MSC PRC TEST
where is the patient considered not sterile
- Anything that falls below the level of the patient table is considered non-sterile.
what is in the sterile field as far as equipment
- Covered part of the Mayo Stand. -Top of the Back Table where additional instruments are kept. -Disposable light handles -Sides of the Back Table are considered non-sterile.
what is the order of legislation for patient privacy
- HIPPA -Hitech Act - Omnibus Rule
what are some examples of shielding against radiation
- Lead Aprons + Thyroid Shield(collar) -Eyewear - Track radiation exposure using dosimetry badge - Face toward the x-ray as aprons are open in the back. - Mobile/Rolling lead barriers may also be available.
describe a class II fda recall
- Products that might cause temporary or medically reversible health problems
describe the front desk of the OR
- Rep Sign in here. -You may be required to leave a copy of your invoice. -Charge Nurse -OR Secretary
describe the Interchange Area / Unrestricted area
- Traffic is not limited and street clothes are permitted in this area. -This area is isolated by doors from the main hospital corridor. -This area permits access for communication with department and hospital personnel.
what's the overall difference between arc blasts and arc flash
-"Arc Flash" is the extremely high-temperature discharge produced by an electrical fault in air. -"Arc Blast" is as the result of the arc flash under pressure, causing a high- pressure release of energy into the air.
Hospital policies that address the reporting of critical test results must include what
-A listing of critical results -To whom the critical results must be reported -The time in which the critical results must be reported
what is the the proper technique for using hand sanitizer.
-Apply about 3ml to 5ml of hand rub. -Rub hands vigorously for 15 seconds. -Do not rinse. -Wash hands after 10-15 applicationsor when visibly soiled or contaminated.
describe the Restricted Area / Sterile
-Appropriate O.R. attire required. -You must wear scrub attire, caps, masks, shoe covers, and name tag in this area.
what is an Arc Blast
-BUILD UP OF POWER -An explosive burst of energy that may occur during an arc flash. -Similar to lightning.
what are the sterile areas in the O.R.
-Back table -Mayo stand -Surgical team -O.R. table with sterile drapes -Sterile drapes and sterile packages - Draped radiological equipment
describe the OR secretary
-Calls patients to the O.R. -Coordinates the O.R. schedule. -Just slightly less busy than an air traffic controller.
What is the CDRH
-Center for devices and radiation health -Responsible for premarket approval of all medical devices. -Oversees manufacturing, performance, and safety of these devices. -Gives indications for use of medical equipment -Also oversees the radiation safety performance of non- medical devices that emit certain types of electromagnetic radiation
how does the fda classify product recalls
-Class I -Class II -Class III
describe the clean assembly and wrap room
-Clean instruments are inventoried and organized in their trays in a routine order. -The goal with tray assembly is to have an orderly tray that is evenly balanced and that is not too heavy.
What should you do after your case?
-Complete the invoice for the case -Thank the surgeon for allowing you in "their room". - Ask the surgeon if they think this technology would make sense for another patient. -Always be conversing.
Name the 4 basic steps of the SPD routine to get your implants ready for use
-Decontamination Room -Clean Assembly & Wrap Room -Sterilization -Surgical Room
what is Electrical Shock
-Direct contact with electricity. -The human body is a good conductor of electricity. -Exposure can feel subtle, like a mild tingle. -Effects can range from a mild tingle to immediate cardiac arrest.
where is the patient sterile
-Draped part down to the O.R. table.
Policies may vary by hospital. How will you be notified of specific hospital policies?
-During the credential processes or during your first visit to that hospital. Accept the policies as you won't be allowed in if you don't
What is the FDA
-Food and Drug Administration. Branch of the Department of Health and Human Services. -empowered by the United States Congress to enforce the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
where are the surgeon and scrub tech sterile
-Front of the gown, from chest to the waist. - Gloved hands and arms, from finger tips to the elbows.
what is a HEALTHCARE-ASSOCIATED INFECTIONS (HAI)
-HAIs are infections that patients acquire related to medical/surgical treatment.
what is a class III medical device product
-Implants, Spinal Cord Stimulators, Cardiovascular Pacemaker, Spinal Disc Replacement, etc -Requires PMA or IDE Study and Approval
what are the 4 areas of the OR
-Interchange Area / Unrestricted -Semi-Restricted Area / Sub-Sterile -Restricted Area / Sterile -Dirty Area / Disposal Zone
what is classified as an SSI
-It occurs at the site of surgery within 30 days of an operation; or -Within 1 year of an operation that included implantation of a foreign body such as an artificial joint.
what are some examples of HAI
-Most common are SSI's (surgical site infections) -Urinary tract, bloodstream infectors, MRSA, and other infections
how does an arc blast occur
-Occurs as the result of a malfunction in the insulation between two energized phase conductors. -Rather than flowing through a conductor, the current flows through the air, which releases thermal energy into the immediate environment. -Root cause is pressure build up of electrical energy under pressure.
what is the proper use of a fire extinguisher
-PASS method i. P=pull pin ii. A= Aim iii. S= squeeze iv. S= sweep
whats the purpose of PPE
-PPE helps to protect against potential exposure to literally everything virus, bacterial infections, and bloodborne pathogens as a whole
describe pre-market approval
-Pathway for any class III device or implant -Includes devices not available prior to may 1976 -Costs millions and takes 4-10years before approved
What are the 3 basic paths to FDA approval?
-Pre-Market Approval -Investigational Device Exemption -510(k)
what is a 510(k)
-Process for new devices that are based on "substantial equivalence" to predicate devices that is already available - Often called medical device approval -Fastest and cheapest- 6-12 months
describe the decontamination room
-Process that removes as many microorganisms as possible by physical, mechanical, or chemical means. - Utilizes water, detergent, and enzyme solutions. -Enzyme solutions separate blood, bone, and tissue from instruments.
what is the role of the compliance program
-Protect the organization against regulatory noncompliance -Protect discussions about ethical conduct in the work place -Summarize applicable regulation to guide employee behavior
what is the RACE method
-R - Rescue whoever is in danger. -A - Activate/Alarm the alarm system. -C - Confine the fire by closing doors or containing the flame. - E - Extinguish/Evacuate
What 2 things should you do if you have a bloodborne exposure incident?
-Report -Clean everything off of you immediately, eye wash
what are some patient rights under HIPAA.
-Right to a written Notice of Privacy Practices (NPP) that informs consumers how Protected Health Information (PHI) will be used and to whom it is disclosed. -Right of timely access to see and copy records for a reasonable fee. -Right to an amendment of records. -Right to restrict access and use. -Right to an accounting of disclosures. -Right to revoke authorization.
what are the 3 boundaries of the sterile field?
-SURGEON AND SCRUB TECH -PATIENT -STERILE FIELD
What are the three directional planes
-Sagittal -Axis/Transverse -Coronal/Frontal
how far should you stand from machines exhibiting radiation
-Stand at least 4 feet away.
what is the Dirty Area / Disposal Zone
-Street clothes may be permitted in this area. -This area is the disposal area, where all utilized materials and linen are gathered, packaged, and sent to appropriate areas for disposal or sterile processing.
what is a class 1 medical device product
-Surgical Instruments, Scissors, Band-Aids, etc -Little or small amount of scrutiny, easy approval
Name the 3 key areas outside of the OR.
-The Front Desk -Pre-Op: Pre-Operative Holding Area - PACU: Post Anesthesia Care Unit ("Post-Op")
what is an Arc Flash
-The light and heat produced as part of an arc fault. - A type of electrical explosion or discharge that results from a connection through air to ground. -Can be seen and can cause serious burns. -Can occur from a low and high voltage source. -Can cause thermal injuries (i.e. burns).
describe a class I fda recall
-The most serious of all recall classes, exclusive to dangerous products that could cause serious health problems or death
what is investigational device exemption
-The study protocol that allows human clinical research and clinical trials to begin -Takes 2-15 years
describe a class III fda recall
-These products are not being used how they indicated they would be used -Not likely to cause injuries but is violation of a law or regulation enforced by the FDA
what is the Pre-Op: Pre-Operative Holding Area
-This is the questions area for the patients -Where everything gets signed off on -surgical site labeled here -check in for patient
What is the purpose of HIPAA?
-To protect patients and all medical information pertaining to that patient -To establish basic privacy and security protection of health information. -To guarantee individuals the right to access their Protected Health Information (PHI) and learn how it is used and disclosed.
describe the Semi-Restricted Area / Sub-Sterile
-Traffic is limited to properly attired personnel. -You must wear scrub attire, shoe covers, caps, and name tag (credentials) in this area. -This area includes the support areas of the surgical suite.
what is proper hand washing
-Warm water 20-30 seconds with soap -Let drain from fingers down towards elbow
What has to be reported as a part of the sunshine act
-all payments over $10 -all payments made to a hospital/facility at the request of a physician -if the less than $10 payments amount to more than $100 over the course of a year, it must be reported
What is the Federal False Claims Act?
-falsifying aggregate spend to make it look like you did not spend what you did on HCP -Is a federal law that makes it a crime for any person or organization to knowingly make a false record or file a false claim regarding any federal healthcare program, which includes any plan or program that provides health benefits, whether directly, through insurance or otherwise, which is funded directly, in whole or in part, by the United States Government or any state healthcare system.
What is AdvaMed and when did it become effective?
-is a trade association that leads the effort to advance medical technology in order to achieve healthier lives and healthier economies around the world. -Came into effect in July 1, 2009
give some examples of the Restricted Area / Sterile
-operating room -procedure room -If someone is scrubbing, "mask up" to speak to them.
what is Off-label product promotion
-promoting your product for things it is not indicated to do by the FDA -Off-label promotion is illegal. -You cannot talk about things that your product is not indicated and intended to do - off-label marketing is considered a violation of the False Claims Act and as participating in a false claim.
what does a materials manager do
-to get all goods checked and admitted to the hospital to help complete the credentials process
what are Universal Precautions?
-to treat all human blood and certain human body fluids as if they were known to be infectious for HIV, HBV, and other bloodborne pathogens.
what are some examples of the semi-restricted area/ sub sterile area
1. Corridors outside the O.R. 2. Storage areas for clean and sterile supplies. 3. Clean cores and sub-sterile rooms as designated by the facility
describe the Omnibus rule
1. Modifies the HIPAA Privacy, security, and enforcement regulations. 2. Creates an increased and tiered civil money penalty structure for security breaches under HITECH Act. 3. Modifies and clarifies the definition of what constitutes a reportable privacy breach.
what should be included in pre-procedure verification
1. Relevant documents: history, physical, signed surgical consent 2. Labeled diagnostic and/or radiology results 3. Any required blood products, devices, etc.
what does the FDA regulate
1. • Approval and Clearance of New Products 2. • Manufacturing Processes 3. • Product Labeling and Advertising 4. • Product Incidents and Complaints 5. • Clinical Studies 6. • Post Market Surveillance 7. • Sales Activities
example of the unrestricted area
1. • Locker rooms 2. • Surgical scheduling office 3. • Operating room supervisor's office 4. • Equipment store rooms
What are the 4 classes of fire extinguishers and what type of fire is each class used for?
A, B, C, and D.
What is the most common type of sterilization?
AUTOCLAVE = STEAM STERILIZATION
Where is the OR scheduling board typically found?
Across from the operating room charge desk where the O.R. secretary or scheduling staff are
what does the coronal/frontal plane bisect
Anterior from posterior
best way for reps to be successful
Be alert, attentive, and above all, be respectful!
when should you arrive at the hospital
Be at the hospital 11⁄2 hours early.
What type of fire extinguisher/s would be effective for fires in paper, cloth, wood, rubber and some plastics
Class A and Multipurpose
What type of fire extinguisher/s would be effective for fires in oils, gasoline, grease, solvents and other flammable liquids
Class B and multipurpose dry
what are the 3 classes of medical device products.
Class I Class II Class III
when should All employees and healthcare workers shall receive training regarding exposure control plan
During orientation, once per year, and following an incident
If a fire alarm sounds in a hospital, the best action, for a sales associate is to
Evacuate to nearest stairwell
T/F: A medical technology company may provide funding through an intermediary for activity which may be considered against the company's code of ethics since a "third" party cannot be reasonably proven as "connected" with any specific HCP beneficiary of the actual funding
F
T/F: Providing products for health care professional evaluation at "no charge" are prohibited, as they may be considered gifts under the code of ethics
F
T/F: Travel and educational expenses of a health care professional's guest may be reimbursed by a medical technology company as long as the individual is not involved in patient care
False
what axis does the transverse plane move in
Frontal axis internal and external rotation
Of the 3 most common bloodborne diseases, which 1 had a vaccine available?
HBV
what does HAI mean
HEALTHCARE-ASSOCIATED INFECTIONS
what is the order in which the listed legislation was passed and/or enforced to protect patient rights and privacy
HIPAA, HITECH, Omnibus Rule
The most common Bloodborne diseases are
HIV, HBV, HCV
What is needed to start a fire
Ignition Source, Fuel, Oxidizer
describe the charge nurse
In charge of all the O.R. staff, equipment, troubleshooting.
If someone catches on fire, the correct action would be to
Instruct them to stop drop and roll
Individually identifiable health information which can be identified back to a patient can includes what
PHI, Diagnosis or health condition, and all treatment done
describe the PACU
Recovery Room run by the Nurses
what axis does the coronal plane move in
Sagittal axis adduction and abduction
what is a class II medical device product
Sets of Specialized Surgical Instruments, Nerve Stimulators (TENS), Spinal Tray, Hip Tray -requires 510k approval
1. Healthcare personnel must do what if the Hepatitis B vaccine is refused
Sign a mandatory declination form
T/F: A code of ethics is more than summarizing legal requirements for employee behavior
T
T/F: AdvaMed Guidelines also protect HCP's from venturing into improper relationships with medical device companies
T
Inaccurate data for products and services purchased by a health care professional and later reimbursed by government programs may be prosecuted under what
The Federal Claims Act
what is ASEPSIS
The absence of disease causing microorganisms.
What does the Sagittal Plane bisect
The right from the left side of the body
what does the transverse plane bisect
Top from bottom of the body
how can you know how much radiation you have been exposed to
Track radiation exposure using dosimetry badge
What Axis does the sagittal plane move in
Transverse Flexion and Extension
True or False; OSHA's mission is to prevent injury and protect the health of U.S. workers.
True
What is a Code of Conduct?
a document issued by an organization's leadership which binds its employees (and/or agents) to comply with applicable law, organizational policy, professional standards, and ethical behavior.
what is a prospective study
a study that watches for outcomes, such as the development of a disease, during the study period and relates this to other factors such as suspected risk or protection factors
What is a randomized controlled trial
a trial in which subjects are randomly assigned to one of two groups: one (the experimental group) receiving the intervention that is being tested, and the other (the comparison group or control) receiving an alternative (conventional) treatment
Name the 9 factors that could influence infection
a. Age b. Nutritional status. c. Comorbidities d. Immuno-suppressive drugs. e. Patient undergoing surgery or invasive procedures. f. • Number of microorganisms present. g. • Virulence of the microorganisms present. h. • Unsterile instruments or surgical supplies. i. • Poor hand washing technique.
What should be included in a Time Out?
a. Ask for all room member feedback (including the Rep). b. Identify the patient. c. Identify medications, allergies, and pertinent health information about the patient. d. Identify the procedure. e. Confirm the correct surgical site.
What is your key to success when in the OR?
a. Be alert, attentive, and above all, be respectful! b. Standing at all times c. Always thank the surgeon for "allowing me to be in your O.R. today".
what are the three types of electrical hazards
a. Electrical shock b. Electrical arc flash c. Electrical arc blast
what are the 3 most common bloodborne diseases?
a. HBV- Hepatitis B virus b. HCV- Hepatitis C virus c. HIV- Human Immunodeficiency virus causing AIDS
what 3 entities do HIPAA rules and regulations protect?
a. Joint Commission Standards b. Minimum necessary standard c. Privacy Rule
what are some ROUTES OF EXPOSURE FOR HIV and really most bloodborne pathogens
a. Needle sticks (most common). b. Any sharps breaking the skin while you are cleaning or during decontamination. c. Sharing hypodermic needles. d. Broken/damaged skin. e. Splashes to the eyes nose or mouth. f. Mucous membranes. g. Unprotected sexual activity. h. Perinatal (during pregnancy and/or birth).
What does an effective Code of Conduct do?
a. Protects whistle-blowers. b. Is communicated throughout the organization. c. Specifies consequences of violations.
If the emergency plan is to allow employees to use fire extinguishers, the organization must meet the following criteria
a. Provide annual employee training b. Provide employee emergency training c. Test, inspect and maintain its fire extinguishers
WHAT DOES HIPAA CONSIST OF?
a. Standardized Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) transactions and codes for all covered entities. b. Standards for security of data systems. c. Privacy protections for individual health information. d. Standard national identifiers for healthcare.
Where should you stand in the OR?
a. Stay at least 11⁄2 feet away (18") from all sterile fields to avoid contamination b. Stay out of the common traffic areas c. hands behind back
How can you, as the rep, help to minimize OR hazards?
a. Stay out of the way b. Minimize traffic (don't leave the room) c. Face the sterile field d. Change scrubs and mask
define surgical site marking
a. Surgical site marking is done to prevent wrong site surgery. b. The mark should be made by the surgeon performing the procedure at or near the procedure site; sometimes initialed by the patient prior to anesthesia. c. The marking should be seen even after the site is prepped and draped. d. The site marking is a communication tool for the entire healthcare team.
describe Pre-procedure verification
a. Verify the procedure is what the patient needs. b. On going "double-checking" process.
describe some aspects of laser safety
a. Wear special protective eyewear provided by the facility. b. Be aware of special signage stating that medical lasers are in use. c. Do not enter a room where a laser is in use without specific instruction and protective equipment provided by facility staff. d. Never point a laser beam at metal instruments, pans, or trays.
Who is on the unsterile team?
a. • Anesthesiologist (MD, CRNA) b. • Circulating Nurse c. • X-Ray Tech d. • Rep (You!) e. In spine surgeries, there is a neuro monitor who lets the surgeon know about how the nerves of the patient are operating
What should you do to prepare for your case the day of
a. • Be at the hospital 11⁄2 hours early. b. • Obtain your credentialing identification. c. • Change into scrubs, etc. d. • Check-in with the O.R. front desk. e. • Check case time(s) and O.R. number. f. • Locate case cart with your sets, usually parked outside the O.R. g. make sure everything is there and nothing was left or misplaced
why is the OR scheduling board important?
a. • Cases change time and rooms frequently. b. may help a rep with sales by finding out what your surgeon targets are up to and what they're using. c. Room number d. Surgeon e. Hardware being used
What should you do to prepare for your case the day before
a. • Do any last minute tray/instrument prep. Do you have all you need? b. • Did you in-service everyone that you needed to? c. • Drop set(s) off with SPD at the hospital to get processed. d. • Confirm the case time. e. • Study the Surgical Technique guide.
How can you protect patient privacy?
a. • Don't Tell anyone what you overhear about a patient. b. • Don't Discuss a patient in public areas, such as elevators, hallways, or cafeterias. c. • Don't Look at information about a patient unless you need it to do your job.
What should you do to prepare for your case the week before
a. • Is it approved? b. • Where are you getting your set(s) from? c. • Do you need to order one in? d. • Do you need to borrow from anther rep? e. • Will you have enough implants in stock? f. • Does the surgeon need an instrument set refresher? g. look at x-rays to make sure you have right products
Name 4 people should you meet when you're new to a facility/hospital.
a. • Materials Management b. • Operating Room (O.R.) Coordinator c. • Surgical Technicians d. • Sterile Processing Department (SPD)
what are some Examples of PHI
a. • Name b. • Address c. • Telephone Number d. • Email Address e. • Drivers License Number f. • Social Security Number g. • Medical Records h. • Photographs and Images i. • Billing Records j. • Health Plan Claims Records k. • Health Insurance Policy Number
what are some infectious body fluids
a. • Semen b. • Vaginal Secretions c. • Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) d. • Amniotic Fluid e. • Synovial Fluid f. • Pleural Fluid g. • Peritoneal Fluid h. • Saliva i. • Breast Milk
Who is on the sterile team?
a. • Surgeon b. • First Assistant (RN, PA, MD) c. • Surgical Technologist (Scrub Tech)
What are the 3 most common hospital acquired infections?
a. • Surgical Site Infection (SSI) b. • Catheter-Associated Urinary Tract Infection (CAUTI) c. • Central line-associated bloodstream infection
What are 3 common radiation sources in the OR?
a. • X-Ray / Fluoroscope b. • C-ARM c. • O-ARM
describe surgical hand antisepsis
a.traditional hand scrubs or use of new waterless products. b. Hand antisepsis is performed pre-operatively by all scrub team members to eliminate transient bacteria and reduce resident hand flora. c. A key factor with the 5 minute scrub brush technique is confirming the sponge package sterility by squeezing the package before opening it and starting the scrub. d. The 3 minute scrub follows the same routine as the 5 minute scrub except there is no preliminary wash and cleaning of the nails. e. FINGERS TO ELBOW every time
what is a primary article
an article about findings on a subject
contralateral
arm and opposite leg
In accordance with OSHA standards, when should you wash your hands?
before and after case
bilateral
both sides
despite popular belief, how is HIV not transmitted
casual contact (kissing)
what do C fire extinguishers put out
electrical fires
T/F: Unlabeled and unused medications drawn into a syringe during a procedure can be used in a different procedure
f
True or False; Electrical arc flashes only occur from high voltage areas
f
True or False; Hand hygiene is not required after removing gloves if it was performed before donning gloves
f
True or False; It is safer to pull on the cord when disconnecting from a power outlet because you are further away from the electricity
f
True or False; Low voltage outlets do not have the capability of causing electrocutions
f
True or False; Regarding Business Associates under the HIPAA/HITECH and Omnibus Rule, a medical sales associate who does not receive, collect or use protected health information from a covered entity is still considered a business associate
f
True or False; Surgical scrub procedures are most effective if done for ten minutes
f
true or False; A sterile medium is one which is not free of all life forms
f
true or False; The HIPAA Privacy Rule was developed to enable facilities to each develop their own set of standards to protect certain types of health information
f
what do D fire extinguishers put out
for flammable metals
what do B fire extinguishers put out
for grease, gasoline, and oil
what should you do during your case
i. Be a Patient Advocate ii. Be a Technical Resource iii. Inventory Management iv. Make the Scrub Tech Look like a Rock Star
what are arc blasts capable of
i. Capable of throwing a person across the room. ii. Significantly more intense than an arc flash. iii. Can cause thermal injuries (i.e. burns).
describe ways to stay safe from radiation
i. Distance 4 feet ii. Time iii. Shielding iv. Exposure
What are fire risks in the OR?
i. Drapes, plastics, and other materials are flammable. ii. Electrocautery, surgical lasers, and several other surgical devices can cause sparks or generate heat or spark that can ignite a fire. iii. Surgical fires may occur when flammable gases, flammable goods, and heat producing instruments are used in close proximity to each other. iv. Fire can occur if electrical equipment malfunctions. v. Electric cautery tips can ignite surgical towels. vi. Uncontained sparks may ignite flammable gases. vii. The use of supplemental oxygen increases fire risk as O2 is flammable. viii. Anesthesia area
what annual vaccines are required for reps
i. Flu vaccine is also required ii. TB test
What is Universal Protocol?
i. Intended to prevent mistakes in surgery. ii. Applies to all surgical and nonsurgical invasive procedures.
what are the One-time vaccines for reps
i. MMR- Measles Mumps Rubella ii. Hep B iii. Varicella or have had chicken pox
What are the 5 levels of evidence for clinical articles
i. Randomized control trial ii. Prospective comparative studies iii. Retrospective cohort study iv. Case series v. Case report (expert opinion)
what are the color of sterile drapes and sterile packages
i. • BLUE ii. • GREEN iii. • WHITE or CLEAR
Universal protocol is Based on what three principles:
i. • Pre-procedure verification. ii. • Site marking. iii. • Time-out procedures.
what is the acronym for acceptable uses of PHI?
i. • Treatment- communication to help take care of the patient but only what is necessary ii. • Payment- done to get payment for services provided iii. healthcare Operations- Activities directly related to treatment and payment.Includes:• Credentialing, auditing, utilization review, quality assessment, training programs.
what is a secondary article
is the review of articles, books, etc.
Medical technology training and education programs may not be provided at what locations
location chosen for its proximity to recreation, elements of luxury or exclusive or prestigious reputation
what is a retrospective study
looks backwards and examines exposures to suspected risk or protection factors in relation to an outcome that is established at the start of the study.
unilateral
one side
Ipsilateral
one side upper and Lower extremity
describe the hitech act
placed additional privacy and security requirements and increased civil penalties.
what is on-label product promotion
promoting a product for What the device is indicated to do and how it is intended to be used
what do A fire extinguishers put out
put out fires made of wood and paper
Where can you find your hardware sets to pick up after your case?
rep room on the rep rack
What is the Sunshine Act?
requires all U.S. manufacturers and distributorsto record and submit yearly "Aggregate Spend" reports to the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) detailing all "transfers of value" made directly or indirectly to a physician, dentist, or teaching hospital (HCPs).
What is the INTERNATIONAL ORGANIZATION FOR STANDARDIZATION (ISO) STANDARDS responsible for
responsible for quality control
in the hospital setting, what should not be used to identify a patient
room number
what is the parasagittal plane
separating right from left not on the midline
what does SSI stand for
surgical site infection
T/F: It is important clinicians to reconcile patients' current medications when providing care, treatment and services even in situations where new medications may not be prescribed or necessary.
t
T/F: Manufactures of surgical equipment must provide validated cleaning and sterilization instructions to the facility before the products may be processed for surgery.
t
T/F: Prior to initiating a blood transfusion, you need to match the blood to the order and the patient to the blood.
t
T/F: The National Patient Safety Goals are reviewed annually by the Joint Commission
t
T/F: The single most effective intervention to preventing health care associated infections is compliance with hand hygiene procedure.
t
True or False; Alcohol-based hand rubs are effective for hand antisepsis and reduce the risk of healthcare acquired infection
t
True or False; All individuals working in the healthcare setting are responsible to be compliant with HIPAA and HITECH as defined in established policy and procedures
t
True or False; An employer may attempt to put out the fire when a clear evacuation path is unobstructed by the contained fire
t
True or False; Asepsis is the absence of disease-causing microorganisms
t
True or False; Aseptic Technique is also known as Sterile Technique
t
True or False; Burns can be one of the more severe injuries caused from electrical hazards
t
True or False; Electric arc blasts can generate enough force to propel you across the room
t
True or False; Electrical shocks can be felt as a mild tingle.
t
True or False; Fire prevention and emergency action plan training must occur sometime within the first year of you being hired
t
True or False; HBV has a vaccine option
t
True or False; HIPAA security rules, technical safeguards, requires implementation of a mechanism to encrypt PHI/ePHI whenever appropriate
t
True or False; Healthcare associated infections are one of the top ten leading causes of death
t
True or False; In the event of a HIPAA breech, this must be reported to the HIPAA privacy and security officer immediately
t
True or False; In the hospital, the Biomedical Engineering Department checks out and authorizes all equipment or pumps that will be used in the OR environment
t
True or False; Joint Commission standards state that the patient has the right to surroundings that preserve their dignity and support a positive self image
t
True or False; Most microbes on the hands come from under the fingernails
t
True or False; One of the reasons for the HITECH Act is it allowed increase civil penalties to assure covered entities and business associates of their responsibility to prevent, detect and quickly correct and HIPAA rule violation
t
True or False; Surgical fires may occur when flammable gasses and heat producing instruments are used in close proximity to each other
t
True or False; The HIV virus can cause AIDS
t
True or False; The human body is a good conductor of electricity
t
True or False; The proper use of a fire extinguisher is to Pull the pin, Aim low, Squeeze the lever and Sweep the nozzle
t
True or False; Tuberculosis is an example of a disease that is transmitted by airborne particles and personal protective equipment should include the use of an N-95 mask
t
True or False; When a violation is not corrected and is due to willful neglect, the covered entity or business associate can be subject to civil prosecution and be fined of a maximum of $50,000 per violation plus include costs and attorney fees
t
True or False; When asked to unplug a cord from an electrical outlet you notice water on the floor. Your best course of action would be to not touch the cord or outlet and report the water on the floor
t
True or False; When feeling heat from an electrical outlet you should stop activity and report to electrical personnel.
t
t/f: Recent changes to the National Patient Safety Goals include elevating awareness to prevent "difficult-to-treat" infections in long-term nursing care settings including catheter infections.
t
true or False; Bloodborne Pathogens are microorganisms such as viruses and bacteria that are carried by blood
t
true or False; When following standard precautions, the minimum requirement for PPE is gloves
t
where is The most common site of fires on patients
the head, face, neck, and upper chest due to where gas flow is
why were universal protocols introduced
to limit surgical error
True or False; Appropriate PPE can reduce your risk of acquiring and transmitting an infectious disease.
true
True or False; Risk of infection with bloodborne pathogen varies depending on the pathogens, type of exposure, amount of blood involved and amount of virus in the patient's blood at the time of exposure
true
True or False; The HBV virus is very durable and targets the liver
true
describe the sterilization room
use of autoclave to sterilize equipment for surgery
describe the surgical area
where the surgery occurs
what is a surgical technique guide
your step by step protocol is so you can help if needed