Molecular Biology-Block 3 MCQ's

Microarray technology is being used to identify potential gene targets for therapies to treat human disease. Please put the steps involved in creating an expression array in the correct order: 1) Isolation of RNA 2) Hybridization of labeled cDNA to microarray 3) Visualization of hybridization 4) Production of labeled cDNA 5) Isolation of two tissues

5,1,4,2,3

A researcher applied the following steps in his enquiry: (1) Isolate mRNA from a tumour, (2) Make cDNA from the isolated mRNA (3) Extract a small chunk of sequence from a defined position of each cDNA molecule, (3) Link these small pieces of sequences together to form a concatemer, (4) Sequence concatemerized tags(5) Process this data with a computer to count the small sequence tags. Which technique do these steps describe? A. SAGE E. Macroarray B. Microarray F. Northern Blotting C. RFLP G. MPSS D. Tiling array H. PCR

A

For mRNA hybridization, 10 large spots of known oligonucleotides are fixed onto nylon membrane and glass slides. What broad name would you use to classify all these devices? A. Macroarray B. Microarray C. Affymetrix Gene Chip D. Tiling array

A

What organism produces a toxin that can serve as a pesticide? A. Bacillus thuringensis B. Agrobacter tumefaciens C. Haemophilus influenzae D. E. coli E. Bacillus aureus

A

Which of the following DNA analysis techniques is based on differential digestion of DNA by restriction endonuclease enzymes? A. RFLP B. SNP microarrays C. Sanger DNA sequencing D. DNA cloning E. ASO

A

Which of the following structures can be determined by labeling a cDNA and applying it to a tiling array? A. Regions of chromosomes that are transcriptionally active B. The presence of a particular protein in a cell C. Genetic polymorphisms in genes D. The sequence of the DNA E. The presence of chromosomal deletions

A

Which of the following techniques CANNOT be used to determine if a gene is expressed within a certain tissue? A. Western blot B. Expression arrays C. Northern Blot D. Reverse-transcriptase PCR E. Southern blot

A

Which of the following techniques would not be useful for the detection of multiple gene transcriptional changes? A. Southern Blot B. Northern Blot C. SAGE D. Microarrays E. Macroarrays F. MPSS G. PCR-based analysis

A

Which of the following terminologies describes a presentation of two compared sequences showing regions of greatest statistical similarity A. Alignment B. Score value C. E-value D. Phylogenic tree E. ORF

A

Which of the following techniques is not commonly used to produce a transgenic animal? A. Agrobacterium infectionFeedback: Correct B. DNA microinjection C. Viral mediated gene transfer D. Sperm mediated gene transfer E. Electroporation

A Agrobacterium infection is used in producing transgenic plants but not transgenic animals.

Which of the following information from the genome may be identified by aneuploid screen test? A. An extra chromosome B. An individual's hemoglobin genotype C. A single nucleotide polymorphism D. A nucleotide pair substitution

A Aneuploid screen test can be used to diagnose Large Chromosomal Mutations (duplications, deletions, rearrangements).

What is an advantage of Bt (Bacillus thuringiensis) corn? A. Less pesticide needs to be sprayed on Bt corn. B. Bt corn can be used to produce pharmaceutical products, while traditional corn cannot be used C. Bt corn taste better than traditional corn D. Bt corn grows faster than traditional corn E. Cows fed on Bt corn grow faster than cows fed traditional corn

A Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt): toxin is a natural bacterial pesticide. Bt produces a crystallized protein (Bt toxin) that kills harmful insects and their larvae. A transgenic plant expressing Bt toxin does not need pesticide sprayed on the plant to prevent insect infestation.

Which of the following features is not characteristic of a good ORF? A. It should have many stop codons close together.Feedback: Correct B. It should have a start codon. C. It should be of reasonably long size D. It should end with an in-frame stop codon

A Criteria for judging a good ORF: An ORF should begin with a Start codon (Methionine residue) and end with an in frame stop codon. It must be of reasonable size (The longer the better). Long ORFs are unlikely to occur by chance and thus signify potential genes . Short AAs sequences are probably not ORFs. It should end with an in frame stop codon . Many stop codons close together suggest that an ORF is not present.

Which of the following substances/enzymes would not be contained in a DNA sequencing reaction? A. RNA polymerase B. DNA polymerase C. Buffers D. Deoxynucleotides E. Primer F. Labeled dideoxynucleotides

A DNA sequencing reaction components include: DNA template strands, Primers, Heat resistant DNA polymerase, e.g. Taq polymerase, 4 dNTPs, 4 ddNTPs (dideoxy terminator nucleotides) fluorescently labelled with four different dyes, Mg++ as a cofactor for DNA polymerase, and Buffer.

What is the name for a piece of equipment that can introduce DNA into cells via DNA-coated microprojectiles? A. Gene gunFeedback: Correct B. Laser C. DNA probe D. Sonometer E. Virus

A For particle bombardment using gene gun, shoot (blast) tiny metal beads coated with DNA into nucleus of embryonic cells, intact leaves and soft kernels, or shoot into chloroplast.

Which of the following statements describes functional annotation? A. Attaching biochemical roles to genomic elementsFeedback: Correct B. Identification of ORFs and their localization C. Identification of coding regions D. Identification of gene structure E. Identification of location of regulatory motifs

A Functional annotation consists of attaching function to genomic elements. These functions may include biochemical function, biological function, functions involving regulation, interactions and expression.

When transfecting ES cells with a targeting construct for gene knockout, which of the following is used to negatively select cells in which no integration of the targeting construct has occurred? A. Neomycin B. Cre-recombinase C. Neomycin and gancyclovir D. Gancyclovir E. Ampicillin

A NO INTEGRATION - negatively selected by neomycin

Which of the following products has NOT been developed by creating transgenic plants? A. Human insulin B. Plants that produce their own insecticide C. Edible vaccines D. More nutritious rice

A Transgenic plants producing human insulin have not yet been developed.

Golden rice is genetically modified to produce which of the following molecules? A. Proteins B. Beta carotene C. Iron D. Avidin E. Calcium

B

In eukaryotes, coordinated regulation of gene expression occurs by which of the following processes/structures? A. Genes located beside each other on the chromosome B. Genes possessing similar cis-regulatory elements C. Expression of a polycistronic mRNA D. Expression of an mRNA containing multiple protein coding regions E. Genes sharing a common promoter

B

Which of the following databanks is a major protein sequence databank? A. DDJB B. Uniprot C. EMBL D. Webcutter E. GenBank

B

Which of the following sentences describes the dideoxynucleotides used in the Sanger sequencing method? A. Are not cleaved by restriction endonucleases B. Cause Termination of DNA synthesis C. Possesses a 3'OH group D. Serves as a primer for DNA synthesis E. Are required for gel electrophoresis

B

Which of the following softwares is a gene prediction software? A. BLASTP B. ORF Finder C. BLASTN D. BLASTX E. ClustalW

B

Which of the following statements describes a current challenge in proteomics? A. The proteome is made up of homogenous molecules B. Amplification is impossible C. No variability in the amount of proteins D. The proteome is static al all times E. No variability in the amount of DNA

B

Which of the following statements is TRUE about Neomycin in transgenesis? A. is an antibiotic that kills prokaryotic cells B. is an antibiotic that kills eukaryotic cells C. makes eukaryote cells competent for gene transfer D. Increases the rate of gene recombination E. reacts with thymidine kinase to produce a toxin

B

Which of the following terms best describes a gene that can be used to monitor the function of another gene during development? A. Announcer gene B. Reporter Gene C. Selection gene D. Marker gene E. Vector

B

The diagram attached illustrates a gene targeting construct. Which of the structures, numbered 1 to 4 in attached diagram, would serve as a positive reporter gene upon successful gene targeting by crossing over? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

B 1 = -sequences which are identical to sequences flanking the gene that is being targeted. These are the sites where homologous recombination into the host genome will occur (crossing over) during transfection. 2 = neomycine resistance gene this sequence provides resistance to the drug neomycin and provides a selectable marker for ES cells which have incorporated the targeting construct into their genomes (either randomly or by homologous recombination). 3 = tk gene sequence encodes for the enzyme thymidine kinase that acts on the gancyclovir to produce a toxin. This provides a negative selectable marker for cells that have randomly incorporated the targeting construct into their genomes. 4 = this region may contain nothing in the case of a "knockout" or may contain a modified form of the host gene (eg. Mutated form) that is being targeted.

Which of the following techniques would be valuable in identifying microdeletions in metaphase chromosomes or interphase chromatin strands? A. SNP array B. FISH C. Whole Chromosome painting D. Whole chromosome specific DNA probes

B A microdeletion would be the deletion of one, a few, hundreds, thousands or up to about 3 million base pairs. Microdeletions may be too small to be detected by light microscopy using standard karyotyping or aneuploid screen test. Microdeletions can be detected by FISH.

Which of the following techniques would be the quickest in sequencing a very large piece of genomic DNA? A. Computer automated DNA sequencing with fluorescently labeled nucleotides B. Hierarchical shortgun sequencing C. Traditional Dideoxy sequencing with fluorescently labeled nucleotide D. Traditional Dideoxy sequencing with radioactively labeled nucleotide

B In heirarchical shotgun sequencing, a library is constructed by fragmenting the target genome cloning genome into a large-fragment cloning vector; here, BAC vectors are shown. The genomic DNA fragments represented in the library are then organized into a physical map. individual BAC clones are selected and sequenced by the random shotgun strategy. Finally, the clone sequences are assembled to reconstruct the sequence of the genome.

During a 2D-E experiment, proteins are separated in two sequential steps. What is the basis of the first dimensional separation? A. Size differences B. Isoelectric point differences C. Texture differences D. Colour differences

B In the first dimension of 2D-E, proteins are separated on the basis of differences in isoelectric point. The isoelectric point (pI) is defined as the pH of a solution at which the net charge of the protein becomes zero.

How was the plant called broccoflower produced? A. Selective breeding B. Protoplast fusion. C. Particle bombardment D. Cross breeding between two different vegetables E. Microinjection of DNA into plant cells

B Protoplast fusion was used to create broccoflower from broccoli and cauliflower.

For mRNA hybridization, thousands of small spots of known oligonucleotides are fixed onto nylon membrane, glass slides and Gene Chips. What broad name would you use to classify all these devices? A. Affymetrix Gene Chip B. Macroarray C. Microarray D. Tiling array

C

Separation in the second dimension of two dimensional gel electrophoresis is based on which of the following factors/principles? A. Folding B. Isoelectric focusing C. Molecular mass D. Conformation E. Charge

C

The "T-gene" that is used in plant genetic engineering protocols exhibits which of the following characteristics? A. Encodes for a pesticide resistance protein B. Causes protoplast fusion C. Directs the synthesis of nopaline D. Encodes for the Bt toxin E. Encodes for a fluorescent reporter molecule

C

What are CGH arrays used for? A. Identifying polymorphisms in genes B. Protein analysis C. Identifying copy number variation D. DNA Sequencing E. Sequencing polypeptide

C

What does BLAST stand for? A. Basic Alignment Search Tool B. Blast Local Alignment Tool C. Basic Local Alignment Search Tool D. Bovine Legion Alignment Sequence Tool E. Basic Locus Alignment Search Tool

C

What is the advantage of chloroplast engineering in plants? A. Chloroplast DNA is more stable B. DNA in chloroplast is not separate from the DNA released in plant's pollen C. DNA in chloroplast is separate from the DNA released in plant's pollen D. Chloroplast DNA is very large E. Chloroplast DNA can only accept one gene at a time

C

Which of the following statements does NOT represent a goal of the human genome project? A. Storage of information generated in a publicly accessible database B. Determination of the sequence of nucleotides in the human DNA C. Determination of the genetic variants that have frequencies of at least 1% D. Identification of all the genes in human DNA

C

Which of the following techniques/polymers is utilized in ASO assays? A. Gel electrophoresis B. Restriction endonucleases C. Oligonucleotides Probes D. DNA sequencing E. Mass spectrometry

C

Which of the following traits will an RNA, that does not possess a 7mG cap, have in order to be translated into protein? a. Be euchromatic B. Presence of a poly-A tail C. Presence of an IRES sequence D. Be a transfer RNA E. Be a ribosomal RNA

C

Which of the following techniques is not used in the direct evaluation of DNA? A. Simple sequence analysis B. Whole genome annotations C. Expression array analysis D. Comparative genomics E. Gene finding

C Expression array analysis is used in direct evaluation of RNA.

Genetic engineering manipulates gene products at the level of which of the following molecules? A. RNA B. Carbon C. DNAFeedback: Correct D. Protein E. Amino acid

C Genetic engineering manipulates gene products at the level of DNA.

What is the function of cyanogen bromide in Edman sequencing? A. Formation of peptide bond at tryptophan B. Fragmenting proteins at glycine C. Fragmenting proteins at methionine D. Fragmenting proteins at tryptophan E. Formation of peptide bonds at methionine F. Formation of peptide bond at glycine

C In Edman sequencing, proteins of interest are visualized on membrane surface, excised, and fragmented chemically at methionine (by cyanogen bromide - CNBr) to give 3-5 peptide fragments, consistent with the frequency of occurrence of methionine and tryptophan in most proteins.

In a proteomics experiment, peptides are introduced into the mass spectrometer via HPLC and ionised within the mass spectrometer. What is the basis of separation of the ions within the mass spectrometer? A. Size, B. Specific gravity C. Mass to charge ratio D. Charge E. Mass

C In mass spectrometry, sample (e.g. from HPLC machine) is introduced into the instrument (Mass spectrometer). Ions are generated in the gas phase. Ions are separated on the basis of differences in mass to charge (m/z) with a mass analyzer. Ions are detected by a detector within the mass spectrometer and proteins identified via database.

After 2D-E, the protein of interest is excised and digested with a protease. Which of the following techniques would be most suitable for the identification of the protein? A. ICAT B. Yeast two-hybrid system C. Mass spectrometry D. Phage display E. Electroblotting F. Western Blotting

C Mass spectrometry measures the m/z ratio of ions to identify and quantify proteins from the mass of its peptide fragments in simple and complex mixtures.

Which of the following techniques would be fastest in sequencing a very large piece of genomic DNA? A. Computer automated dideoxy sequencing with fluorescently labelled nucleotides B. Traditional Dideoxy sequencing with radioactively labeled nucleotide C. Next Generation Sequencing D. Traditional Dideoxy sequencing with fluorescently labeled nucleotide E. Hierarchical shotgun sequencing

C Next-generation sequencing (NGS) platforms carry out massively parallel sequencing millions of DNA fragments are sequenced in unison. Rapid (sequence an entire genome in less than one day). Low cost in comparison to traditional techniques (Sanger sequencing)

Which of the following can be used to monitor the function of another gene during development? A. Vector B. Marker gene C. Reporter geneFeedback: Correct D. Plasmid E. Selection gene

C Reporter Genes are used to monitor the function of any gene during development.

For mRNA hybridization, thousands of small spots of known oligonucleotides are fixed onto a glass slide. What broad name would you use to classify this device? A. Contigs B. Tilling array C. Macroarray D. Microarray E. Affymetrix gene chip

D

How do antisense oligonucleotides regulate gene expression? A. By degrading mRNAs B. By causing the formation of heterochromatin C. By preventing 5' capping of mRNAs D. By preventing the translation of mRNAs E. By preventing poly-adenylation of mRNAs

D

What are SNP chips used to identify? A. Gene expression differences between samples B. Chromosomal duplications C. Protein expression differences between tissue samples D. Genetic polymorphisms E. Location of genes on a particular chromosome

D

When transfecting ES cells with a targeting construct for gene knockout, which of the following is used to negatively select cells in which no integration of the targeting construct has occurred? A. Gancyclovir B. Ampicillin C. Neomycin and gancyclovir D. Neomycin E. Cre-recombinase

D

Which of the following sequences can be found on the spots on an expression array chip? A. Repetitive DNA sequences B. Intron sequences C. Promoter sequences D. Exon sequences E. Telomeric sequences

D

Which of the following statements explains why transgenic corn expressing avidin is resistant to pests during storage? A. Pests are repelled by a strong smell from avidin B. Avidin is a pesticide found in eggs C. Avidin makes the corn hard such that the pests can no longer bite through the corn D. Avidin binds biotin making biotin unavailable to pests

D

What is the effect of mercaptoethanol in the proteomics experiment illustrated in attached diagram? A. Coating of proteins with positive charges B. Coating of proteins with negative charges C. Formation of peptide bonds D. Cleavage of disulphide bonds E. Cleavage of peptide bonds F. Formation of disulphide bonds

D 2-Mercaptoethanol (also β-mercaptoethanol) is used to reduce disulfide bonds. A disulfide bond is a covalent bond.

Which of the following terms describes a presentation of two compared sequences highlighting regions of greatest statistical similarity? A. E-value B. Score Value C. Query sequence D. Alignment E. Phylogenetic Tree F. ORF

D Alignment is a presentation of two compared sequences showing the regions of greatest statistical similarity

What is the advantage of chloroplast engineering in plants? A. DNA in chloroplast is not separate from the DNA released in plant's pollen. B. Chloroplast DNA can only accept one gene at a time C. Chloroplast DNA is more stable D. DNA in chloroplast is separate from the DNA released in plant's pollen. E. Chloroplast DNA is very large

D Chloroplast DNA can accept several new genes at once, Unlike DNA in a cell's nucleus, a high percentage of genes inserted into the chloroplast will remain active when the plant matures. DNA in chloroplast in separate from the DNA released in plant's pollen.

Why do farmers cultivate GMO crops? A. To increase yields B. To decrease pesticide costs C. To save management time D. All of the above

D Farmers produce genetically modified crops because of the benefits. The benefits include: Increased productivity Contribution to global food security/elimination of hunger. Higher quality crops, tastier and healthier fruits. More valuable economic crops. Having pesticide resistant crops means there will be savings on cost of pesticides. Overall, management time is saved in dealing with diseases and pesticides.

Which of the following statements best describes the genome of an organism? A. All the mRNA in an organism at a given time B. All the proteins in an organism at a given time C. All the introns in the nuclear DNA of an organism. D. The entire genetic compliment of an organism, encoded by its nucleic acids. E. The entire substrates converted to products at a given time in an organism

D Genome: The entire genetic compliment of an organism, encoded in nucleic acids. Note: Most genomes are made of DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) but a few viruses have RNA (ribonucleic acid) genomes

Which techniques are described in attached diagram? A. Fluorescent in situ hybridization and mass spectrometry B. Fluorescent in situ hybridization and electrophoresis C. Two-channel colour array and mass spectrometry D. Isotope coded affinity tags and mass spectrometry E. Fluorescent in situ hybridization and massively parallel sequencing F. Isotope coded affinity tags and massively parallel sequencing G. Two-channel colour array and massively parallel sequencing

D Isotope coded affinity tags (ICAT) entails labeling of protein samples from two different sources with two chemically identical reagents that differ only in mass as a result of isotope composition. Labelled proteins are proteolyzed and identified using mass spectrometry.

What is the effect of Sodium dodecyl sulphate (SDS) on proteins in solution? A. Formation of peptide bonds B. Formation of disulphide bonds C. Increases bonding and protein folding within the protein molecule. D. Coating of proteins with negative charges E. Coating of proteins with positive charges

D SDS works by disrupting non-covalent bonds in the proteins, denaturing them, and causing the molecules to lose their native shape (conformation). SDS is negatively charged. The denatured proteins coated with SDS acquire new negative charges which are significantly greater than the original charge of that protein. The electrostatic repulsion that is created by binding of SDS causes proteins to unfold into a rod-like shape thereby eliminating differences in shape as a factor for separation in the gel.

In bioinformatics, which of the following phrases/terminologies describes the analysis of DNA sequences of homologous genes to provide clues to the evolutionary relationships between organisms ? A. Genome annotation B. BLAST search C. E-value analysis D. Sequence homology analysis E. GENSCAN

D Sequence Homology analysis entails the analysis of DNA sequences of homologous genes to provide clues to the evolutionary relationships between organisms. Two species that are closely related to each other will have DNA (or amino acid) sequences that are more similar to each other than if they are more distantly related.

A researcher is only interested in the insulin gene. Which of the following techniques would be a most suited sequencing approach for such research? A. Whole genome sequencing B. Exome sequencing C. Whole chromosome sequencing D. Targeted sequencing

D Targeted sequencing: Specifically targets regions of the genome that are of interest to researchers or clinicians. More affordable and yields much higher coverage of genomic regions of interest. Sequencing panels can be developed to target specific genomic regions or disease-causing mutation hotspots.

Which of the following diagnostic features is not characteristic of a gene from eukaryotic cell? A. Stop codon B. Start codon C. TATA box D. Shine Dalgarno sequence E. Poly A signal F. Open reading frame

D The presence of Shine Dalgarno sequence is diagnostic of a prokaryotic gene

The pronucleus method of developing transgenic animals involves which of the following processes? A. Microinjection of DNA into the female pronucleus B. Microinjection of DNA into the foster mother pronucleus C. Microinjection of DNA into the embryo pronucleus D. Microinjection of DNA into the male pronucleus E. Microinjection of DNA into the zygote pronucleus

D The pronucleus method is based on the introduction of linear DNA sequences into the chromosomes of fertilized eggs. First, DNA with the transgene of interest is formed. Then there is microinjection of desired DNA into the male pronucleus.

Which of the following sentences/phrases is true about Ti plasmids? A. Found in viruses B. Used to hold about 500bp of foreign DNA C. Useful cloning vectors for constructing genomic libraries D. Found in Agrobacterium and parts of the plasmid can become integrated into plant genomes E. Used in reverse transcriptase during the integration reaction

D This plasmid, fount within Agrobacterium, is also referred to as tumor inducing (Ti) plasmid, because it triggers an uncontrolled growth of the cells (tumor) in the plant. It is able to do so by being integrated into the plant genome.

Why is transgenic corn that express avidin resistant to pests during storage? A. The pests can no longer bite through the corn B. Of the strong smell of avidin during storage. C. Avidin is a pesticide found in eggs D. Avidin makes biotin unavailable

D Transgenic corn expressing avidin (a protein found in egg whites) is resistant to pests during storage Avidin blocks the availability of biotin. Biotin is a vitamin required by pests to grow.

A lover biopsy is obtained from an individual and is subjected to scientific analysis 10 years later another sample is taken from the same patient. Which of the following would you expect to show the same results from the analysis? A. Metablolome B. Lipidome C. Proteome D. Transcriptome E. Genome

E

During a gene targeting experiment, recombination between the targeting construct and the targeted gene occur at which of the following sites? A. Thymidine Kinase gene B. Neomycin resistance gene C. Cre-recombinase gene D. Exons of the targeted gene E. Regions of homology

E

To make a transgenic plant, the gene of interest is cloned into which part of a plasmid? A. reporter gene B. Origin of replication C. Selectable marker D. Promoter sequence E. T-DNA

E

Which of the following methods is used to study protein function? A. Yeast two-hybrid system B. 2D gel electrophoresis C. Protein function microarray D. Mass spectrometry E. A and C

E

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about a query sequence? A. A sequence, either amino acid or nucleotide chosen by the user to use in a BLAST search B. the sequence can either be FASTA, Bare sequence or identifier (Accession number or gene info ID(gi). C. BLAST searches require a minimum query sequence length of 15 nucleotides or amino acids D. a sequence that can be typed or pasted into the query window on the search form E. Any nucleotide or protein sequence that is more than five can be used

E

Whish of the following molecules is separated by two dimensional gel electrophoresis (2D-E) A. RNA from DNA B. DNA fragments C. RNA fragments D. DNA from RNA E. Proteins

E

Which of the following definitions correctly states the full meaning of BLAST? A. Bovine Legion Alignment Sequence Tool B. Blast Local Alignment Sequence Tool C. Basic Alignment Search Tool D. Basic Locus Alignment Search Tool E. Basic Local Alignment Search Tool

E BLAST (Basic Local Alignment Search Tool) is a popular sequence alignment program.

What is the concern of anti-GMO activists all over the world? A. Unforeseen long-term effects of genetic manipulation B. Genetic manipulation in humans as a result of consuming GMO food C. Control of food supply by a small number of seed producers D. Insufficient testing of GMO crop side effects E. All of the above

E Concerns about genetic modified crops include: Potential impact on human health. Potential impact on environment. Access and Intellectual .Property Labeling concerns. Concerns about scientific protocol. Ethical concerns may include: Violation of natural organisms' intrinsic values. Tampering with nature by mixing genes among species. Consuming animal genes in plants and vice versa.

Cre-recombinase is an enzyme that carries out which of the following functions? A. Acts on thymidine kinase to produce a toxin B. Is a selectable marker for gene knockout experiments C. Is used to transfect embryonic stem cells D. Recognizes a 12 bp DNA sequence E. Catalyzes recombination between two lox P sites

E Cre recombinase catalyzes recombination between two lox P sites.

What is the name for the process of determining the precise order of nucleotides within a DNA molecule ? A. RNA Processing B. Protein sequencing C. Translation D. Replication E. DNA sequencing

E DNA sequencing was first developed in the 1970s by Frederick Sanger, to determine the exact order of nucleotides in a given DNA or RNA sequence & to see smaller changes in whole genomes.

Which of the following karyotypes would be considered to be euploid? A. 47, XY, +18 B. 47, XY, +13 C. 47, XY, +21 D. 47, XXY E. 46, XX F. 45, XO

E Euploidy: The normal diploid complement of 46 chromosomes, 22 autosome pairs and two sex chromosomes (46, XX or 46, XY).

The diagram to the right illustrates a co-integrated plasmid used in plant transgenesis. Which of the following could serve as a reporter gene? A. Luciferase gene B. GUS (b-glucuronidase) gene C. lac (b-galactosidase) gene D. Green fluorescent gene E. All of the above

E Examples of reporter genes are: luciferase gene (isolated from fireflies)., bacterial GUS b glucuronidase ) gene , which turns the compound X Gluc blue, bacterial lac b galactosidase ) gene , which turns X Gal blue and jellyfish green fluorescent gene, which causes cells that express the GFP to glow green under blue light.

Which of the following karyotypes is characteristic of Klinefelter's syndrome? A. 47, XY, +13 B. 45, XO C. 47, XY, +21 D. 46, XX E. 47, XXY F. 47, XY, +18 G. 46, XY

E Extra X or Y chromosome (e.g., 47, XXY, Klinefelters Syndrome).

Which of the following programs is an example of a gene prediction software? A. BLASTX B. ClustalW C. BLASTP D. BLASTN E. ORF Finder

E Gene prediction software are used to identify genes within a long DNA sequence. A DNA sequence that codes for amino acids should not contain any stop codons . Such a coding region is called an open reading frame. Because each DNA strand can be read in three reading frames and there are two DNA strands, the computer must analyze a given DNA sequence in six different reading frames. An example of a tool that can be used is Open Reading Frame Finder (ORF Finder) at NCBI and GENSCAN.

Which of the following content of food is meant to be increased by Golden rice? A. Iron B. Carbohydrate C. Calcium D. Proteins E. Vitamin A

E Golden rice is genetically modified to produce large amounts of beta carotene a provitamin that can be converted to vitamin A in the body currently valuable in preventing blindness. Setback is that the provitamin in golden rice must dissolve in fat to be used by the body.

The diagram attached illustrates steps in a proteomics experiment. What proteomics technique is this? A. ICAT B. Electroblotting C. Western Blotting D. Yeast two-hybrid system E. 1D-EFeedback: Correct F. 2D-E G. Phage display

E In one dimensional gel electrophoresis (ID-E), proteins are resolved by size using SDS-PAGE gel electrophoresis.

Which of the following technologies is best suited for the analysis of mRNA? A. Far-Eastern Blot B. Western blot C. Eastern Blot D. Southern blot E. Northern blot

E Northern blot is the hybridization based technique in which transcript-specific radioactive probes are used to identify a target mRNA species within an immobilized RNA sample.

Which proteomics technique is illustrated in attached diagram ? A. Electroblotting B. Phage display approach C. Spectrophotometry D. Electrophoresis E. Protein microarray F. Yeast two-hybrid system

E Protein function microarrays are used to screen for various types of protein interactions including protein-protein, protein-lipid, protein-DNA, protein-drug, and protein-peptide interactions. To identify enzyme substrates, and To profile immune responses.

Which of the following terminologies defines a sequence of amino acid or nucleotide used in a BLAST search? A. ORF B. Annotation C. DNA sequence D. Score value E. Query sequence F. Alignment

E Query Sequence is a sequence, either amino acid or nucleotide chosen by the user to use in a BLAST search. A query sequence can be typed or pasted into the query window on the search form. BLAST searches require a minimum query sequence length of 15 nucleotides or amino acids Query sequence can either be FASTA, Bare sequence or identifier - accession number or gene info ID (gi).

Which of the following terms defines the use of computer databases to store, retrieve and assist in understanding biological information? A. Computation B. Informatics C. Biotechnology D. Computer Science E. Bioinformatics

E The term bioinformatics was coined by Paulien Hogeweg in1979 for the study of informatic processes in biotic systems. Bioinformatics is the field of science in which biology, computer science, and information technology merge into a single discipline (2009). In bioinformatics, computer databases are used to store, retrieve and assist in understanding biological information.

Which part of a targeting vector used to create a knockout mouse is located outside of the two regions containing sequences of homology to the target gene? A. Targeted gene sequence B. Neomycin resistance gene C. Gancyclovir gene sequence D. Ampicillin resistance gene sequence E. Thymidine kinase

E The tk gene sequence of a targeting vector used to create a knockout mouse is located outside of the two regions containing sequences of homology to the target gene.

Which of the following proteomics techniques entails the use of antibodies for the detection of a single protein on a membrane? A. Yeast two-hybrid system B. ICAT C. 1D-E D. Phage display E. Western Blotting F. 2D-E G. Electroblotting

E Western blotting allows antibodies to be used to detect and identify the presence of a specific protein.

In which of the following techniques is cDNA fragments cloned onto micro-beads sequenced? A. Microarray B. Tiling array C. Macroarray D. Northern Blotting E. PCR F. MPSS G. RFLP H. SAGE

F In Massively Parallel Signature Sequencing (MPSS), cDNA fragments are cloned onto micro-beads using the Lynx Megaclone technology.

Which of the following is produced by a cross between a male donkey and female horse? A. Zonkey B. Tiglon C. Liger D. Zedonk E. Tigon F. Mule

F Mule: a cross between a male donkey and a female horse. Liger: is a hybrid cross between a male lion (Panthera leo) and a female tiger (Panthera tigris). Tigon or Tiglon is a hybrid cross between a male tiger (Panthera tigris) and a lioness (Panthera leo). Zonkey: a male Zebra and female Donkey. Zedonk: a male Donkey and female Zebra.

Which of the following karyotypes is characteristic of Down's syndrome in a female? A. 45, XO - E. 46, XY B. 47, XX, +13 - F. 47, XY, +21 C. 47, XY, +18 - G. 46, XX D. 47, XXY - H. 47, XX, +21

H Down's Syndome (trisomy 21)

Which of the following terminologies describes all the mRNA present in a cell at a given time? A. Proteome - F. Microbiome B. Metabolome - G. Connectome C. Lipidome - H. Genome D. Glycome - I. Metagenome E. Epigenome - J. Transcriptome

J The transcriptome: mRNA that is present in a cell at a particular time. Percentage of the genetic code that is transcribed into RNA molecules (depends on development, environment, time of the day, tissue). Collection of all gene transcripts present in a given cell/tissue at a given time ("snapshot")