NASM CPT
How many CEUs does the mandatory CPR/AED certification provide for renewal of the NASM-CPT credential? Select one: a. 0.1 b. 0.2 c. 1 d. 0.5
a. 0.1
What BMI score is considered within normal limits? Select one: a. 18.5 to 24.9 b. 25 to 29.9 c. 35 to 39.9 d. 30 to 34.9
a. 18.5 to 24.9
What are essential amino acids? Select one: a. Amino acids that must be consumed because they cannot be created by the body b. The only type of amino acid found in protein sources c. Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body d. Amino acids responsible for protein synthesis
a. Amino acids that must be consumed because they cannot be created by the body
Which of the following represents a criterion for terminating an exercise test or exercise bout that involves exertion? Select one: a. Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms b. An elevation of systolic blood pressure to 220 mm Hg c. Labored or heavy breathing associated with exertion d. Failure of diastolic blood pressure to rise by more than 15 mm Hg
a. Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms
What causes coronary heart disease? Select one: a. Atherosclerosis b. Tuberculosis c. Osteoporosis d. Cirrhosis
a. Atherosclerosis
When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called? Select one: a. Autogenic inhibition b. Stretch reflex c. Isometric contraction d. Reciprocal inhibition
a. Autogenic inhibition
From the list of items provided, which of the following are not considered benefits of cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness b. Increased cardiac output and oxygen transport c. Reduced blood pressure and cholesterol levels d. Improved respiratory efficiency and metabolism
a. Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness
What term is defined as the generic modifiable factors that impact behavior? Select one: a. Determinants b. Self-efficacy c. Behavior change techniques d. Attitudes
a. Determinants
Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominis? Select one: a. Drawing-in maneuver b. Medicine ball throw c. Bracing d. Back squat
a. Drawing-in maneuver
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain the center of mass over an ever-changing limit of stability? Select one: a. Dynamic balance b. Semi-dynamic balance c. High-level balance d. Static balance
a. Dynamic balance
Vitamin and mineral supplements are which kind of supplements? Select one: a. Health supplements b. Anabolic steroids c. Stimulants d. Performance supplements
a. Health supplements
What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training? Select one: a. Isometric b. Isokinetic c. Eccentric d. Concentric
a. Isometric
How is a general warm-up best defined? Select one: a. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following. b. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following. c. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the exercise immediately following. d. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following.
a. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.
Which postural distortion is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips? Select one: a. Pes planus distortion syndrome b. Upper crossed syndrome c. Knee valgus d. Lower crossed syndrome
a. Pes planus distortion syndrome
What types of foods contain carbohydrates? Select one: a. Plant foods and dairy b. Proteins c. Animal and plant foods d. All foods
a. Plant foods and dairy
A Certified Personal Trainer is speaking with a client who is not currently doing any consistent aerobic training. They ask how ready the client is to do aerobic training once a week for 30 minutes, using a scale of 1 to 10, with 1 representing "not at all ready" and 10 representing "completely ready." If the client is at a 9, what stage of change are they in? Select one: a. Preparation b. Action c. Maintenance d. Precontemplation
a. Preparation
How often should elastic resistance bands be checked? Select one: a. Prior to every use b. Once a week c. Only when there are signs of wear d. Once a day
a. Prior to every use
What are two signs of a muscle being overstretched? Select one: a. Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle b. Increased mobility and balance c. Increased muscle strength and speed d. Prolonged increases in flexibility and joint range of motion
a. Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle
What is the resting metabolic rate (RMR)? Select one: a. RMR is the number of calories that the body uses at rest to function. b. RMR is the number of calories burned through digestion. c. RMR is the number of calories burned after exercise. d. RMR is the number of calories burned through fidgeting.
a. RMR is the number of calories that the body uses at rest to function.
Which of the following best describes the term power? Select one: a. Rate of force production b. Joint protection c. Sport-specific skills d. Muscle growth
a. Rate of force production
Which of the following contributes the most to the total calories burned in a day? Select one: a. Resting metabolic rate b. Thermic effect of food c. Exercise d. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis
a. Resting metabolic rate
Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood and pumps it to the lungs? Select one: a. Right ventricle b. Right atrium c. Left ventricle d. Left atrium
a. Right ventricle
Which of the following exercises is not considered a compound exercise? Select one: a. Seated leg extension b. Overhead press c. Barbell squat d. Bench press
a. Seated leg extension
Increasing which of the following is the best way to improve a client's adherence to an exercise plan? Select one: a. Self-efficacy b. Strength c. Length-tension relationship d. Cool-down
a. Self-efficacy
What are the three types of muscles in the body? Select one: a. Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth b. Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar c. Somatic, autonomic, and peripheral d. Actin, myosin, and sarcomere
a. Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth
Which characteristic is exhibited by type I muscle fibers? Select one: a. Slow to fatigue b. Decreased oxygen delivery c. Fewer capillaries d. Short-term contractions
a. Slow to fatigue
What are two of the most common issues at the foot and ankle complex? Select one: a. Sprains and plantar fasciitis b. Strains and heel spurs c. Achilles tendonitis and athlete's foot d. Plantar fasciitis and shin splints
a. Sprains and plantar fasciitis
Which movement assessment utilizes weighted pullies to assess a pushing movement? Select one: a. Standing push assessment b. Standing pull assessment c. Davies test d. Standing overhead press
a. Standing push assessment
Which of the following blood pressure values would be classified as normal according to the American Heart Association? Select one: a. Systolic <120 and diastolic <80 b. Systolic >180 and/or diastolic >120 c. Systolic 130 to 139 or diastolic 80 to 89 d. Systolic 120 to 129 and diastolic <80
a. Systolic <120 and diastolic <80
Which statement best describes the neurophysiological effect that occurs from myofascial rolling? Select one: a. The direct roller compression may create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors. b. The direct roller compression leads to delayed onset of muscle soreness 72 to 96 hours after rolling. c. The direct roller compression increases eccentric contraction to enhance muscle hypertrophy after the session. d. The direct roller compression leads to endocrine release of growth hormones, which leads to enhanced physical performance.
a. The direct roller compression may create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors.
If pyruvate is being created via glycolysis faster than oxygen can be delivered to the muscle, what will happen to the pyruvate? Select one: a. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate. b. The pyruvate will be converted to acetyl CoA. c. The pyruvate will be oxidized via oxidative phosphorylation. d. The pyruvate will be stored in the muscle.
a. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.
What is the physiological process by which the body maintains a relatively constant internal body temperature, including events like sweating to cool the body and shivering to warm the body? Select one: a. Thermoregulation b. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) c. Peripheral vasodilation d. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
a. Thermoregulation
What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema? Select one: a. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles. b. Those with emphysema are frequently overweight and may exhibit atrophied neck muscles. c. Those with emphysema frequently display knee valgus and pes planus. d. Those with emphysema frequently display high oxygen content in the blood.
a. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.
What measurement is dependent upon the length of the lever arm and the angle between the force application and the lever arm? Select one: a. Torque b. Arthrokinematics c. Force d. Force velocity
a. Torque
Of the following individuals, who would be the most suitable for being programmed SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) exercises/movements? Select one: a. An overweight client with adequate strength b. A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength c. A client who has been training 2 months with some improvements in strength d. A client who has been exercising for 4 months with some strength
b. A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength
What are the end products of the electron transport chain? Select one: a. ADP and hydrogen ions b. ATP and water c. ATP and oxygen d. ADP and water
b. ATP and water
What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training? Select one: a. Fitness enthusiasts with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and speed b. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power c. Fitness enthusiasts with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and power d. Advanced clients with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and speed
b. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core? Select one: a. Plank b. Back extension c. Dead bug d. Medicine ball overhead throw
b. Back extension
Which of the following factors is not present when a client is making a transition to the Power Phase of the OPT model? Select one: a. Adequate joint stability b. Deconditioning c. Power exercise familiarity d. Adequate core stability
b. Deconditioning
What is the superior boundary of the core? Select one: a. Lumbar spine and gluteal muscles b. Diaphragm c. Pelvic floor and hip musculature d. Abdominal muscles
b. Diaphragm
What type of movements should be used before progressing to single-foot plyometric exercises? Select one: a. Sport skills b. Dual-foot drills c. Side-to-side hops d. Depth jumps
b. Dual-foot drills
What does the first law of thermodynamics state? Select one: a. Food increases metabolic rate. b. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed. c. All energy is converted to heat. d. Metabolic rate is constant.
b. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed.
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with upper crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Upper trapezius b. Lower trapezius c. Hip flexors d. Abdominals
b. Lower trapezius
Compared to nonheme iron, heme iron is absorbed how? Select one: a. Equally b. More efficiently c. Less efficiently d. Not at all
b. More efficiently
Which type of nerve receptor senses pain? Select one: a. Mechanoreceptor b. Nociceptor c. Action potential d. Neurotransmitter
b. Nociceptor
What type of communication includes posture, hand gestures, proximity to others, and facial expressions? Select one: a. Verbal communication b. Nonverbal communication c. Motivational interviewing d. Reflective listening
b. Nonverbal communication
What area of the body is most targeted during the single-leg squat to row exercise? Select one: a. Deep cervical flexors b. Posterior chain c. Intrinsic core musculature d. Anterior chain
b. Posterior chain
Why might range of motion (ROM) be limited for a client? Select one: a. Laxity of a joint b. Previous injury c. Prime-mover relaxation d. Stabilizer muscle relaxation
b. Previous injury
Which is a primary adaptation of the Power Training phase? Select one: a. Stability b. Rate of force production c. Muscle growth d. Muscular endurance
b. Rate of force production
If the client cannot reach their foot during a single-leg squat touchdown, which is the first modification that can be employed? Select one: a. Reach to their waist b. Reach to their knee c. Reach to their toes d. Reach to their shin
b. Reach to their knee
What is a joint disease in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue, causing an inflammatory response? Select one: a. Osteopenia b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Osteoporosis d. Osteoarthritis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
Which of the following is an optional component of an OPT workout and is based on client goals and fitness levels? Select one: a. Warm-up b. Skill development c. Resistance d. Cool-down
b. Skill development
What is stroke volume? Select one: a. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction b. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction c. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction d. The amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute
b. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
Which of the following best defines the base of support of the body? Select one: a. The location of where one foot touches the ground b. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface c. The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support d. The approximate midpoint of the body
b. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface
Which physiological systems comprise the human movement system (HMS)? Select one: a. The vision, vestibular, and somatosensory systems b. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems c. The sight, hearing, and taste systems d. These are not the physiological systems that comprise the HMS.
b. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems
Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower-body stretch? Select one: a. This stretch is too advanced for the average person. b. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee. c. The stretch is too complicated for the older client. d. The stretch provides excessive stress to the quadriceps muscles.
b. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee.
Iodine has a major role in which bodily process? Select one: a. Liver function b. Thyroid function c. Kidney function d. Heart function
b. Thyroid function
Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Triceps brachii c. Biceps brachii d. Quadriceps
b. Triceps brachii
Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure? Select one: a. Appropriateness b. Validity c. Relevance d. Reliability
b. Validity
Which of the following best demonstrates an example of exercise? Select one: a. Yardwork b. Weightlifting c. Walking a dog d. Shoveling snow
b. Weightlifting
What would be the back-squat volume for a client who has completed 10 sets of 3 repetitions at 225 pounds? Select one: a. 2,250 pounds b. 6,750 reps c. 6,750 pounds d. 675 pounds
c. 6,750 pounds
Overactive hip flexors may lead to which of the following postural compensations? Select one: a. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch b. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch c. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch d. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch
c. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch
Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat? Select one: a. Having more glycogen stored in their muscle b. Having more fat stored on their body c. Having more mitochondria in their muscle d. Having less oxygen delivery to the muscle
c. Having more mitochondria in their muscle
Which term best describes core training's effect on decreasing the incidence of new injuries? Select one: a. Rehabilitation b. Improved posture c. Injury resistance d. Performance Feedback
c. Injury resistance
For which movement impairment would you see the knees bow outward? Select one: a. Knee valgus b. Knee dominance c. Knee varus d. Excessive anterior pelvic tilt
c. Knee varus
Proper extensibility of which of these global core muscles is important prior to performing the medicine ball pullover throw? Select one: a. Quadriceps b. Diaphragm c. Latissimus dorsi d. Multifidus
c. Latissimus dorsi
Extrinsic motivation is characterized by which of the following? Select one: a. Being motivated by a fear of failure b. Being motivated by the process of changing behaviors c. Participating in an activity or behavior for some type of reward or recognition from others d. A drive to be good at something
c. Participating in an activity or behavior for some type of reward or recognition from others
Which statement about lowering blood pressure is true? Select one: a. Reducing excessive alcohol use will not have an impact on high blood pressure. b. There is no direct evidence that exercise will result in lower blood pressure. c. Planned exercise alone is typically insufficient for acutely lowering and controlling hypertension. d. Exercise can help control body weight, but it cannot improve blood flow.
c. Planned exercise alone is typically insufficient for acutely lowering and controlling hypertension.
What stage of change is a person in if they are not planning on exercising within the next 6 months? Select one: a. Contemplation b. Maintenance c. Precontemplation d. Action
c. Precontemplation
What is a key mechanism involved in internal feedback? Select one: a. Knowledge of performance b. Motivation c. Proprioception d. Knowledge of results
c. Proprioception
Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training? Select one: a. Agility b. Balance c. Quickness d. Coordination
c. Quickness
Which of the following would be considered a process goal? Select one: a. Run a 10k race b. Run one mile c. Run three times a week d. Squat 100 pounds
c. Run three times a week
Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound exercise? Select one: a. Hip hinge b. Pushing c. Squatting d. Pulling
c. Squatting
What are the three levels of the OPT model? Select one: a. Strength Endurance, Maximal Strength, and Power b. Stabilization, Muscular Development, and Power c. Stabilization, Strength, and Power d. Stabilization, Strength, and Maximal Strength
c. Stabilization, Strength, and Power
What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength? Select one: a. Stabilization Endurance b. Power c. Strength Endurance d. Maximal Strength
c. Strength Endurance
What is the ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2)? Select one: a. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise b. The point at which it is still possible to talk during exercise c. The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel d. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise
c. The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel
If the concentric phase of a plyometric exercise doesn't use all the stored elastic energy from the eccentric phase, what occurs? Select one: a. The unused energy is stored for the next jump. b. The attempt at jumping will fail. c. The unused energy is dissipated as heat. d. The unused energy builds up and causes muscular pain.
c. The unused energy is dissipated as heat.
Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults? Select one: a. 6 to 8 sets b. 3 or 4 sets c. 5 or 6 sets d. 1 or 2 sets
d. 1 or 2 sets
What is a sufficient amount of time for a cardiorespiratory cool-down? Select one: a. 4 minutes b. 1 to 2 minutes c. 3 to 4 minutes d. 5 to 10 minutes
d. 5 to 10 minutes
What would be considered a normal resting heart rate for a healthy sedentary person? Select one: a. 120 beats per minute b. 105 beats per minute c. 50 beats per minute d. 80 beats per minute
d. 80 beats per minute
Which statement best describes the term deconditioned? Select one: a. A state in which the individual is out of breath when climbing a flight of stairs b. A state in which a person is dealing with a chronic health condition c. A state in which a person is overweight or obese and at risk for diabetes d. A state in which a person may have a combination of muscle imbalances, poor flexibility, insufficient endurance, or limited joint stability
d. A state in which a person may have a combination of muscle imbalances, poor flexibility, insufficient endurance, or limited joint stability
How can health best be defined? Select one: a. Genetics, access to healthcare, access to preventive medicine, socioeconomic status, natural disasters, and the built environment b. A combination of education, income, and occupation c. A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium in relation to the surrounding environment and the regular tasks it is required to perform d. A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity
d. A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity
Which of the following is a ketone body? Select one: a. Lactic acid b. Pyruvate c. Glycogen d. Acetoacetic acid
d. Acetoacetic acid
Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat? Select one: a. Upper trapezius b. Hip flexors c. Gluteus maximus and medius d. Adductor complex
d. Adductor complex
What type of imagery occurs when a client imagines health-related outcomes? Select one: a. Energy imagery b. Positive self-talk c. Technique imagery d. Appearance imagery
d. Appearance imagery
How can fitness professionals earn CEUs? Select one: a. Reading exercise-science textbooks b. Reading scholarly research journals c. Accumulating hours training clients either independently or in a health club d. Attending fitness industry conferences
d. Attending fitness industry conferences
Which joint is the most mobile, able to move in all three directions? Select one: a. Hinge b. Pivot c. Saddle d. Ball-and-socket
d. Ball-and-socket
Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves? Select one: a. Cervical and thoracic b. Thoracic and lumbar c. Cervical and sacral d. Cervical and lumbar
d. Cervical and lumbar
Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core? Select one: a. Multifidus b. Transverse abdominis c. Pelvic floor muscles d. Erector spinae
d. Erector spinae
What is a safe flexibility modification that you can recommend to a client who has varicose veins? Select one: a. Pilates b. Deep soft-tissue massage c. General cardiovascular exercise d. Gentle static stretching
d. Gentle static stretching
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Hip flexor complex b. Rectus abdominis c. Gastrocnemius and soleus d. Gluteus maximus
d. Gluteus maximus
A client wants to improve their mile time. Which of the following is an outcome goal? Select one: a. I want to run in the morning before work. b. I want to run outside. c. I want to run 3 times per week. d. I want to run a 6-minute mile.
d. I want to run a 6-minute mile.
What change would lead to an increase in cardiac output during exercise? Select one: a. Decreased stroke volume b. Increased end-systolic volume c. Decreased heart rate d. Increased heart rate
d. Increased heart rate
The core is defined by the muscles in which region of the body? Select one: a. Scapular region b. Leg region c. Back region d. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex region
d. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex region
Which joint has the simplest movement, moving either back and forth or side to side? Select one: a. Condyloid b. Synovial c. Nonsynovial d. Nonaxial
d. Nonaxial
Self-esteem and body image are said to have which type of relationship? Select one: a. Independent b. Unequal c. Autonomous d. Reciprocal
d. Reciprocal
Which of the following hydration options would be most appropriate for exercise lasting over 90 minutes, or shorter-duration exercise in warm temperatures with heavy perspiration? Select one: a. Fruit juice b. Water mixed with fruit juice c. Plain water d. Sports drink or electrolyte tablets mixed with water
d. Sports drink or electrolyte tablets mixed with water
What type of fitness professional has advanced knowledge, training, and experience in designing and implementing strength and conditioning programs for competitive athletes? Select one: a. Physical therapist b. Group fitness instructor c. Certified Personal Trainer d. Strength and conditioning coach
d. Strength and conditioning coach
Training power for 2 days before moving on to 2 days of strength training would be an example of what kind of periodization? Select one: a. Linear periodization b. Direct periodization c. Localized periodization d. Undulating periodization
d. Undulating periodization
