MRI nervous system tests
How many C-shaped cartilages reinforce the trachea? A. 16-20 B. 3-5 C. 10-15 D. 6-10
A. 16-20
The common carotid artery bifurcates at the level of: A. C3-4 B. C4-5 C. C2-3 D. C5-6
A. C3-4
The basilar portion of the occipital bone forms the anterior margin of the foramen magnum and slopes superiorly and anteriorly to meet with the dorsum sella to form which structure? A. Clivus B. Sella turcica C. Lateral condyle D. Internal occipital protuberance
A. Clivus
When scanning patients to rule out brain tumors _____ weighted images are acquired after intravenous injection of gadolinium based contrast to evaluate the extent of the lesion. A. T1 B. Proton density C. T2 D. Diffusion
A. T1
The internal auditory canal transmits cranial nerves: A. VII and VIII. B. VI and VII. C. VIII and IX. D. IX and X.
A. VII and VIII.
Which imaging plane best demonstrates the thyroid gland? A. axial B. sagittal C. coronal D. oblique
A. axial
The cervical lymph nodes are best demonstrated in the ___________ planes. A. axial and coronal B. sagittal and coronal C. sagittal and axial D. none of the above
A. axial and coronal
A network of blood vessels located within the ventricular system that produces cerebrospinal fluid is the: A. choroid plexus B. arachnoid villi C. basal cisterns D. basal ganglia
A. choroid plexus
Which of the following will not enhance after intravenous gadolinium contrast administration? A. chronic infarct B. acute infarct C. acoustic neuroma D. active MS plaques
A. chronic infarct
Post contrast sequences of the pituitary gland should be acquired __________ to differentiate between normally enhancing pituitary gland and a pituitary microadenoma. A. dynamically B. after a 10 minute delay C. after a 1 hour delay D. the following day
A. dynamically
On a soft tissue neck, which structure is in closest proximity to the cervical vertebrae? A. esophagus B. larynx C. trachea D. pharynx
A. esophagus
When performing a study of the parotid glands, the horizontal alignment light should be centered to the: A. external auditory meatus B. angle of the mandible C. the hyoid bone D. the chin
A. external auditory meatus
True sagittal images of the brain are obtained by planning the slice locations on a coronal image and angling them with the: A. falx cerebri B. foramen magnum C. sylvian fissure D. basal ganglia
A. falx cerebri
Through which foramen does the maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve course? A. foramen rotundum B. foramen magnum C. foramen spinosum D. foramen ovale
A. foramen rotundum
The cerebral hemispheres contain neural tissue arranged in numerous folds called: A. gyri B. sulci C. fissures D. lobes
A. gyri
All patients must be provided with: A. hearing protection B. a movie to watch during the exam (scan and a show!) C. an immediate reading of their examination D. eye goggles
A. hearing protection
The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII passes through the _____ canal. A. hypoglossal B. optic C. vidian D. pterygoid
A. hypoglossal
Which of the following is typically the largest vascular structure located in the neck? A. internal jugular vein B. common carotid artery C. external jugular vein D. internal carotid artery
A. internal jugular vein
The Magnetization Transfer (MT) saturation imaging option is useful in the differentiation of: A. lesion from normal tissue, post-contrast enhancement B. gray matter vs. white matter, pre-contrast enhancement C. lesion from normal tissue, pre-contrast enhancement D. gray matter vs. white matter, post-contrast enhancement
A. lesion from normal tissue, post-contrast enhancement
The decreased myelination found in brains of children under one year old results in a lack of image contrast. Consequently, in comparison to scanning adults, to achieve T2 weighted images when imaging the pediatric brain requires a: A. longer TE B. smaller flip angle C. longer TR D. larger flip angle
A. longer TE
The primary visual cortex is located in the: A. occipital lobe B. temporal lobe C. frontal lobe D. parietal lobe
A. occipital lobe
Which spaces should be included when imaging an oropharyngeal tumor? A. parapharyngeal B. submandibular C. parotid D. masticator
A. parapharyngeal
Including the midbrain, the other major segments of the brainstem are the: A. pons and medulla oblongata B. pons and cerebellum C. medulla oblongata and thalamus D. medulla oblongata and cerebellum
A. pons and medulla oblongata
A patient arrives at the imaging facility with a crainal scar. The technologist should: A. screen the patient, review the patient's medical records, and/or speak with a family member to find out what type of surgery the patient underwent B. perform the MRI procedure immediately to document the patient's surgical history C. ignore the scar, it doesn't matter if the patient has had cranial surgery, as long as we are scanning another part of the patient's body D. wrap the head in a sterile dressing
A. screen the patient, review the patient's medical records, and/or speak with a family member to find out what type of surgery the patient underwent
Which muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles? A. sternocleidomastoid B. longissimus dorsi C. platysma D. trapezius
A. sternocleidomastoid
Which of the following is considered the smallest of the salivary glands? A. sublingual B. submaxillary C. parotid D. submandibular
A. sublingual
Which structure of the inner ear sends auditory sensory input to the temporal lobes of the brain? A. the cochlea B. the auricle C. the semicircular canals D. the tympanic membrane
A. the cochlea
Which bony projection serves as the attachment site for the falx cerebri? A. the crista galli B. the coronoid process C. the pterygoid hamulus D. the anterior clinoid processes
A. the crista galli
When obtaining axial images of the orbit, the slices should be aligned parallel to which structure? A. the optic nerve B. the retina C. the lens of the eye D. the pituitary gland
A. the optic nerve
Who is responsible for ensuring the application of safe practices in the MR environment? A. the technologist B. the physicist C. the nurse D. the anesthesiologist
A. the technologist
Which of the following structures serves to reinforce the trachea? A. pyloric sphincter B. 16-20 C-shaped cartilages C. thyroid cartilage D. cardiac orifice
B. 16-20 C-shaped cartilages
__________ is a condition in which part of the cerebellar tonsil is displaced below the foramen magnum. A. Simmonds' disease B. Chiari malformation C. Hydrocephalus D. Syringomyelia (syrinx)
B. Chiari malformation
The cribriform plate is part of which cranial bone? A. Occipital B. Ethmoid C. Sphenoid D. Temporal
B. Ethmoid
Which of the following is a foramen contained within the sphenoid bone? A. Mental foramen B. Foramen ovale C. Jugular foramen D. Foramen lacerum
B. Foramen ovale
Which of the following is not a muscle of the eye? A. Lateral rectus B. Lateral oblique C. Superior rectus D. Superior oblique
B. Lateral oblique
The foramen magnum is a structure of which cranial bone? A. Sphenoid B. Occipital C. Ethmoid D. Frontal
B. Occipital
Chiari malformation results in the ________ protruding through the _________. A. eyes, orbits B. brainstem, foramen magnum C. vestibulochoclear nerve, internal auditory canal D. pituitary gland, sella turcica
B. brainstem, foramen magnum
The transmission of cerebrospinal fluid from the 3rd ventricle to the 4th ventricle is via: A. median aperture (foramen of Magendie) B. cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) C. lateral apertures (foramen of Lushka) D. interventricular foramen (foramen of Monro)
B. cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius)
Which of the following is NOT a paired cartilage of the neck? A. corniculate B. cricoid C. arytenoid D. cuneiform
B. cricoid
The menigeal layer that follows the periosteum of the cranium is: A. pia mater B. dura mater C. subarachnoid space D. arachnoid layer
B. dura mater
Which anatomical landmark should be used when positioning patients with the laser alignment light for most MRI examinations of the head? A. external auditory meatus B. glabella C. acanthion D. nasion
B. glabella
A hyperintense area of signal is noted on the T1 and T2 weighted images of a patient that is incoherent. This most likely demonstrates a __________ lesion. A. toxoplasmosis B. hemmorhagic C. metatstatic D. neurofibrma
B. hemmorhagic
The superior cerebellar peduncles connect the cerebellum to the: A. pons B. midbrain C. medulla oblongata D. cerebral cortex
B. midbrain
Which of the following is composed primarily of massive bundles of nerve fiber tracts and can be divided into two major segments: cerebral peduncles and tectum? A. pons B. midbrain C. cerebellum D. medulla oblongata
B. midbrain
A patient presents with a history of seizures. Cardiac gating can be used to: A. avoid communicating with the patient throughout the procedure B. minimize the pulsatile flow motion artifact in the temporal lobes C. make the vasculature appear dark D. monitor the patient for potential seizures
B. minimize the pulsatile flow motion artifact in the temporal lobes
The vomer unites with the _________ to form the bony nasal septum. A. crista galli B. perpendicular plate C. cribiform plate D. superior nasal conchae
B. perpendicular plate
Which structure is evaluated to determine if the midline of the brain has shifted due to pathology, pressure, or trauma? A. falx cerebri B. septum pellucidum C. globis pallidus D. lateral ventricles
B. septum pellucidum
As the transverse sinuses pass through the tentorium cerebelli, which sinus do they become? A. inferior sagittal sinus B. sigmoid C. superior sagittal sinus D. straight
B. sigmoid
When performing a study of the pharynx to assess a nasopharyngeal tumor ________ should be included in the examination. A. maxillary sinuses B. sphenoid sinus C. frontal sinuses D. dural sinuses
B. sphenoid sinus
Which is the most posterior portion of the corpus callosum? A. rostrum B. splenium C. body D. genu
B. splenium
Which of the following cranial nerves is NOT involved in innervating the muscles of the eye? A. the oculomotor nerve B. the optic nerve C. the abducens nerve D. the trochlear nerve
B. the optic nerve
The vertebral arteries travel through the ___________ within the neck. A. the foramen magnum B. transverse foramina of the cervical vertebrae C. the intervertebral foramina D. the vertebral foramen of the cervical vertebrae
B. transverse foramina of the cervical vertebrae
At what age does the bregma (anterior fontanel) typically fuse? A. 4-6 months B. 1-3 months C. 2 years D. 3 years
C. 2 years
Which structure of the inner ear is responsible for hearing? A. Semicircular canal B. Vestibule C. Cochlea D. Incus
C. Cochlea
The anterior surface of the temporomandibular articular disk attaches to which muscle? A. Temporalis B. Medial pterygoid C. Lateral pterygoid D. Masseter
C. Lateral pterygoid
Which of the following cranial bones form the largest portion of the sides of the cranium? A. Sphenoid bones B. Occipital bones C. Parietal bones D. Temporal bones
C. Parietal bones
Gray/white matter differentiation within the pediatric brain is best demonstrated by which sequence? A. T1 weighted spin echo B. T1 weighted fast spin echo C. T1 weighted inversion recovery D. T2* weighted gradient echo
C. T1 weighted inversion recovery
Which basal cistern courses around the lateral surface of the midbrain? A. prepontine cistern B. cisterna magna C. ambient cistern D. interpeduncular cistern
C. ambient cistern
The internal auditory canals are best demonstrated in T1 weighted images in the ____________ planes. A. sagittal and axial B. sagittal, axial, and coronal C. axial and coronal D. coronal and sagittal
C. axial and coronal
The right common carotid artery originates from the: A. the right subclavian artery B. the right jugular artery C. brachiocephalic artery D. the aortic arch
C. brachiocephalic artery
A patient presents to the MRI department with a suspected acoustic neuroma. What type of examination should be performed? A. brain with attention to the pituitary fossa without and with contrast B. routine brain without and with contrast C. brain with attention to the posterior fossa without and with contrast D. orbits without contrast
C. brain with attention to the posterior fossa without and with contrast
Which imaging plane best demonstrates the parotid gland? A. axial B. sagittal C. coronal D. transverse
C. coronal
The thyroid cartilage is located at the level of the: A. oropharynx B. manubrium C. cricoid cartilage D. nasopharynx
C. cricoid cartilage
Which of the following diagnoses requires a protocol tailored to demonstrate the temporal lobes? A. proptosis B. pituitary microadenoma C. epliepsy D. visual disturbance
C. epliepsy
hich structure of the brain is involved in transforming short term memory to long term memory? A. pituitary gland B. infundibulum C. hippocampus D. optic chiasm
C. hippocampus
In T1 weighted sequences, gray matter appears A. isointense to white matter B. hyperintense to white matter C. hypointense to white matter D. hypointense to CSF
C. hypointense to white matter
Which of the following is most superior in orientation of the pharynx? A. cerebropharynx B. oropharynx C. nasopharynx D. laryngopharynx
C. nasopharynx
The pituitary gland is best visualized in T1 weighted images in the ____________ planes. A. sagittal, axial, and coronal B. sagittal and axial C. sagittal and coronal D. axial and coronal
C. sagittal and coronal
Which of the following is an indication to perform an examination of the pharynx? A. parathyroid adenoma B. salivary gland duct obstruction C. sleep apnea D. goiter
C. sleep apnea
Branches of the middle cerebral artery feed this structure, making it the most common site for a stroke to occur. A. the insula B. the pons C. the internal capsule D. the midbrain
C. the internal capsule
What two structures form the hard palate? A. the palatine processes of the sphenoid bone & the palatine bones B. the palatine bones & the palatine processes of the mandible C. the palatine processes of the maxillae & the palatine bones D. the frontal processes of the maxillae & the palatine bones
C. the palatine processes of the maxillae & the palatine bones
How many cartilages make up the larynx? A. 3 B. 12 C. 6 D. 9
D. 9
Which suture is located posterior in the cranium and joins the occipital and parietal bones? A. Squamous B. Sagittal C. Coronal D. Lambdoidal
D. Lambdoidal
Which portion of the temporal bone is pyramidal in shape and situated at an angle between the sphenoid and occipital bones? A. Tympanic B. Squamous C. Mastoid D. Petrous
D. Petrous
Which structure of the sphenoid bone houses the pituitary gland? A. Anterior clinoid process B. Foramen ovale C. Pterygoid process D. Sella turcica
D. Sella turcica
Which of the following are the structures of the inner ear? A. Semicircular canals, malleus, vestibule B. Cochlea, incus, oval window C. Vestibule, cochlea, malleus D. Semicircular canals, cochlea, vestibule
D. Semicircular canals, cochlea, vestibule
The ______ cranial nerves are contained within the internal auditory canals. A. I & II B. V & VI C. III & IV D. VII & VIII
D. VII & VIII
FLAIR sequences are performed in the brain to demonstrate: A. periventricular lesions B. Parkinson's disease C. Multiple Sclerosis D. all of the above
D. all of the above
Axial slices in the brain should be aligned with the __________ to provide a baseline for uniform slice positioning. A. lateral horns of the ventricles B. optic nerve C. falx cerebri D. anterior/posterior commissures of the corpus callosum
D. anterior/posterior commissures of the corpus callosum
Sagittal imaging of the temporomandibular joints should be performed with the patient's: A. mouth opened B. mouth closed C. eyes closed D. both a and b
D. both a and b
The insula is considered part of the: A. basal ganglia of the temporal lobe B. brainstem C. cerebellum D. cerebral cortex of the temporal lobe
D. cerebral cortex of the temporal lobe
When performing MRI of the orbits which imaging option allows for the best visualization of the optic nerve? A. parallel imaging B. gradient moment nulling C. cardiac gating D. fat saturation
D. fat saturation
What is the function of the hyoid bone? A. prevents food from entering the trachea B. acts as a base for the laryngeal cartilages C. protects the delicate vocal cords D. forms a base for the tongue
D. forms a base for the tongue
The _______ allows the maxillary sinuses to drain into the middle nasal meatus. A. superior nasal conchae B. lacrimal canal C. uncinate process D. infundibulum
D. infundibulum
Lymph nodes are frequently ________ to muscle and blood vessels are _________ on T1 weighted images of the neck. A. isointense/bright B. gray/bright C. dark/bright D. isointense/dark
D. isointense/dark
Sagittal images of the temporomandibular joints should be obtained by aligning the slices perpendicular to the: A. zygomatic arches B. mandibular body C. coronoid process D. mandibular condyles
D. mandibular condyles
Palpable masses should be: A. biopsied prior to MR examination B. immediately excised, followed by scanning of the surgical specimen C. ignored, there is nothing that can be done about them anyways D. marked with a surface marker
D. marked with a surface marker
The muscle which covers the most anterior surface of the neck is the ______________. A. trapezius B. scalene C. pterygoid D. platysma
D. platysma
The cerebellum, pons, medulla oblongata, and midbrain are contained in the __________ cranial fossa. A. middle B. anterior C. lateral D. posterior
D. posterior
For optimal imaging of the thyroid gland, patients are positioned: A. prone with the head coil pulled all the way down over the neck B. supine and the head coil is pulled all the way down over the neck C. supine and the body coil is used to obtain a large FOV D. supine and with a neurovascular array coil placed over the head and neck
D. supine and with a neurovascular array coil placed over the head and neck
Which cistern contains the circle of willis? A. cisterna magna B. the interpeduncular cistern C. ambient cistern D. suprasellar cistern
D. suprasellar cistern
Which vessels course through foramen magnum to and unite to form the basilar artery? A. the external carotid arteries B. the internal carotid arteries C. the common carotid arteries D. the vertebral arteries
D. the vertebral arteries
Foreign objects can commonly become lodged in the: A. piriform sinuses B. arytenoid cartilage C. thyroid cartilage D. valleculae
D. valleculae