____. A. animatics B. copy platforms C. creative D. work plans E. storyboards

Ads for Oneida flatware are frequent, show a piece of Oneida flatware, the headline, "ONEIDA," and the slogan "Your table is ready" in small print. This type of ad is intended as _____ advertising. A. transformational B. reminder C. rational D. emotional integration E. favorable price

Ads for consumer finance companies are often aimed at people making annual salaries of $25,000 or less. Consumer finance companies are using _____ segmentation. A. geographic B. demographic C. lifestyle D. behavioristic E. personality

Ads for cruises, vacation time shares, and resort areas often show a couple enjoying quiet time together. Many of these ads contain two men or two women rather than a man and a woman in order to appeal to the lucrative gay market. This type of ad campaign with same sex couples is an example of how _____ affect marketing. A. demographic groups B. subcultures C. cultures D. social classes E. reference groups

Ads reminding people to use the FEDEX by dialing 1-800-GOFEDEX are based on: A. a subliminal technique. B. classical conditioning. C. reinforcement theory. D. a mnemonic. E. shaping.

Advertisements for Planter's nuts describe the nuts as a delicious snack food for everyone. The television commercials show animals that eat nuts as part of their usual diet trying to convince humans to share their Planter's nuts. Which of the following can be identified as a channel for this ad? A. Television B. Computer-generated animals C. Increase in the sales of Planter's nuts D. The can of Planter's nuts shown in the ad E. The people in the ad

Advertisers can prevent consumers from zapping commercials by: A. introducing "commercial-free" programming. B. producing commercials that are meaningful and that attract and hold attention. C. devising shorter commercial formats. D. using product placements. E. advertising more on cable television.

Advertisers who want the ability to demonstrate how their product operates and actually show its use are most likely to choose: A. radio. B. television. C. direct mail. D. magazines. E. newspapers.

Advertisers who want to advertise on Emmy-winning television shows are looking to have the positive impressions of the show transfer to their products. This transference is called a: A. self-paced impact B. positive quantitative media effect C. cluttered effect D. shaping effect E. positive qualitative media effect

Advertising and promotional costs can be categorized in two ways. They are: A. relative cost and absolute cost. B. net cost and gross cost. C. fixed and variable costs. D. message cost and media cost. E. full costing and partial costing.

Advertising appeals that express or imply some type of physical or emotional danger and try to arouse consumers to take steps to remove the threat are known as _____ appeals. A. comparative B. irrational C. humor D. fear E. nonverbal

Advertising appeals that focus on functional or utilitarian needs and emphasize product features and benefits are known as _____ appeals. A. informational B. emotional C. price D. inherent drama E. image

Advertising appeals that portray people in an advertisement as experiencing an arousing, upbeat and/or exciting benefit or outcome from using a product or service are relying on: A. informational integration. B. rational integration. C. mood transfer. D. emotional integration. E. outcome integration.

Advertising appeals that relate to consumers' social and/or psychological needs for purchasing a product or service are known as _____ appeals. A. informational B. rational C. irrational D. emotional E. feature

Advertising campaign themes: A. are always tactical in nature and design. B. set the tone or direction for all of the individual ads that make up the campaign. C. are typically designed by the client and implemented by the agency. D. are usually used for ads that run in only one type of media vehicle. E. are usually developed with the intention of being used for a short period of time.

Advertising creative personnel tend to: A. be more concrete and formalized than intuitive when solving a problem. B. have majored in marketing in college. C. rely on intuition more than logic. D. be highly structured and organized individuals. E. be no different from people with business executive backgrounds.

Advertising on television to specialized audiences is known as _____ and has been made possible by ____. A. narrowcasting; network television B. broadcasting; cable television C. narrowcasting; cable television D. multiplexing; cable television E. broadcasting; zapping

Advocates of communication-based objectives for advertising propose using _____ as a basis for setting these objectives. A. sales. B. market share. C. stages of a hierarchical response model. D. carry-over effects. E. market behavior.

After calculating both the brand development index (BDI) and the category development index (CDI), a media planner obtains the following results: High BDI and High CDI. What do these results imply? A. High market share and good market potential B. Low market share and good market potential C. High market share and monitor for sales decline D. Low market share and poor market potential E. High market share and not a good market to advertise

After calculating both the brand development index (BDI) and the category development index (CDI), a media planner obtains the following results: High BDI and Low CDI. What do these results imply? A. High market share and good market potential B. Low market share and good market potential C. High market share and monitor for sales decline D. Low market share and poor market potential E. High market share and not a good market to advertise

After calculating both the brand development index (BDI) and the category development index (CDI), a media planner obtains the following results: Low BDI and Low CDI. What do these results imply? A. High market share and good market potential B. Low market share and good market potential C. High market share and monitor for sales decline D. Low market share and poor market potential E. High market share and not a good market to advertise

After the situation analysis and the development of both the marketing and creative strategy plans, it is time to develop the media plan. The first step in developing a media plan is to: A. create a media plan committee. B. set the media objectives. C. determine the reach, frequency, and coverage of all available media. D. select broad media classes. E. develop advertising campaigns.

Agency compensation under the commission system is based on: A. total number of hours worked. B. a percentage of a client's marketing budget. C. a specified percentage of the cost of any advertising time or space the agency purchases for its client. D. a percentage of advertising production costs. E. the client's position in the distribution channel.

Aleve ran a series of ads showing everyday people having to deal with minor arthritic pains. In each instance, the individual was pleased to learn that two Aleve were just as effective as taking eight of his or her old pain reliever. This ad campaign is using a(n) _____ appeal. A. emotional B. competitive advantage C. fear D. favorable price E. transformational

An ad by the Tennessee Department of Tourist Development encouraging people to choose the state of Tennessee for their vacation destination was published in Southern Living magazine. The ad shows various scenic pictures of Tennessee and includes the slogan, "Tennessee sounds good to me." In this print ad, the source of the advertising message is: A. the Tennessee Department of Tourist Development. B. Southern Living magazine. C. the people in the scenic pictures. D. the slogan. E. readers of the magazine.

An ad campaign to convince people to stop smoking uses three teens bungee jumping off a bridge. When they reach the ground, each grabs a soda can, opens it, and takes a drink. As the third person takes a drink, the can explodes and kills him. The final screen reads, "No other product but tobacco kills every third consumer." This ad is using a(n) _____ appeal. A. comparative B. irrational C. leveling D. fear E. nonverbal

An ad for Aricept, a prescription-only drug for patients in the early stages of Alzheimer's disease, was published in a Better Homes & Gardens magazine. Since the ad encouraged consumers to ask their doctors about this drug and whether it would help them or someone they knew, the drug company that placed the ad is using: A. trade advertising. B. a promotional pull strategy. C. a harvesting strategy. D. a consumer promotion. E. a promotional push strategy.

An ad for Calloway Gardens Resort stresses the different forms of recreation available to visitors to the resort. This is an example of a(n) _____ appeal. A. news B. favorable price C. feature D. popularity E. emotional

An ad for Duncan Hines cake mixes advises consumers to "Tell Them What Is in Your Heart Without Saying a Word" by preparing Duncan Hines brownies for your family and close friends. Duncan Hines is claiming to help satisfy consumers' _____ need as defined by Maslow's hierarchy. A. physiological B. social C. self-actualization D. esteem E. safety

An ad for Enbrel, a prescription medicine for people who have rheumatoid arthritis, tells the reader that this drug has proven to work for people who have had little or no pain relief from other drugs. The factual, news like nature of the ad indicates that it is using a(n) _____ appeal. A. rational B. product popularity C. emotional D. fear E. refutational

An ad for Federal Express shows a toy manufacturer the day before announcing a new action-figure soldier. The CEO is being shown a tape of the commercial for the new figure and is not amused to see the macho soldiers wearing ballerina costumes. His assistant explains that he tried to use a cheaper carrier, and the tutus were sent instead of military uniforms. Across the bottom of the screen reads the logo, "When it absolutely has to get there, use FedEx." This ad is an example of the _____ approach. A. unique selling proposition B. positioning C. inherent drama D. brand image E. benefit

An ad for Gaylord shorts found in Runner's World magazine shows how the shorts do not bind and are made of a light fabric that helps keep the wearer dry and cool. Gaylord is using positioning by: A. product user. B. product demographics. C. cultural symbol. D. product class. E. distribution intensity.

An ad for Lowe's Home Improvement Warehouses shows a U.S. flag made out of flowers and has the headline, "Hooray for the red, white, and bloom." The ad associates Lowe's with the beauty of flowers as well as patriotism—both of which evoke positive responses in consumers and by association should evoke positive responses for Lowe's. This is an example of: A. the application of classical conditioning theory. B. the wheel of retailing hypothesis. C. cognitive planning. D. using functional consequences to make a positioning statement. E. perception retrieval.

An ad for Nivea Visage Wrinkle Control states that the cream allows women to "give their skin back its own wrinkle control." It shows a woman in her forties using the product. This ad is using _____ segmentation. A. behavioristic and benefit B. benefit and demographic C. psychographic and behavioristic D. geographic and benefit E. demographic and psychographic

An ad for Shangri-La Travel Agency offers trips especially designed for grandparents and their grandchildren to enjoy together. This example illustrates the use of _____ segmentation. A. geographic B. demographic C. lifestyle D. behavioristic E. personality

An ad for Snorestop Extinguisher, a nose spray to eliminate snoring, has the headline, "Wife shoots husband and rests in peace." This ad uses _____ to attract attention and convey a key selling point. A. a two-sided message approach B. a humor appeal C. comparative advertising D. a refutational appeal E. a primacy appeal

An ad for The Peabody Hotel in Memphis, Tennessee, has a number that people can call on if they are interested in reserving rooms at the hotel or knowing more about the hotel. One way to determine the effectiveness of this ad is to count the number of phone calls it receives in response to its ad. This response count is an example of: A. feedback. B. encoding. C. noise filtering. D. noise blocking. E. decoding.

An ad for Tums antacid shows a patron at a diner asking for Tums to alleviate his heartburn. The waitress points to a bowl that is filled with a jumble of Maalox, Rolaids, Tums and other antacids. The waitress says that all antacids are the same, and the patron then explains her to that Tums is the only antacid that has calcium. Tums is using: A. one-sided advertising. B. two-sided advertising. C. comparative advertising. D. verbal appeals. E. refutation.

An ad for a medication that helps people undergoing chemotherapy feel more energetic showed a grandfather sorrowfully wishing he could participate in his grandson's birthday celebration. The next scene occurs at the birthday party and shows how much better the grandfather feels after taking the medication. This ad is an example of the _____ approach. A. unique selling proposition B. positioning C. inherent drama D. brand image E. benefit

An ad in Floral Management, a publication for retail florists, promotes Redwood Grove tulips as a product that will enhance any spring bouquet that the florists sell to ultimate consumers. The ad for Redwood Grove tulips is an example of: A. trade advertising. B. a promotional pull strategy. C. a harvesting strategy. D. a consumer promotion. E. a promotional inertia strategy.

An ad in a publication aimed at veterinarians explaining why they should recommend Eukanuba cat food to the owners of all the cats they treat is an example of: A. consumer advertising. B. a promotional pull strategy. C. a harvesting strategy. D. a consumer promotion. E. a promotional push strategy.

An ad picturing a young boy using a toilet has the headline, "Don't expect Windex Wipes to do a Clorox Wipes job," and the copy explains that Clorox is a disinfectant and Windex is not. In this ad, the: A. visual element reinforces the copy. B. advertiser is using a poster appeal. C. visual element is superfluous. D. source relied on a recency effect. E. mass marketing strategy is clearly defined.

An ad purchased by the Tennessee Department of Tourist Development encouraging people to choose the state of Tennessee for that vacation destination was published in Southern Living magazine. The ad shows various scenic pictures of Tennessee and includes the slogan, "Tennessee sounds good to me." In this example, Southern Living magazine would be an example of a _____, a part of the communication process. A. channel B. receiver C. feedback mechanism D. source E. decoder

An advertisement for the State of Alabama shows a family with two teens arriving in the state alienated from each other. The fun they experience in the state brings the family back together again. The commercial ends with all four running down the beach holding hands. This ad uses _____ for its appeal. A. informational integration B. rational integration C. mood transfer D. emotional integration E. outcome integration

An advertiser bought a 15-second spot during prime time, but realized that there was very low recall for the advertisement. This could be due to: A. the presence of clutter. B. the lack of demographic selectivity of television. C. the low reach of television. D. the inherent deficiencies of television as a communication medium. E. message source alienation.

An advertiser has a limited budget and wants to reach a well-defined target audience in a local market area. Which of the following would you recommend as the best alternative? A. Network television B. Syndication C. Superstations D. Local radio E. National advertising

An advertiser may design an ad in which the visual portion is incongruent with or contradicts the verbal information as a strategy to: A. gain consumers' attention. B. confuse consumers. C. distract consumers. D. get consumers to engage in more simplistic processing. E. distract consumers from the negative aspects of the product.

An advertiser whose message is placed in the middle of five consecutive commercials during a program break is facing a problem known as: A. clutter. B. media flooding. C. media bombardment. D. flighting. E. information overload.

An advertising agency that wants its employees to develop expertise in servicing a variety of accounts should use a(n) _____ structure. A. group system B. departmental system C. creative boutique D. in-house E. decentralized

An advertising agency works with its clients under a traditional commission system compensation arrangement. The agency places a 30-second spot for one of its clients on an episode of Friends, which costs $500,000. A reasonable estimate of the agency's commission on this space buy is: A. $15,000. B. $30,000. C. $45,000. D. $75,000. E. $80,000.

An advertising campaign stating that BMW "outperforms most cars on the road even before you step on the accelerator" is an example of _____ segmentation. A. benefit B. demographic C. geographic D. VALS E. SRI

An advertising execution technique that relies on a straightforward presentation of information concerning the product or service is called a(n): A. straight-sell or factual message. B. demonstration. C. testimonial. D. dramatization. E. animation of key benefits approach.

An airline company set the following objective for its new advertising campaign: "To increase the percentage of consumers who know our fares are lower than the competitors' to 75 percent over the next six months." Using the criteria associated DAGMAR approach to setting objective, what is wrong with this objective? A. It is not a concrete statement of what message the airline wants to communicate. B. It does not contain a benchmark measure and statement of the degree of change sought. C. It does not specify a specific time period for accomplishing the objective. D. It does not specify a well-defined target audience. E. Nothing is wrong with this objective; it satisfies all of the criteria specified in the DAGMAR model.

An art gallery in a small town near Chattanooga, Tennessee, is hosting an "outsider artist" sale and wants to invite people from the area to attend and buy the pieces made by Tennessee artists. However, the television station also reaches viewers in northwest Georgia and northeast Alabama, resulting in a lack of: A. clutter control. B. noise filters. C. audience measures. D. geographic selectivity. E. zipping capabilities.

An idea develops during the _____ step of the creative process. A. reality B. illumination C. verification D. originality E. immersion

An index number of 100 means that the: A. use of the product is proportionately greater in that segment than in one that is average. B. segment being analyzed is average. C. use of the product is proportionately fewer in that segment than in one that is average. D. probability of wasted coverage is 100 percent. E. the probability of success in this market is 100 percent.

Aurora Foods Inc. markets Log Cabin, Mrs. Butterworth's, and Aunt Jemima brands of pancake syrup. Aurora is most likely to use a _____ approach to developing creative strategy for each brand. A. inherent drama B. brand image C. unique selling proposition D. positioning E. repositioning

As a result of economies of scale, large advertisers: A. are likely to enjoy more favorable advertising time and space than smaller advertisers. B. get higher advertising rates than smaller advertisers. C. accrue the disadvantages of advertising several products jointly. D. have higher average costs of production. E. can spend more money on advertising and realize a better return.

As a result of economies of scale, smaller advertisers: A. are likely to enjoy more favorable advertising time and space than large advertisers. B. have declining average costs of production. C. get higher advertising rates than large advertisers. D. can maintain advertising expenditure shares that are smaller than their market shares. E. can accrue the advantages of advertising several products jointly.

Anyone who has ever attended a state fair understands how complicated the ticketing system can be. Attendees buy a number of tickets and then turn them in to various ride operators. One ride may require three tickets, another five, and another two. The system was complicated for workers and for consumers. A company named Funtastic has developed a SmartCard that is purchased at the ticket booth for any amount customers want to spend. Each ride requires one swipe of the card, and the amount of the ride is deducted electronically from the card's total. Funtastic has recognized a: A. market opportunity. B. market segment. C. competitive advantage. D. market strength. E. market threat.

As a result of ____, large advertisers can maintain advertising expenditure shares that are smaller than their market shares because they get lower advertising rates and accrue the advantages of advertising several products jointly. A. economies of scale B. differential advertising advantages C. competitive parity D. a concave-downward response E. multiple advertising channels

As more companies adopt the integrated marketing communications approach to their advertising and promotions, A. they are increasing their reliance on mass media advertising and paying full commissions to agencies. B. they are reducing their reliance on mass media advertising and changing their agency compensation system. C. they are likely to move totally to cost-plus compensation systems. D. incentive systems are becoming less important in compensating agencies. E. none of the above is occurring.

Assume the Greyhound Bus Company runs a six-month advertising campaign promoting its convenient bus routes and excellent on-time service without conducting any sort of marketing research. At the end of the six-month period, Greyhound conducts a study and finds 80 percent of its frequent travelers agree the bus company has convenient bus routes and excellent on-time service. Greyhound can conclude that: A. the campaign was successful in changing perceptions regarding its fares. B. the campaign was successful in changing perceptions regarding its service. C. the campaign was not successful since it should have nearly 90 percent of riders agreeing that it offers convenient bus routes and excellent on-time service. D. its advertising is working. E. without benchmark measures, it will never know if the campaign was a success or a failure.

Assume the television show Grey's Anatomy had an average national program rating of 18 during the 2007 season. This means that: A. an average of 18 million households watched Grey's Anatomy. B. 18 percent of the households watching television were tuned to Grey's Anatomy. C. an average of 18 percent of the television households in the country were tuned to Grey's Anatomy. D. an average of 18 million households watched Grey's Anatomy for at least five minutes. E. 18 percent of the households in the United States watched the entire program.

Astrid Furniture designs and sells bedroom furniture for people who are over six-feet tall which is a relatively small target market. Astrid is employing which targeting strategy? A. Differentiated marketing B. Synchro marketing C. Undifferentiated marketing D. Concentrated marketing E. Mass marketing

At what stage of the creative process are various ideas evaluated and refined before actually being used? A. Preparation B. Incubation C. Illumination D. Verification/revision E. Verdict

At what stage of the creative process would consumers in the target audience be asked to evaluate storyboards and animatics? A. Preparation B. Incubation C. Verification/revision D. Illumination E. Verdict

Athletic shoes advertised for tennis courts, running, or for walking are using positioning based on: A. price/quality. B. use or application. C. product class. D. product user. E. cultural symbols.

Attention, awareness, and knowledge are all examples of the _____ stage of the response process and appear in all of the models describing the consumer response process. A. cognitive B. affective C. behavioral D. subliminal E. conative

Audience selectivity on television is possible as a result of: A. the use of brand development indexes. B. variations in program content. C. zipping and zapping. D. the use of interconnects. E. the use of network advertising.

11. (p. 523) Why are organizations like KFC, Heinz Foods, Toys R Us, and Anheuser Busch placing more emphasis on sales promotions than ever before? A. Because they want to use sales promotions rather than engage in price wars. B. Because they are convinced that sales promotions can be used to build brand equity more effectively and more quickly than other promotional mix elements. C. Because the use of sales promotions allows them to cut back and/or completely eliminate the use of coupons. D. Because consumers have less time to shop. E. Because the use of allowances, deals, and premiums confuse consumers.

110. (p. 560; 561) The "Visa on the Label" program under which Visa provides uniform and linen manufacturers with advertising monies based on the number of yards of Visa fabric they buy from the company is an example of: A. vertical cooperative advertising. B. ingredient-sponsored cooperative advertising. C. horizontal cooperative advertising. D. a rebate cooperative advertising. E. a sales training program.

111. (p. 561) When New Balance sponsors a campaign advertising the availability of its running shoes at FootLocker stores, this is an example of _____ advertising. A. horizontal cooperative B. vertical cooperative C. dyadic D. ingredient-producer cooperative E. aggregated

71. (p. 543) Kellogg's promoted a Bart Simpson watch to consumers who mailed in $2.95 and 3 UPCs from boxes of Kellogg's cereal. This is an example of a _____ premium. A. cost-covered B. self-liquidating C. subsidized D. cost-plus E. base-cost

43. (p. 20) Primary-demand advertising is designed to: A. draw particular attention to a particular branded item. B. stimulate demand for a general product class or industry. C. help launch a specific line extension. D. compare two or more competitors in a real world situation. E. create a market share gain for the industry leader.

45. (p. 20) Amul, a food product marketing organization, has come up with new global ads that promote the benefits of drinking milk as well as demonstrates the various uses of milk. This is an example of: A. trade advertising. B. primary-demand advertising. C. secondary-demand advertising. D. retail advertising. E. professional advertising.

52. (p. 537) Which of the following statements is true about couponing? A. Coupons offer price reductions only to those consumers who are price sensitive. B. Coupons are often used by consumers who are already loyal to the brand. C. Coupons for established brands or products are not redeemed. D. Coupons are more effective than sampling for inducing initial product trial in a short period. E. The redemption rate of coupons is very high.

85. (p. 550) Bonus packs: A. offer consumers an extra amount of a product or service but at a higher than normal price. B. provide marketers with a way to provide extra value to consumers without having them to do anything other than purchase the product. C. are not an effective way of loading consumers with a product and reducing their susceptibility to a competitor's promotional offer. D. are always welcome by retailers since bonus packs never require extra shelf space and increase retailers' profit margins. E. result in a higher cost per unit for the consumer.

87. (p. 552) Super-Sav supermarket gives customers VIC (very important customer) cards, which allows customers to take advantage of additional discounts on certain products and notification of special, customer-only sales. In addition, customers can accrue points each time they present their cards. These points can be used to purchase cookware, dishes, and other similar hard goods. Super-Sav is using a: A. bonus program. B. frequency program. C. customer rewards contest. D. self-liquidating promotion. E. subsidized program.

Before setting objectives for advertising and promotion, an organization should: A. conduct a situation analysis to identify marketing and promotional issues facing the firm. B. develop its media plan and allocate the budget to each media. C. evaluate the effectiveness of the advertising and promotional strategies. D. conduct test marketing to check the effectiveness of the marketing strategies developed for the current products and services. E. set its advertising and promotional budgets.

Behavioral learning theories have been criticized for: A. focusing on providing information through subliminal learning processes. B. using suggestive illustrations to make consumers respond to internal stimuli. C. employing the use of violence in altering mind-body awareness. D. being useless in explaining consumers' decision-making processes. E. assuming a mechanistic view of the consumer placing too much emphasis on external stimulus factors.

34. (p. 19) _____ is a system of marketing by which organizations communicate directly with target customers to generate a response and/or a transaction. A. Advertising B. Sales promotion C. Direct marketing D. Publicity E. Public relations

46. (p. 20) The National Egg Coordination Committee has for years now been promoting the benefits of eggs and their importance in one's diet through its ads, which are aired in many nations. Which type of advertising is it making use of? A. National advertising B. Professional advertising C. Primary-demand advertising D. Selective-demand advertising E. Trade advertising

83. (p. 547) The redemption rate for refunds is lower than that for coupons because: A. the payoff is smaller. B. the reinforcement is immediate. C. more effort is required. D. the payoff is larger. E. the offers tend to expire very quickly.

84. (p. 549) Acushnet ran a promotion offering a box of fifteen Pinnacle golf balls for the same price as twelve balls. This is an example of a: A. price-off deal. B. premium. C. bonus pack. D. rebate. E. trade allowance.

9. (p. 08; 09) Arm & Hammer UltraMax deodorant contains time-released baking soda and provides "extra muscle for the game of life." Ads for the product featured a baseball star saying "When your day goes into extra innings, you need a deodorant with extra muscle," appeared in television and print ads. At the same time, Arm & Hammer ran sweepstakes in which people could enter to win a chance to meet the baseball star plus other great prizes. To enter sweepstakes customers had to fill out a $1-off coupon for deodorant or visit the website ahultramax.com. Which marketing strategy was Arm & Hammer implementing? A. Mass customization B. Exchange C. Integrated marketing communications D. Buzz marketing E. Relationship marketing

92. (p. 28) Kerry is asked to evaluate the strengths and weaknesses of each IMC tool being used by the agency and make recommendations to plan and execute communications with target audiences. Kerry is engaged in: A. survey research strategies. B. account-client articulation agreements. C. integrated marketing communications management. D. derived demand analysis. E. efficient synergy management.

93. (p. 28) How does the integrated marketing communications (IMC) plan approach differ from traditional approaches to promotion? A. IMC puts more emphasis on advertising and less on sales promotion. B. IMC puts more emphasis on sales promotion and less on advertising. C. IMC recognizes that marketers must be able to use a wide range of marketing and promotional tools to present a consistent image to target audiences. D. IMC places barriers around the various marketing and promotional functions and requires that they be planned and managed separately. E. IMC predominately makes use of mass media communications in order to attract and retain customers.

93. (p. 557) Programs involving cash payments directly to the sales force to reward them for selling the manufacturer's products involve the use of: A. slotting fees. B. pull money. C. push money. D. pricing promotions. E. promotional allowances.

95. (p. 28) The first step in the IMC planning process is: A. the situation analysis. B. budget determination. C. a review of the marketing plan. D. specification of communications objectives. E. development of the promotional mix strategies.

95. (p. 557) An appliance manufacturer offers a $50 payment to salespeople who work at Rutgers Appliance if they sell one of the company's new refrigerators. This payment is known as: A. a slotting fee. B. coop money. C. a spiff. D. pull money. E. a trade allowance.

97. (p. 557) A discount or deal offered to a retailer or wholesaler to encourage them to stock, promote or display a manufacturer's product is known as: A. cooperative advertising. B. merchandising support. C. a trade allowance. D. a spiff. E. push money.

98. (p. 557) Ocean Spray offers its retail accounts a $3.00 per case discount on all of the cranberry juice they purchase during the month of May. This discount will be deducted straight from the bill. This is an example of: A. push money. B. a slotting allowance. C. an off-invoice allowance. D. a display allowance. E. a coop allowance.

Coca-Cola's offerings of diet, cherry-flavored, vanilla-flavored, and caffeine-free versions of its product in addition to its original product reflect the company's decision to serve: A. concentrated markets. B. differentiated markets. C. a demographic segment. D. an undifferentiated market. E. geographic segmentation.

Commercials for Planter's nuts describe the nuts as a delicious snack food for everyone. The commercials show animals that eat nuts as part of their usual diet trying to convince humans to share their Planter's nuts. In these commercials, the source of the advertising message is: A. Mr. Peanut, the company's visual image personality. B. the television networks on which the ads run. C. the specific television shows in which the ads are seen. D. Planter's peanuts company. E. people who talk about how humorous the commercials are.

Commercials placed in programs that induce negative moods are: A. processed more systematically than ads placed in programs that put viewers in positive moods. B. processed less systematically than ads placed in programs that put viewers in positive moods. C. useful when the message is intended to work through a central route to persuasion. D. useful when viewers are knowledgeable and analyze an ad in detail. E. helpful in exciting the readers and viewers of the message about the product or the service.

Companies are willing to pay premium rates to advertise on special events such as the Olympic Games or Christmas specials because these televised events: A. attract only affluent viewers. B. create positive moods that can make viewers more responsive to commercials. C. show very few commercials. D. have low levels of advertising clutter. E. have affective appeals that are minimized by the cognitive appeal of the commercials.

Companies prefer sponsorship arrangements for buying advertising time because it: A. allows companies to capitalize on the image of a high-quality program. B. gives the advertiser less control over the placement and the length of its commercials. C. is relatively inexpensive. D. means the advertiser can run more commercials per hour since time regulations do not apply. E. broadens advertising reach, saves money, and reaches a more aggregated market when compared to buying national spots.

Company A has hired company B to take care of its advertising needs. All company A has to do is provide its products and funds to company B to execute its advertising requirements. Company A is known as a(n): A. client. B. creative boutique. C. full service agency. D. advertising agency. E. media organization.

Company A is a major participant in the advertising and promotion process. It attracts various others companies who buy space and time with them which they can provide at discounted rates. Company A helps these companies reach the target market effectively with the message. Company A is a(n): A. advertiser. B. advertising agency. C. media organization. D. full service agency. E. consultancy.

Company A used to rely on outside advertising agencies for its advertising needs but since it is a global company, it is now worried that using external agencies may lead to non-consistency of its brand image. The years on experience with outside agencies has made it realize that it results in wastage of both time and money. It also wants to maintain tighter control over its advertising and promotion activities. Which of the following advertising agencies should it adopt? A. Collateral service agency B. Full service agency C. In-house agency D. Democratic agency E. Creative boutique

Company X is a non-profit organization, that employs a large number of underprivileged people. It sells art and handicrafts made by these individuals at reasonable prices. Company X defines its market segment as people who believe in helping others and feel good about it. It uses _____ segmentation. A. demographic B. geographic C. psychographic D. benefit E. socio economic

Compared to television, radio has: A. fewer segmentation opportunities. B. longer buyer lead times for preparing and placing ads. C. greater reach and lower frequency opportunities with individual stations. D. more national network advertising. E. more of a local flavor.

Consumers perceive Maytag appliance as dependable. Consumers have assigned a _____ to the brand. A. product benefit B. personality C. product features D. unique selling proposition E. market rank

Consumer behavior is defined as: A. a process of conspicuous consumption. B. the process people engage in when searching for, selecting, and using products and services they need. C. the act of physically purchasing a product. D. the act of making a final decision as to which product to purchase. E. the process product producers use to design new products.

Cost per thousand (CPM) is potentially an underestimate of cost efficiency because of: A. waste frequency. B. the daily inch rate. C. nonconsideration of the total readers per copy. D. the absence of relative cost. E. not considering percentages.

Cost per thousand is a measure of the ______ of a particular media vehicle. A. reach B. absolute cost C. relative cost effectiveness D. frequency E. continuity

Counts of customer visits to a store, consumer inquiries, coupon redemption and recall of advertising are all possible forms of: A. internal communication. B. feedback. C. noise. D. message channels. E. decoding mechanisms.

CoverGirl cosmetics have hired Drew Barrymore to appear in its advertisements in order to help them capture the attention and interest of the consumers. Through this, the ad illustrates the application of: A. ad-to-consumer relevance. B. brand-to-consumer relevance. C. positioning strategy. D. inherent drama. E. an animatic.

105. (p. 35) According to the IMC planning model, A. promotional mix elements share a set of objectives and a strategy for meeting these objectives. B. objectives and strategies for each promotional mix element are based on advertising goals. C. budgeting is done only for advertising. D. it is important to monitor, evaluate, and control the promotional program to determine how well it is meeting communications objectives.

105. (p. 560) _____ is an exhibition or forum where manufacturers can display their products to current and prospective buyers. A. A planogram B. A trade layout C. Cooperative advertising D. A trade show E. Event marketing

17. (p. 10) Which of the following is true about integrated marketing communication (IMC)? A. It is a tactical integration of various communication activities. B. Audience does not form an important part of the IMC process. C. Employees are not seen as an important part of the IMC process. D. IMC is viewed as on ongoing strategic business process. E. IMC simply involves bundling promotional mix elements together.

113. (p. 562) When advertising and sales promotion efforts work well together and create sales results greater than those achievable from either element being used alone, they are producing a _____ effect. A. stimulus-response B. symbiotic C. hierarchical D. synergistic E. dyadic

118. (p. 566) In many areas of the country, supermarkets have gotten in the trap of doubling or even tripling manufacturers' coupons resulting in: A. a synergistic effect allowing for diversification and a push toward energy independence. B. devaluing what consumers think the manufacturers' products are worth. C. decreased brand equity. D. reduced profit margins. E. the creative destruction theory in operation.

13. (p. 09) _____ is a concept of marketing communications planning that recognizes the added value of a comprehensive plan that evaluates the strategic role of a variety of communication disciplines and combines them to provide clarity, consistency, and maximum impact. A. Marketing mix B. Buzz marketing C. Exchange D. Integrated marketing communications E. Promotional planning

13. (p. 525) One reason for consumer's increased sensitivity to sales promotion is: A. decrease in competition. B. increased brand loyalty. C. the increased amount of power in the hands of the manufacturers. D. that they save money. E. the decline in consumer choice.

33. (p. 529) Consumer-franchise-building for a brand: A. is the exclusive responsibility of advertising. B. is accomplished through short-term price-oriented promotions .C. is impossible to achieve through consumer promotions. D. can be accomplished through consumer promotions that reinforce established brand images or positioning. E. is becoming less important to marketers as competition intensifies.

35. (p. 20) Advertising done by manufacturers of well-known brands on a nationwide basis or in most regions of the country is known as _____ advertising. A. primary demand B. trade C. consumer D. national E. retail

42. (p. 20) Retail/Local advertising often takes the form of: A. trade advertising. B. selective-demand advertising. C. bait and switch advertising. D. direct-action advertising. E. indirect response advertising.

90. (p. 27) Which of the following touch points relate to unanticipated references or information about a company or brand that a customer or prospect receives from sources that are beyond the control of the organization? A. Company created touch point B. Intrinsic touch point C. Extrinsic touch point D. Unexpected touch point E. Customer initiated touch point

90. (p. 553) Coors Light beer's heavy financial involvement with and support of freestyle skiing competitions, beach volleyball tournaments, and other sporting events are examples of: A. premiums. B. trade shows. C. exhibitions. D. event marketing. E. contests.

Doncaster is a company that sells fashionable women's clothing through wardrobe parties. It targets women who are too busy to go to stores to shop. Doncaster is utilizing a(n): A. direct channel of distribution. B. indirect channel of distribution. C. marketing intermediary. D. direct-response advertising medium. E. reseller channel.

Douglas was asked to fill out a survey on 'dill' pickles. He was asked questions about what he liked and disliked about dill pickles, when and where he usually ate dill pickles, and to list and rate all brands of dill pickles he could recall. He was also asked about packaging as well as degree of sourness in the different brands of pickles. Since the survey was conducted by an ad agency prior to developing a creative strategy for its client, a pickle manufacturer, and there were several people surveyed besides Douglas, you can assume he was participating in a _____ study. A. consumer brainstorming B. general preplanning input C. perceptual mapping D. problem detection E. market profiling

Dr Pepper ran its commercial featuring Garth Brooks during American Idol and during The Bachelor. Since many people watched both television shows, _____ occurred. A. duplicated reach B. facsimile promotion C. advertising replication D. duplicated frequency E. flighting

During a merger or acquisition of the agency by some other larger agency, the main reason for the discontinuation of the agency-client relationship is: A. conflict of interest. B. poor performance. C. poor communication. D. changes in client's corporate strategy. E. declining sales.

During ad breaks in TV programmes, some viewers change channels to avoid the commercials. This is known as: A. zipping. B. zapping. C. pulsing. D. time shifting. E. zooming.

During the first months of a new product introduction, a useful budgeting technique to determine a ballpark figure for setting feasible objectives is the _____ method. A. payout planning B. percent of sales C. competitive parity D. 401k E. marginal analysis

During which stage of the consumer decision-making process are evoked sets and evaluative criteria relevant? A. Problem recognition B. Information search C. Postpurchase evaluation D. Alternative evaluation E. Purchase decision

106. (p. 35) The final stage of the IMC planning model is: A. budget determination. B. the development of the media strategy. C. analysis of communication process. D. integrating creative strategies. E. monitoring, evaluation, and control.

Energizer batteries come with a tester on each battery that lets a user see if the battery needs to be replaced. This strategy is focused on reaching consumers at the _____ stage of the consumer decision making process. A. problem recognition B. internal search C. external search D. alternative evaluation E. purchase

For which of the following products is the consumer most likely to experience cognitive dissonance? A. Chewing gum B. Diamond ring C. Office supplies D. Pencil E. Nail polish

For which of the following products would a marketer find the use of a physically attractive model to be most effective? A. Cattle feed B. Bricks C. Azalea bushes D. Biscuit mix E. Lipstick

For which of the following products would an advertiser be more likely to use the low-involvement hierarchy to explain the consumer decision-making process? A. Bar of soap B. Digital camera C. Refrigerator-freezer combination D. Yard landscaping E. Wedding dress

Fortnum & Mason in London is a retail store committed to providing the best of traditional British meats and cooking. The store is lit by crystal chandeliers, and there are deep red carpets underfoot. The staff all wear tail-coats. Its ads want customers to associate the store with the royal treatment they will receive when they shop there. This development of a strong, memorable identity is an example of: A. a universal selling proposition. B. image advertising. C. inherent drama. D. attribute-based positioning. E. refutational appeal.

From the perspective of a promotional planner, the primary purpose of most media is to: A. provide information or entertainment to their subscribers, viewers, or readers. B. assume major responsibility for developing the marketing program. C. provide an environment for the firm's marketing communications message. D. help the company understand the marketplace. E. provide the funds that pay for advertising and promotions.

Gatorade sports drink has defined its target market as 18-34 year old males who are active in sports. Which two bases of segmentation is Gatorade employing? A. Benefit and demographic B. Psychographic and geographic C. Demographic and psychographic D. Geographic and benefit E. Benefit and psychographic

Geico's gecko, the Green Giant, and the AFLAC duck are examples of: A. visual image personalities. B. affective characters. C. selectively remembered personalities. D. high-involvement advertising appeals. E. cognitively processed characters.

General Foods wishes to determine the percentage of Maxwell House coffee sold in a geographic area as compared with the percentage of the total population in this market. The most appropriate index to use would be: A. survey of buying power index. B. brand development index. C. category development index. D. Simmons Market Research Bureau (SMRB). E. Mediamark Research Inc.

General Foods' determination that Southerners preferred milder mustard than those in the Northeast led the company to develop a new "Southern Style Mustard." This strategy best exemplifies: A. geographic segmentation. B. lifestyle segmentation. C. concentrated marketing. D. usage segmentation. E. undifferentiated marketing.

General Mills has multiple brands of cereal that compete among themselves and with Post, Quaker, and Kellogg's brand cereals. General Mills would most likely use the _____ approach as a basis for its creative strategies. A. unique selling proposition B. brand image C. inherent drama D. positioning E. dramatization

Greater frequency levels of exposure would be necessary if: A. the purchase and usage cycle is short. B. the message is unique. C. a product, rather than an image, is being sold. D. the vehicle is relatively uncluttered. E. any or all of the above conditions exist.

Greg is hired into the marketing services department of a full-service advertising agency. His job profile includes gathering information relating to the client's product and service that can be used in the development of the creative strategy. He has to collect information from various other departments in the firm to gain a better understanding of the client's target audience. Which position has Greg been hired for? A. Research department personnel B. Account planner C. Creative team member D. Media specialist E. Account executive

Heinz developed a sales promotion program called "All About Family." It offered a coupon of a free Halloween candy when one purchased any of five different participating Heinz brands. Cents-off coupons for the participating brands were placed in newspaper inserts. The campaign also featured a contest called the "Ultimate Family Night" sweepstakes. Heinz management most likely used _____ objectives to measure the effectiveness of this sales promotion. A. communication persuasiveness B. short-term sales C. long-term sales D. brand inquiry E. information parameters

Hershey's advertises heavily around Christmas with ads that show only a picture of red, green and silver wrapped Hershey Kisses chocolate. Hershey's is using _____ advertising. A. transformational B. reminder C. rational D. emotional integration E. teaser

In January 2003, Philip-Morris Companies, Inc., and Kraft Foods became the Altria Group. The change in name reflected the fact the company has changed itself structurally, behaviorally, and culturally. The new name was designed to focus attention on the company's superior performance, financial strength, and its commitment to integrity and corporate responsibility. Which of the following statements about the communications objectives the company would have most likely used as part of this repositioning strategy is true? A. The communications objectives established with this strategy would need to be abstract. B. It would be impossible for the company to have any benchmark measures for determining whether it reached its communications objectives. C. A communications objective concerning the repositioning of the Altria Group would take longer to accomplish than an objective designed to create brand awareness. D. The target audience could not be specifically defined in the communications objective. E. Quantitative benchmarks would be impossible due to the fact the Altria Group markets new products.

In a centralized organizational arrangement, the _____ department is responsible for developing promotional plans that will be approved by management and recommending a promotions program based on the overall marketing plan, objectives, and budget. A. production B. marketing C. sales D. advertising E. product planning

In a decentralized system of advertising organization, the responsibility of planning, implementing, and controlling the marketing program for an individual brand belongs to the: A. product manager. B. creative director. C. account executive. D. layout editor. E. communications team

In a market analysis, the _____ is considered a good indicator of the potential of the market. It is derived by dividing the percentage of users in a demographic segment by the percentage of population in the same segment and the multiplying the quotient by 100. A. cost per media (CPM) B. quantitative advantage C. index number D. average frequency E. relative reach

In calculating both the brand development index (BDI) and the category development index (CDI) a media planner obtains the following results: Low BDI and High CDI. What do these results imply? A. High market share; good market potential B. Low market share; good market potential C. High market share; monitor for sales decline D. Low market share; poor market potential E. High market share and not a good market to advertise

In its ads, Listerine claims effectiveness but admits to less than perfect taste. This is an example of a(n): A. one-sided message. B. two-sided message. C. confrontational appeal. D. conclusive message. E. slice-of-life commercial.

In its ads, Maxwell House Coffee stresses consumers' overall emotional impression of the brand with its "Good to the last drop" slogan. Maxwell House wants consumers to purchase on the basis of this impression and not by comparing specific attributes of other brands of coffee. This is an example of a marketer using: A. the affect referral decision rule. B. intermittent stimulation. C. cognitive input/output. D. psychosocial consequences. E. non-qualitative evaluative criteria.

In media planning, [(Cost of ad space/circulation) x 1000] is the formula used to calculate: A. index number. B. cost per thousand. C. absolute cost. D. category development index. E. brand development index.

In order to compare the relative costs between two print media, an advertiser needs to use: A. reach. B. frequency. C. gross rating point (GRPs). D. cost per thousand (CPM). E. brand development index (BDI).

In order to get advertising time on the most popular TV shows, major television advertisers such as Coca-Cola, Ford, General Motors and State Farm must buy commercial spots during the _____ market, before the season begins. A. up-front B. continual C. scatter D. interconnected E. local

In the _____ method to budgeting, sales are projected for the coming year based on the marketing manager's estimates. A. competitive parity B. objective and task method C. unit cost production D. straight-projected sales E. arbitrary method

In the case of marginal analysis approach, profits are shown to be a result of: A. advertising expenditure minus sales. B. sales minus advertising expenditures. C. gross margin minus advertising expenditures. D. gross margin minus sales. E. net worth minus sales.

In the development of an advertising campaign or message, creative _____ involves determining what the message will say or communicate, while creative _____ deals with how the message will be implemented or executed. A. strategy; tactics B. tactics; strategy C. mission: strategy D. tactics; vision E. vision; mission

In the early days of television, the production and content of most television programs was the responsibility of: A. the networks. B. the local affiliate. C. corporations that sponsored the shows. D. independent production companies. E. the syndicates.

In the family decision-making process, the person in the family who is responsible for problem recognition is the: A. purchasing agent. B. consumer. C. initiator. D. information provider. E. influencer.

In the family decision-making process, the person who is responsible for gathering information to be used in making the decision is known as: A. purchasing agent. B. consumer. C. initiator. D. information provider. E. influencer.

In the post purchase evaluation stage, when performance of a product or service is below expectations, it would result in: A. development of an evoked set. B. satisfaction of the marketer. C. dissatisfaction of consumer. D. evaluation of alternatives. E. internal harmony of the purchaser.

Information such as product knowledge, meanings, and beliefs is combined to evaluate alternatives through: A. motive stimulation. B. subliminal perception. C. integration processes. D. cognitive dissonance. E. affective reasoning.

Initially, Crush orange drink was marketed to teenagers, but when Cadbury Beverages acquired the drink, it was already marketing Sunkist orange drink to teens. Cadbury used _____ to move Crush toward a drink for the whole family to enjoy. A. positioning by cultural symbols B. positioning by price/quality C. positioning by product attributes D. repositioning E. positioning by product category

Inna has been hired to promote a membership-only genealogical website, which provides demographic information on over one billion people. She has gathered together all the relevant environmental information and has studied the product as closely as possible. She needs to work on another project and put the genealogical project completely out of her conscious mind. Her subconscious needs time to work on a solution. Now it is time for the _____ step of the creative process. A. preparation B. revision C. incubation D. illumination E. verification

Inside-out planning: A. focuses on what the marketer wants to say, when the marketer wants to say it, things the marketer believes are important to his or her brand, and the media form the marketer wants to use. B. is another term for zero-based communications planning. C. starts with the customer and builds backward to the brand when developing an IMC program. D. is a method of implementing DAGMAR objectives. E. is used to forecast the validity of DAGMAR objectives.

Instantaneous feedback on how effective a marketing communication method is will most likely be possible in: A. personal selling situations. B. radio advertising. C. television advertising. D. direct mail advertising. E. mass communication channels.

Interest, liking, preference, evaluation and yielding are all examples of the _____ stage of the response process and appear in all of the models describing the consumer response process. A. cognitive B. affective C. behavioral D. conative E. learning

Kyle wrote a book for new dads to help them take care of the babies when the wives are away. It is highly recommended that Kyle employ _____ to divide the market. A. geographic segmentation B. demographic segmentation C. psychographic segmentation D. socio economic segmentation E. cultural segmentation

L'Oreal, the giant cosmetics manufacturer, targets the luxury market with Helena Rubinstein and Lancôme brands. Its less expensive brands like Elseve and L'Oreal are sold by discount retailers. L'Oreal uses: A. concentrated marketing. B. undifferentiated marketing. C. market atomization. D. synchro marketing. E. differentiating marketing.

Lack of long-term objectivity, flexibility, and creativity are a few of the reasons why a company might move away from: A. a decentralized marketing system. B. an in-house agency. C. the use of full-service advertising agencies. D. a centralized marketing system. E. the use of creative boutiques.

Leslie is working for a local agency as an intern. Her company has been hired to develop an advertising campaign for chain of coffee shops. She has been given the task of coming up with the big idea. You can tell her big ideas: A. are very easy to come by. B. really only matter in advertising for consumer products and not for retail establishments. C. are typically not the basis for effective advertising campaigns. D. are only effective in business-to-business advertising. E. could become the basis of very creative and successful advertising campaigns.

Lifestyle research, attitude studies, and perceptual mapping would be examples of: A. general preplanning inputs. B. product/service-specific preplanning inputs. C. verification studies. D. revision studies. E. demographic studies for business-to-business clients.

Lisle Ju, the creative director for JTT ad agency, is observing a focus group for four-wheel drive SUVs. She is gathering _____ before she begins to develop creative strategy for an SUV manufacturer. A. general preplanning input B. market detection research C. product specific preplanning input D. illumination research E. secondary internal data

Magazine A has a cost for a full-page ad of $10,000 and a circulation figure of 5,000,000. Of these 5,000,000 subscribers, 40 percent are tennis buffs. Magazine B has a cost for a full page of $10,000 and a circulation of 3,000,000. Of the 3,000,000 subscribers 75 percent are tennis buffs. If you sold tennis racquets and wanted to compare the cost per thousand (CPM) of these magazines, which would you choose? A. Magazine A B. Magazine B C. Magazine A would be just as effective as Magazine B D. More information is needed on audience size E. More information is needed on costs

Many companies are willing to spend hundreds of millions of dollars each year on creative advertising because: A. they believe strongly in competitive parity. B. they realize marketing success is unrelated to their creative advertising effort. C. they know that good creative strategy and execution are often critical to the success of a product or service. D. they want to win creative awards in order to respond to the intangibility and homogeneity characteristics of service. E. the development of good creative strategy is a science and is explained by marketing research.

Most of an advertising agency's expenses are in the area of: A. media costs. B. salaries and benefits for employees. C. personal selling. D. production facilities. E. commissions.

Many marketers are uncertain as to what the integrated marketing communications should contribute to the marketing program. The only goal of their company's advertising and promotional program is to: A. position the company and its brands. B. create a positive corporate image. C. generate sales. D. create memorable advertising. E. create awareness of the company.

Many marketing managers approach promotion from a(n) _____ perspective and believe the objective of advertising and other promotional mix elements is to relay information about a product to customers. A. informational B. communications C. sales-oriented D. segmentation E. product development

Many marketing managers prefer sales-oriented objectives for advertising because they believe: A. the reason a company spends money on advertising and promotion is to sell its products or service. B. the objective of advertising and other promotional mix elements is usually to communicate information or a selling message about a product or service. C. the primary role of an integrated marketing communications program is to communicate. D. the objectives should be based on the achievement of communication objectives. E. they must provide relevant information and create favorable predispositions toward the brand before purchase behavior will occur.

Marketers can try to capitalize on source similarity by hiring: A. a beautiful model to appear in an ad. B. a well known athlete to endorse a cosmetic in a commercial. C. salespeople who have characteristics that match those of their customers. D. individuals with liberal arts backgrounds to work as sales representatives for technical products. E. actors to pretend that they are ordinary consumers.

Marketers of _____ often must communicate with passive, uninterested consumers who may focus more on non-message elements such as music, slogans, and jingles than on message content. A. employment services B. ketchup, mustard, margarine, and soy sauce C. personal computers D. x-ray machines, road building equipment, and walk-in refrigeration units E. business-to-business services such as advertising agencies

Marketers often introduce new brands into markets that are mature and saturated because of consumer's tendency towards: A. internal search. B. novelty seeking behavior. C. external search. D. brand loyalty. E. habitual choice behavior.

Marketers should draw definite conclusions in their advertising messages when: A. the audience is highly educated. B. the product or service is highly personal or emotionally involving so that the audience does not have the time to draw a conclusion. C. immediate action is an objective, and the audience does not have the time or opportunity to draw a conclusion. D. the marketer wants to increase the audiences' involvement in the message. E. the message is simple and likely to be easily understood by the audience.

Marketers try to select spokespeople whose traits will maximize their message influence. According to Herbert Kelman, the three categories of source attributes that should be considered during the selection process are: A. power, image, and knowledge. B. credibility, attractiveness, and power. C. knowledge, fee, and recognizability. D. consistency, credibility, and continuity. E. credibility, recognizability, and individuality.

Marketers trying to sell _____ will find the use of a catchy jingle or ad slogan to be most effective. A. products characterized by a low-involvement response hierarchy B. products characterized by high-involvement response hierarchy C. consumer durables that require detailed information D. services where differentiation is important E. products in the business-to-business market

Marketers who try to select spokespeople whose traits will maximize their message influence are concerned about their credibility. The two important dimensions associated with credibility are: A. consistency and image. B. image and trustworthiness. C. recognizability and expertise. D. expertise and trustworthiness. E. image and expertise.

Marketing Evaluations Inc.'s Q rating measures: A. the popularity of television shows. B. the size of television viewing audiences that prefer to buy a product solely based on the celebrity who endorsed it. C. the percentage of people who recognize a celebrity and rate him or her as one of their favorite performers. D. the percentage of people who see celebrities as trendsetters. E. the feedback from advertisements.

Marketing goals defined in terms of sales, profits or market share increases are: A. situational response objectives. B. usually not appropriate for promotional objectives. C. integrated marketing communications objectives. D. relationship marketing objectives. E. communication objectives.

Martha took part in a marketing research experiment in which she was given two pictures of two distinctly different kitchens and asked to write a description of the person who owned each one. What kind of motivation research was Martha participating in? A. Projective techniques B. An association test C. A focus interview D. A mall intercept E. Subliminal test

McCracken developed a model relating to the use of celebrity endorsers. Which of the following statements represents a major implication of that model? A. Companies should choose celebrities with stopping power as endorsers. B. Companies should use physically attractive celebrities to endorse their products. C. Companies should use as endorsers celebrities who project the image or meaning they want for their products. D. The image of a celebrity comes primarily from the products she or he endorses. E. Decisions regarding the choice of a celebrity to use as an endorser can only be made on the basis of judgment or intuition.

Media buyers might choose to live with a relatively high degree of waste coverage because: A. it best supports a flighting media schedule. B. it may still be the most cost affordable buy on a per exposure basis. C. it allows for more specific targeting. D. repetition is the most effective method for pioneering advertising. E. it supports a market aggregation strategy.

Media planning is not an easy task. Which of the following is a reason why media planning is so difficult? A. Information overload B. Product life cycles differences C. Media objectives conflict with communication objectives D. Time pressures inhibit proper planning E. Non-standardization of the task of media planning

Mentos mint candy uses an advertising campaign that shows people solving problems by thinking outside of the box—by taking a fresh look at a common problem. "Freshness" is the message the ad is supposed to deliver, but if Rick and Beth Minton think the ad is simply showing people being rude and boorish, then in terms of the communication process, the Mintons have _____ the message improperly. A. encoded B. interpreted C. decoded D. transmitted E. channeled

Mentos mint candy uses an advertising campaign that shows people solving problems by thinking outside of the box—by taking a fresh look at a common problem. "Freshness" is the message the ad is supposed to deliver. When Rick and Beth Minton saw the ad, Rick said to Beth, "That ad is simply showing people being rewarded for being rude and boorish. How could any company think that sort of ad would appeal to decent people?" Rick's comment about the ad source represents a: A. negative ad execution thought. B. source derogation. C. support argument. D. counter argument. E. positive execution thought.

Mentos mint candy uses an advertising campaign that shows people solving problems by thinking outside of the box—by taking a fresh look at a common problem. The advertisers think the message the ad delivers is freshness. However, Rick and Beth Minton think the ad is simply showing people being rude and boorish. One of the possible explanations for these highly different perceptions of the ads is due to an absence of: A. interpretative links. B. feedback mechanisms. C. response hierarchies. D. a common ground. E. fields of experience.

Mercedes Benz automobiles runs commercials for its expensive automobiles on the A&E cable channel, which reaches a highly educated and upscale audience. This is an example of how _____ is possible through television. A. affiliation B. selectivity C. ubiquity D. creativity E. flexibility

Morning, daytime, prime time and late fringe are all examples of: A. television dayparts. B. designated market periods. C. types of syndication. D. run-of-station spots. E. up-front markets.

Most advertisers attempt to hire spokespeople their target audience likes so as to generate _____ for the message. A. source derogation B. counterargument C. source bolster D. source blockage E. message synergy

Most advertisers refuse to use two-sided messages because they: A. are concerned about the impact of a two-sided message on source credibility. B. are concerned over presenting only the negative attributes of their brands. C. are concerned over the negative effects of acknowledging a weakness in their brand. D. have been proven ineffective by a number of different advertising research studies. E. cause consumers to expect more than any product can offer.

Most national advertisers: A. use only network advertising. B. use only national spot advertising. C. prefer spot advertising because of lower rates, less clutter, and more flexibility. D. use both network and spot advertising and try to effectively combine the two. E. prefer to use only network advertising and only buy spot advertising in markets where there are no network stations.

Most network television advertising time is sold as: A. sponsorships. B. participations. C. adjacencies. D. spot announcements. E. affiliated offerings.

Most of an advertising agency's expenses are in the area of: A. media costs. B. salaries and benefits for employees. C. personal selling. D. production facilities. E. commissions.

Most of the purchase decisions made by consumers for low-priced frequently purchased products are characterized by: A. routine response behavior. B. limited problem solving. C. extended problem solving. D. high involvement. E. cognitive learning.

Most people who watch the show 'Desperate Housewives' also watch 'America's next top model'. An ad for Coca-Cola placed in both these shows would most likely result in: A. unduplicated reach. B. average coverage. C. increased sweeps periods. D. duplicated reach. E. high cost per thousand.

Mountain Dew often sponsors live radio broadcasts at beaches, sporting events, and festivals in which it sets up booths for sampling and giveaways. On which advantage offered by radio is Mountain Dew capitalizing? A. Low relative costs B. Integrated marketing opportunities C. Mental imagery D. Geographic selectivity E. Flexibility

My product is hand-tooled leather wallets, which can be purchased at any time of the year, but which are more often purchased during the Christmas season and before Father's day. Given a limited budget, which strategy would likely be the most effective if I wanted to try to stimulate trial and/or sales? A. Ratings B. Share C. Flighting D. Pulsing E. Continuous

NYNEX owned a substantial portion of the yellow pages advertising business in the New York/New England region, which it needed to protect following the breakup of AT&T. To protect itself from competitors, NYNEX ran a series of ads. One was a picture of a blue rabbit and headlined, "Hair Tinting." Another showed Barbie and Ken dressed in doctor costumes and headlined "Plastic Surgeons." At the bottom of each ad was the tag line, "If it's out there, it's in NYNEX yellow pages." This approach to yellow pages listings was successful because it had a _____ appeal. A. fear B. two-sided C. refutational D. comparative E. humorous

National Fruit Company makes "WhiteHouse" apple juice. Market research determined that the company needed to mold its bottle so as to make it easier to grasp. Its market research would have been conducted by a(n) _____, and its packaging changes would have been done by a(n) _____. A. specialized service; interactive agency B. interactive agency; collateral service C. collateral service; specialized service D. interactive service; creative boutique E. collateral service; collateral service

National advertisers are not limited to using only network television. Advertisers can adjust their media strategies to take advantage of different geographic markets through _____ in specific market areas. A. spot advertising B. network advertising C. adjacencies D. image transfer E. interconnects

Ned is planning to buy a new computer. He studied the contents of an ad describing the superiority of Dell computers and scrutinized how the advertising message argued in favor of Dell's superiority. According to the Elaboration Likelihood Model (ELM), Ned is engaging in what type of message processing? A. Support arguing B. Central processing C. Peripheral processing D. Source bolstering E. Comparative analysis

Negative thoughts about a spokesperson in an ad are called: A. source derogations. B. counterarguments. C. source bolsters. D. source blockages. E. message blockages.

Negotiated commission rates for advertising agencies: A. are becoming more commonplace. B. are becoming less common. C. set a 15 percent minimum commission rate for all agency work. D. are rarely used by consumer-products advertisers. E. are designed primarily to benefit agencies.

Nestlé uses the slogan, "Good Food, Good Life" to stress that its products provide everything consumers need—there is no need of looking at any other brands. Nestlé uses: A. the affect referral decision rule. B. intermittent stimulation. C. cognitive input/output. D. psychosocial consequences. E. non-qualitative evaluative criteria.

New Balance running shoes would probably wish to pursue a _____ scheduling strategy, while Rossignol snow skis would more than likely use a _____ schedule. A. continuous, pulsing B. flighting; pulsing C. pulsing; flighting D. pulsing; continuous E. continuous; continuous

New York Telephone uses _____ segmentation to segment consumers in terms of how much leisure telephone calling they do. It advertises on "Nick at Night" and MTV when it wishes to target the group it calls "chatterboxes." A. behavioristic B. benefit C. demographic D. geographic E. VALS

Nielsen Media Research's A2/M2 system measures ____, the focused mental and emotional connection between a consumer, a media vehicle, and a brand's message. A. adjacency B. engagement C. cume D. syndication E. affiliation

Nike conducts a marketing research study and finds the majority of consumers recall the company's "Just do it" ad slogan. Nike can safely assume that: A. consumers are aware of Nike's advertising. B. consumers have favorable attitudes toward Nike. C. consumers understand the advertising message Nike is trying to communicate. D. consumers will buy Nike athletic shoes. E. most of the consumers have bought Nike shoes during the past.

On a trip to Spokane, Joy experienced car trouble. She knew she needed to find a good mechanic, so she asked the advice of the people running the motel where she was staying. She also called the local Better Business Bureau to help and looked in the local Yellow Pages. Finally, she called a friend who used to live in Spokane for his recommendation. Joy was engaged in the _____ stage of the consumer decision making process. A. problem recognition B. information search C. postpurchase evaluation D. subliminal problem avoidance E. purchase decision

One important purpose of setting specific advertising goals and objectives is to: A. provide a standard against which performance can be measured. B. put constraints on the creative department. C. have a method of determining when to delete products from the product line. D. forecast the market share level that can be attained by good advertising. E. protect all investors and debt holders.

One of the major determinants of creativity is _____ which reflects the degree to which the various elements of the ad are meaningful, useful, or valuable to the consumer. A. divergence B. synthesis C. relevance D. illumination E. elaboration

One of the most popular and long-running advertising campaigns was created by the Leo Burnett agency for Maytag appliances. The ____ or central message of the advertising campaign was "Maytag Dependability." A. animatic B. campaign theme C. repositioning strategy D. copy platform E. product specific preplanning input

One tactic that can be used by TV networks to hold viewers' attention and inhibit zapping is to: A. increase the number of commercials during a break. B. increase the use of clutter in commercials. C. create "hybrid" pod commercial breaks that are part promotion and part ads. D. convince advertisers to be the sole sponsor of a show. E. change the standard commercial format to 10 seconds.

One way a supermarket can make its ads seem more trustworthy is by: A. showing customers talking about the supermarket on hidden cameras. B. hiring new attractive actors and actresses who look like people wished they looked. C. using cartoon characters in humorous shopping experiences. D. using loud music or an unsettling color combination. E. advertising repetitively in short intervals.

Opponents of the agency commission system argue this system is not effective because: A. a commission keeps the emphasis on creative skills not the bottom-line. B. a commission is simple to administer. C. the agency time spent on an account may not be proportional to the compensation received for it. D. a commission encourages agencies to limit their client's advertising expenditures. E. a commission does not tie agency compensation to media costs.

Organizations that specialize in the creation of interactive media such as CD-ROMs, kiosks, and web sites are known as: A. sales promotion agencies. B. public relations firms. C. creative boutiques. D. interactive agencies. E. direct-response agencies.

Outside-in planning: A. focuses on what the marketer wants to say, when the marketer wants to say it, things the marketer believes are important to his brand, and the media form the marketer wants to use. B. is another term for zero-based communications planning. C. starts with the customer and builds backward to the brand when developing an IMC program. D. is a method of implementing DAGMAR objectives. E. is used to forecast the validity of DAGMAR objectives.

PrimeTime is a multi-product firm that follows an advertising organizational system where the manager has the responsibility for the marketing program, including the identification of target markets as well as the development of integrated marketing communications programs that will differentiate the brands and ensures that each brand receives concentrated managerial attention. However, each brand may compete against other brands in the same company. Which advertising organizational system is PrimeTime following? A. Centralized system B. Decentralized system C. Creative boutique D. Collateral system E. Democratic system

Problems associated with a(n) _____ include difficulty of the advertising department to understand the overall marketing strategy for the brand. A. decentralized marketing system B. in-house agency C. centralized marketing system D. brand management system E. creative boutique

Procter & Gamble markets Tide, Cheer, Gain, Dash, Bold 3 and Ivory Snow detergents to a variety of different target markets. P&G advertises these different brands using what type of creative strategy? A. Inherent drama B. Brand image C. Unique selling proposition D. Positioning E. Repositioning

Procter & Gamble markets Zest, Safeguard, Camay, and Lava brands of bar soaps. Zest is a "get-you-started in the morning" soap. Safeguard is marketed as a germ-fighter. Camay cleans without drying or injuring the skin. Lava is for tough cleaning jobs. Procter & Gamble uses a(n) _____ strategy. A. brand image B. universal selling proposal (USP) C. inherent drama D. positioning E. divestment

Product positioning is about: A. the perception of a product from the view of competitors. B. the position of the product on the shelf of a retail store. C. the way the product is packed. D. developing a perception about a product or service in the mind of the consumers. E. shelf life of a product.

Progresso soup positioned itself as better tasting and more appropriate to the adult palate to gain a competitive advantage over Campbell's soup. Progresso used positioning by: A. product attributes. B. cultural symbols. C. competitor. D. product user. E. product class.

Promotional expenditures on advertising, sales promotion, and personal selling: A. are not relevant when determining a pricing structure. B. are incomes that must be covered in a firm's pricing structure. C. contribute to a product's cost and price and thus make it harder to sell. D. are expenses that must be covered but can also help reduce costs by creating demand for a product. E. are examples of fixed costs on an organization's income statement.

Researchers Daniel Miller and Don Slater monitored websites, lurked in chat rooms, and hung out in cyber cafés and observed how Internet users act. The users they observed consider the Internet to be a tool to augment traditional forms of communication. Miller and Slater conducted _____ research. A. e-marketing B. ethnographic C. demographic D. quantitative E. e-commerce

Some of the more successful advertising agencies, like TBWA and Wieden & Kennedy, attribute their excellent creative work to the fact that: A. they have clients who are risk averse. B. they have clients who are willing to take creative risks. C. they have clients who never become involved with or interfere in the creation process. D. their clients keep them in check and don't let them try creative approaches that are excessively different. E. their relationship with the client is significantly more important than any creative work.

Symbols, rhymes, association and images that assist in the learning and memory processes are known as: A. drives. B. cues. C. mnemonics. D. trigger points. E. persuaders.

Taco Bell launched the advertising campaign for its Double Decker taco by running anonymous full-page ads featuring basketball stars issuing vague challenges to one another. This is an example of _____ advertising. A. reminder B. teaser C. transformational D. favorable price appeal E. news appeal

Television advertising is used most often to communicate with: A. niche market segments. B. industrial buying centers. C. mass audiences. D. resellers. E. purchasing agents.

Television is a popular advertising medium among companies selling products and services that are consumed by mass markets because it: A. has such a low absolute cost. B. has the ability to reach large audiences in a relatively cost-efficient manner. C. has a high level of geographic selectivity. D. is very easy to develop creative television advertising. E. has no impact on the image of a brand.

The "We try harder" and Wendy's "Where's the beef?" advertising campaign themes are examples of: A. universal selling propositions (USPs). B. big ideas that have been the basis for effective advertising campaigns. C. inherent drama approaches to developing big ideas. D. big ideas for ad campaigns that did not last very long. E. creative platforms that support products in the pioneering stage of their product life cycles.

The 80-20 rule states that: A. around 80 percent of the firm's sales comes from 20 percent of the customers. B. only 80 percent of a market can be segmented. C. market segmentation works well only 80 percent of the time. D. only about 80 percent of the people remember the firm's positioning of a product while the remaining 20 percent create their own positioning for a particular product. E. about 80 percent of corporations do not understand the actual meaning of the term "market segmentation".

The AIDA model is often used to represent what ideally happens during: A. personal-selling. B. the decoding of direct marketing advertising pieces. C. mass marketing. D. sales promotions. E. the introduction of innovative new consumer products.

The Blooms deodorant ad campaign that used the slogan, "Aren't you glad you use Blooms? Don't you wish everybody did?" is a good example of: A. a low fear appeal. B. an irrational appeal. C. comparative advertising. D. a refutational appeal. E. source power.

The Boston designated market area (DMA) has approximately 2 million television households. Audience research shows that 60 percent of these households had their sets turned on during a particular Saturday evening and 300,000 households were watching the Boston Celtics in a playoff game. The program rating for the Celtic game in the Boston DMA is _____ while the share of audience is ____. A. 25; 15 B. 15; 25 C. 33; 20 D. 15; 60 E. 20; 30

The DAGMAR approach to setting objectives: A. has little effect on the advertising planning process. B. has focused advertisers' attention on the value of using communications objectives rather than sales objectives. C. has never been criticized because it focuses on the hierarchy of effects model. D. has increased the degree of subjectivity used in the selection of objectives toward which planners' efforts should be directed. E. has been successful because it is easy to implement.

The DDB Needham advertising agency receives compensation from its clients based on their sales and market share performance. This is an example of a(n) _____ compensation system. A. fixed-fee B. mediated C. value based D. cost-plus system E. fee-commission

The Florida Orange Juice Commission's advertising campaign based around the slogan, "It's not just for breakfast anymore," reflected positioning by: A. product user. B. use or application. C. product class. D. competitor. E. cultural symbol.

The Foote, Cone & Belding grid is based on the dimensions of _____ and high- versus low-involvement. A. dissonance versus attribution B. rational versus irrational thought C. thinking versus feeling processing D. affect versus dissonance E. selective versus passive learning

The Glad trash bag campaign, which used the slogan "Don't get mad. Get Glad," tells the reader that Glad trash bags are twice as thick as the leading volume bag. Glad uses a(n) _____ appeal. A. emotional B. competitive advantage C. fear D. favorable price E. transformational

The Hierarchy of needs theory was popularized by: A. Sigmund Freud B. Sigmund Maslow C. Consumer Healthcare Products Association D. Abraham Maslow E. James Vicary

The Nielsen Station Index (NSI) refers to local television markets as: A. areas of dominant influence. B. metropolitan rating areas (MRAs). C. designated market areas (DMAs). D. local markets. E. geodemographic areas.

The Oscar Mayer ad touched the child in all of us when it showed Andy on the pier singing the "My bologna has a first name" jingle. This example of _____ advertising won America's heart and stomach. A. competitive advantage B. refutational C. transformational D. transactional E. rational

The _____ budgetary allocation method is designed to promote stability and minimize marketing warfare as well as take advantage of the collective wisdom of the industry. A. ROI B. arbitrary allocation C. percentage of sales D. competitive parity E. objective and task

The _____ department coordinates all phases of production to ensure the proper progression of the advertisement. A. research B. production C. art D. traffic E. media

The _____ determines the best way to get the advertiser's message to the market. A. distribution plan B. coverage C. frequency level D. media plan E. reach strategy

The _____ function model is based on the microeconomics law of diminishing returns. A. concave-upward B. S-shaped demand C. S-shaped response D. marginal utility E. concave-downward

The _____ is a document that the agency's creative department uses to guide the development of advertising ideas and concepts. A. tagline brief B. creative boutique C. creative brief D. copywriter article E. marketing plan

The _____ is a model that addresses the differences in the ways consumers respond to persuasive messages. A. elaboration likelihood model B. 5-W's model of communication C. AIDA model D. information processing model E. cognitive response model

The _____ is a planning tool that can be used by marketers to consider how controllable elements of the communications process interact with the consumers' response process. A. dissonance/attribution model B. persuasion matrix C. AIDA model D. response model E. elaboration likelihood model (ELM)

The _____ is another approach to explain the curvilinear nature of fear appeals. The model suggests both the cognitive appraisal of information in a fear appeal message and the emotional response mediate persuasion. A. protection motivation model B. non-monotonic model C. cognitive response model D. response-stimuli hierarchy E. persuasive delimiter model

The _____ is responsible for creating the visual portion of an ad such as layouts and the commercial storyboards. A. account executive B. copywriter C. product management department D. research department E. art department

The _____ is responsible for understanding the advertiser's marketing and promotional needs and interpreting them to agency personnel. A. account executive B. database manager C. media specialist D. copywriter E. account planner

The _____ is the general category of available delivery systems, which includes broadcast media, print media, direct marketing, outdoor advertising, and other support media. A. media vehicle B. reach C. distribution channel D. medium E. needledrop

The _____ is the manner in which an advertising idea is turned into a message and presented to consumers. A. advertising appeal B. creative execution style C. rational appeal D. emotional appeal E. big idea

The _____ is the method or medium by which communication travels from the source to the receiver. A. channel B. receiver C. feedback mechanism D. source E. decoder

The _____ is used as the central theme of the advertising campaign and translated into attention-getting, distinctive, and memorable messages. A. animatic B. big idea C. brand name D. logo E. copy platform

The _____ method of budgeting is being employed when expenditure is allocated by an analysis of expenditure for all aspects of producing and marketing the product. The ad budget is determined by making sure a certain amount is not exceeded. A. arbitrary allocation B. percentage of sales C. affordable D. return on investment E. competitive parity

The _____ method of budgeting is being employed when expenditures are allocated based on information about industry averages for advertising. The budget is set to maintain a level consistent with industry spending. A. arbitrary allocation B. percentage of sales C. objective and task D. return on investment E. competitive parity

The _____ method of budgeting is being employed when expenditures are allocated by assigning a part of the cost of the product to be allocated to advertising. The total budget is based on units sold. A. arbitrary allocation B. percentage of sales C. objective and task D. return on investment E. competitive parity

The _____ method of budgeting uses advertising/sales ratio data. A. objective and task B. affordable C. percent of sales D. ROI E. arbitrary allocation

The _____ model involves selective learning, whereby the consumer seeks information that supports the purchase choices made and avoids information that would raise doubts about the decision. A. standard learning B. dissonance/attribution C. low-involvement D. cognitive response E. 5-Ws

The _____ model, the best known of the response hierarchies, shows the process by which advertising works. The premise of this model is that advertising effects occur over a period of time. A. diffusion rate B. objective-task C. innovation-adoption D. hierarchy of effects E. adoption objective

The _____ score indicates the percentage of the people who have heard of the endorser or the performer. A. familiarity B. attractiveness C. similarity D. one of my favorites E. Q rating

The _____ score is an absolute measure of the appeal or popularity of the celebrity. A. Q rating B. familiarity C. similarity D. one of my favorites E. compliance

The _____ step of the creative process deals with putting the problems out of one's conscious mind and turning the information over to the subconscious to do the work. A. problem detection B. illumination C. immersion D. reality E. incubation

The ad for 'TDAmeritrade' investment bank states that the company is "Ranked #1 by SmartMoney Magazine for the Do-It-Yourself Investor." The ad is using a(n) _____ appeal. A. emotional B. competitive advantage C. feature D. favorable price E. transformational

The ad for Jergens lotion indicated that it has both beta hydroxy to defoliate dry skin and alpha hydroxy to moisturize skin. Someone who knew something about these additives work might respond to the ad by thinking, "Those fancy-sounding ingredients won't help my skin. It's too dry for some over-the-counter lotion to soften it." The individual's response to the ad's copy would be an example of a: A. negative ad execution thought. B. source derogation. C. support argument. D. counterargument. E. positive execution thought.

The ad for Riverside Military Academy (RMA) states, "RMA sets standards that enable young men to achieve extraordinary excellence for a lifetime of accomplishments." In other words, students attending RMA will satisfy their ______ needs as defined by Maslow's hierarchy. A. physiological B. social C. self-actualization D. esteem E. safety

The ad for TDA meritrade investment company opens with the statement, "You can't plan for tomorrow if you don't know where your money is today" and continues with a lot of information about investment and its benefits. This indicates that the ad is an example of _____ advertising. A. straight-sell B. transformational C. testimonial D. teaser E. refutational

The ad in the parenting magazine stated that Lysol Basin Tub & Tile Cleaner cleans soap scum better than either Scrubbing Bubbles marketed by SC Johnson & Son, Inc. or Tilex marketed by the Clorox Company. Therefore, this ad is an example of: A. confrontational advertising. B. two-sided advertising. C. comparative advertising. D. a recency appeal. E. refutational advertising.

The agency person who is the focal point of the agency-client relationship is the: A. media buyer. B. account planner. C. copywriter. D. brand manager. E. account executive

The agency person who is the focal point of the agency-client relationship is the: A. media buyer. B. account planner. C. copywriter. D. brand manager. E. account executive.

The agency that developed the 'Jack-in-the-Box' fast-food restaurants ads created a new ad with the return of a brand image that was remembered by customers from previous years, thereby creating a(n): A. advertising appeal. B. creative plan. C. marketing plan. D. sales approach. E. sales presentation.

The argument by famous advertising copywriter David Ogilvy that "what you say in advertising is more important than how you say it" suggests that: A. advertising appeal is more important than the way it is executed. B. advertising execution is more important than the appeal. C. advertising appeals and executions are equally important. D. advertising execution is more important than message content. E. the product is more important than the creative appeal.

The arrangement under which syndicated programs are offered free or at a reduced rate to local stations but with some advertising time presold to national advertisers is known as: A. off-network syndication. B. first-run syndication. C. barter syndication. D. sponsorship. E. participation.

The attractive editorial and advertising environment created by a publication such as Architectural Digest has a(n) _____ on advertising messages contained within its slick pages. A. externally paced impact B. positive quantitative media effect C. cluttered effect D. shaping effect E. positive qualitative media effect

The audio portion of a television commercial is often implanted into the radio spot for the same product. This is known as: A. positioning. B. image transfer. C. visualization. D. flexibility. E. narrowcasting.

The basic function of all of the elements of the integrated communications program is to: A. communicate with a firm's target audience. B. convince customers to make a purchase immediately. C. convince customers to pay a higher price for a good or service. D. educate customers about the features of a good or service. E. persuade customers to try a product category.

The basis for subliminal advertising can be found in: A. cognitive theory. B. psychoanalytic theory. C. behavioral learning theory. D. affective theory. E. multiattribute motivational model.

The best way to reach a narrowly defined group of customers or a market niche is through: A. television advertising and billboards. B. personal selling and targeted direct mail. C. targeted direct mail and radio advertising. D. any form of broadcast media. E. transit advertising, billboards, and ads with pithy headlines.

The buying period for television advertising time that runs throughout the television season is known as the _____ market. A. up-front B. spot C. scatter D. interconnected E. local

The buying period that takes place prior to the upcoming television season and where networks sell much of their commercial time is referred to as: A. the network market. B. the regional market. C. pre-screenings. D. previews. E. the up-front market.

The commercial for Burpee gardening supplies begins with a discussion of how beautiful and enjoyable gardens can be. It ends with the directive to visit the company at Burpee. com and let Burpee's experience get you off to a good start. By placing the strongest point at the end of the ad, Burpee is hoping to benefit from the: A. primacy effect. B. recency effect. C. sleeper effect. D. credibility effect. E. compliance hierarchy.

The concave-downward function model is based on: A. the microeconomics law of diminishing returns. B. the economic law of supply and demand. C. price elasticity of demand quotients. D. the change in contribution margins as item price is changed. E. perceptual mapping results.

The concept of _____ is based on the assumption that one exposure to an ad may not be enough to convey the desired method. A. average frequency B. average reach C. effective reach D. GRPs E. effective frequency

The concept of advertising expenditures producing long term rather than immediate results is known as: A. the carry-over effect. B. the communication effect. C. the low-involvement effect. D. the halo effect. E. DAGMAR.

The copy platform: A. is typically developed by agency personnel with no input from the client. B. is developed by the client before ever meeting with the agency. C. often involves individuals from both the client side and agency personnel. D. has a predetermined format that makes it easier to compare platforms from two disparate products. E. typically contains both the advertising and the communications objectives.

The elaboration likelihood model (ELM) indicates that the willingness to process an ad is a function of two elements. They are the _____ to process the message. A. encoding and decoding abilities B. motivation and ability C. knowledge and technical skills D. attitude and linguistics skills E. verbal and nonverbal skills

The elaboration likelihood model (ELM) states that there are two basic routes to persuasion, the central route and the peripheral route. In case of the peripheral route to persuasion, the: A. message will be more likely received if a celebrity endorser is used. B. message should contain a lot of information. C. receiver is viewed as very actively involved in the communication process. D. quality of the message claims are more important than the spokesperson, headline, pictures, or music bed. E. sender is dealing with a high-involvement buying situation.

The elaboration likelihood model (ELM) states that there are two basic routes to persuasion, the central route and the peripheral route. Under the central route to persuasion, a message recipient is viewed as: A. lacking the motivation to process a message. B. having a low level of involvement and relying on imagery processing. C. a very active and involved participant in the communications process. D. having low ability to attend to and comprehend a message. E. unlikely to engage in detailed cognitive processing.

The elaboration likelihood model (ELM) was developed to explain the process by which persuasive communications influence: A. dissonance formation. B. attributions. C. beliefs. D. attitudes. E. group norms.

The element of the communications process that closes the loop in the communications flow and allows the sender to monitor how a message is being received and interpreted is known as: A. encoding. B. decoding. C. feedback. D. reception. E. response.

The evaluation and follow-up stage of media planning: A. is the easiest stage for the media planner. B. is an imperative if an organization is to evaluate its performance. C. is unnecessary in most situations due to problems with comparing media vehicles. D. is typically done most efficiently with computers. E. must be difficult to administer.

The experiences, perceptions, attitudes and values a consumer brings to a communication situation is referred to as his or her: A. semiotic experiences. B. field of experience. C. common ground. D. source characteristics. E. selective perceptions.

The fact that some consumers want pure bottled water while some want flavored bottle water and still others want bottled water with added minerals provides an opportunity for _____ segmentation in the bottled water market. A. behavioristic B. benefit C. geographic D. psychographic E. demographic

The field of experience of the receiver most heavily influences which component of the communications process? A. Encoding B. Decoding C. Message D. Channel E. Noise

The first step in the target marketing process is to: Refer: Figure 2-2 A. develop positioning strategies. B. request government approval. C. determine whether to use a market segmentation strategy or a mass marketing strategy. D. identify markets with unfulfilled needs. E. develop new products.

The first task in the objective and task method of budgeting is to: A. conduct a system analysis. B. create an organizational budget. C. isolate advertising objectives. D. determine what tasks need to be accomplished. E. reevaluate objectives from previous years.

The gecko lizard in the Geico Direct insurance ads, the golden arches of McDonald's, and the Mr. Peanut character used by Planters' Peanuts are all examples of: A. drives. B. cues. C. mnemonics. D. trigger points. E. persuaders.

The growth in spot cable advertising has been facilitated by the use of: A. LANs. B. multiplexing. C. interconnects. D. interstitials. E. clutter minimizers.

The headline for the Dodge Caravan ad reads, "What idiot coined the phrase 'stay-at-home-mom'?" The only other information in the ad is directions on where to call to find the nearest Dodge dealer. This ad is: A. an example of a fear appeal. B. designed to let the target audience draw its own conclusions. C. an example of a refutational appeal. D. designed to express a two-sided message. E. effective no matter what the context of the ad medium.

The headline for the National Flood Insurance program ad reads, "There's a chance of flooding in your area. Are you willing to bet the house on it?" The ad shows a picture of a flooded home and shows how flood insurance helps to satisfy the ______ need as defined by Maslow's hierarchy. A. physiological B. social C. self actualization D. esteem E. safety

The headline on the ad for Broilmaster Grill read, "The Most Durable Grill Known to Man." Broilmaster is using a positioning strategy based on: A. product class. B. product attributes and benefits. C. price/quality. D. competitor. E. cultural symbol.

The independent variable in the persuasion matrix that takes into account the passage of information from one person to another is: A. the source. B. the message. C. behavior. D. retention. E. destination.

The manufacturer of Mercedes-Benz autos stressed that the car had side door air bags in an attempt to attract new buyers. Its focus on safety illustrated a strategy of positioning by: A. cultural symbols. B. demographics. C. price-value. D. product attribute and benefit. E. competitor.

The market for snack food is saturated, but manufacturers continue to develop new offerings. Which of the following best explains why the makers of Honey Maid graham crackers found it necessary to develop and market Honey Maid graham sticks? A. Consumer's novelty-seeking behavior B. To satisfy a physiological need C. To broaden the marketer consideration set D. Consumer cocooning E. To balance any product deletion

The market potential in a given metropolitan area, as compared to the United States as a whole, can be determined by using: A. the Nielsen Rating Index. B. BAR/LNA. C. Simmons Market Research Bureau (SMRB). D. Mediamark Research Inc. (MRI). E. the survey of buying power index.

The market segmentation process: A. divides a market into distinct groups that have heterogeneous needs. B. divides a market into distinct groups that will respond similarly to marketing actions. C. offers one version of the product to all markets. D. identifies markets with unfulfilled needs. E. positions products in the minds of prospects and customers.

The marketing mix variable that deals with what a consumer must give up to purchase a product or service is: A. product. B. price. C. promotion. D. distribution. E. production.

The meaning a consumer attributes to a product or brand and what he or she experiences in purchasing it is known as: A. functional utility. B. product quality. C. brand extension. D. product symbolism. E. product utility.

The media plan is a guide for: A. development of specific creative objectives. B. media selection. C. sales and marketing forecasts and potentials. D. marketing research activities. E. observation studies.

The most commonly utilized method of budget determination by large firms is: A. competitive parity method. B. objective and task method. C. percentage of sales method. D. arbitrary allocation method. E. the affordable method.

The percentage of homes in a given area that are watching television during a specific time period is referred to as: A. households using television. B. ratings point. C. program rating. D. share of audience. E. total audience.

The perception process whereby consumers interpret information based on their own attitudes, beliefs, motives and experiences is known as: A. selective attention. B. selective exposure. C. selective comprehension. D. selective retention. E. subliminal perception.

The perceptual process has often been referred to as the consumer's _____ process. A. shaping B. information retrieval C. filtering D. situation-defining E. modeling

The perpetual debate over the most effective role for advertising is between: A. rationalists and poets. B. environmentalists and pragmatics. C. liberals and conservatives. D. functionalists and operationalists. E. supporters of centralization and supporters of decentralization.

The pervasiveness and intrusive nature of ____, as an advertising medium, contributes to the high level of distrust consumers have for the ads that appear in it. A. radio B. television C. newspapers D. direct response E. magazines

The presence of a prize in every box of Cracker Jack snacks is an example of: A. classical reinforcement. B. continuous reinforcement. C. partial reinforcement. D. cognitive learning. E. intermittent reinforcement.

The price for commercial time charged by a television network is largely a function of a program's: A. average frequency. B. production costs. C. audience size and composition. D. duplicated reach. E. overlap.

The primary objective of _____ is to develop a framework that will deliver the message to the target audience in the most efficient cost-effective manner possible. A. media planning B. market segmentation C. target marketing D. organizational planning E. a communication hierarchy

The print ad for Chevy Ventura vans contains about ten times more copy than other ads in a recent issue of Better Homes & Gardens magazine. Which of the following theories states that this is an appropriate way to shape consumer behavior? A. Psychoanalytical theory B. Cognitive learning theory C. Reinforcement theory D. Affective modeling E. Operant conditioning

The proprietary research technique developed by the McCann-Erickson Worldwide agency that helps evaluate how consumers feel about brands and the nature of their relationship with them is known as: A. focus group research. B. transformational research. C. emotional bonding. D. psychographics. E. ethnographics.

The rate of product usage in a geographical area may be calculated through the use of: A. gross ratings points (GRP). B. reach and frequency. C. brand development index (BDI). D. benchmark designated index (BDI). E. category development index (CDI).

The ratings periods during which viewing audiences in every television market are measured by Nielsen are known as: A. program ratings. B. designated market periods. C. audience measurement intervals. D. audience shares. E. sweeps.

The receiver's set of reactions after seeing, hearing, or reading the message is known as a _____. A. noise B. code C. source D. feedback E. response

The relatively low cost of radio advertising time makes it an effective medium through which advertisers can build more _____ into their media schedules. A. absolute cost B. reach and frequency C. inherent drama D. audience selectivity E. spectaculars

The repeated use of the "Got milk" slogan by America's Dairy and Milk Processors in their ads can most readily be justified by the _____ hierarchy. A. standard learning B. low-involvement C. dissonance/attribution D. habit formation E. informative processing

The slogan of Bata, an Indian shoe brand, is 'The World at your feet.' Bata is focusing on satisfying which of the following need of the consumers? A. Physiological B. Social C. Safety D. Esteem E. Self Actualization

The sole source of network television and local audience information is: A. Arbitron Co. B. A. C. Nielsen Co. C. RADAR. D. Smart-TV. E. Burke Research.

The source characteristic of attractiveness encompasses: A. power, expertise, and recognizability. B. similarity, likeability, and familiarity. C. comfort, recognizability, and beauty. D. beauty, familiarity, and recognizability. E. expertise, familiarity, and comfort.

The source or sender of an advertising communication: A. is typically a salesperson. B. is never a nonpersonal entity. C. is typically identified as the owner of the medium in which the communication appeared. D. can be an individual who appears in the ad or a nonpersonal entity. E. is never involved in the encoding process.

The survey of buying power index is particularly useful for providing _____ information. A. geographic B. demographic C. lifestyle D. consumer behavior E. psychographic

The term client, in the ad agency industry, refers to the: A. advertiser or organization that has the product, service or cause that needs to be marketed. B. media, which plays a crucial role in the process of marketing communication. C. purchaser of the consumer product advertised. D. market for business or consumer products. E. advertising agency that specializes in the creation, production, and/or placement of the communications message.

The top of the ad in a magazine targeted to women reads, "Synvise can be a great approach to osteoarthritis knee pain, says LPGA golfer Nancy Lopez and Synvise user." The rest of the ad copy explains how the prescription medication works and describes possible side-effects. The ad's source is hoping its message benefits from the: A. primacy effect. B. recency effect. C. sleeper effect. D. credibility effect. E. compliance hierarchy.

The traditional method of compensating ad agencies is through: A. a commission system. B. hourly billings. C. a fee system. D. a straight salary method. E. an objective-and-task compensation system.

The two models that are commonly used to explain the relationship between advertising and sales are the: A. concave-downward function and the S-shaped response function. B. S-shaped response function and the concave-upward function. C. marginal utility function and the S-shaped demand function. D. S-shaped demand function and the convex-downward function. E. concave-upward function and the S-shaped demand function.

The use of celebrities in commercials is generally based on the source characteristics of _____ and represents an attempt to induce persuasion through the ______ process. A. expertise; yielding B. expertise; identification C. power; identification D. attractiveness; identification E. attractiveness; internalization

The use of comparative advertising has become more and more common. Which of the following positioning strategies does this reflect? A. Positioning by product user B. Positioning by product class C. Positioning by competitor D. Positioning by price/quality E. Positioning by cultural symbol

The use of hot sauce is most common from Louisiana, west to New Mexico and north to the Arkansas-Oklahoma border. A producer of hot sauce would use this information to schedule by using: A. flighting. B. continuity. C. geographical weighting. D. intermittent frequency. E. pulsing.

The various brands identified as purchase options to be considered during the alternative evaluation process are known as: A. decision criteria. B. a brand attribution list. C. the working model. D. the evoked set. E. subliminal choices.

The weekly Nielsen report shows that 20 million of the 97 million television households in the U.S. watched American Idol last week even though only half of the households were actually watching television during this time period. The program rating for the show is approximately: A. 18. B. 21. C. 29. D. 42. E. 30.

There are approximately 900,000 television households in the San Diego County market. During a Sunday afternoon in October, 50 percent of the households had their television sets turned on and 200,000 were watching the San Diego Chargers versus Pittsburgh Steelers NFL football game on Channel 7. The approximate share of audience for the game would be: A. 22. B. 44. C. 50. D. 200. E. 100.

There are five steps in the creative process as designed by James Webb Young, a former creative vice president at the J. Walter Thompson agency. They are: A. preparation, brainstorming, growth, reality check, and verification. B. immersion, testing, illumination, creation, and verification. C. immersion, digestion, incubation, illumination, and verification. D. preparation, incubation, immersion, illumination, and reality check. E. immersion, brainstorming, incubation, creation, and reality check.

There are many different types of medicines for relieving allergy symptoms, and there are several that offer 24-hour relief, but only Alavert comes in a quick-dissolving form that can be easily swallowed without water. The maker of Alavert hopes the fact that it dissolves and enters the system more quickly than other brands will create a: A. market aggregation. B. market segment. C. competitive advantage. D. market strength. E. market threat.

Through the use of mnemonics, advertisers hope consumers will engage in _____ when they see the advertisements. A. selective attention B. selective exposure C. selective comprehension D. selective retention E. subliminal perception

Tia saw a television commercial that said a specific brand of pain reliever was much more effective than the brand she had used and trusted for the last twenty years. As a result of this commercial, Tia is likely to engage in: A. a counterargument. B. a support argument. C. source bolstering. D. negative dissonance. E. source blockage.

To announce sales, special offers, or everyday low prices, retailers often use a _____ appeal. A. functional B. popularity C. favorable price D. transformational E. productive

To be effective, marketing objectives need to be: A. realistic and attainable. B. erudite and challenging. C. philosophical and fungible. D. long-term and qualitative. E. reasonable and elaborate.

To calculate gross ratings points (GRPs), you will need to: A. multiply reach times frequency. B. divide reach times frequency by costs. C. multiply cost per thousand (CPM) times average frequency. D. divide average frequency by costs. E. add reach and frequency and divide by cost per thousand (CPM).

To determine the potential for sales of coffee (as opposed to a specific brand) in a particular market area, a company should use: A. brand development index. B. category development index. C. survey of buying power index. D. Simmons Market Research Bureau (SMRB). E. Mediamark Research Inc.

To encourage more people to use mass transit, ads from metropolitan transportation services compare the ease and comfort of riding mass transit with the difficulties of congested traffic and parking headaches. These urban bus and subway services are using positioning by: A. product class. B. product user. C. price/quality. D. product attributes. E. cultural symbols.

To implement BMW's new branding campaign, the decision was made to use short digital films and to create a Web site where consumers could view the films. Which specialized service would have most likely been involved in this campaign? A. Sales promotion agencies B. Public relations firms C. Creative boutiques D. Interactive agencies E. Direct-response agencies

To make a creative layout of a commercial more realistic, a(an) _____ may be produced by making a videotape of the _____ along with an audio soundtrack. A. animatic; storyboard B. storyboard; animatic C. animatic; copy platform D. copy platform; storyboard E. campaign; storyboard

To more fully appreciate the value of advertising and promotion, managers should treat the communications budget as a(n): A. variable cost. B. expense. C. liability. D. investment. E. fixed cost.

To reach tweens (8-12 year olds), Jell-O brand gelatin marketers introduced X-treme Jell-O in wild berry, green apple, and watermelon flavors. The ads describe the gelatin flavors as "Jell-O with an attitude" because these fruit flavors "will bite you back." Jell-O has defined tweens as: A. part of an undifferentiated market. B. aggregated market. C. a response-stimulus market. D. the mass market for gelatin. E. a market segment. From the situation analysis,

To set an advertising budget, the marketer of filing cabinets examines advertising to sales ratios published in trade magazines, and then allocates a percentage of sales dollars to the advertising effort. Which two budgeting methods are being employed? A. Competitive parity and percent of sales method. B. Competitive parity and payout planning method. C. Payout planning and percent of sales method. D. Percent of sales and objective and task method. E. Payout planning and arbitrary allocation method.

Today, the Nielsen Television Index provides weekly estimates of networks and major cable viewing audiences on a national level through the use of an electronic device that measures what is being watched and by whom. This device is called a(n): A. audiometer. B. people meter. C. electronic diary. D. market survey. E. focus group.

Todd buys a cold drink every afternoon. He either buys a Coca-Cola, or a Minute Maid lemonade. He will not consider any other brand or type of soft drink because the two drinks make up his: A. decision criteria. B. brand attribution list. C. working model. D. evoked set. E. subliminal choices.

Toyota ran an advertisement proclaiming their Camry has been the best selling model in the United States for two straight years. This is an example of a _____ appeal. A. feature B. favorable price C. news D. product popularity E. generic

Under a _____ arrangement, national advertisers can participate in the syndication market with the convenience of a network-type buy while local stations get free programming as well as some advertising time to sell to local or spot advertisers. A. sponsorship B. participation C. barter syndication D. local syndication E. national syndication

Under a centralized organizational arrangement, which of the following is the advertising manager responsible for? A. Budgeting and planning media schedule B. Coordinating the creation and production of ads and sales C. Compensation management D. Administering the firm's sales and sales promotion programs E. Sales and sales management

Under a decentralized system, the advertising department is generally a part of _____ department. A. production B. sales C. product management D. marketing E. research and development

Under the DAGMAR model, a(n) _____ can be performed by, and attributed to advertising rather than a combination of marketing factors. A. advertising hierarchical plan B. functional communication change C. communications task D. marketing task E. advertising benchmark

Under the _____ system of compensation, the client agrees to pay the agency a fee based on the costs of its work plus some agreed-on profit margin. A. fixed fee B. negotiated commission C. fee-commission combination D. incentive based E. cost plus

Under which of the following compensation arrangement is the agency compensation tied to their performance? A. Fixed-fee system B. Incentive based system C. Cost plus system D. Negotiated commission system E. Fee-commission combination system

Under which type of compensation system might an agency be more inclined to recommend expensive media such as network television and national magazines to its clients? A. Commission system B. Fee arrangement system C. Cost-plus system D. Incentive-based compensation system E. Objective-and-task compensation system

Unduplicated reach indicates ____, while duplicated reach provides an estimate of ____. A. repeat exposures; frequency B. frequency; repeat exposure C. new exposures; coverage D. new exposures; frequency E. coverage; frequency

Unduplicated reach is: A. average reach multiplied by average frequency. B. duplicated reach plus total reach. C. total market coverage less duplicated reach. D. reach multiplied by frequency. E. total reach less duplicated reach.

Unisys Corporation engaged in a multi-million dollar campaign to alter its perceptions among many of its customers that it was simply a hardware manufacturer. Unisys wants customers to see it as a services and technology provider. Unisys was: A. using a repositioning strategy. B. segmenting the market in new, more profitable ways. C. adopting a concentrated strategy. D. adopting an undifferentiated strategy. E. employing lifestyle segmentation.

United Parcel Service (UPS) built its advertising campaign around the slogan, "moving at the speed of business." This slogan was an example of a positioning strategy based on: A. cultural symbols. B. demographics. C. price-value. D. product attribute and benefit. E. competitor.

Unlike other alkaline batteries and traditional rechargeable batteries, Rayovac Renewal alkaline battery is reusable 25 times or more. The ad headline read, "Introducing the Best-Performing Battery System in All of Creation." This ad was based on the Rayovac Renewal alkaline batteries: A. unique selling proposition. B. flexibility. C. inherent drama. D. tangibility. E. brand equity.

Using the meaning transfer model of the celebrity endorsement process, celebrities draw their meanings from: A. the products they endorse. B. their popularity among consumers. C. their physical appearance. D. the roles they assume in their careers and the objects, persons, and contexts these roles bring them into contact with. E. the commercial development process and media selection.

Various response hierarchy variables such as awareness, knowledge, interest, attitudes, and intention are the basis for: A. marketing objectives. B. sales-oriented objectives. C. image objectives. D. communications objectives. E. the carry-over effects.

Visa credit cards ran ads for a number of years that center around the basic theme that "Visa Is Everywhere You Want to Be." These ads emphasized the fact that Visa is accepted more places than any of its competitors are. This is an example of a(n): A. inherent drama appeal. B. long-running advertising campaign. C. conflict between the agency and the client producing an inability to create a new campaign theme. D. copy platform. E. creative blueprint.

Visual image personalities: A. are typically used with complex products that require high-involvement. B. appear in ads for low-involvement products. C. require central route processing to be effective. D. typically shorten the cognitive stage of the consumer decision-making process. E. are used when consumers must go through all stages of AIDA before making a purchase.

Volvo's strategy of emphasizing the safety of its cars in their advertising reflects a positioning strategy based on: A. benefit segmentation. B. demographic segmentation. C. psychographic segmentation. D. positioning by competitor. E. positioning by product class.

WSIX in Nashville, WDEF in Chattanooga, and WGNX in Atlanta all show CBS programming. These local television stations that are associated with national television networks are known as: A. satellite networks. B. local nets. C. affiliates. D. station reps. E. regional networks.

Wal-Mart has been very effective in positioning itself as a store that offers quality products at a very good price. Their strategy reflects positioning based on: A. benefit segmentation. B. demographic segmentation. C. psychographic segmentation. D. price/quality. E. product class.

Well-known brands and market leaders often run ads that do not use any specific types of appeals but rather focus primarily on keeping their brand name in front of consumers. This type of advertising is known as _____ advertising. A. teaser B. reminder C. repetitive D. popularity E. brandstanding

What combination of independent and dependent variables of the persuasion matrix did The Golf Channel consider when it hired Canadian golfing pro Steve Allen to be its spokesperson in a Canadian advertising campaign and assumed he would be noticed by Canadians who golf and are interested in golf? A. Source/yielding B. Message/yielding C. Channel/attention D. Source/attention E. Message/retention

What type of message structure should a marketer use if immediate behavior is not an objective of the advertiser and repeated exposure will give the target audience opportunity to draw their own conclusions? A. An open-ended message B. A close-ended message C. A primacy message D. A refutational appeal E. A fear appeal

When Bart heard an ad state that Kraft's Pasta Anytime microwave meals could be prepared in three minutes, he thought that he would find the meals in his supermarket's frozen food aisle with other microwave meals. When he could not find the Kraft meals, he purchased another brand. He did not understand that Kraft meals were not frozen, the reason why they cooked so quickly. He should have looked on the supermarket aisle that contains pasta. Bart experienced a problem with: A. decoding. B. hearing. C. channeling. D. responding. E. transmitting.

When Bruce Teilhaber opened his men's shoe store, he decided to carry a full line of shoes in the larger, hard-to-find sizes. Today, his shoe store caters to professional basketball, baseball, and football players who appreciate the variety and quality of shoes Tielhaber carries and often order a dozen new pairs in a single visit. The shoe store uses positioning by: A. product demographics. B. cultural symbols. C. product user. D. competition. E. product class.

When Bruce Teilhaber opened his men's shoe store, he decided to carry a full line of shoes in the larger, hard-to-find sizes. Today, his shoe store caters to professional basketball, baseball, and football players who appreciate the variety and quality of shoes Tielhaber carries and often order a dozen new pairs in a single visit. This shoe store uses: A. market aggregation. B. undifferentiated marketing. C. concentrated marketing. D. market atomization. E. demographic segmentation.

When Coca-Cola only had one product in its line and was targeting everyone, the company was employing: A. concentrated marketing. B. undifferentiated marketing. C. market atomization. D. niche marketing. E. benefit segmentation.

When Dodi watches old episodes of Friends and Everybody Loves Raymond on her local TV station while she eats her evening meal, she is watching: A. off-network syndications. B. sponsorships. C. first-run syndications. D. network spots. E. sweeps.

When FX cable network promotes its television show The Shield, it shows bloody and provocative excerpts from upcoming episodes. Which combination of independent and dependent variables does the advertiser using the persuasion matrix consider for this commercial? A. Source/attention B. Source/comprehension C. Message/yielding D. Channel/behavior E. Receiver/attention

When Ford Motor Company was preparing to introduce a new model, ads were run for several weeks that talked about the new car but never showed it. This is an example of _____ advertising. A. reminder B. transformational C. teaser D. emotional E. cognitive

When Harrison saw the television ad advising him to mark on his calendar when the latest of Survivor series would start, he actually did make a mental note of the starting day because he had enjoyed the previous Survivor shows. Harrison's response to the communication was an example of a: A. negative ad execution thought. B. source derogation. C. support argument. D. counterargument. E. positive execution thought.

When Johann saw the television ad advising him to mark on his calendar when the latest of Survivor series would start, he was appalled that the network would provide such trite and derivative programming. Johann's response to the ad for the reality show would be an example of: A. a counterargument. B. a support argument. C. source bolstering. D. negative dissonance. E. source blockage.

When MetaboLife first came on the market, its only product was a weight-loss pill that was guaranteed to energize the user by causing a greater level of physical activity, which would help in burning calories. This was its only product, and it was marketed to anyone who wanted to lose weight or have more energy. This means, that its target market was virtually anyone breathing because very few people like their current weight, and everyone could use a little more energy. MetaboLife used: A. concentrated marketing. B. undifferentiated marketing. C. market atomization. D. niche marketing. E. demographic segmentation.

When Rolls Royce attempts to capture a large market share of the $300,000 car buying market and only that market, it is an example of: A. market aggregation. B. undifferentiated marketing. C. concentrated marketing. D. market atomization. E. demographic segmentation.

When Sunkist introduced Almond Accents, a topping for everything from salads to casseroles, the promotional program for the introduction process included a 75-cents-off coupon on one 6 ounce bag and a $1.25-cents off coupon for two 6-ounce bags. In addition, consumers were asked to enter an original recipe using Almond Accents in a contest in which the first prize was a trip for two to the Culinary Institute of America. The use of these promotional tools is a good example of the application of: A. reinforcement theory. B. shaping procedures. C. cognitive learning theory. D. intermittent reinforcement. E. attitude modification theory.

When a communicator presents information on both sides of an issue and offers arguments to counter an opposing viewpoint, a(n) _____ message appeal is being used. A. confrontational B. recency C. nonverbal D. refutational E. one-sided

When a product's advertising schedule involves constant advertising with heavier efforts being made at certain times, a(n) ______ schedule is being employed. A. intermittent B. continuity C. flighting D. weighting E. pulsing

When a source is able to administer rewards and punishments to the receiver, influence occurs through a process known as: A. compliance. B. identification. C. internalization. D. retention. E. perceived concern.

When a target audience already holds a favorable opinion on a topic or issue, a(n) _____ is most effective. A. one-sided message B. two-sided message C. nonverbal appeal D. open-ended message E. fear appeal

When an actress from the television show Desperate Housewives appears in a commercial endorsing Garnier Lumia hair products, the message source is: A. the television network showing the commercial. B. the television program that the advertising provides financial support for. C. the actress. D. consumers who view the commercial. E. Desperate Housewives.

When an advertiser purchases airtime from a national network, the commercial is transmitted across the nation through the affiliate station network. This is known as _____ advertising. A. network B. scatter C. local D. spot E. up-front

When an advertiser uses an ad that emphasizes psychological associations and attempts to wrap the consumer's perceptions into a tight concept or symbol, what type of advertising approach is being used? A. Unique selling proposition B. Image advertising C. Inherent drama D. Attribute-based positioning E. Refutational appeal

When an advertiser wants to present a detailed message with a large amount of information, which medium should be used? A. Radio B. Television C. Billboards D. Magazines E. Transit signs

When can a high credibility source be less effective than a moderately credible source? A. When a receiver has an unfavorable initial attitude or position on the issue. B. When a receiver has a favorable initial attitude or position on the issue. C. When the source is arguing for a position that is not in line with his or her own best interest. D. When the high credibility source is a celebrity. E. High credibility sources are always more effective than low credibility sources.

When developing a _____, costs, competition, demand factors, and perceived value must be taken into consideration. A. target market B. channel of distribution C. promotional mix D. pricing strategy E. segmentation strategy

When developing a communications plan, the process should begin with: A. determining who will be the source of the communications. B. the identification and analysis of receivers in the target audience. C. deciding what feedback level is acceptable. D. determining what media to use. E. ascertaining the type of feedback that will be accepted.

When higher-level executives determine the budget amounts to be allocated for each department's advertising expenditures, a _____ approach is being used. A. bottom-up B. marginal contribution C. top-down D. Delphi E. contribution forecast

When many frequent travelers think of Australian-based Quantas Airlines, the first thing that comes to mind is the koala bear. Because of this strong association, Quantas is receiving the benefit of positioning by: A. product class. B. use/application. C. cultural symbol. D. product attribute. E. competitor.

Which of the following bases for segmentation is employed when consumers are grouped according to their use of a product or service (heavy versus light)? A. Behavioristic B. Demographic C. Benefit D. Lifestyle E. Psychographic

Which of the following budgeting procedures would be used if a firm wanted a method that is simple to understand and financially safe? A. competitive parity B. marginal analysis C. percentage of sales D. objective and task E. arbitrary method

Which of the following can be stated a responsibility of a brand manager in a decentralized marketing system? A. Planning of the marketing program B. Manufacturing the products C. Compensating all the employees D. Distributing products E. Developing departments in the organization

Which of the following communication processes will be most influenced by the experiences, perceptions, attitudes and values of the message recipient? A. Encoding B. Decoding C. Noise D. Feedback E. Transmission

Which of the following departments of the full-service agency, analyzes, selects, and contracts for space or time in the media that will be used to deliver the client's advertising message? A. Research department B. Media department C. Account management department D. Creative services department E. Art department

Which of the following describes a limitation associated with the decentralized organizational structure for advertising? A. Brand managers are often overqualified and want too much input into advertising. B. Brand managers are typically highly experienced in advertising and understand exactly what advertising can do for a brand. C. Brand managers do not devote enough attention to short-term planning and administrative tasks. D. Brand managers often end up competing for management attention, marketing budgets, and other resources. E. With their reliance on intuition, brand managers often jeopardize the creative activities of the advertising agency.

Which of the following factors contribute the most to the "clutter" problem in television advertising? A. The use of celebrities in ads B. The use of emotional appeals C. The trend toward shorter commercials D. The increase in zapping or channel changing via remote control E. The use of fear appeals

Which of the following factors makes it difficult for companies with small advertising budgets to use television as part of their media mix? A. Television programs do not reach their target markets. B. Small ad agencies generally do not know how to produce TV commercials. C. The high costs of producing and airing television commercials. D. The limited creative options available through television. E. The lack of captivity and attention that TV advertising provides.

Which of the following has contributed to the problem of advertising clutter on television? A. The increased use of shorter commercials. B. The use of zipping and zapping techniques by some advertisers. C. The mandate of the National Association of Broadcasters to increase the amount of time available for commercials. D. Decisions by the major networks to decrease the number of minutes they make available for commercials. E. The use of remote controls leading to zipping and zapping by customers.

Which of the following hierarchical response models views the receiver of a persuasive communication as a problem solver? A. The AIDA model B. The hierarchy of effects models C. The innovation-adoption model D. The information processing model E. The 5-Ws model

Which of the following indices reflects a company with low market share of a brand in a given market? A. Low brand development index (BDI) B. High brand development index (BDI) C. Low category development index (CDI) D. High category development index (CDI) E. High survey of buying power index (BPI)

Which of the following is a disadvantage of syndication? A. The audience for syndicated shows is often older and more rural. B. Syndicated shows offer no advantages to national advertisers. C. Syndicated shows are often more expensive than network shows. D. Syndicated shows reach a limited audience and generate limited ad revenue. E. Syndicated shows do not benefit local television stations.

Which of the following is a factor that influences the setting of the advertising budget? A. The use of communications or sales objectives. B. The corporate structure. C. The basis for product differentiation. D. The extent of selective retention. E. The recruitment plans.

Which of the following is a reason to use comparative advertising? A. It prevents a new market entrant from positioning itself against established brands. B. It is a way of helping position a brand in the evoked or choice set of alternatives that consumers consider. C. It may be perceived as more ethical than non-comparative ads. D. It does not work for market leaders and, therefore, gives competitive advantage to new entrants. E. It is generally permitted by the Federal Trade Commission.

Which of the following is an advantage associated with an in-house advertising agency? A. Lower advertising costs B. More highly skilled specialists C. More varied perspective on advertising problems D. Greater flexibility E. Disseminate control to outside agencies.

Which of the following is an advantage of an in-house agency? A. Increased coordination and cost savings B. Different brand images and large number of marketing partners C. Increased coordination and greater cost savings D. More overall control and freshness in ideas and work E. Greater flexibility and more objectivity

Which of the following is an advantage of the arbitrary allocation method? A. By using the arbitrary allocation method, the company can be sure of not getting into any financial problems. B. It keeps the ad spending within reasonable limits. C. It uses a logical basis for determining the budgets. D. This method of budgeting is generally stable. E. The arbitrary allocation approach has no obvious advantages.

Which of the following is an advantage of the competitive parity method? A. It makes use of the buildup approach to establishment of promotional budgets. B. It leads to stability in the marketplace by minimizing marketing warfare. C. It is based on the fact that advertising and promotions are designed to accomplish specific objectives by addressing certain problems and opportunities. D. It gives due recognition to the contributions of creative executions and/or media allocations. E. Under this method, the budget is driven by the objectives to be attained.

Which of the following is an example of a budgeting allocation method that uses a build-up approach? A. ROI B. competitive parity C. objective and task D. arbitrary allocation E. percentage of sales

Which of the following is an example of a common criticism of DAGMAR? A. It ignores communications objectives. B. It is difficult to implement. C. It is useful only for small companies that have a small advertising budget. D. It offers little guidance to those responsible for planning and developing the promotional program. E. It concentrates only on creativity and does not pay much attention to other objectives.

Which of the following is an example of a functional consequence? A. The need to order champagne to celebrate a birthday. B. The desire to eat a pound of chocolate. C. The feeling of success that comes with the purchase of a Mercedes. D. The taste of buttered popcorn in a movie theater. E. The joy of finding the perfect gift for a friend.

Which of the following is an example of a marketing factor that has been shown to be important in determining advertising frequency levels? A. Message uniqueness B. Clutter C. Purchase and usage cycles D. Media scheduling E. Message complexity

Which of the following is an example of a media vehicle? A. Television B. America's Next Top Model Show C. Radio Jockey D. Newspaper E. Outdoor advertising

Which of the following is an example of a personal channel of communication? A. Salesperson B. Newspaper C. Radio D. Magazines E. Television

Which of the following is an example of a psychosocial consequence? A. The taste of a soft drink. B. The feeling of prestige associated with wearing a Rolex watch. C. The acceleration of an automobile. D. The processing speed of a personal computer. E. The firmness of a mattress.

Which of the following is likely to conduct in depth interviews, market surveys, and focus groups etc. in order to gather objective information that is valuable to the advertiser's promotional programs? A. Market research companies B. Media specialist organizations C. Media buying organizations D. Creative boutiques E. Interactive agencies

Which of the following is often the basis of a marketer's creative strategy when the company has multiple brands competing in the same market? A. Unique selling proposition B. Brand image C. Inherent drama D. Transformational advertising E. Positioning

Which of the following is the best example of a celebrity endorser enhancing consumers' perceptions of the performance capabilities of a product? A. Professional golfer Arnold Palmer endorsing Pennzoil motor oil B. Former boxer George Foreman endorsing Meineke automobile repair service C. Actress Catherine Zeta-Jones endorsing a mobile phone service D. Model Cindy Crawford endorsing Revlon cosmetics E. Racecar driver Ward Burton endorsing Ferris brand lawn mowers

Which of the following is true about integrated services? A. Companies prefer separate agencies for sales promotion, direct marketing, interactive marketing etc. as they are easier to coordinate. B. An agency with integrated marketing capabilities can create a single image for the product or service. C. Not many advertisers and agencies feel that integrated marketing is important to their organizations' success. D. Most advertisers want their ad agencies to set strategy for and coordinate the integrated marketing communications program for them. E. Most of the large marketers feel that the agency executives are capable of handling the various elements of an integrated campaign.

Which of the following is true about the functions of the advertising manager in a centralized system? A. Advertising manager is responsible for all sales and sales management activities. B. Advertising manager, usually, takes the final decision about allocating funds towards the promotional budget. C. The advertising manager may not review and approve the promotional plans which are made by the agency. D. The specific role of the advertising manager depends on the size of the firm. E. Advertising manager deals only with the advertising department in the organization.

Which of the following is true about zapping? A. Older adults engage in commercial zapping more often than teens. B. Women are more likely to zap commercials than men. C. Young adult females zap more than young adult males. D. Young adult males are the most likely to zap commercials than older adults. E. Older women are more likely to zap commercials than younger women.

Which of the following is true for participations? A. Participating advertisers have financial responsibility for production of the program. B. Participations involve long-term commitment on the part of advertisers. C. Participations offer advertisers a lower reach than sponsorships. D. In participations, advertisers have little control over the placement of ads. E. Participations are not suitable for small advertisers with limited budgets.

Which of the following is true? A. Networks provide programming and services to affiliates. B. Affiliates have no say in the sale of advertising time on their stations. C. Affiliates do not receive any advertising revenue from networks. D. Networks provide programming to affiliates, but affiliates provide the advertising. E. Affiliates are not obliged to carry national advertising provided by networks.

Which of the following media strategies is suitable for a new product with a target audience concentrated in a well-defined market segment? A. One that emphasizes frequency rather than reach B. One that emphasizes reach rather than frequency C. One that balances reach and frequency D. One that uses a high cost per thousand approach E. One that allows continuous communication

Which of the following methods of determining a budget requires a marketing department manager to use input from a clipping service? A. ROI method B. Arbitrary allocation method C. Percentage of sales method D. Competitive parity method E. Objective and task method

Which of the following response hierarchy models depicts consumers as going through the stages of attention, comprehension, yielding, retention, and behavior? A. The AIDA model B. The hierarchy of effects model C. The innovation adoption model D. The information processing model E. The integrated information response model

Which of the following response hierarchy models depicts consumers going through the stages of awareness, interest, evaluation, trial, and adoption? A. The AIDA model B. The hierarchy of effects model C. The innovation adoption model D. The information processing model E. The integrated information response model

Which of the following situations offers the advertiser the least attractive marketing opportunity? A. High brand development index (BDI) and high category development index (CDI) B. High brand development index (BDI) and low category development index (CDI) C. Low brand development index (BDI) and high category development index (CDI) D. Low brand development index (BDI) and low category development index (CDI) E. High survey of buying power index and high brand development index (BDI)

Which of the following situations would be most conducive for the use of a comparative advertising message? A. A company is a market leader with high market share. B. A company is a market leader and is concerned about a new, small company entering the market. C. A market leader wants to promote its brand to loyal users of a major competitor. D. A company with a new brand wants to position that brand against established brands and, thus, enter the customers' evoked set. E. A company wants its audience to know the different competitors that it is competing with.

Which of the following sources of information should be used by a media buyer wishing to acquire statistical information for a specific metropolitan market? A. Simmons Market Research Bureau (SMRB) B. Mediamark Research Inc. C. Survey of buying power index D. BAR/LNA E. Standard Rates and Data

Which of the following statements about account planning is true? A. Account planners do not conduct any quantitative research. B. Account planners work with the client as well as other agency personnel. C. Account planners only work with the client to avoid agency bias. D. With account planning, the agency takes a permanent leadership role in the development of creative strategy. E. The knowledge gained during account planning can only be used during the planning period because it is proprietary information.

Which of the following statements about changes in the way advertising agencies are being compensated is true? A. Most clients do not pay full commissions to their agencies because they prefer to use some type of fee or incentive-based system as they seem more equitable than the commission system. B. With the move toward integrated marketing services, it is likely that there will be a return to the commission system of compensation. C. From the viewpoints of both the client and the agency, the traditional commission system is much superior to negotiated commissions. D. Since most clients want their agencies to be in total charge of the integrated marketing communications process, they are willing to compensate them based on media commissions. E. In a negotiated commission system, commission is usually greater than 15 percent.

Which of the following statements about commercial length is true? A. Fifteen-second spots are the most common commercial lengths. B. Increasing media costs have resulted in advertisers preferring shorter commercials. C. Most advertisers believe shorter commercials cannot deliver a message as effectively as longer commercials. D. Fifteen-second spots typically sell for about the same amount as 30-second spots. E. Most 15 second commercials are being converted to 5 second commercials known as split commercials.

Which of the following statements about creative boutiques is true? A. Creative boutiques are more successful today than ever before. B. The demand for IMC services has had little influence on how creative boutiques do business. C. Creative boutiques use an aggregated business model instead of niche marketing. D. Creative boutiques today are having trouble because clients often want a range of services. E. Consolidation has led to the demise of creative boutiques.

Which of the following statements about network advertising is true? A. Using network advertising significantly complicates the purchase of television media time for national advertisers. B. Network advertising is cheaper and more selective than local advertising. C. The high cost of network time can be a drawback to advertisers with limited media budgets. D. National advertisers have to negotiate with both the network and local affiliates when they want to make a media buy. E. Network advertising is less effective than spot advertising for mass consumption products.

Which of the following statements about off-network syndication is true? A. Off-network syndicated shows are an important source of quality programming for local stations. B. Off-network syndicated shows an insignificant source of revenue to the studios that produce them. C. Off-network syndicated shows are usually low-budget, low-quality programs. D. The FCC prime-time access rule forbids independent stations from carrying off-network syndicated shows between 7:00 and 8:00 P.M. E. Off-network syndication refers to shows produced specifically for the syndication market.

Which of the following statements about radio as an advertising medium is true? A. Almost 50 percent of all radio revenue comes from network advertising. B. Radio has evolved into primarily a local advertising medium. C. Radio advertising revenue has been steadily declining for the last 20 years. D. One of the main weaknesses of radio as an advertising medium is the high production costs. E. The high costs of radio advertising result in lower reach and frequency.

Which of the following statements about spot advertising is true? A. Spot advertising is subject to less commercial clutter than network advertising. B. Obtaining spot advertising for a number of different areas is quicker and easier than acquiring network advertising. C. Spot advertising is generally more expensive than network advertising. D. Only local advertisers use spot advertising. E. Spot advertising offers the national advertiser flexibility in adjusting to local market conditions.

Which of the following statements about syndication is true? A. The advertising revenue generated by syndicated programs is insignificant compared to that of the three major networks. B. Syndicated programs never draw larger viewing audiences than network shows. C. Many national advertisers use syndicated shows to target certain audiences. D. Syndicated programs have less commercial time and thus less clutter than network shows. E. Syndicated programs benefit only local advertisers, not national ones.

Which of the following statements about the U.S. advertising agency business is true? A. Most U.S. ad agencies are large businesses with billings exceeding $100 million per year. B. Most U.S. ad agencies are individually owned small businesses employing fewer than five people. C. Nearly all of the U.S. domestic billings are handled by the top 100 agencies. D. Most of the top U.S. ad agencies are headquartered in Chicago. E. There are approximately 1,000 agencies listed in the Standard Directory of Advertising Agencies.

Which of the following statements is true about the use of ad campaigns based on humorous commercials? A. Humorous commercials never become boring. B. Low involvement products are more suitable for humor advertising. C. Research evidence proves humor does not wear out as fast as other types of advertising appeals. D. All well-designed commercial are immune to commercial wearout. E. Humorous advertisements could be made for all kinds of products, services, and audiences.

Which of the following statements about the interaction of pricing with advertising and promotion is true? A. The positive relationship between high relative advertising and price levels is weakest for products in the introductory stage of the product life cycle. B. The positive relationship between high relative advertising and price levels is weakest for products that are market leaders. C. Companies with high-quality products are damaged the least, in terms of return on investment, by inconsistent advertising and pricing strategies. D. Brands with low relative advertising budgets are able to charge premium prices. E. High relative ad expenditures should accompany premium prices, and low relative ad expenditures should be tailored to low prices.

Which of the following statements about the length of television commercials is true? A. Commercials have become longer as the demand for broadcast time dwindles. B. Commercial length is increasing and 60-second spots will become dominant by the end of the decade. C. Commercials became shorter because advertisers turned to shorter spots as a way of controlling their media costs. D. Commercial length is increasing as the cost of ad space decreases. E. The number of 60-second commercials has declined due to the networks' desire to sell more ads and restrict clutter.

Which of the following statements about the role of ad agency media departments is true? A. Large advertisers do not use media departments to purchase media time and space. B. Media departments do not have the ability or the authority to negotiate prices. C. It reviews information on demographics, and consumers' television viewing habits. D. Consolidating media buying is not cost effective and may reduce media efficiency. E. The media buyer implements the media plan by selling the actual time and space.

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between marketing and communications objectives? A. Marketing objectives and communications objectives are synonymous. B. Marketing objectives evolve from communication objectives. C. Communications objectives are derived from marketing objectives. D. Communications objectives can be developed before or after the development of marketing objectives. E. There is no relationship between the two.

Which of the following statements concerning advertising on cable television is true? A. Cable time can only be purchased on a national level. B. Cable time can be purchased on a national, regional, or local level. C. Spot cable advertising revenues have decreased dramatically over the past five years. D. Local cable systems provide advertisers with a great deal of research information on demographics, lifestyles, and viewership patterns. E. The initial popularity of cable television has passed, and network television is once again the more popular medium.

Which of the following statements describe a situation in which marketer-induced problem recognition was used? A. Shoppers Stop, a clothing and accessories brand, sends a newsletter to all its customers every three months that gives them details on what is in fashion and the new arrivals at the store. B. Ken purchases a cable to connect the DVD player to his TV after purchasing the DVD player. C. Casey purchased 'Sun Silk,' an anti-dandruff shampoo, but switched to 'Head & Shoulders' when it was not effective. D. Tony had purchased a laptop 2 years ago and since some of its features are not working properly, he realizes that the laptop needs to be upgraded. E. Patrick hurt his toe while jogging and realized that his sports shoes were torn. He went to Nike to purchase a new pair of shoes.

Which of the following statements describes a disadvantage associated with the flighting method of schedule advertising? A. Consumers have a lack of awareness, interest, and retention of promotional messages during nonscheduled times. B. Flighting allows the marketers to cover the entire buying cycle. C. Flighting may result in high costs and overexposure. D. Flighting eliminates concerns about wearout. E. There are no disadvantages associated with flighting.

Which of the following statements describes a good reason for using celebrities in ads and having them endorse a company's product or service? A. Celebrities cannot draw attention to advertising messages in a cluttered media environment. B. The respect, popularity or admiration a celebrity enjoys may carry over to the product she or he endorses. C. Celebrities may be unable to enhance the target audience's perceptions of the products' image or performance. D. Consumers may focus attention on the celebrity and not attend to the product and advertising message. E. The celebrity may be overexposed that would help achieve the recognition that is desired.

Which of the following statements describes a limitation associated with the use of radio as an advertising medium? A. The production of radio advertising is expensive. B. The absence of clutter means radio advertising tends to be very uncreative. C. Buying space for radio advertising is more expensive than buying ad space on TV. D. The high number of stations in most markets means there is a great deal of audience fragmentation. E. Radio is unable to provide marketers with a variety of integrated marketing opportunities.

Which of the following statements describes a major advantage inherent in the use of multiattribute models to study consumer behavior? A. Multiattribute models offer very simple ways to assess attitudes. B. Multiattribute models focus only on the overall feelings a consumer has towards a brand. C. Multiattribute models help marketers better understand and diagnose the underlying structure or basis of consumers' attitudes. D. Multiattribute models view consumer attitude formation and decision making as non - compensatory in nature. E. Multiattribute models help in predicting attitudes even when the importance that the consumers attach to the important product attributes are unknown.

Which of the following statements describes a problem encountered by national advertisers when using spot advertising? A. Spot advertising does not allow national advertisers to adjust to local market conditions. B. Spot advertising cannot be used as part of their cooperative advertising programs. C. Spot advertising is easy to acquire since time is purchased from a number of local stations. D. There are more variations in the pricing policies of local stations than networks. E. Spot advertising provides advertisers with limited coverage in geographic markets in which they do business.

Which of the following statements describes a weakness inherent in the use of the marginal analysis model for establishing an advertising budget? A. It is unsuitable as a basis for budgeting in case of direct response advertising. B. Only environmental factors that are considered by the model will affect the effectiveness of the promotional program. C. Budgetary amount is often set by fiat. D. The budget is determined by management solely on the basis of what is felt to be necessary. E. It is very illogical and virtually no theoretical base is used to determine the budgets.

Which of the following statements describes an advantage inherent in the flighting method of schedule advertising? A. With flighting, there is no danger of wearout. B. Flighting creates cost efficiency by using advertising only during purchasing periods. C. Flighting helps in continuous advertising that helps people remember the message all the time. D. Forgetting is virtually eliminated by alternating periods of high and low advertising weight. E. Flighting serves as a constant reminder to the consumer.

Which of the following statements explain why an organization would want to use an external advertising agency? A. It saves money for the client. B. It helps the client gain more control of the promotional activities. C. It allows more access to the top management of the client firm. D. It helps provide a consistent brand image worldwide and reduces the number of marketing partners for the client firm. E. It provides the client with the services of highly skilled individuals.

Which of the following statements is true about account services? A. It is an in-house service for the agency which is independent of its clients' obligations. B. It provides the creative team with more insight on how to use advertising and other IMC tools to communicate with customers. C. It provides the creative team with more insight into consumers. D. It is an advertisement agency service which is not link to its client. E. It is the link between the ad agency and its clients.

Which of the following statements is true about advertising agencies? A. Most large, national advertisers use in-house agencies. B. Agencies are often used because of the skill, expertise, and experience they can offer in the advertising area. C. Most large agencies offer only creative services to their clients. D. Agencies must be used since companies do not have the capabilities of developing their own advertising. E. Most large advertisers are totally content with the current commission system of compensation.

Which of the following statements is true about advertising reach? A. Reach refers to the number of times a viewer is exposed to the ad. B. Reach of a media vehicle can be defined as the "opportunities to see" an ad. C. The total number of persons exposed once to a vehicle is referred to as reach saturation. D. Overlap that results from multiple exposures is referred to as wasted reach. E. It is easy to determine what level of reach will be required to achieve various levels of awareness in a target audience.

Which of the following statements is true about ageism in advertising? A. Mature people are more likely to be shown in television than print ads. B. Some people believe too many people of age 60 and over are used in advertising today. C. Because the mean age of the population is increasing, you can expect to see more youth-oriented advertising. D. There have been no successful ad campaigns showing people 60 and over performing age appropriately. E. The difference between the senders and receivers age can create problems in establishing a common ground.

Which of the following statements is true about agency commissions? A. Some leading agencies now receive average commissions of 8 to 10 percent. B. Nearly all of the leading agencies still earn a 15 percent commission. C. Most agencies are earning more of their income from fixed commissions as clients expand their IMC programs to include other forms of promotion. D. Most agencies are unwilling to negotiate their commission rates. E. Leading agencies often get 20 percent commissions.

Which of the following statements is true about celebrity endorsers? A. Consumers who are very knowledgeable about a product or service tend to be most persuaded by celebrity endorsers. B. The teenage market is generally not receptive to celebrity endorsers. C. An individual who has strong feelings about a product will be less likely to be influenced by a celebrity endorser than someone who has a neutral attitude about the same product. D. Recent studies suggest celebrity endorsements are becoming increasingly more important in purchase decisions. E. Marketers do not have to worry about the personal images of the celebrities while choosing one to endorse a product or a service.

Which of the following statements is true about communications objectives? A. When setting objectives using the communications effect pyramid, the last step reached is trial. B. Sales goal cannot be translated into communications objectives. C. Marketing and advertising managers do not rely on experience and intuition when setting communications goals. D. Communications objectives are the criteria used in the DAGMAR approach to setting advertising goals. E. Communication objectives are used particularly where the advertiser seeks an immediate response.

Which of the following statements is true about creative boutiques? A. They generally have media, research and account planning capabilities. B. They are large ad agencies that provide all types of advertising and promotion services. C. They often subcontract work to full service agencies. D. They tend to provide quicker creative services due to less bureaucracy. E. Large companies visit them when they are looking for a huge range of services and there are cutbacks in the advertising spending.

Which of the following statements is true about creative strategy and execution? A. A good creative strategy and execution guarantees a brand will exceed its sales objectives. B. A good creative strategy almost never helps generate sales for a brand. C. Ads that are very creative may not increase sales of a brand. D. Companies have no trouble coming up with creative advertising that differentiates their brands from the competition. E. Good creative strategy cannot help a struggling brand regain its former prominence.

Which of the following statements is true about effective communication? A. Advertising is an effective way of communication because marketers are able to tell consumers how to interpret their messages. B. For effective communication, marketers must understand the meanings that consumers attach to words and symbols and how these words and symbols are interpreted. C. Effective integrated marketing communications is usually nonpersonal in nature. D. Effective communication is unaffected by the reception environment. E. Whether an ad is in black-and-white or in full-color has no impact on how effectively the message is communicated.

Which of the following statements is true about feature appeals? A. They tend to be very informative and present a number of attributes that can be used as the basis for a rational purchase decision. B. They are never used for technical and high-involvement products. C. They can be used for advertising a product but not a service. D. They never focus on attributes or benefits that are important to consumers. E. They stress upon the popularity of a product or service by pointing out the number of consumers who use the brand and the number who have switched to it.

Which of the following statements is true about focus groups? A. Focus group is a qualitative research technique. B. Focus group is a quantitative research technique. C. Focus groups involve observing consumers in their natural environment. D. Focus groups are not very useful in evaluating the viability of different creative approaches under consideration. E. Focus groups involve observing the natural habits of a particular group of consumers without their knowledge.

Which of the following statements is true about image advertising? A. It is used most often when there are significant functional or performance differences among brands. B. It is often used when competing brands are difficult to differentiate on a functional or performance basis. C. Advertisers often use it when their products or services offer a unique attribute or benefit to consumers. D. It is most commonly used for business-to-business products. E. It concentrates on those functional features of its product that are unique and cannot be imitated by the competitors.

Which of the following statements is true about informational/rational advertising appeals? A. The particular features, benefits, or attributes that serve as the basis for these appeals are constant across product categories. B. These types of appeals work well for products but not for services. C. The particular features, benefits, or attributes that serve as the basis for these appeals vary from one product or service category to another as well as by market segment. D. The particular features, benefits, or attributes that serve as a basis for these appeals generally do not vary by market segment. E. Informational/rational ads create feelings, images, beliefs, and meanings about the product or service.

Which of the following statements is true about program ratings and share of audience measures? A. Program ratings are always higher than share of audience. B. Program ratings and share of audience are usually the same. C. Share of audience is always higher than the program rating unless all of the households in a market have their set in use. D. Unlike share of audience measures, program ratings consider variations in the number of sets in use since they are based only on those households that have their sets in use. E. Share of audience is always higher than the program rating when all of the households in a market have their set in use.

Which of the following statements is true about reach and frequency? A. Evidence suggests that wearout is not a result of seeing an advertisement too often. B. The central goal of media planning should be to enhance reach rather than frequency. C. Since one exposure is usually ineffective, the central goal of productive media planning should be to enhance frequency rather than reach. D. The evidence suggests that an exposure rate of one within a purchase level is an effective level. E. Many advertisers suggest that an exposure rate between 3 to 10 is ineffective as it leads to over exposure.

Which source characteristic is likely to suffer when a celebrity endorses too many products and is seen too often by consumers? A. Expertise B. Trustworthiness C. Physical attractiveness D. Compliance E. Internalization

Which specialized service would be responsible for promoting and managing the concert a client wants to hold to benefit Habit for Humanity? A. The traffic department B. A marketing research firm C. An interactive agency D. A public relations firm E. A sales promotion agency

Which of the following statements is true about source credibility? A. High credibility sources are always more effective than low credibility sources. B. The use of a low credibility source is more effective when the audience has an unfavorable initial opinion or attitude on the issue. C. The persuasiveness of a low credibility source may decline over time due to the sleeper effect phenomenon. D. A low or moderately credible source can be more effective than a high credibility source when the receiver has a favorable initial attitude or opinion. E. Low credibility sources are more effective than high credibility sources when they are arguing for a position opposing their own best interest.

Which of the following statements is true about source power? A. It can never be used in nonpersonal selling situations. B. It is most effective in nonpersonal selling situations. C. Persuasion induced through compliance is always long-term. D. Perceived scrutiny is an important factor of source power. E. Power as a source characteristic is very easy to apply in a nonpersonal influence situations.

Which of the following statements is true about speculative presentations? A. Speculative presentations require little time and effort on the part of agencies. B. Many agencies do not like to participate in speculative presentations because there is no guarantee they will win the account, and they require time and money. C. Speculative presentations are rarely used in the advertising industry. D. Most agencies do not participate in speculative presentations to acquire new business. E. They are also known as storyboards.

Which of the following statements is true about spot advertising? A. Spot advertising is mostly confined to station breaks between programs on network-originated shows. B. Only local advertisers use spot advertising. C. Spot advertising is subject to less clutter than network advertising. D. Spot advertising is easier to buy than advertising on national networks. E. Spot advertising does not allow advertisers to adjust to local market conditions.

Which of the following statements is true about superagencies? A. They were formed when large advertisement agencies were broken down into smaller, more specialized agencies. B. Advertisers who became disenchanted with the superagencies moved to form smaller agencies that were flexible and more responsive. C. They were formed so that agencies could provide clients with effective supply chain management. D. Advertisers who became disenchanted with the superagencies moved to form larger agencies that were inflexible and less responsive. E. They were formed so that agencies could provide clients with just-in-time inventory management system.

Which of the following statements is true about syndication? A. Syndicated programs are of limited value to advertisers since they reach a limited number of viewers. B. There is basically one form of syndicated programming. C. Syndication has become a major business that generates revenue comparable to the major networks. D. National advertisers rarely use syndicated programs. E. Syndicated programs are attractive to national advertisers since they contain a lower level of advertising clutter.

Which of the following statements is true about the communications objectives? A. It is easy to translate sales goals into communications objectives. B. It can be difficult to determine the relationship between communications objectives and sales performance. C. Communications objectives cannot serve as operational guidelines to the planning, execution, and evaluation of the promotional programs. D. Marketing managers do not recognize the value of setting communications objectives. E. Precise formulas are to be followed when translating sales goals into specific communications objectives.

Which of the following statements is true about the media mix? A. It is not possible to use only one medium or vehicle to deliver the message. B. The characteristics of the product or service helps in determining the combination of media that should be used. C. Individual preferences have no effect on the combination of media to be used to deliver a message. D. Radio would be the most effective medium for a product that requires visual demonstration. E. By employing a media mix, advertisers could lower the versatility to their media strategies resulting in high amount of clutter.

Which of the following statements is true about the relevance of ads? A. Ad-to-consumer relevance refers to situations where the advertised brand of a product or service is of personal interest to consumers. B. Brand-to-consumer relevance refers to situations where the ad contains execution elements that are meaningful to consumers. C. Brand-to-consumer relevance could be achieved through making use of celebrities with whom consumers identify. D. Relevance can be viewed in terms of the degree to which an advertisement provides information or an image that is pertinent to the brand. E. The use of visual images and other execution techniques that capture their interest and attention of the consumers help in increasing brand-to-consumer relevance.

Which of the following statements is true about the role of top management in the advertising and promotion decision making process? A. Top management is usually involved in the day-to-day decision-making and operations of advertising and promotion. B. Top management does not provide input in the advertising and promotion process. C. Top management is usually interested in how the advertising program represents the organization. D. Top management is only interested in the amount of money that must be allocated to advertising and promotion. E. Top management is more interested in tactical planning than strategic planning.

Which of the following statements is true about the use of corporate leaders as advertising spokespersons? A. Many companies believe the use of a company president or CEO is an ineffective way of expressing the company's commitment to quality and customer service. B. Only major Fortune 500 type companies use corporate leaders as spokespersons. C. The use of corporate leaders as spokespersons can create problems if the firm's image becomes too closely tied to this individual. D. Corporate spokespersons are ineffective for consumer products. E. Corporate spokespersons improve the message source image but have no effect on its trustworthiness.

Which of the following statements is true about the use of creativity in an advertising campaign? A. Because most advertising is creative, creativity is not enough to break through the clutter. B. Creative advertising always has a positive impact on sales. C. Creative advertising that is not relevant to the target audience may have a greater impact than advertising that is relevant. D. The nature of advertising requires that everyone involved in the promotional planning process engage in creative thinking. E. Users of creative advertising can avoid using big ideas and unique selling propositions in their advertising campaigns.

Which of the following statements is true about the use of teaser advertising? A. They cannot be used to draw attention to and generate publicity for an upcoming advertising campaign. B. They do not work well because consumers really do not pay much attention to advertising. C. They can be effective but marketers must be careful not to use them too long. D. They usually offend consumers. E. They have the objective of building brand awareness by keeping the brand name in front of the customers.

Which of the following statements is true according to the Hirschman study about the creative people involved in advertising? A. They view ads as promotional tools whose primary purpose is to communicate favorable impressions to the marketplace. B. They are more risk averse than the brand managers. C. They prefer making conservative commercials. D. They believe a commercial should be evaluated in terms of whether it fulfills the client's marketing and communicative objectives. E. They want to maximize the impact of the message.

Which of the following statements is true regarding awards for advertising creativity? A. Ads that win creative awards almost always have a positive impact on sales. B. Most advertising and marketing people are supportive of advertising awards because they feel creative people are more concerned with creating advertising that sells their client's products than with winning awards. C. As a rule, all advertising people believe awards are an inappropriate way of recognizing advertising creativity that often helps sell a client's products. D. Not all advertising campaigns that have won creative awards have successfully generated sales for their clients' products. E. An award winning ad leads to higher sales as it is greatly liked and accepted by creative people.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship between advertising and promotion, and sales performance? A. In mature markets where other marketing mix variables are stable, it is impossible to determine the relationship between advertising and/or sales promotion and sales. B. The repositioning of brands is often done with a goal of improving sales or market share. C. When sales expectations are not being met, experienced managers are not very likely to consider changes in their advertising and sales promotion programs. D. Marketing and brand managers are often under pressure to show sales results and thus may take long-term perspective in evaluating advertising and promotion programs. E. Managers prefer sales-oriented objectives because they provide operational guidelines for those involved in planning, developing, and executing the advertising and promotional program.

Which of the following statements is true? A. The diary system of measuring viewership is more accurate than people meters. B. It is impossible to track viewership for commercials. C. People meters only record what is being watched, not who is watching. D. Audimeters only record what is being watched, while people meters can also record who is watching. E. People meters are being replaced by audimeters.

Which of the following statements provides a good rule of thumb for setting the advertising budget for a new product? A. Its advertising budget should be twice the desired market share. B. Its advertising budget should be equal to that of the largest market shareholder in the product category. C. Its advertising budget should be as much as the firm can afford. D. Its advertising budget should be ten percent greater than the average budget planned for the entire payout period. E. Its advertising budget should be less than that needed to maintain the desired market share.

Which of the following statements provides a reason for why marketers use emotional appeals? A. The favorable feeling created by the appeal may transfer to the brand. B. Emotional appeals focus on the consumer's practical, functional, or utilitarian need for the product or service. C. Emotional appeals tend to be informative, and advertisers using them generally attempt to convince consumers that their product or service has a particular attribute(s) or provides a specific benefit that satisfies their needs. D. Emotional appeals persuade the target audience to buy the brand because it is the best available or does a better job of meeting consumers' needs. E. Emotional appeals are easy to execute and cost less than rational appeals due to lack of creativity.

Which of the following statements supports the reason why a marketer might want to emphasize creativity in the development of an advertising campaign? A. Creative advertisements that are creative for the sake of being creative often fail to produce sales. B. Creative advertising can break through the clutter and make an impression on buyers. C. Creative advertising cannot create positive feelings that transfer to the product or service. D. Creative advertising is effective even if it is irrelevant to the target audience. E. Creative advertising helps in winning awards that leads to increase in sales.

Which of the following would be an example of a channel in the communication process? A. The number of customers that redeemed a cents-off coupon B. A billboard beside an interstate highway C. The creative people who designed the new Wendy's ad D. An ad's spokesperson E. Jennifer Aniston, who appears in the ad for L'Oreal.

Which of the following would constitute a positioning strategy focusing on the competitor? A. BMW—"The Ultimate Driving Machine" B. Red Roof Inns—"Equal Value at a Lower Price" C. Oneida flatware—"Your Table Is Ready" D. Coca-Cola—"The Real Thing" E. Broilmaster grill—"The Most Durable Grill Known to Man"

Which of the following would most likely result in waste coverage? A. An ad for custom-build concession food trailers appearing in Amusement Business, a trade journal. B. A business-to-business ad appearing in a general fashion magazine. C. A Mountain Dew commercial appearing on MTV. D. A Reebok commercial during the NCAA basketball playoffs. E. An ad for a solvent to clean rifles in Guns magazine.

Which television daypart has the highest rates and is dominated by national advertisers? A. Morning B. Early fringe C. Prime time D. Late news E. Late fringe

Which top-down budgeting method is being employed when expenditure is allocated by assigning a budget based on gut feelings? A. arbitrary allocation B. percentage of sales C. affordable method D. payout planning E. competitive parity

Which type of ad agency is most likely to assist the client in areas such as marketing strategy and research, campaign planning and execution, and media planning and buying? A. A creative boutique B. A full-service agency C. A media buying service D. A collateral agency E. A full time agency

Which type of specialized service would have most likely coordinated a program to allow consumers to mail in UPC codes from three Reynolds products to receive a free Blockbuster movie rental? A. Sales promotion agency B. Public relations firm C. Creative boutique D. Interactive agency E. Direct-response agency

While purchasing time on television, it often becomes difficult to determine the print equivalent cost. As a result, some television rate cards now express costs in terms of _____ to provide a comparable base. A. reach B. frequency C. gross rating points (GRPs) D. cost per thousand (CPM) E. absolute cost

Why are models of the creative process valuable to those working in the creative area of advertising? A. The models let the client see what he or she is paying for. B. The models provide an organized approach to a creative problem. C. The models let creatives approach the creative process in whichever manner feels most comfortable to them. D. The models were developed by people who were successful advertisers themselves. E. The models create heuristics needed to determine whether an ad will accomplish its goals.

Why are principles of operant conditioning useful in the development of promotional strategies? A. They explain the cognitive processes that mediate a consumer's response to advertising. B. They show that experiences with products provide reinforcements that affect future purchase behaviors. C. They explain why coupons and samples are unlikely to have any desirable effect on consumer behavior. D. They explain consumer behavior in both high and low involvement situations. E. They explain how the pairing of a neutral stimulus with a positive stimulus can produce an immediate desired response.

Why do advertisers use the image transfer process in radio advertising? A. To take advantage of vivid musical messages to create images in the mind of radio listeners. B. To reinforce its video messages. C. To transfer the image created by a radio commercial to the point-of-purchase. D. To transfer the image of celebrities to the advertised brand. E. To create brand loyalty through the use of multisensory messages.

Why does a company like Hallmark choose to sponsor the television adaptation of classic books such as Sara: Plain and Tall? A. Sponsorship allows Hallmark to capitalize on the prestige of a high-quality program. B. No other advertiser could afford the sponsorship costs. C. The shows are never shown during a sweeps period, and therefore, sponsorship is more affordable. D. The network would not allow the shows to appear on television unless they had a sponsorship from an approved company. E. Sponsoring an entire show is very cheap and many of Hallmarks competitors also sponsor various other shows.

Why would General Motors switch to an incentive-based compensation system with several of its agencies? A. To encourage its agencies to use more mass media advertising. B. To encourage its agencies to stop using network TV advertising. C. To reduce control. D. To demand more accountability and pay the agencies based on their performance. E. To accomplish all of the above objectives.

Winston is watching an interesting TV program with a group of friends. During the commercial break, he is unable to concentrate on a Pepsi commercial that he is interested in watching because all his friends are discussing the events in the show. Winston's inability to receive the Pepsi message illustrates which factor in the communications process? A. Encoding B. Decoding C. Feedback D. Common ground E. Noise

With ____, advertisers assume responsibility for the production and usually the content of the program as well as the advertising that appears within it. A. participations B. sponsorships C. adjacencies D. syndications E. countertrades

With _____, advertising expenditures and promotional efforts are directed toward the ultimate consumer. A. promotional pull strategies B. promotional push strategies C. trade advertising D. market harvesting strategies E. non-intermediary marketing

Years ago United Parcel Service (UPS) ran an ad campaign based around the slogan, "moving at the speed of business." Later, UPS introduced a new slogan, "What can brown do for you?" The new ads are designed to make customers aware of the different services besides fast delivery that UPS offers. By moving away from promoting itself as simply a delivery company, UPS has: A. used a repositioning strategy. B. segmented the market in new, more profitable ways. C. adopted a concentrated strategy. D. adopted an undifferentiated strategy. E. employed lifestyle segmentation.

_____ are drawings that show what the print ad will look like and from which the final artwork will be produced. A. Creative briefs B. Copywriters C. Layouts D. Designs E. Logos

____ is a term used to describe a message receiver's feelings of favorability or unfavorability toward an advertisement. A. Brand attitude B. Purchase intent C. Attitude toward the ad D. Counterargument E. Source derogation

____, also known as overexposure, occurs when the media coverage exceeds the target audience. A. Recency effect B. Reach disorder C. Frequency imbalance D. Waste coverage E. Geographical weighting

_____ = Cost of commercial time/program rating. A. Cost per thousand B. Brand index number C. Category development index D. Gross rating point E. Cost per point

_____ advertising attempts to make the experience of using a product or service richer, warmer or more exciting. A. Informational B. Competitive advantage C. Transformational D. Image E. Rational

_____ advertising is sometimes used to create curiosity and build interest and excitement in a new product or brand by talking about it but not showing it. A. Reminder B. Teaser C. Rational D. Comparative E. Feature appeal

_____ are agencies that specialize in offering services, such as database management, and the ability to create, produce, and disseminate direct mail and other types of communications that go straight to target customers. A. Full function ad agencies B. Sales promotion agencies C. Direct-response agencies D. Public relations firms E. Creative boutiques

_____ are based on the total audience the media schedule may reach using a duplicated reach estimate. A. Gross rating points (GRPs) B. Target rating points (TRPs) C. Total Target rating points (TTRPs) D. Sweeps periods E. Coverage

_____ are the concrete outcomes of product or service usage that are tangible and directly experienced by consumers. A. Functional consequences B. Psychosocial consequences C. Bundles of attributes D. Service assessments E. Physiological stimuli

_____ are the individuals who conceive the ideas for the ads and write the advertising message. A. Copywriters B. Art directors C. Account planners D. Account executives E. Media planners

_____ are the major participants in the integrated marketing communications process. A. Advertising agencies and new product development firms B. Advertisers and media organizations C. Media organizations and marketing information systems D. Travel agencies and public relations firms E. New-product development firms and public relation firms

_____ are the various time periods or segments into which a broadcast day is divided. A. Adjacencies B. Participations C. Spots D. Dayparts E. Hours

_____ are thoughts that occur to a consumer when reading, viewing, and/or hearing a communication. A. Cognitive responses B. Affective responses C. Selective impressions D. Elaborations E. Conative impressions

_____ assumes that learning is an associative process with an already existing relationship between a stimulus and a response. A. Classical conditioning B. Operant conditioning C. Instrumental conditioning D. Cognitive learning E. Affective modeling

_____ consists of the combination of the name, logo, symbols, design, packaging, and image of associations held by consumers. A. Marketing mix B. Promotional mix C. Brand identity D. Positioning E. Product symbolism

_____ divides a market on the basis of lifestyles. A. Leisure marketing B. Psychographic segmentation C. Benefit segmentation D. Demographic segmentation E. Behavioristic segmentation

_____ generally occurs during the first stage in the consumer decision making process. A. Internal search B. External search C. Problem recognition D. Alternative evaluation E. Post-purchase evaluation

_____ involves altering or changing a product's or brand's position. A. Market segmentation B. Market targeting C. Positioning. D. Target marketing E. Repositioning

_____ involves developing separate marketing strategies for a number of segments. A. Differentiated marketing B. Undifferentiated marketing C. Concentrated marketing D. Behavioristic segmentation E. Geographic segmentation

_____ is a bundle of benefits or values that satisfies the needs of consumers. A. Product use positioning B. Market C. Value D. Product E. Channel

_____ is a construct that represents an individual's overall feelings or evaluation of an object and is viewed as a learned predisposition to respond toward it. A. A motive B. A need C. Perception D. An attitude E. A decision rule

_____ is a detailed assessment of the current marketing conditions facing the company, its product lines, or its individual brands. A. Strategic marketing plan B. Integrated marketing communications plan C. Situation analysis D. Opportunity analysis E. Competitive plan

_____ is a filtering or screening of exposure, attention, comprehension, and retention of stimuli. A. Subliminal perception B. Information discrimination C. Sensation D. Selective perception E. Information retrieval

_____ is a process that involves conducting research and gathering all information about a client's product or service, brand, and members of the target audience. A. Incubation B. Germination C. Account planning D. Creative research E. Account seeding

_____ is a quality possessed by individuals that enables them to generate novel approaches to handling problems that is reflected in new and improved solutions to those problems. A. Uniqueness B. Dramatization C. Creativity D. Proficiency E. Personification

_____ is a research method whereby a group of 10 to 12 consumers from the target market are led through a discussion regarding a particular topic. A. Ethnographic research B. Focus group C. Animatic D. Quantitative research E. Perceptual mapping

_____ is a state of psychological tension or post-purchase doubt a consumer may experience after making a difficult purchase decision. A. Post-purchase evaluation B. Self-serving bias C. Cognitive dissonance D. Conditioned anxiety E. Affective response

_____ is an approach to integrated marketing communications planning that involves determining what tasks need to be done and which marketing communications planning functions should be used to accomplish them. A. The objective/task pyramid B. DAGMAR C. C.Inside out planning D. Zero-based communications planning E. Refutation planning

_____ is an approach to setting advertising goals and objectives which states that communication effects are the logical basis for advertising goals and objectives against which success or failure should be measured. A. The carryover effect B. The hierarchy of effects model C. Zero based communications planning D. Inside-out communications planning E. DAGMAR

_____ is an approach to the structure and development of personality that focuses on the underlying motivations for human behavior. A. Maslow's hierarchy of needs B. Psychoanalytic theory C. Integration heuristics D. Multiattribute attitude theory E. Operant conditioning

_____ is an external factor that may influence the determination of media strategy. A. Administrative capabilities B. Competitive factors C. Size of the media budget D. How tasks are delegated with the agency E. Organization of the agency

_____ is an outcome of the alternative evaluation process and represents a predisposition to buy a certain brand. A. A purchase decision B. A purchase intention C. Affective behavior D. Satisfaction E. Cognitive dissonance

_____ is any unplanned distortion or interference in the communication process. A. Semiotics B. Selective perception C. Noise D. Feedback E. Blocking

_____ is defined as affection for a source as a result of the source's physical appearance, behavior, or other physical characteristics. A. Expertise B. Power C. Compliance D. Familiarity E. Likeability

_____ is defined as an attraction for a source based on a resemblance between the source and receiver. A. Likability B. Familiarity C. Similarity D. Expertise E. Power

_____ is defined as one percent of all the television households in a particular area tuned to a specific program. A. A program rating B. A ratings point C. Households using television (HUT) D. Share of audience E. Brand development index

_____ is defined as the amount of advertising in a medium. A. Qualitative media effect B. Wearout C. Clutter D. Familiarity score E. Refutation

_____ is defined as the art and science of fitting the product or service to one or more segments of the broad market in such a way as to set it meaningfully apart from competition. A. Target marketing B. Benefit segmentation C. Undifferentiated marketing D. Demographic segmentation E. Positioning

_____ is defined as the passing of information, the exchange of ideas or process of establishing a commonness of thought between a sender and receiver. A. Advertising B. Sales promotion C. Encoding D. Decoding E. Communication

_____ is designed to give a company or brand a unique association or personality and is often transformational in nature. A. Rational advertising B. Image advertising C. Feature appeals D. Transactional advertising E. Brand immorality

_____ is likely to occur when a point-of-purchase display for a new type of dental adhesive is teamed with a life-size portrait of Clint Eastwood, a man many people who are over 50 admire and want to emulate. A. Classical conditioning B. Psychological conditioning C. Affective modeling D. Reversal design E. Cognitive conditioning

_____ is often difficult to accomplish due to previously entrenched attitudes toward the product or brand. A. Positioning by cultural symbols B. Positioning by price/quality C. Positioning by product attributes D. Repositioning E. Positioning by product user

_____ is something unique or special a firm possesses or does that gives it an edge over its competitors. A. Brand quality B. Brand equity C. A competitive advantage D. Brand power E. A market opportunity

_____ is the ability to generate fresh, unique and appropriate ideas that can be used as solutions to communication problems. A. A unique selling plan (USP) B. Promotional uniqueness C. Problem detection D. Positioning E. Advertising creativity

_____ is the approach to finding a major selling idea can be done on the basis of product attributes, price/quality, usage or application, product users, or product class. A. Brand image B. Inherent drama C. Unique selling proposition D. Positioning E. Emotional appeals

_____ is the difference between total revenue generated by a brand and its total variable costs. A. Contribution margin B. Aggregated cost C. Promotional result D. Net worth E. Return on investment

_____ is the employment of periods of advertising along with periods of non-advertising. A. Weighting B. Continuity C. Pulsing D. Flighting E. Circulation

_____ is the extent to which the recipient sees the source as having relevant knowledge, skill, or experience and trusts the source to give unbiased, objective information. A. Source attractiveness B. Source popularity C. Source credibility D. Source power E. Source identification

_____ is the immediate, direct response of the senses to stimuli like the smell of coffee, the feel of an ocean breeze, and the taste of chocolate. A. Evocation B. Sensation C. Perception D. Attitudinal adjustment E. Perception retrieval

_____ is the intangible asset of added value or goodwill that results from the favorable image, impressions, differentiation, and/or strength of a consumer's attachment to a company's name or trademark. A. Product affiliation B. Product symbolism C. Brand equity D. Brand symbolism E. Trademark recognition

_____ is the number of persons in the primary target audience who the media buy will reach and the number of times those persons will be reached. A. Target ratings points B. Gross ratings points C. Coverage D. Effective reach E. Total market coverage

_____ is the number of times a receiver is exposed to a message in a given time period. A. Potency B. Reach C. Coverage D. Frequency E. Mediatronics

_____ is the number of times the average household reached by a media vehicle is exposed to the vehicle over a specified period of time. A. Effective reach B. Unduplicated reach C. Average reach D. Average frequency E. Effective frequency

_____ is the process and activities people engage in when searching for, selecting, purchasing, using, evaluating, and disposing of products and services so as to satisfy their needs and desires. A. Marketing B. Exchange C. Consumer behavior D. Conspicuous consumption E. Learning

_____ is the process by which individuals acquire the purchase and consumption knowledge and experience they apply to future related behavior. A. Information search B. Cognitive dissonance C. Consumer learning D. Selective comprehension E. Alternative evaluation

_____ is the process of building a brand whereas _____ is about putting the brand in the mind of the customer. A. Positioning; branding B. Branding; positioning C. Marketing; positioning D. Targeting; branding E. Segmenting; positioning

_____ is the process of interpreting a sender's message into thought. A. Decoding B. Encoding C. Channeling D. Responding E. Transmitting

_____ is the process where the receiver adopts the opinion of the credible communicator since he or she believes information from this source is accurate. A. Identification B. Compliance C. Internalization D. Conformity E. Yielding

_____ is the reinforcement of successive acts that lead to a desired behavioral pattern or response. A. Shaping B. Continuous reinforcement C. Partial reinforcement D. Stimulus generalization E. Internal processing

_____ is the series of decisions involved in delivering the promotional message to the prospective purchasers and/or users of the product or brand. A. Creative strategies B. Media Planning C. Distribution strategy D. Media vehicles E. Program rating

_____ is the stage of the consumer decision making process whereby the individual scans information stored in memory to recall past experience and/or knowledge regarding various purchase alternatives. A. Problem recognition B. Internal information search C. External information search D. Alternative evaluation E. Post purchase evaluation

_____ is used to compare media vehicles. A. Net contribution margin B. Net cost C. Absolute cost D. Relative cost E. Cost per media (CPM)

_____ is used when the firm selects one segment and attempts to capture a large share of this market. A. Positioning B. Undifferentiated marketing C. Concentrated marketing D. Differentiated marketing E. Branding

_____ objectives are types of objectives that are usually stated in terms of specific, measurable outcomes such as sales volume, market share, or return on investment. A. Sales B. Marketing C. Communication D. Advertising E. Organizational

_____ occurs when Mae reads only the book section of the New York Times Sunday newspaper and not look at the other sections of the paper. A. Selective retrieval B. Selective exposure C. Selective comprehension D. Selective retention E. Subliminal perception

_____ of the medium or vehicle is the actual total cost required to place the message. A. Net contribution margin B. Net cost C. Absolute cost D. Relative cost E. Cost per media (CPM)

_____ provides local audience measurement for television. A. Nielsen Station Index B. RADAR C. Arbitron D. ADI E. Burke Research

_____ refer to specific events or outcomes consumers experience when a product or service is purchased and/or consumed. A. Evoked sets B. Attribute assignments C. Dissonance motives D. Evaluative Criteria and Consequences E. Reinforcement criteria

_____ refers to commercials on local television stations for which the advertisers negotiate directly with the individual stations. A. Network advertising B. Spot advertising C. Regional advertising D. Syndication E. Sponsorship

_____ refers to relatively homogeneous divisions in a society into which people sharing similar lifestyles, values, norms, interests, and behaviors can be grouped. A. Generation B. Hispanics C. Social class D. Culture E. Reference group

_____ refers to shows produced specifically for the syndication market. A. Off-network syndication B. Spot advertising C. Special-purpose syndication D. First-run syndication E. Rerun syndication

_____ refers to situations where the ad contains execution elements that are meaningful to consumers. A. Animatic B. Brand-to-consumer relevance C. Storyboard D. Ad-to-consumer relevance E. Elaboration ad

_____ refers to the information and/or meaning contained in the message. A. Source B. Encoding C. Decoding D. Content E. Noise

_____ refers to the potential audience that might receive the message through a vehicle. A. Frequency B. Reach C. Viewer number D. Coverage E. Exposure

_____ refers to the practice of fast-forwarding through commercials on prerecorded programs. A. Zipping B. Zapping C. Pulsing D. Time shifting E. Zooming

_____ refers to the relationship between the price paid for advertising space or time and the size of the audience delivered. A. Net contribution margin B. Net cost C. Absolute cost D. Relative cost E. Cost per media (CPM)

_____ refers to the way the message is put together in order to deliver the information or intended meaning. A. Source B. Encoding C. Decoding D. Content E. Design

_____ segmentation divides consumers into groups according to their usage, loyalties, or buying responses to a product. A. Benefit B. Geographic C. Demographic D. Behavioristic E. Psychographic

_____ specialize in the development and management of sweepstakes, refund and rebate offers and incentive programs. A. Sales promotion agencies B. Direct response agencies C. Creative boutiques D. Interactive agencies E. Public relations firms

_____ thoughts include reactions to ad factors such as the creativity of the ad, the quality of the visual effects, colors, and voice tones. A. Product/message B. Source-oriented C. Ad execution-related D. Brand attitudes E. Purchase intention

______ is the part of a receiver's response that is communicated back to the sender. A. Feedback B. Noise C. Reciprocity D. Encoding E. Reception

MKT304 - CHAP3A, MKT304 - CHAP 16A, MKT304-CH16B, MKT304 - CHAP 8A, MKT304 - CHAP 8B, MKT304 - CHAP 9A, MKT304 - CHAP 10B, MKT304 - CHAP 10A, MKT304 - CHAP 11B, MKT304 - CHAP 11A, MKT 304-Chap 1B, MKT304-Chap 1A, MKT 304-Chap 2A, MKT 304-Chap 2B, MKT...

Conjuntos de estudio relacionados

Immunizations Exam

CC Exam 4 quiz questions

Ch 5 Doc

Family Members in Spanish

Genetics Ch 22 & 23

Microeconomics Final

Basic Physical Assessment NCLEX

Business Ethics Welch Final Study Guide

Audit Ch. 16

terms to know

Sensory Perception

Chapter 9 Music

Consumer Behavior (Chapter 1)

Ch. 15 Marketing Question Quiz

Chapter 3&4 (quiz 2) Biology

Accounting 2: Chapter 7 (exam 2)

Med Surg. Chapter 58

Chapter 4 - Reading Quiz - Python

Chapter 8: Achievement and Aptitude Assessment

history final #2