N120 Review for Chapt 17, 18, 19, VTE, Septic Shock

A patient's blood pressure in the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) has dropped from an admission blood pressure of 140/86 to 102/60 mm Hg with a pulse change of 70 to 96 beats/min. SpO2 is 92% on 3 L of oxygen. In which order should the nurse take these actions? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D].) a. Increase the IV infusion rate. b. Assess the patient's dressing. c. Increase the oxygen flow rate. d. Check the patient's temperature.

ANS: A, C, B, D The first nursing action should be to increase the IV infusion rate. Because the most common cause of hypotension is volume loss, the IV rate should be increased. The next action should be to increase the oxygen flow rate to maximize oxygenation of hypoperfused organs. Because hemorrhage is a common cause of postoperative volume loss, the nurse should check the dressing. Finally, the patient's temperature should be assessed to determine the effects of vasodilation caused by rewarming.

While ambulating in the room, a patient complains of feeling dizzy. In what order will the nurse accomplish the following activities? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D].) a. Have the patient sit down in a chair. b. Give the patient something to drink. c. Take the patient's blood pressure (BP). d. Inform the patient's health care provider.

ANS: A, C, B, D The first priority for the patient with syncope is to prevent a fall, so the patient should be assisted to a chair. Assessment of the BP will determine whether the dizziness is due to orthostatic hypotension, which occurs because of hypovolemia. Increasing the fluid intake will help prevent orthostatic dizziness. Because this is a common postoperative problem that is usually resolved through nursing measures such as increasing fluid intake and making position changes more slowly, there is no urgent need to inform the health care provider.

The health care provider orders the following interventions for a 67-kg patient who has septic shock with a blood pressure of 70/42 mm Hg and O2 saturation of 90% on room air. In which order will the nurse implement the actions? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D, E].) a. Give vancomycin 1 g IV. b. Obtain blood and urine cultures c. Start norepinephrine 0.5 mcg/min. d. Infuse normal saline 2000 mL over 30 minutes. e. Titrate oxygen administration to keep O2 saturation above 95%.

ANS: E, D, C, B, A The initial action for this hypotensive and hypoxemic patient should be to improve the O2 saturation, followed by infusion of IV fluids and vasopressors to improve perfusion. Cultures should be obtained before giving antibiotics.

A patient with septic shock has a BP of 70/46 mm Hg, pulse of 136 beats/min, respirations of 32 breaths/min, temperature of 104°F, and blood glucose of 246 mg/dL. Which intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse implement first? a. Give normal saline IV at 500 mL/hr. b. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally. c. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL. d. Start norepinephrine to keep systolic blood pressure above 90 mm Hg.

ANS: A Because of the decreased preload associated with septic shock, fluid resuscitation is the initial therapy. The other actions also are appropriate, and should be initiated quickly as well.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has septic shock. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Skin cool and clammy b. Heart rate of 118 beats/min c. Blood pressure of 92/56 mm Hg d. O2 saturation of 93% on room air

ANS: A Because patients in the early stage of septic shock have warm and dry skin, the patient's cool and clammy skin indicates that shock is progressing. The other information will also be reported, but does not indicate deterioration of the patient's status.

Which patient statement to the nurse is most consistent with the diagnosis of venous insufficiency? a. "I can't get my shoes on at the end of the day." b. "I can't ever seem to get my feet warm enough." c. "I have burning leg pains after I walk two blocks." d. "I wake up during the night because my legs hurt."

ANS: A Because the edema associated with venous insufficiency increases when the patient has been standing, shoes will feel tighter at the end of the day. The other patient statements are characteristic of peripheral artery disease.

Which action should the perioperative nurse take to best protect the patient from burn injury during surgery? a. Ensure correct placement of the grounding pad. b. Check emergency sprinklers in the operating room. c. Verify that a fire extinguisher is available during surgery. d. Confirm that all electrosurgical equipment is working properly.

ANS: A Care must be taken to correctly place the grounding pad and all electrosurgical equipment to prevent injury from burns or fire. It is important to ensure that fire extinguishers are available and that sprinklers protect everyone in the operating room in the event of a fire, but placing the grounding pad will best prevent injury to the patient. Verifying that electrosurgical equipment is working properly does not protect the patient unless the grounding pad is placed correctly.

Which information in the preoperative patient's medication history is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient takes garlic capsules every day. b. The patient quit using cocaine 10 years ago. c. The patient took a prescribed sedative the previous night. d. The patient uses acetaminophen (Tylenol) for aches and pains.

ANS: A Chronic use of garlic may predispose to intraoperative and postoperative bleeding. The use of a sedative the previous night, occasional acetaminophen use, and a distant history of cocaine use will not usually affect the surgical outcome.

Monitored anesthesia care (MAC) is going to be used for a closed, manual reduction of a dislocated shoulder. What action does the nurse anticipate? a. Starting an IV in the patient's unaffected arm b. Securing an airtight fit for the inhalation mask c. Preparing for placement of an epidural catheter d. Giving deep sedation under physician supervision.

ANS: A For MAC, IV sedatives, such as the benzodiazepines, are given. Therefore the patient needs IV access. Inhaled and epidural agents are not included in MAC. RNs who are trained and are allowed by agency protocols and state nurse practice acts can provide moderate to deep sedation. However, the provider of MAC must be an anesthesia care provider, since it may be necessary to change to general anesthesia during the procedure.

Which statement, if made by a new circulating nurse, reflects understanding of the circulating nurse role? a. "I will assist in preparing the operating room for the patient." b. "I will don sterile gloves to obtain items from the unsterile field." c. "I will remain gloved while performing activities in the sterile field." d. "I will assist with suturing of incisions and maintaining hemostasis as needed."

ANS: A Preparing the operating room for the patient describes the role of a circulating nurse. All other answer options describe specific roles and actions of scrub nurses. The circulating nurse performs activities in the unsterile field and is not scrubbed, gowned, or gloved. The scrub nurse follows the designated scrub procedure, is gowned and gloved in sterile attire, and performs activities in the sterile field.

During change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a patient has been admitted with dehydration and hypotension after having vomiting and diarrhea for 4 days. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. New onset of confusion b. Decreased bowel sounds c. Heart rate 112 beats/min d. Pale, cool, and dry extremities

ANS: A The changes in mental status are indicative that the patient is in the progressive stage of shock and that rapid intervention is needed to prevent further deterioration. The other information is consistent with compensatory shock.

Which data collected by the nurse caring for a patient who has cardiogenic shock indicate that the patient may be developing multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? a. The patient's serum creatinine level is elevated. b. The patient complains of intermittent chest pressure. c. The patient's extremities are cool and pulses are weak. d. The patient has bilateral crackles throughout lung fields.

ANS: A The elevated serum creatinine level indicates that the patient has renal failure as well as heart failure. The crackles, chest pressure, and cool extremities are all symptoms consistent with the patient's diagnosis of cardiogenic shock.

The nurse interviews a patient scheduled to undergo general anesthesia for a bilateral hernia repair. Which information is most important to communicate to the surgeon and anesthesiologist before surgery? a. The patient's father died after general anesthesia for abdominal surgery. b. The patient drinks 3 cups of coffee every morning before going to work. c. The patient takes a baby aspirin daily but stopped taking aspirin 10 days ago. d. The patient drank 4 ounces of apple juice 3 hours before coming to the hospital.

ANS: A The information about the patient's father suggests that there may be a family history of malignant hyperthermia and that precautions may need to be taken to prevent this complication. Current research indicates that having clear liquids 3 hours before surgery does not increase the risk for aspiration in most patients. Patients are instructed to discontinue aspirin 1 to 2 weeks before surgery. The patient should be offered caffeinated beverages postoperatively to prevent a caffeine-withdrawal headache, but this does not have preoperative implications.

A postoperative patient has not voided for 8 hours after return to the clinical unit. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Perform a bladder scan. b. Insert a straight catheter. c. Encourage increased oral fluid intake. d. Assist the patient to ambulate to the bathroom.

ANS: A The initial action should be to assess the bladder for distention. If the bladder is distended, providing the patient with privacy (by walking with the patient to the bathroom) will be helpful. Because of the risk for urinary tract infection, catheterization should only be done after other measures have been tried without success. There is no indication to notify the surgeon about this common postoperative problem unless all measures to empty the bladder are unsuccessful.

The surgical unit nurse has just received a patient with a history of smoking from the postanesthesia care unit. Which action is most important at this time? a. Auscultate for adventitious breath sounds. b. Obtain the blood pressure and temperature. c. Remind the patient about harmful effects of smoking. d. Ask the health care provider to prescribe a nicotine patch.

ANS: A The nurse should first ensure a patent airway and check for breathing and circulation (airway, breathing, and circulation [ABCs]) in a responsive patient. Circulation and temperature can be assessed after a patent airway and breathing have been established. The immediate postoperative period is not the optimal time for patient teaching about the harmful effects of smoking. Requesting a nicotine patch may be appropriate but is not a priority at this time.

After receiving change-of-shift report about these postoperative patients, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Obese patient who had abdominal surgery 3 days ago and whose wound edges are separating b. Patient who has 30 mL of sanguineous drainage in the wound drain 10 hours after hip replacement surgery c. Patient who has bibasilar crackles and a temperature of 100° F (37.8 °C) on the first postoperative day after chest surgery d. Patient who continues to have incisional pain 15 minutes after hydrocodone and acetaminophen (Vicodin) was given

ANS: A The patient's history and assessment suggests possible wound dehiscence, which should be reported immediately to the surgeon. Although the information about the other patients indicates a need for ongoing assessment and possible intervention, the data do not suggest any acute complications. Small amounts of red drainage are common in the first postoperative hours. Bibasilar crackles and a slightly elevated temperature are common after surgery, although the nurse will need to have the patient deep breathe and cough. Oral medications typically take more than 15 minutes for effective pain relief.

A patient who had knee surgery received IV ketorolac 30 minutes ago and continues to complain of pain at a level of 7 (0 to 10 scale). Which action is most effective for the nurse to take at this time? a. Administer the prescribed PRN IV morphine sulfate. b. Notify the health care provider about the ongoing pain. c. Reassure the patient that postoperative pain is expected after knee surgery. d. Teach the patient that the effects of ketorolac typically last about 6 to 8 hours.

ANS: A The priority at this time is pain relief. Concomitant use of opioids and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs improves pain control in postoperative patients. Patient teaching and reassurance are appropriate but should be done after the patient's pain is relieved. If the patient continues to have pain after the morphine is administered, the health care provider should be notified.

A patient who is scheduled for a therapeutic abortion tells the nurse, "Having an abortion is wrong." Which functional health pattern should the nurse further assess? a. Value-belief b. Cognitive-perceptual c. Sexuality-reproductive d. Coping-stress tolerance

ANS: A The value-belief pattern includes information about conflicts between a patient's values and proposed medical care. In the cognitive-perceptual pattern, the nurse will ask questions about pain and sensory intactness. The sexuality-reproductive pattern includes data about the impact of the surgery on the patient's sexuality. The coping-stress tolerance pattern assessment will elicit information about how the patient feels about the surgery.

Which preventive actions by the nurse will help limit the development of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) in patients admitted to the hospital *(select all that apply)*? a. Ambulate postoperative patients as soon as possible after surgery. b. Use aseptic technique when manipulating invasive lines or devices. c. Remove indwelling urinary catheters as soon as possible after surgery. d. Administer prescribed antibiotics within 1 hour for patients with possible sepsis. e. Advocate for parenteral nutrition for patients who cannot take in adequate calories.

ANS: A, B, C, D Because sepsis is the most frequent etiology for SIRS, measures to avoid infection such as removing indwelling urinary catheters as soon as possible, use of aseptic technique, and early ambulation should be included in the plan of care. Adequate nutrition is important in preventing SIRS. Enteral, rather than parenteral, nutrition is preferred when patients are unable to take oral feedings because enteral nutrition helps maintain the integrity of the intestine, thus decreasing infection risk. Antibiotics should be given within 1 hour after being prescribed to decrease the risk of sepsis progressing to SIRS.

Which statement by a patient scheduled for surgery is most important to report to the health care provider? a. "I have a strong family history of cancer." b. "I had a heart valve replacement last year." c. "I had bacterial pneumonia 3 months ago." d. "I have knee pain whenever I walk or jog."

ANS: B A patient with a history of valve replacement is at risk for endocarditis associated with invasive procedures and may need antibiotic prophylaxis. A current respiratory infection may affect whether the patient should have surgery, but a history of pneumonia is not a reason to postpone surgery. The patient's knee pain is the likely reason for the surgery. A family history of cancer does not have implications for the current surgery.

When caring for a patient the second postoperative day after abdominal surgery for removal of a large pancreatic cyst, the nurse obtains an oral temperature of 100.8° F (38.2° C). Which action should the nurse take next? a. Place ice packs in the patient's axillae. b. Have the patient use the incentive spirometer. c. Request an order for acetaminophen (Tylenol). d. Ask the health care provider to prescribe a different antibiotic.

ANS: B A temperature of 100.8° F (38.2° C) in the first 48 hours is usually caused by atelectasis, and the nurse should have the patient deep breathe, cough, and use the incentive spirometer. This problem may be resolved by nursing intervention, and therefore notifying the health care provider is not necessary. Acetaminophen or ice packs will reduce the temperature, but it will not resolve the underlying respiratory congestion.

A patient arrives at the outpatient surgical center for a scheduled laparoscopy under general anesthesia. Which information requires the nurse's preoperative intervention to maintain patient safety? a. The patient has never had general anesthesia. b. The patient is planning to drive home after surgery. c. The patient had a sip of water 4 hours before arriving. d. The patient's insurance does not cover outpatient surgery.

ANS: B After outpatient surgery, the patient should not drive that day and will need assistance with transportation and home care. Clear liquids only require a minimum preoperative fasting period of 2 hours. The patient's experience with anesthesia and the patient's insurance coverage are important to establish, but these are not safety issues.

Which action by the nurse will be most helpful to a patient who is expected to ambulate, deep breathe, and cough on the first postoperative day? a. Schedule the activity to begin after the patient has taken a nap. b. Administer prescribed analgesic medications before the activities. c. Ask the patient to state two possible complications of immobility. d. Encourage the patient to state the purpose of splinting the incision.

ANS: B An important nursing action to encourage these postoperative activities is administration of adequate analgesia to allow the patient to accomplish the activities with minimal pain. Even with motivation provided by proper teaching, positive reinforcement, concern about complications, and with rest and sleep, patients will have difficulty if there is a great deal of pain involved with these activities.

Which finding would indicate to the nurse that a postoperative patient is at increased risk for poor wound healing? a. Potassium 3.5 mEq/L b. Albumin level 2.2 g/dL c. Hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL d. White blood cells 11,900/µL

ANS: B Because proteins are needed for an appropriate inflammatory response and wound healing, the low serum albumin level *(normal level, 3.5 to 5.0 g/dL)* indicates a risk for poor wound healing. The potassium level is normal. Because a small amount of blood loss is expected with surgery, the hemoglobin level is not indicative of an increased risk for wound healing. WBC count is expected to increase after surgery as a part of the normal inflammatory response.

A patient who has begun to awaken after 30 minutes in the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) is restless and shouting at the nurse. The patient's oxygen saturation is 96%, and recent laboratory results are all normal. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Increase the IV fluid rate. b. Assess for bladder distention. c. Notify the anesthesia care provider (ACP). d. Demonstrate the use of the nurse call bell button.

ANS: B Because the patient's assessment indicates physiologic stability, the most likely cause of the patient's agitation is emergence delirium, which will resolve as the patient wakes up more fully. The nurse should look for a cause such as bladder distention. Although hypoxemia is the most common cause, the patient's oxygen saturation is 96%. Emergence delirium is common in patients recovering from anesthesia, so there is no need to notify the ACP. Orientation of the patient to bed controls is needed but is not likely to be effective until the effects of anesthesia have resolved more completely.

Which finding about a patient who is receiving vasopressin to treat septic shock indicates an immediate need for the nurse to report the finding to the health care provider? a. The patient's urine output is 18 mL/hr. b. The patient is complaining of chest pain. c. The patient's peripheral pulses are weak. d. The patient's heart rate is 110 beats/minute.

ANS: B Because vasopressin is a potent vasoconstrictor, it may decrease coronary artery perfusion. The other information is consistent with the patient's diagnosis, and should be reported to the health care provider but does not indicate an immediate need for a change in therapy.

A patient who has not had any prior surgeries tells the nurse doing the preoperative assessment about allergies to avocados and bananas. Which action is most important for the nurse to take? a. Notify the dietitian about the specific food allergies. b. Alert the surgery center about a possible latex allergy. c. Reassure the patient that all allergies are noted on the health record. d. Ask whether the patient uses antihistamines to reduce allergic reactions.

ANS: B Certain food allergies (e.g., eggs, avocados, bananas, chestnuts, potatoes, peaches) are related to latex allergies. When a patient is allergic to latex, special nonlatex materials are used during surgical procedures. The staff will need to know about the allergy in advance to obtain appropriate nonlatex materials and have them available during surgery. The other actions also may be appropriate, but prevention of allergic reaction during surgery is the most important action.

A patient who is just waking up after having hip replacement surgery is agitated and confused. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Administer the prescribed opioid. b. Check the oxygen (O2) saturation. c. Take the blood pressure and pulse. d. Apply wrist restraints to secure IV lines.

ANS: B Emergence delirium may be caused by a variety of factors. However, the nurse should first assess for hypoxemia. The other actions also may be appropriate, but are not the best initial action.

The health care provider prescribes an infusion of heparin and daily partial thromboplastin time (PTT) testing for a patient with venous thromboembolism (VTE). The nurse will plan to a. decrease the infusion when the PTT value is 65 seconds. b. avoid giving IM medications to prevent localized bleeding. c. have vitamin K available in case reversal of the heparin is needed. d. monitor posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses with the Doppler.

ANS: B Intramuscular injections are avoided in patients receiving anticoagulation to prevent hematoma formation and bleeding from the site. A PTT of 65 seconds is within the therapeutic range. Vitamin K is used to reverse warfarin. Pulse quality is not affected by VTE.

The nurse who works in the vascular clinic has several patients with venous insufficiency scheduled today. Which patient should the nurse assign to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Patient who has been complaining of increased edema and skin changes in the legs b. Patient who needs wound care for a chronic venous stasis ulcer on the right lower leg c. Patient who has a history of venous thromboembolism and is complaining of dyspnea d. Patient who needs teaching about elastic compression stockings for venous insufficiency

ANS: B LPN education and scope of practice includes wound care. The other patients, which require more complex assessments or education, should be managed by the RN.

A patient with a venous thromboembolism (VTE) is started on enoxaparin (Lovenox) and warfarin (Coumadin). The patient asks the nurse why two medications are necessary. Which response by the nurse is most accurate? a. "Taking two blood thinners greatly reduces the risk for another clot to form." b. "Enoxaparin will work right away, but warfarin takes several days to begin preventing clots." c. "Enoxaparin will start to dissolve the clot, and warfarin will prevent any more clots from forming." d. "Because of the risk for a blood clot in the lungs, it is important for you to take more than one blood thinner."

ANS: B Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is used because of the immediate effect on coagulation and discontinued once the international normalized ratio (INR) value indicates that the warfarin has reached a therapeutic level. LMWH has no thrombolytic properties. The use of two anticoagulants is not related to the risk for pulmonary embolism, and two are not necessary to reduce the risk for another VTE. Anticoagulants do not thin the blood.

The nurse has started discharge teaching for a patient who is to continue warfarin (Coumadin) after hospitalization for venous thromboembolism (VTE). The nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the patient says which of the following? a. "I should get a Medic Alert device stating that I take warfarin." b. "I should reduce the amount of green, leafy vegetables that I eat." c. "I will need routine blood tests to monitor the effects of the warfarin." d. "I will check with my health care provider before I begin any new drugs."

ANS: B Patients taking warfarin are taught to follow a consistent diet with regard to foods that are high in vitamin K, such as green, leafy vegetables. The other patient statements are accurate.

A patient who has diabetes and uses insulin to control blood glucose has been NPO since midnight before having a knee replacement surgery. Which action should the nurse take? a. Withhold the usual scheduled insulin dose because the patient is NPO. b. Obtain a blood glucose measurement before any insulin administration. c. Give the patient the usual insulin dose because stress will increase the blood glucose. d. Give half the usual dose of insulin because there will be no oral intake before surgery.

ANS: B Preoperative insulin administration is individualized to the patient, and the current blood glucose will provide the most reliable information about insulin needs. It is not possible to predict whether the patient will require no insulin, a lower dose, or a higher dose without blood glucose monitoring.

Which topic is most important for the nurse to discuss preoperatively with a patient who is scheduled for an open cholecystectomy? a. Care for the surgical incision b. Deep breathing and coughing c. Oral antibiotic therapy after discharge d. Medications to be used during surgery

ANS: B Preoperative teaching, demonstration, and re-demonstration of deep breathing and coughing are needed on patients having abdominal surgery to prevent postoperative atelectasis. Incisional care and the importance of completing antibiotics are better discussed after surgery, when the patient will be more likely to retain this information. The patient does not usually need information about medications that are used intraoperatively.

A patient scheduled to undergo total knee replacement surgery under general anesthesia asks the nurse, "Will the doctor put me to sleep with a mask over my face?" Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Only your surgeon can tell you what method of anesthesia will be used." b. "I will check with the anesthesia care provider to find out what is planned." c. "General anesthesia is now given by injecting drugs into your veins, so you will not need a mask over your face." d. "Masks are no longer used for anesthesia. A tube will be inserted into your throat to deliver gas that will put you to sleep."

ANS: B Routine general anesthesia is usually induced by the IV route with a hypnotic, anxiolytic, or dissociative agent. However, general anesthesia may be induced by IV or inhalation. The nurse should consult with the anesthesia care provider to determine the method selected for this patient. The anesthesia care provider will select the method of anesthesia, not the surgeon. Inhalation agents may be given through an endotracheal tube or a laryngeal mask airway.

While in the holding area, a patient reveals to the nurse that his father had a high fever after surgery. What action by the nurse is a priority? a. Place a medical alert sticker on the front of the patient's chart. b. Alert the anesthesia care provider of the family member's reaction to surgery. c. Give 650 mg of acetaminophen (Tylenol) per rectum as a preventive measure. d. Reassure the patient that his temperature will be closely monitored after surgery.

ANS: B The anesthesia care provider (ACP) needs to be notified and made aware of the patient's family history in regards to anesthesia reactions. Malignant hyperthermia (MH) is a valid concern because the patient's father appears to have had a reaction to surgery. The ACP needs to be notified immediately rather than waiting for a sticker to be noticed on the chart. Administering acetaminophen may not prevent MH. General anesthesia can be administered to patients with MH as long as precautions to avoid MH are taken and preparations are made to treat MH if it does occur.

The nurse assesses a patient who had a total abdominal hysterectomy 2 days ago. Which information about the patient is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient's temperature is 100.3° F (37.9° C). b. The patient's calf is swollen, warm, and painful. c. The 24-hour oral intake is 600 mL greater than the total output. d. The patient reports abdominal pain at level 6 (0 to 10 scale) when ambulating.

ANS: B The calf pain, swelling, and warmth suggest that the patient has a venous thromboembolism (VTE). This will require the health care provider to order diagnostic tests, anticoagulants, or both and is most critical because a VTE could result in a pulmonary embolism. Because the stress response causes fluid retention for the first 2 to 5 days postoperatively, the difference between intake and output is expected. A temperature elevation to 100.3° F on the second postoperative day is suggestive of atelectasis and the nurse should have the patient deep breathe and cough. Pain with ambulation is normal, and the nurse should administer the ordered analgesic before patient activities.

Which action in the perioperative patient plan of care can the charge nurse delegate to a surgical technologist? a. Teach the patient about what to expect in the operating room (OR). b. Pass sterile instruments and supplies to the surgeon and scrub technician. c. Monitor and interpret the patient's echocardiogram (ECG) during surgery. d. Give the postoperative report to the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) nurse.

ANS: B The education and certification for a surgical technologist includes the scrub and circulating functions in the OR. Patient teaching, communication with other departments about a patient's condition, and the admission assessment require registered-nurse (RN) level education and scope of practice. A surgical technologist is not usually trained to interpret ECG rhythms.

A patient who has been involved in a motor vehicle crash arrives in the emergency department (ED) with cool, clammy skin; tachycardia; and hypotension. Which intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse implement first? a. Insert two large-bore IV catheters. b. Provide O2 at 100% per non-rebreather mask. c. Draw blood to type and crossmatch for transfusions. d. Initiate continuous electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring.

ANS: B The first priority in the initial management of shock is maintenance of the airway and ventilation. ECG monitoring, insertion of IV catheters, and obtaining blood for transfusions should also be rapidly accomplished but only after actions to maximize O2 delivery have been implemented.

The nurse working in the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) notes that a patient who has just been transported from the operating room is shivering and has a temperature of 96.5° F (35.8° C). Which action should the nurse take next? a. Notify the anesthesia care provider. b. Cover the patient with a warm blanket. c. Avoid giving opioid analgesics until the patient is warmer. d. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg suppository rectally.

ANS: B The patient assessment indicates the need for active rewarming. There is no indication of a need for acetaminophen. Opioid analgesics may help reduce shivering. Because hypothermia is common in the immediate postoperative period, there is no need to notify the anesthesia care provider unless the patient continues to be hypothermic after active rewarming.

An older patient who had knee replacement surgery 2 days ago can only tolerate being out of bed with physical therapy twice a day. Which collaborative problem should the nurse identify as a priority for this patient? a. Potential complication: hypovolemic shock b. Potential complication: venous thromboembolism c. Potential complication: fluid and electrolyte imbalance d. Potential complication: impaired surgical wound healing

ANS: B The patient is older and relatively immobile, which are two risk factors for development of deep vein thrombosis. The other potential complications are possible postoperative problems, but they are not at a high risk based on the data about this patient.

Five minutes after receiving the ordered preoperative midazolam by IV injection, the patient asks to get up to go to the bathroom to urinate. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Assist the patient to the bathroom. b. Offer the patient a urinal or bedpan. c. Ask the patient to wait until the drug has been fully metabolized. d. Tell the patient that a bladder catheter will be placed in the operating room.

ANS: B The patient will be at risk for a fall after receiving the sedative, so the best nursing action is to have the patient use a bedpan or urinal. Having the patient get up either with assistance or independently increases the risk for a fall. The drug is timed to be in effect during transportation to the operating room. The patient will be uncomfortable and risk involuntary incontinence if the bladder is full during transport to the operating room.

Which data identified during the preoperative assessment alerts the nurse that special protection techniques should be implemented during surgery? a. Stated allergy to cats and dogs b. History of spinal and hip arthritis c. Verbalization of anxiety by the patient d. Having a sip of water 3 hours previously

ANS: B The patient with arthritis may require special positioning to avoid injury and postoperative discomfort. Preoperative anxiety (unless severe) and having a sip of water 3 hours before surgery are not contraindications to having surgery. An allergy to cats and dogs will not affect the care needed during the intraoperative phase.

In the postanesthesia care unit (PACU), a patient's vital signs are blood pressure 116/72 mm Hg, pulse 74 beats/min, respirations 12 breaths/min, and SpO2 91%. The patient is sleepy but awakens easily. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Place the patient in a side-lying position. b. Encourage the patient to take deep breaths. c. Prepare to transfer the patient to a clinical unit. d. Increase the rate of the postoperative IV fluids.

ANS: B The patient's borderline SpO2 and sleepiness indicate hypoventilation. The nurse should stimulate the patient and remind the patient to take deep breaths. Placing the patient in a lateral position is needed when the patient first arrives in the PACU and is unconscious. The stable blood pressure and pulse indicate that no changes in fluid intake are required. The patient is not fully awake and has a low SpO2, indicating that transfer from the PACU to a clinical unit is not appropriate.

A patient scheduled for an elective hysterectomy tells the nurse, "I am afraid that I will die in surgery like my mother did!" Which initial response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "Surgical techniques have improved in recent years." b. "Tell me more about what happened to your mother." c. "You will receive medication to reduce your anxiety." d. "You should talk to the doctor again about the surgery."

ANS: B The patient's statement may indicate an unusually high anxiety level or a family history of problems such as malignant hyperthermia, which will require precautions during surgery. The other statements may also address the patient's concerns, but further assessment is needed first.

Which nursing action should the operating room (OR) nurse manager delegate to the registered nurse first assistant (RNFA) when caring for a surgical patient? a. Adjust the doses of administered anesthetics. b. Make surgical incisions and suture as needed. c. Provide postoperative teaching about coughing. d. Coordinate transfer of the patient to the operating table.

ANS: B The role of the RNFA includes skills such as making and suturing incisions and maintaining hemostasis. The other actions should be delegated to other staff members such as the circulating nurse, scrub nurse, or surgical technician. The anesthesia care provider should adjust the doses of anesthetics for patients, not the RNFA.

Which action could the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who help to transport a patient to the clinical unit? a. Clarify the postoperative orders with the surgeon. b. Help with the transfer of the patient onto a stretcher. c. Document the appearance of the patient's incision in the chart. d. Provide hand off communication to the surgical unit charge nurse.

ANS: B The scope of practice of UAP includes repositioning and moving patients under the supervision of a nurse. Providing report to another nurse, assessing and documenting the wound appearance, and clarifying physician orders with another nurse require registered-nurse (RN) level education and scope of practice.

The nurse is preparing to witness the patient signing the operative consent form when the patient says, "I don't understand what the doctor said about the surgery." Which action should the nurse take next? a. Provide a thorough explanation of the planned surgical procedure. b. Notify the surgeon that the informed consent process is not complete. c. Give the prescribed preoperative antibiotics and withhold sedative medications. d. Notify the operating room nurse to give a more complete explanation of the procedure.

ANS: B The surgeon is responsible for explaining the surgery to the patient. The nurse should wait until the surgeon has clarified the surgery before having the patient sign the consent form. The nurse should communicate directly with the surgeon about the consent form rather than asking other staff to pass on the message. It is not within the nurse's legal scope of practice to explain the surgical procedure. No preoperative medications should be given until the patient understands the surgical procedure and signs the consent form.

Which actions could the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who are providing care for a patient who is at risk for venous thromboembolism? a. Monitor for any bleeding after anticoagulation therapy is started. b. Apply sequential compression device whenever the patient is in bed. c. Ask the patient about use of herbal medicines or dietary supplements. d. Instruct the patient to call immediately if any shortness of breath occurs.

ANS: B UAP training includes the use of equipment that requires minimal nursing judgment, such as sequential compression devices. Patient assessment and teaching require more education and critical thinking and should be done by the registered nurse (RN).

The nurse facilitates student clinical experiences in the surgical suite. Which action, if performed by a student, would require the nurse to intervene? a. The student wears a mask in the semirestricted area. b. The student wears street clothes in the semirestricted area. c. The student wears surgical scrubs in the semirestricted area. d. The student covers head and facial hair in the semirestricted area.

ANS: B Wearing street clothes in the semirestricted area is not permitted. The surgical suite is divided into three distinct areas: unrestricted—staff and others in street clothes can interact with those in surgical attire; semirestricted—staff must wear surgical attire and cover all head and facial hair; and restricted—includes the operating room, the sink area, and clean core where masks are required in addition to surgical attire.

A patient's T-tube is draining dark green fluid after gallbladder surgery. What action by the nurse is the most appropriate? a. Notify the patient's surgeon. b. Place the patient on bed rest. c. Document the color and amount of drainage. d. Irrigate the T-tube with sterile normal saline.

ANS: C A T-tube normally drains dark green to bright yellow drainage so no action other than to document the amount and color of the drainage is needed. The other actions are not necessary.

Which action best describes the role of the certified registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA) on the surgical care team? a. Performs the same responsibilities as the anesthesiologist. b. Gives intraoperative anesthetics ordered by the anesthesiologist. c. Releases or discharges patients from the postanesthesia care area. d. Manages a patient's airway under the direct supervision of the anesthesiologist.

ANS: C A nurse anesthetist is a registered nurse who has graduated from an accredited nurse anesthesia program (minimally a master's degree program) and successfully completed a national certification examination to become a CRNA. The CRNA scope of practice includes, but is not limited to, the following: 1. Performing and documenting a preanesthetic assessment and evaluation 2. Developing and implementing a plan for delivering anesthesia 3. Selecting and initiating the planned anesthetic technique 4. Selecting, obtaining, and administering the anesthesia, adjuvant drugs, and fluids 5. Selecting, applying, and inserting appropriate noninvasive and invasive monitoring devices 6. Managing a patient's airway and pulmonary status 7. Managing emergence and recovery from anesthesia 8. Releasing or discharging patients from a postanesthesia care area

On admission of a patient to the postanesthesia care unit (PACU), the blood pressure (BP) is 122/72 mm Hg. Thirty minutes after admission, the BP is 114/62, with a pulse of 74 and warm, dry skin. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Increase the IV fluid rate. b. Notify the anesthesia care provider (ACP). c. Continue to take vital signs every 15 minutes. d. Administer oxygen therapy at 100% per mask.

ANS: C A slight drop in postoperative BP with a normal pulse and warm, dry skin indicates normal response to the residual effects of anesthesia and requires only ongoing monitoring. Hypotension with tachycardia or cool, clammy skin would suggest hypovolemic or hemorrhagic shock and the need for notification of the ACP, increased fluids, and high-concentration oxygen administration.

The nasogastric (NG) tube is removed on the second postoperative day, and the patient is placed on a clear liquid diet. Four hours later, the patient complains of frequent, cramping gas pains. What action by the nurse is the most appropriate? a. Reinsert the NG tube. b. Give the PRN IV opioid. c. Assist the patient to ambulate. d. Place the patient on NPO status.

ANS: C Ambulation encourages peristalsis and the passing of flatus, which will relieve the patient's discomfort. If distention persists, the patient may need to be placed on NPO status, but usually this is not necessary. Morphine administration will further decrease intestinal motility. Gas pains are usually caused by trapping of flatus in the colon, and reinsertion of the NG tube will not relieve the pains.

A patient is transferred from the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) to the clinical unit. Which action by the nurse on the clinical unit should be performed first? a. Assess the patient's pain. b. Orient the patient to the unit. c. Take the patient's vital signs. d. Read the postoperative orders.

ANS: C Because the priority concerns after surgery are airway, breathing, and circulation, the vital signs are assessed first. The other actions should take place after the vital signs are obtained and compared with the vital signs before transfer.

The nurse obtains a health history from a patient who is scheduled for elective hip surgery in 1 week. The patient reports use of garlic and ginkgo biloba. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Teach the patient that these products may be continued preoperatively. b. Advise the patient to stop the use of herbs and supplements at this time. c. Discuss the herb and supplement use with the patient's health care provider. d. Reassure the patient that there will be no interactions with anesthetic agents.

ANS: C Both garlic and ginkgo biloba increase the risk for bleeding. The nurse should discuss the herb and supplement use with the patient's health care provider. The nurse should not advise the patient to stop the supplements or to continue them without consulting with the health care provider and the anesthesia care provider.

A 46-yr-old service-counter worker undergoes sclerotherapy for treatment of superficial varicose veins at an outpatient center. Which instructions should the nurse provide to the patient before discharge? a. Sitting at the work counter, rather than standing, is recommended. b. Exercise, such as walking or jogging, can cause recurrence of varicosities. c. Elastic compression stockings should be applied before getting out of bed. d. Taking an aspirin daily will help prevent clots from forming around venous valves.

ANS: C Elastic compression stockings are applied with the legs elevated to reduce pressure in the lower legs. Walking is recommended to prevent recurrent varicosities. Sitting and standing are both risk factors for varicose veins and venous insufficiency. An aspirin a day is not adequate to prevent venous thrombosis and would not be recommended for a patient who had just had sclerotherapy.

Which action will the perioperative nurse take after surgery is completed for a patient who received ketamine as an anesthetic agent? a. Question the order for giving a benzodiazepine. b. Ensure that atropine is available in case of bradycardia. c. Provide a quiet environment in the postanesthesia care unit. d. Anticipate the need for higher than usual doses of analgesic agents.

ANS: C Hallucinations are an adverse effect associated with the dissociative anesthetics such as ketamine. Therefore the postoperative environment should be kept quiet to decrease the risk of hallucinations. Because ketamine causes profound analgesia lasting into the postoperative period, higher doses of analgesics are not needed. Ketamine causes an increase in heart rate. Benzodiazepine may be used with ketamine to decrease the incidence of hallucinations and nightmares.

The nurse assesses that the oxygen saturation is 89% in an unconscious patient who was transferred from surgery to the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) 15 minutes ago. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Suction the patient's mouth. b. Increase the oxygen flow rate. c. Perform the jaw-thrust maneuver. d. Elevate the patient's head on two pillows.

ANS: C In an unconscious postoperative patient, a likely cause of hypoxemia is airway obstruction by the tongue, and the first action is to clear the airway by maneuvers such as the jaw thrust or chin lift. Increasing the oxygen flow rate and suctioning are not helpful when the airway is obstructed by the tongue. Elevating the patient's head will not be effective in correcting the obstruction but may help with oxygenation after the patient is awake.

The nurse is preparing a patient on the morning of surgery. The patient refuses to remove a wedding ring, saying, "I've never taken it off since the day I was married." Which response by the nurse is best? a. Have the patient sign a release form and leave the ring on. b. Tell the patient that the hospital is not liable for loss of the ring. c. Suggest that the patient give the ring to a family member to keep. d. Inform the operating room personnel that the patient is wearing a ring.

ANS: C Jewelry is not allowed to be worn by the patient, especially if electrocautery will be used. Safety is the issue here. There is no need for a release form or to discuss liability with the patient.

The nurse is caring for a patient the first postoperative day following a laparotomy for a small bowel obstruction. The nurse notices new bright-red drainage about 5 cm in diameter on the dressing. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Reinforce the dressing. b. Apply an abdominal binder. c. Take the patient's vital signs. d. Recheck the dressing in 1 hour.

ANS: C New bright-red drainage may indicate hemorrhage, and the nurse should initially assess the patient's vital signs for tachycardia and hypotension. The surgeon should then be notified of the drainage and the vital signs. The dressing may be changed or reinforced, based on the surgeon's orders or agency policy. The nurse should not wait an hour to recheck the dressing.

Which assessment finding for a patient who has been admitted with a right calf venous thromboembolism (VTE) requires immediate action by the nurse? a. Erythema of right lower leg b. Complaint of right calf pain c. New onset shortness of breath d. Temperature of 100.4°F (38°C)

ANS: C New onset dyspnea suggests a pulmonary embolus, which will require rapid actions such as O2 administration and notification of the health care provider. The other findings are typical of VTE.

A postoperative patient has a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. The nurse determines that interventions for this nursing diagnosis have been successful if which is observed? a. Patient drinks 2 to 3 L of fluid in 24 hours. b. Patient uses the spirometer 10 times every hour. c. Patient's breath sounds are clear to auscultation. d. Patient's temperature is less than 100.2°F orally.

ANS: C One characteristic of ineffective airway clearance is the presence of adventitious breath sounds such as crackles, so clear breath sounds are an indication of resolution of the problem. Spirometer use and increased fluid intake are interventions for ineffective airway clearance but may not always improve breath sounds. Elevated temperature may occur with atelectasis, but a normal or near-normal temperature does not always indicate resolution of respiratory problems.

When the nurse educator is evaluating the skills of a new registered nurse (RN) caring for patients experiencing shock, which action by the new RN indicates a need for more education? a. Placing the pulse oximeter on the ear for a patient with septic shock b. Keeping the head of the bed flat for a patient with hypovolemic shock c. Maintaining a cool room temperature for a patient with neurogenic shock d. Increasing the nitroprusside infusion rate for a patient with a very high SVR

ANS: C Patients with neurogenic shock have poikilothermia. The room temperature should be kept warm to avoid hypothermia. The other actions by the new RN are appropriate.

A patient undergoing an emergency appendectomy has been using St. John's wort to prevent depression. Which complication would the nurse expect in the postanesthesia care unit? a. Increased discomfort b. Increased blood pressure c. Increased anesthesia recovery time d. Increased postoperative wound bleeding

ANS: C St. John's wort may prolong the effects of anesthetic agents and increase the time to waken completely after surgery. It is not associated with increased bleeding risk, hypertension, or increased pain.

The outpatient surgery nurse reviews the complete blood cell (CBC) count results for a patient who is scheduled for surgery. The results are white blood cell (WBC) count 10.2 x 103/µL; hemoglobin 15 g/dL; hematocrit 45%; platelets 150 x 103/µL. Which action should the nurse take? a. Notify the surgeon and anesthesiologist immediately. b. Ask the patient about any symptoms of a recent infection. c. Continue to prepare the patient for the surgical procedure. d. Discuss the possibility of blood transfusion with the patient.

ANS: C The CBC count results are normal. With normal results, the patient can go to the holding area when the operating room is ready for the patient. There is no need to notify the surgeon or anesthesiologist, discuss blood transfusion, or ask about recent infection.

Which action by a new nurse who is giving fondaparinux (Arixtra) to a patient with a lower leg venous thromboembolism (VTE) indicates that more education about the drug is needed? a. The nurse avoids rubbing the injection site after giving the drug. b. The nurse injects the drug into the abdominal subcutaneous tissue. c. The nurse ejects the air bubble from the syringe before giving the drug. d. The nurse does not check partial thromboplastin time (PTT) before giving the drug.

ANS: C The air bubble is not ejected before giving fondaparinux to avoid loss of drug. The other actions by the nurse are appropriate for subcutaneous administration of a low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). LMWHs typically do not require ongoing PTT monitoring and dose adjustment.

A patient in the surgical holding area is being prepared for a spinal fusion. Which action by a member of the surgical team requires immediate intervention by the charge nurse? a. Wearing street clothes into the nursing station b. Wearing a surgical mask into the holding room c. Walking into the hallway outside the operating room with hair uncovered d. Putting on a surgical mask, cap, and scrubs before entering the operating room

ANS: C The corridors outside the operating room (OR) are part of the semirestricted area where personnel must wear surgical attire and head coverings. Surgical masks may be worn in the holding room, although they are not necessary. Street clothes may be worn at the nursing station, which is part of the unrestricted area. Wearing a mask and scrubs is essential when going into the OR.

A patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) for shock of unknown etiology. The first action by the nurse should be to a. obtain the blood pressure. b. check the level of orientation. c. administer supplemental oxygen. d. obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram.

ANS: C The initial actions of the nurse are focused on the ABCs—airway, breathing, and circulation—and administration of O2 should be done first. The other actions should be accomplished as rapidly as possible after providing O2.

After reviewing the information shown in the accompanying figure for a patient with pneumonia and sepsis, which information is most important to report to the health care provider? *Physical Assessment* • Petechiae noted on chest and legs • Crackles heard bilaterally in lung bases • No redness or swelling at central line IV site *Laboratory Data* • Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 34 mg/Dl • Hematocrit 30% • Platelets 50,000/µL *Vital Signs* • Temperature 100°F (37.8°C) • Pulse 102/min • Respirations 26/min • BP 110/60 mm Hg • O2 saturation 93% on 2L O2 via nasal cannula a. Temperature and IV site appearance b. Oxygen saturation and breath sounds c. Platelet count and presence of petechiae d. Blood pressure, pulse rate, respiratory rate.

ANS: C The low platelet count and presence of petechiae suggest that the patient may have disseminated intravascular coagulation and that multiple organ dysfunction syndrome is developing. The other information will also be discussed with the health care provider but does not indicate that the patient's condition is deteriorating or that a change in therapy is needed immediately.

The nurse plans to provide preoperative teaching to an alert older man who has hearing and vision deficits. His wife answers most questions that are directed to the patient. Which action should the nurse take when doing the teaching? a. Use printed materials for instruction so that the patient will have more time to review the material. b. Direct all the teaching toward the wife because she is the obvious support and caregiver for the patient. c. Provide additional time for the patient to understand preoperative instructions and carry out procedures. d. Ask the patient's wife to wait in the hall in order to focus preoperative teaching with the patient himself.

ANS: C The nurse should allow more time when doing preoperative teaching and preparation for older patients with sensory deficits. Because the patient has visual deficits, he will not be able to use written material for learning. The teaching should be directed toward both the patient and wife because both will need to understand preoperative procedures and teaching.

An older patient is being discharged from the ambulatory surgical unit following left eye surgery. The patient tells the nurse, "I don't know if I can take care of myself once I'm home." Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Provide written instructions for the care. b. Assess the patient's home support system. c. Discuss specific concerns regarding self-care. d. Refer the patient for home health care services.

ANS: C The nurse's initial action should be to assess exactly the patient's concerns about self-care. Referral to home health care and assessment of the patient's support system may be appropriate actions but will be based on further assessment of the patient's concerns. Written instructions should be given to the patient, but these are unlikely to address the patient's stated concern about self-care.

An experienced nurse orients a new nurse to the postanesthesia care unit (PACU). Which action by the new nurse, if observed by the experienced nurse, indicates that the orientation was successful? a. The new nurse assists a nauseated patient to a supine position. b. The new nurse positions an unconscious patient supine with the head elevated. c. The new nurse positions an unconscious patient on the side upon arrival in the PACU. d. The new nurse places a patient in the Trendelenburg position for a low blood pressure.

ANS: C The patient should initially be positioned in the lateral "recovery" position to keep the airway open and avoid aspiration. The Trendelenburg position is avoided because it increases the work of breathing. The patient is placed supine with the head elevated after regaining consciousness.

The operating room nurse is providing orientation to a student nurse. Which action would the nurse list as a major responsibility of a scrub nurse? a. Document all patient care accurately. b. Label all specimens to send to the laboratory. c. Keep both hands above the operating table level. d. Take the patient to the postanesthesia recovery area.

ANS: C The scrub nurse role includes maintaining asepsis in the operating field. The other actions would be performed by the circulating nurse.

Which action describes how the scrub nurse protects the patient with aseptic technique during surgery? a. Uses waterproof shoe covers b. Wears personal protective equipment c. Changes gloves after touching the upper arm of the surgeon's gown d. Requires that all operating room (OR) staff perform a surgical scrub

ANS: C The sleeves of a sterile surgical gown are considered sterile only to 2 inches above the elbows, so touching the surgeon's upper arm would contaminate the nurse's gloves. Shoe covers are not sterile. Personal protective equipment is designed to protect caregivers, not the patient, and is not part of aseptic technique. Staff members such as the circulating nurse do not have to perform a surgical scrub before entering the OR.

A 38-yr-old woman is admitted for an elective surgical procedure. Which information obtained by the nurse during the preoperative assessment is most important to communicate to the anesthesiologist and surgeon before surgery? a. The patient's lack of knowledge about postoperative pain control b. The patient's history of an infection following a cholecystectomy c. The patient's report that her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago d. The patient's concern about being able to resume lifting heavy items

ANS: C This statement suggests that the patient may be pregnant and pregnancy testing is needed before administration of anesthetic agents. Although the other data may also be communicated with the surgeon and anesthesiologist, they will affect postoperative care and do not indicate a need for further assessment before surgery.

A patient who takes a diuretic and a beta-blocker to control blood pressure is scheduled for breast reconstruction surgery. Which patient information is most important to communicate to the health care provider before surgery? a. Hematocrit 36% b. Blood pressure 144/82 c. Serum potassium 3.2 mEq/L d. Pulse rate 54-58 beats/minute

ANS: C (3.5-5.0mEq/L Normal) The low potassium level may increase the risk for intraoperative complications such as dysrhythmias. Slightly elevated blood pressure is common before surgery because of anxiety. The lower heart rate would be expected in a patient taking a -blocker. The hematocrit is in the low normal range but does not require any intervention before surgery.

When caring for a preoperative patient on the day of surgery, which actions included in the plan of care can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) *(select all that apply)*? a. Teach incentive spirometer use. b. Explain routine preoperative care. c. Obtain and document baseline vital signs. d. Remove nail polish and apply pulse oximeter. e. Transport the patient by stretcher to the operating room.

ANS: C, D, E Obtaining vital signs, removing nail polish, pulse oximeter placement, and transport of the patient are routine skills that are appropriate to delegate. Teaching patients about the preoperative routine and incentive spirometer use require critical thinking and should be done by the registered nurse.

Which actions will the nurse include in the surgical time-out procedure before surgery (select all that apply)? a. Check for patency of IV lines. b. Have the surgeon identify the patient. c. Have the patient state name and date of birth. d. Verify the patient identification band number. e. Ask the patient to state the surgical procedure.

ANS: C, D, E These actions are included in surgical time-out procedure. IV line placement and identification of the patient by the surgeon are not included in the surgical time-out procedure.

A patient has received atropine before surgery and complains of dry mouth. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Check for skin tenting. b. Notify the health care provider. c. Ask the patient about any weakness or dizziness. d. Explain that dry mouth is an expected side effect.

ANS: D Anticholinergic medications decrease oral secretions, so the patient is taught that a dry mouth is an expected side effect. The dry mouth is not a symptom of dehydration in this case. Therefore there is no immediate need to check for skin tenting. The health care provider does not need to be notified about an expected side effect. Weakness, forgetfulness, and dizziness are side effects associated with other preoperative medications such as opioids and benzodiazepines.

Which assessment information is most important for the nurse to obtain when evaluating whether treatment of a patient with anaphylactic shock has been effective? a. Heart rate b. Orientation c. Blood pressure d. Oxygen saturation

ANS: D Because the airway edema that is associated with anaphylaxis can affect airway and breathing, the O2 saturation is the most critical assessment. Improvements in the other assessments will also be expected with effective treatment of anaphylactic shock.

Which topic should the nurse include in patient teaching for a patient with a venous stasis ulcer on the left lower leg? a. Need to increase carbohydrate intake b. Methods of keeping the wound area dry c. Purpose of prophylactic antibiotic therapy d. Application of elastic compression stockings

ANS: D Compression of the leg is essential to healing of venous stasis ulcers. High dietary intake of protein, rather than carbohydrates, is needed. Prophylactic antibiotics are not routinely used for venous ulcers. Moist dressings are used to hasten wound healing.

Postoperatively, the nurse should monitor the patient who received inhalation anesthesia for which complication? a. Tachypnea b. Myoclonus c. Hypertension d. Laryngospasm

ANS: D Possible complications of inhalation anesthetics include coughing, laryngospasm, and increased secretions. Hypertension and tachypnea are not associated with general anesthetics. Myoclonus may occur with nonbarbiturate hypnotics but not with the inhalation agents.

A patient in surgery receives a neuromuscular blocking agent as an adjunct to general anesthesia. While in the postanesthesia care unit (PACU), what assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report? a. Lethargy b. Complaint of nausea c. Disorientation to time d. Weak chest movement

ANS: D The most serious adverse effect of the neuromuscular blocking agents is weakness of the respiratory muscles, which can lead to postoperative hypoxemia. Nausea, lethargy, and disorientation are possible adverse effects of anesthetic drugs, but they are not as great of concern as respiratory depression.

When caring for a patient who has received a general anesthetic, the circulating nurse notes red, raised wheals on the patient's arms. Which action should the nurse take? a. Apply lotion to the affected areas. b. Cover the arms with sterile drapes. c. Recheck the patient's arms during surgery. d. Notify the anesthesia care practitioner (ACP).

ANS: D The presence of wheals indicates a possible allergic or anaphylactic reaction, which may have been caused by latex or by medications administered as part of general anesthesia. Because general anesthesia may mask anaphylaxis, the nurse should report this to the ACP. The other actions are not appropriate at this time.

The health care provider has prescribed bed rest with the feet elevated for a patient admitted to the hospital with venous thromboembolism. Which action by the nurse to elevate the patient's feet is best? a. The patient is placed in the Trendelenburg position. b. Two pillows are positioned under the affected leg. c. The bed is elevated at the knee and pillows are placed under the feet. d. One pillow is placed under the thighs and two pillows are placed under the lower legs.

ANS: D The purpose of elevating the feet is to enhance venous flow from the feet to the right atrium, which is best accomplished by placing two pillows under the feet and one under the thighs. Placing the patient in the Trendelenburg position will lower the head below heart level, which is not indicated for this patient. Placing pillows under the calf or elevating the bed at the knee may cause blood stasis at the calf level.

The nurse assesses a patient on the second postoperative day after abdominal surgery to repair a perforated duodenal ulcer. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the surgeon? a. Tympanic temperature 99.2° F (37.3° C) b. Fine crackles audible at both lung bases c. Redness and swelling along the suture line d. 200 mL sanguineous fluid in the wound drain

ANS: D Wound drainage should decrease and change in color from sanguineous to serosanguineous by the second postoperative day. The color and amount of drainage for this patient are abnormal and should be reported. Redness and swelling along the suture line and a slightly elevated temperature are normal signs of postoperative inflammation. Atelectasis is common after surgery. The nurse should have the patient cough and deep breathe, but there is no urgent need to notify the surgeon.