MS ch 17 bank

A client diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has a problem with nutrition resulting in a weight loss. The nurse has instructed the client regarding methods of increasing weight for health maintenance. The nurse determines that there is a need for further instruction if the client states the need to implement which measure? 1 Eat low-calorie snacks between meals. 2 Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day. 3 Consume nutrient-dense foods and beverages. 4 Keep easy-to-prepare foods available in the home.

1 Rationale: The client who has a problem with nutrition and is losing weight should take in nutrient-dense and high-calorie meals and snacks. The client should also eat small, frequent meals throughout the day. The client is encouraged to eat favorite foods to keep intake up and plan meals that are easy to prepare. The client should also avoid taking fluids with meals in order to increase food intake before satiety occurs.

The nurse is caring for a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) who is experiencing night fever and night sweats. Which nursing interventions would be helpful in managing this symptom? Select all that apply. 1 Keep liquids at the bedside. 2 Place a towel over the pillowcase. 3 Make sure the pillow has a plastic cover. 4 Keep a change of bed linens nearby in case they are needed. 5 Administer an antipyretic after the client has a spike in temperature.

1,2,3,4 Rationale: Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is a viral disease caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which destroys T cells, thereby increasing susceptibility to infection and malignancy. For clients with AIDS who experience night fever and night sweats, the nurse may offer the client an antipyretic of choice before the client goes to sleep rather than waiting until the client spikes a temperature. Keeping a change of bed linens and night clothes nearby for use also is helpful. The pillow should have a plastic cover, and a towel may be placed over the pillowcase if diaphoresis is profuse. The client should have liquids at the bedside to drink.

A client diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) shares with the nurse feelings of social isolation. Which strategy should the nurse suggest as the most useful way to decrease the client's stated loneliness? 1. Reinstituting contact with the client's family, who live in a distant city 2. Contacting a support group for clients with AIDS that is available in the local region 3. Using the Internet or the computer to facilitate communication while maintaining isolation 4. Using the television and newspapers to maintain a feeling of being "in touch" with the world

2 Rationale: The nurse encourages the client to maintain social contact and support and assists the client with reducing barriers to social contact. This can include educating the client's family about the disease and its transmission, as well as suggesting the use of community resources and support groups. Option 1, although feasible, is less likely to address the client's current feelings of loneliness. Options 3 and 4 will not decrease the client's loneliness.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which sign/symptom indicates the presence of an opportunistic respiratory infection? 1 Nausea and vomiting 2 Fever and exertional dyspnea 3 An arterial blood gas pH of 7.40 4 A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute

2 •Rationale: Fever and exertional dyspnea are signs of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia, which is a common, life-threatening opportunistic infection that afflicts those with AIDS. Option 1 is not associated with respiratory infection. Options 3 and 4 are normal findings.

The nurse providing direct client care uses specific practices to reduce the chance of acquiring infection with human immune deficiency virus (HIV) from clients. Which practice is most effective? a. Consistent use of Standard Precautions b. Double-gloving before body fluid exposure c. Labeling charts and armbands "HIV+" d. Wearing a mask within 3 ft of the chest

A According to The Joint Commission, the most effective preventative measure to avoid HIV exposure is consistent use of Standard Precautions. Standard Precautions are required by the CDC. Double-gloving is not necessary. Labeling charts and armbands in this fashion is a violation of the Health Information Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). Wearing a mask within 3 feet (1 m) of the client is not necessary with every client contact.

A client with HIV-II is hospitalized for an unrelated condition, and several medications are prescribed in addition to the regimen already being used. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Consult with the pharmacy about drug interactions. b. Ensure that the client understands the new medications. c. Give the new drugs without considering the old ones. d. Schedule all medications at standard times.

A The drug regimen for someone with HIV/AIDS is complex and consists of many medication that must be given at specific times of the day, and that have many interactions with other drugs and food. The nurse would consult with a pharmacist about possible interactions. Client teaching is important but does not take precedence over ensuring the medications do not interfere with each other, which could lead to drug resistance or a resurgence of symptoms.

9. A client with HIV-III is hospitalized and has weeping Kaposi sarcoma lesions. The nurse dresses them with sterile gauze. When changing these dressings, which action is most important for the nurse's safety? a. Adhering to Standard Precautions b. Assessing tolerance to dressing changes c. Performing hand hygiene before and after care d. Disposing of soiled dressings properly

ANS: A All of the actions are important, but due to the infectious nature of this illness, the nurse would ensure he or she is following standard precautions (and Transmission-Based Precautions when necessary) to avoid a potential exposure.

The nurse is presenting information to a community group on safer sex practices. The nurse would teach that which sexual practice is the riskiest? a. Anal intercourse b. Masturbation c. Oral sex d. Vaginal intercourse

ANS: A Anal intercourse is the riskiest sexual practice because the fragile anal tissue can tear, creating a portal of entry for human immune deficiency virus in addition to providing mucus membrane contact with the virus.

An HIV-negative client who has an HIV-positive partner asks the nurse about receiving tenoforvir/emtricitabine. What information is most important to teach the client about this drug? a. Does not reduce the need for safe sex practices. b. Has been taken off the market due to increases in cancer. c. Reduces the number of HIV tests you will need. d. Is only used for postexposure prophylaxis.

ANS: A Tenofovir/emtricitabine is a newer drug used for preexposure prophylaxis and appears to reduce transmission of human immune deficiency virus (HIV) from known HIV-positive people to HIV-negative people. The drug does not reduce the need for practicing safe sex. Since the drug can lead to drug resistance if used, clients will still need HIV testing every 3 months. This drug has not been taken off the market and is not used for postexposure prophylaxis.

A nurse is talking with a client about a negative enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test for human immune deficiency virus (HIV). The test is negative and the client states "Whew! I was really worried about that result." What action by the nurse is most important? a. Assess the client's sexual activity and patterns. b. Express happiness over the test result. c. Remind the client about safer sex practices. d. Tell the client to be retested in 3 months.

ANS: A The ELISA test can be fasely negative if testing occurs after the client has become infected but prior to making antibodies to HIV. This period of time is known as the window period and can last up to 21 days. The confirmatory Western Blot test takes an additional 7 days, so using that testing algorithm, the client's status may not truly be known for up to 28 days. The client may have had exposure that has not yet been confirmed. The nurse needs to assess the client's sexual behavior further to determine the proper response. The other actions are not the most important, but discussing safer sex practices is always appropriate. Testing would be recommended every 3 months for someone engaging in high risk behaviors high risk behaviors.

A client has been hospitalized with an opportunistic infection secondary to HIV-III. The client's partner is listed as the emergency contact, but the client's mother insists that she should be listed instead. What action by the nurse is best? a. Contact. the social worker with advance directives b. Ignore the mother; the client does not want her to be involved. c. Let the client know, gently, that nurses cannot be involved in these disputes. d. Tell the client that, legally, the mother is the emergency contact.

ANS: A The client should make his or her wishes known and formalize them through advance directives. The nurse would help the client by contacting someone to help with this process. Ignoring the mother or telling the client that nurses cannot be involved does not help the situation. Legal statutes vary by state, but the nurse would be the client's advocate and help ensure his or her wishes are met.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with HIV-II. The client's CD4+ cell count is 399/mm3 (0.399 × 109/L). What action by the nurse is best? a. Counsel the client on safer sex practices/ abstinence b. Encourage the client to abstain from alcohol. c. Facilitate genetic testing for CD4+ CCR5/CXCR4 co-receptors. d. Help the client plan high-protein/iron meals.

ANS: A This client is in the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention HIV-II case definition group. He or she remains highly infectious and would be counseled on either safer sex practices or abstinence. Abstaining from alcohol is healthy but not required, although some medications may need to be taken while abstaining. Genetic testing is not commonly done, but an alteration on the CCR5/CXCR4 co-receptors is seen in long-term nonprogressors. High-protein/iron meals are important for people who are immunosuppressed, but helping to plan them does not take precedence over stopping the spread of the disease.

A client has just been informed of a positive HIV test. The client is distraught and does not know what to do. What intervention by the nurse is best? a. Assess the client for support systems. b. Determine if a clergy member would help. c. Explain legal requirements to tell sex partners. d. Offer to tell the family for the client.

ANS: A This client needs the assistance of support systems. The nurse would help the client identify them and what role they can play in supporting him or her. A clergy member may or may not be welcome. Positive HIV test results are reportable in all 50 states, Washington, D.C., and Canada but the nurse works with the client to support his or her choices in disclosure. The nurse would not tell the family for the client.

. A client has been admitted to the medical-surgical floor with multiple problems. Which assessment finding does the nurse identify that is consistent with AIDS? Select all that apply. 1 Persistent pain 2 Persistent diarrhea 3 Kaposi's sarcoma 4 Wasting syndrome 5 Esophageal candidiasis

ANS: A, B, C, D, E

A client with AIDS is having difficulty maintaining body weight. Which intervention will the nurse provide? Select all that apply. 1 Ensure regular mouth care. 2 Provide three large meals daily. 3 Encourage low fat food choices. 4 Provide foods that are high in calories. 5 Encourage drinking at least 1 L of fluid per day. 6 Collaborate with the registered dietician nutritionist.

ANS: A, C, D, F Clients should be drinking at least 2 to 3 L of fluids per day. Collaboration with the dietician is important to include high calorie, high protein foods. Avoid dietary fat, because fat intolerance often occurs as a result of the disease and as a side effect of some antiretroviral drugs. Provide small, frequent meals as they are often better tolerated than large meals. Mouth care can improve appetite.

A nurse is learning about human immune deficiency virus (HIV) infection. Which statements about HIV infection are correct? (Select all that apply.) a. CD4+ cells begin to create new HIV virus particles. b. Antibodies produced are incomplete and do not function well. c. Macrophages stop functioning properly. d. Opportunistic infections and cancer are leading causes of death. e. People with HIV-I disease are not infectious to others. f. The CD4+ T-cell is only affected when the disease has progressed to HIV-III

ANS: A,B,C,D In HIV, CD4+ cells begin to create new HIV particles. Antibodies the client produce are incomplete and do not function well. Macrophages also stop functioning properly. Opportunistic infections and cancer are the two leading causes of death in client's with HIV infection. People infected with HIV are infectious in all stages of the disease. The CD4+ T-cell is the immune system cell most affected by infection with the HIV virus.

A nurse begins a job at a Veterans Administration Hospital and asks why so much emphasis is on HIV testing for the veterans. What reasons is this nurse given? (Select all that apply.) a. Veterans have a high prevalence of substance abuse. b. Many veterans may engage in high risk behaviors. c. Many older veterans may not know their risks. d. Everyone should know their HIV status. e. Belief that the VA has tested them and would notify them if positive.

ANS: A,B,C,D,E All options are correct for the veteran population. The nurse interacting with veteran would ensure they know about the HIV testing offered by the VA.

A client with HIV-III is in the hospital with severe diarrhea. What actions does the nurse delegate to assistive personnel (AP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Assessing the client's fluid and electrolyte status b. Assisting the client to get out of bed to prevent falls c. Obtaining a bedside commode if the client is weak d. Providing gentle perianal cleansing after stools e. Reporting any perianal abnormalities

ANS: B,C,D,E The AP can assist the client with getting out of bed, obtain a bedside commode for the client's use, cleanse the client's perianal area after bowel movements, and report any abnormal observations such as redness or open areas. The nurse assesses fluid and electrolyte status.

The nurse is educating a client with HIV-II and the partner on self-care measures to prevent infection when blood counts are low. what information does the nurse provide? (Select all that apply.) a. Do not work in the garden or with houseplants. b. Do not empty the kitty litter boxes. c. Clean your toothbrush in the dishwasher daily. d. Bathe daily using antimicrobial soap. e. Avoid people who are sick and large crowds. f. Make sure meat, fish, and eggs are cooked well

ANS: A,B,D,E,F Ways to avoid infection when immunocompromised include not working in the garden or with houseplants; not emptying litter box, running the toothbrush through the dishwasher at least weekly; bathing daily using antimicrobial soap; avoiding sick people and large crowds; and making sure meat, fish, and eggs are cooked well prior to eating them.

2. Which findings are AIDS-defining characteristics? (Select all that apply.) a. CD4+ cell count less than 200/mm3 (0.2 × 109/L) or less than 14% b. Infection with P. jiroveci c. Positive enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test for human immune deficiency virus (HIV) d. Presence of HIV wasting syndrome e. Taking antiretroviral medications f. Confusion, dementia, or memory loss

ANS: A,B,D,F A diagnosis of AIDS requires that the person be HIV positive and have either a CD4+ T-cell count of less than 200 cells/mm or less than 14% (even if the total CD4+ count is above 200 cells/mm3) or an opportunistic infection such as P. jiroveci and HIV wasting syndrome Confusion, dementia, and memory loss are central nervous system indications. Having a positive ELISA test and taking antiretroviral medications are not AIDS-defining characteristics

The nurse is teaching a client about medications for HIV-II treatment. What drugs are paired with the correct information? (Select all that apply.) a. Abacavir: avoid fatty and fried foods. b. Efavirenz: take 1 hour before or 2 hours after antacids. c. Atazanavir: check pulse daily and report pulse greater than 100 beats/min. d. Dolutegravir: do not take this medication if you become pregnant. e. Enfuvirtide: teach client how to operate syringe infusion pump for administration. f. All drugs: you must adhere to the drug schedule at least 90% of the time for effectiveness

ANS: A,B,F Abacavir is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and clients are taught to avoid fried and fatty foods because they can lead to digestive upsets and even pancreatitis. Efavirenz is a nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and clients are taught to take them (doraverene) all except spaced 1 hour before or 2 hours after antacids to avoid inhibiting drug absorption. Atazanavir is a protease inhibitor and can cause bradycardia which should be reported. dolutegravir is an integrade inhibitor and can cause birth defects. Enfuvirtideisafusion inhibitor and is given subcutaneously. All drugs must be taken as scheduled 90% of the time in order to remain effective.

A client with HIV-III is hospitalized with P. jiroveci pneumonia and is started on the drug of choice for this infection. What laboratory values would be most important for the nurse report to the primary health care provider? (Select all that apply.) a. Aspartate transaminase, alanine transaminase: elevated b. CD4+ cell count: 180/mm3 c. Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL (88 mcmol/L) d. Platelet count: 80,000/mm (80×10/L) e. Serum sodium: 120 mEq/L (120 mmol/L) f. Serum potassium: 3.4 mEq/L (3.4 mmol/L)

ANS: A,D,E The drug of choice to treat P. jiroveci pneumonia is trimethoprim with sulfamethoxazole. Side effects of this drug include hepatitis, hyponatremia, and thrombocytopenia. The elevated liver enzymes, low platelet count, and low sodium would all be reported. The CD4+ cell count is within the expected range for a client with an AIDS-defining infection. The creatinine level is normal and the potassium is just below normal.

A client reports having unprotected intercourse and is concerned about exposure to HIV. The nurse will assess whether the client has which initial symptom? Lymphocytopenia Flu-like symptoms Opportunistic infection Reduced numbers of CD4+ T-cells

ANS: B When a person is infected with HIV, the first manifestations are flu-like symptoms including fever, night sweats, chills, headache, and muscle aches. As time passes, CD4+ T-cells are infected and taken out of service. This cell count drops to below-normal levels, and those that remain may not function normally. Lymphocytopenia (decreased lymphocyte counts) occurs as a result. Also, as the CD4+ T-cell level drops, the client is at risk for bacterial, fungal, and viral infections, as well as some opportunistic cancers.

A client with HIV-II has had a sudden decline in status with a large increase in viral load. What action would the nurse take first? a. Ask the client about travel to any foreign countries. b. Assess the client for adherence to the drug regimen. c. Determine if the client has any new sexual partners. d. Request information about new living quarters or pets.

ANS: B Adherence to the complex drug regimen needed for HIV treatment can be daunting. Clients must take their medications on time. Since this client's viral load has increased dramatically, the nurse would first assess this factor. After this, the other assessments may or may not be needed.

A client with HIV-III has been hospitalized with suspected cryptosporidiosis. What physical assessment would be most important with this condition? a. Auscultating the lungs b. Assessing mucous membranes c. Listening to bowel sounds d. Performing a neurologic examiniation

ANS: B Cryptosporidiosis can cause diarrhea and wasting with extreme loss of fluids and electrolytes. The nurse would assess signs of hydration/dehydration as the priority, including checking the client's mucous membranes for dryness. The nurse will perform the other assessments as part of a comprehensive assessment.

A nurse is caring for a client with HIV-III who was admitted with HAND. What sign or symptom would be most important for the nurse to report to the primary health care provider? a. Nausea b. Change in pupil size c. Weeping open lesions d. Cough

ANS: B HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is a sign of neurologic involvement. The nurse would report any sign of increasing intracranial pressure immediately, including change in pupil size, level of consciousness, vital signs, or limb strength. The other signs and symptoms are not life threatening and would be documented and reported appropriately.

A client with HIV-III is admitted to the hospital with Toxoplasma gondii infection. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Initiate Contact Precautions. b. Conduct frequent neurologic assessments. c. Conduct frequent respiratory assessments d. Initiate Protective Precautions.

ANS: B Toxoplasma gondii infection is an opportunistic infection that causes an encephalitis but poses only a rare threat to immunocompetent individuals The nurse would perform ongoing neurologic assessments. Contact and Protective Precautions are not needed. Good respiratory assessments are important to the client, but toxoplasmosis will demonstrate neurologic signs and symptoms.

A nurse is providing education about HIV risks at a health fair. What groups would the nurse include as needing to be tested for HIV on an annual basis? (Select all that apply.) a. Anyone who received a blood product in 1989 b. Couples planning on getting married c. Those who are sexually active with multiple partners d. Injection drugs users e. Sex workers and their customers f. Adults over the age of 65 years

ANS: B,C,D,E The CDC recommends that HIV testing would be performed on those who received a transfusion between 1978 and 1985 only. people planning on getting married should be tested and all sexually active people should know their HIV status. Those engaged in sex work and their customers should also be tested, as well as injection drug users. Those over the age of 65 years need a one-time screen

A client with HIV-III has oral thrush and difficulty eating. What actions does the nurse delegate to the assistive personnel (AP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Apply oral anesthetic gels before meals. b. Assist the client with oral care every 2 hours. c. Offer the client frequent sips of cool drinks d. Provide the client with alcohol-based mouthwash. e. Remind the client to use only a soft toothbrush. f. Offer the client soft foods like gelatin or pudding.

ANS: B,C,E,F The AP can help the client with oral care, offer fluids, and remind the client of things the nurse (or other professional) has already taught. Soft foods and liquids are tolerated better than harder foods. Applying medications is performed by the nurse. Alcohol-based mouthwashes are harsh and drying and would not be used.

A client with HIV-III asks the nurse why gabapentin is part of the drug regimen when the client does not have a history of seizures. What response by the nurse is best? a. "Gabapentin can be used as an antidepressant too." b. "I have no idea why you would be taking this drug." c. "This drug helps treat the pain from nerve irritation." d. "You are at risk for seizures due to fungal infections."

ANS: C Many classes of medications are used for neuropathic pain, including tricyclic antidepressants and anticonvulsants such as gabapentin. It is not being used to prevent seizures from fungal infections. If the nurse does not know the answer, he or she would find out for the client.

A client with known HIV-II is admitted to the hospital with fever, night sweats, and severe cough. Laboratory results include a CD4+ cell count of 180/mm and a negative tuberculosis (TB) skin test 4 days ago. What action would the nurse take first? a. Initiate Droplet Precautions for the client. b. Notify the primary health care provider about the CD4+ results. c. Place the client under Airborne Precautions. d. Use Standard Precautions to provide care.

ANS: C Since this client's CD4+ cell count is so low, he or she may have energy, or the inability to mount an immune response to the TB test. The client also appears to have progressed to HIV-III. The nurse would first place the client on Airborne Precautions to prevent the spread of TB if it is present. Next the nurse notifies the primary health care provider about the low CD4+ count and requests alterative testing for TB. Droplet Precautions are not used for TB. Standard Precautions are not adequate in this case.

A client who engages in sex with men and women asks the nurse about ways to prevent HIV transmission. Which method will the nurse teach? Select all that apply. 1 Begin antiviral drug therapy 2 Take an HIV home screening test 3 Engage only in vaginal intercourse 4 Use condoms during sexual activity 5 Discuss PrEP with a health care provider

ANS: D, E Clients who wish to prevent HIV transmission should use condoms during sexual activity to reduce risk of exposure. Clients who are HIV-negative but at high risk for exposure to HIV should be taught to discuss PrEP with a health care provider. Beginning antiviral drug therapy is reserved for clients who have tested HIV positive. Taking an HIV home screening test may reveal the client's HIV status, but this does not prevent transmission. Engaging only in vaginal intercourse does not assure that HIV will not be transmitted.

A client with HIV-III and wasting syndrome has inadequate nutrition. What assessment finding by the nurse best indicates that goals have been met for this client problem? a. Chooses high-protein food. b. Has decreased oral discomfort. c. Eats 90% of meals and snacks. d. Has a weight gain of 2 lb (1 kg)/1 mo.

D The weight gain is the best indicator that goals for this client problem have been met because it demonstrates that the client not only is eating well but also is able to absorb the nutrients. Choosing high-protein food is important, but only if the client eats and absorbs the nutrients.

A client is hospitalized with Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. The client reports shortness of breath with activity and extreme fatigue. What intervention is best to promote comfort? a. Administer sleeping medication. b. Perform most activities for the client c. Increase the client's oxygen during activity. d. Pace activities, allowing for adequate rest.

D This client has two major reasons for fatigue: decreased oxygenation and systemic illness. The nurse would not do everything for the client but rather let the client do as much as possible within limits and allow for adequate rest in between. Sleeping medications may be needed but not as the first step, and only with caution. Increasing oxygen during activities may or may not be warranted, but first the nurse must try pacing the client's activity.