NASM CPT Exam
What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core? Select one: a. Bracing b. Drawing in c. Isolating d. Inhibition
a
Which of the following terms can be defined as relating to one side of the body?
Unilateral
The core is defined by the muscles in which region of the body? Select one: a. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex region b. Scapular region c. Leg region d. Back region
a
Contraction of the erector spinae and hip flexor muscles creates what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane? Select one: a. Medial pelvic tilt b. Anterior pelvic tilt c. Posterior pelvic tilt d. Lateral pelvic tilt
b
Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane? Select one: a. Anterior pelvic tilt b. Posterior pelvic tilt c. Lateral pelvic tilt d. Medial pelvic tilt
b
What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints? Select one: a. Metacarpals, ulna, radius, humerus, clavicle b. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head c. Tibia, fibula, femur, ilium, coccyx d. Sight, smell, taste, touch, hearing
b
Which phase of the OPT model introduces lifting near or at maximal intensity? Select one: a. Phase 5 b. Phase 4 c. Phase 3 d. Phase 2
phase 4
Question text What is the correct order of the Stages of Change? Select one: a. Preparation, precontemplation, contemplation, action, maintenance b. Precontemplation, action, preparation, contemplation, maintenance c. Contemplation, precontemplation, preparation, action, maintenance d. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance
precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance
Asking a client to stand on a BOSU ball would provide a major challenge to what system? Select one: a. Digestive b. Vision c. Somatosensory d. Vestibular
c
What is a normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable? Select one: a. Arteriosclerosis b. Hypoglycemia c. Hyperglycemia d. Atherosclerosis
d
What is defined as the level of commitment to a behavior or plan of action? Select one: a. Overtraining b. Hypertrophy c. Goals d. Adherence
d
What is the definition of kinesiophobia? Select one: a. Fear of heights b. Fear of standing c. Fear of stairs d. Fear of movement
d
Which of the following should be considered when determining if a client is ready to undertake plyometric training?
Injury history
A client is asked, "Why do you want to lose weight?" This is an example of what kind of question? Select one: a. Open-ended b. Contemplation c. Directive d. Closed-ended
a
The TRX Rip Trainer would most likely be utilized for which type of movement? Select one: a. Rotation b. Abduction and Adduction c. Inversion and eversion d. Flexion and extension
a
Which of the following is the best example of a complete protein source? Select one: a. Dairy foods b. Legumes c. Beans d. Grains
a
Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through? Select one: a. Oxidative phosphorylation b. Glycolysis c. Oxidation d. Gluconeogenesis
d
Identify the correct number of continuing education units (CEUs) that an NASM Certified Personal Trainer needs to complete in a 2-year cycle to renew the certification.
2
For effective weight loss, how many calories should obese clients expend per exercise session?
200 to 300 kcal
What is the Valsalva maneuver?
A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability
During short, high-intensity exercise, what is the primary fuel source for the body?
Carbohydrates
Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge?
Cleaning
What stage of change is a person in if they are planning on exercising within the next 6 months?
Contemplation
How often is it recommended to reassess clientele?
Every month
In which of the following pairs are both foods considered to be allergens?
Dairy and shellfish
Into which category would a resting blood pressure score of 128/79 mm Hg fall?
Elevated
What structure in the heart transfers the electrical signal from the sinoatrial (SA) node to the atrioventricular (AV) node?
Internodal pathway
Which structures of the body does osteoporosis commonly affect?
Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae
Recently, what has become an effective way to deliver customized exercise solutions to clients based on their individual needs?
Offering online coaching programs
A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive?
Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals
Ambivalent people may be reluctant to start an exercise program. What should the fitness professional focus on when helping a potential client overcome this barrier?
Probe further to determine other barriers they are experiencing and possible motives to participate.
Which of the macronutrients has the highest thermic effect of food (TEF)?
Protein
What is the most effective way to learn more about a large health club company before an interview with a hiring manager? Select one: a. Following the most popular instructors from the club on social media b. Visiting the club to ask members what they think about their experience at the club c. Reviewing the company website and social media channels to learn about all the programs and services offered d. Reading the reviews of the company and its programs on ratings websites
Reviewing the company website and social media channels to learn about all the programs and services offered
Which barrier to exercise is most likely to be associated with body image issues?
Social physique anxiety
The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term?
Synergistic dominance
What is bioenergetics?
The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy
If the concentric phase of a plyometric exercise doesn't use all the stored elastic energy from the eccentric phase, what occurs?
The unused energy is dissipated as heat.
Which of the following is an example of a client's intrinsic motivation for exercise?
Which of the following is an example of a client's intrinsic motivation for exercise?
The cardiovascular and respiratory systems work together to remove what waste product? Select one: a. Water b. Carbon dioxide c. Oxygen d. Platelets
carbon dioxide
What type of diabetes occurs when specialized cells in the pancreas (called beta cells) stop producing insulin? Select one: a. Gestational b. Prediabetes c. Type 2 d. Type 1
d
Which type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance? Select one: a. Permanent scoliosis b. Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis c. Bony scoliosis d. Structural (non-functional) scoliosis
functional (nonstructural) scoliosis
Which is involved in frontside mechanics? Select one: a. Rear leg b. Ankle plantar flexion c. Knee extension d. Lead leg
lead leg
What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session? Select one: a. Frequency b. Intensity c. Volume d. Recovery
volume
How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described?
A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted
Which chronic disease is the leading cause of death in the world today?
Coronary artery disease
Calcium is often associated with bone health, but why is it also important for muscular function?
It stimulates actin and myosin activity.
Which term refers to a person's education, income, and occupation?
Socioeconomic status
Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (i.e., reaction time) and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus (such as hitting a baseball)?
Quickness
Which balance task would require significant use of the vestibular system?
Squatting on one limb with eyes closed
A client is taking prescription beta-blockers for hypertension. Which exercise is the safest for him to perform?
Standing cobra
What is stroke volume?
The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
Which type of muscle fiber is predominantly used during movements that require high levels of force and power, such as a sprint?
Type II
Which plane of movement can be described as an imaginary line that bisects the body into right and left sides? Select one: a. Sagittal b. Frontal c. Transverse d. Extension
a
Which postural distortion is characterized by a forward head and rounded shoulders? Select one: a. Upper crossed syndrome b. Pes planus distortion syndrome c. Knee valgus d. Lower crossed syndrome
a
What mechanism is responsible for increasing the rate of heart conduction? Select one: a. Activation of sarcomeres b. Activation of the intercalated discs c. Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system d. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system
activation of the sympathetic nervous system
What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay? Select one: a. Concentric b. Eccentric c. Isometric d. Amortization
amortization
What is pertinent information for the fitness professional to consider before prescribing flexibility exercises? Select one: a. Cardiovascular testing and overhead squat assessment results b. Client lifestyle and PAR-Q results c. PAR-Q and overhead squat assessment results d. Any medical precautions or contraindications
any medical precautions or contraindication
A client looking to add muscle and bulk over the next few months asks for advice on how to consume extra calories. Which of the following would be the most appropriate advice, while remaining within scope of practice? Select one: a. Recommend she eat high-calorie "cheat meals" more often. b. Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals. c. Suggest she increase consumption of high-calorie foods such as ice cream, pizza, and cake. d. Recommend she increase only her protein intake at every meal.
b
Which of the following muscle groups work eccentrically in the sagittal plane during the lowering phase of the squat? Select one: a. Biceps brachii b. Gluteus medius c. Adductor longus d. Quadriceps
quadriceps
According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics? Select one: a. Neuromuscular stabilization b. Speed c. Strength d. Power
a
Scoliosis refers to deviations of the spine in which plane of motion? Select one: a. Frontal plane b. Sagittal plane c. Horizontal plane d. Transverse plane
a
Unrealistic goals can become a barrier when which of the following happens? Select one: a. When goals are not adjusted b. When only one goal is set c. When process goals are too specific d. When outcome goals are objective
a
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise? Select one: a. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press b. Shoulder horizontal adduction and internal rotation c. Hip extension, knee extension, and plantar flexion d. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
a
What is the primary goal of repeating flexibility training during a cool-down? Select one: a. Restore optimal length-tension relationships b. Correct muscle imbalances c. Increase maximal strength d. Improve sports skills
a
Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus and medius b. Lower trapezius c. Adductor complex d. Tensor fascia latae
a
Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress? Select one: a. Davis's law b. Overload principle c. Archimedes' principle d. Wolff's law
a
Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space? Select one: a. Visual system b. Vestibular system c. Somatosensory system d. Hearing system
a
Which source of social support has been shown to be particularly important for older adults? Select one: a. Family b. Exercise leader c. The community d. Exercise group
a
Which test provides the most personalized assessment of an individual's true metabolic function? Select one: a. Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test b. Rockport walk test c. YMCA 3-minute step test d. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test
a
What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)?
A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual's physical readiness to engage in structured exercise
What ideally should follow a day of high-intensity training in stage 3? Select one: a. A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day. b. Another stage 3 day to optimize training adaptations c. Two days of no exercise to reduce the risk of overtraining d. At least two days of training in stage 1 to recover
A stage 1 day(recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day
A new client has indicated that they are exercising due to advice from their physician, but they are generally amotivated. What would be the best choice for the personal trainer in their initial meeting?
Inquire further about what their motives are for participating.
Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most demands on explosive power?
Medicine ball chest pass
During an interview with the hiring manager at a large health club, Sarah, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, is asked how she can contribute as a personal trainer even though she has no formal experience working in the field. What would be the most appropriate response? Select one: a. Sarah discusses her previous work experience in a busy day care, where she had to multitask multiple times a day to perform her job duties. She thinks the multitasking helped prepare her for the demands of a busy fitness floor. b. Sarah mentions her experience as a cashier at a snack bar. She thinks this demonstrates her ability to run a cash register and complete daily cash reports. c. Sarah discusses her experience as a high school athlete. Because she was a good athlete, she thinks she will be a good personal trainer. d. Sarah mentions her experience training for figure competitions. She thinks that experience means that she can help clients train for their competitions.
Sarah discusses her previous work experience in a busy day care, where she had to multitask multiple times a day to perform her job duties. She thinks the multitasking helped prepare her for the demands of a busy fitness floor.
What is the definition of energy balance? Select one: a. When protein intake is higher than protein breakdown b. When daily food intake is matched to energy needs c. When daily food intake is consistent d. When carbohydrates are consumed before a workout
b
What is the primary function of the large intestine? Select one: a. Digestion of food and passage of waste into the small intestine b. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum c. Digestion of food and passage of waste into the rectum d. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the small intestine
b
What is the term for the higher-than-normal energy expenditure during the recovery period after exercise? Select one: a. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis b. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption c. Exercise activity thermogenesis d. Thermic effect of food
b
What phase of the OPT model does the adaptation "muscular strength and hypertrophy" fall into? Select one: a. Power b. Muscular Development c. Strength Endurance d. Stabilization
b
What plyometric term relates to a rapid eccentric motion followed by an explosive concentric motion? Select one: a. Explosive-shortening phase b. Stretch-shortening cycle c. Stretching phase d. Muscular-power phase
b
What statement best describes a nonprofit health club? Select one: a. A health club that offers complimentary memberships and free childcare services for low-income families b. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives c. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment d. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities like towels and complimentary personal hygiene products, cafes, pools, sports courts, and childcare services
b
When a client indicates that she finds it difficult to complete a workout on her own, she is likely in need of which type of support? Select one: a. Informational support b. Companionship support c. Instrumental support d. Emotional support
b
When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor? Select one: a. It may place too much stress on the lumbar spine through hyperflexion. b. It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension. c. It may place excessive stress on the thoracic spine through hyperflexion. d. It may place too much stress on the cervical spine through hyperflexion.
b
Which disease is associated with normal aging and is attributable to a lower production of estrogen and progesterone, both of which are involved with regulating the rate at which bone is lost? Select one: a. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis b. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis c. Type 1 diabetes d. Type 2 diabetes
b
Which division of the skeleton is made up of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle? Select one: a. Peripheral b. Appendicular c. Lateral d. Axial
b
Which of the following global muscles' primary action is hip flexion? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Iliopsoas c. Latissimus dorsi d. Rectus abdominis
b
Which of the following is a necessity for all fitness professionals to remain successful in the industry? Select one: a. Annual certification by NASM b. Keeping up with the latest science and changes in the industry c. Having at least 15 active clients at all times
b
Which of the following is characterized as a global muscle of the core on the posterior aspect of the body? Select one: a. Diaphragm b. Erector spinae c. Multifidus d. Quadratus lumborum
b
Which postural distortion is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips? Select one: a. Upper crossed syndrome b. Pes planus distortion syndrome c. Lower crossed syndrome d. Knee valgus
b
Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations? Select one: a. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM b. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM c. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM d. 3 sets, 10 repetitions, 77% 1RM
b
Which of the following is unique to type 2 diabetes? Select one: a. The body has low levels of insulin. b. The pancreas does not make insulin. c. Insulin resistance d. It can develop regardless of a healthy diet.
c
Speed is the product of what two variables? Select one: a. Acceleration and deceleration b. Quickness and agility c. Power and time d. Stride rate and stride length
d
The ability of an individual to maintain proper spinal and hip posture while the extremities are moving most accurately describes which term? Select one: a. Core power b. Core stability c. Core strength d. Core endurance
b
Which term describes the movement of bones, such as flexion and extension? Select one: a. Arthropathy b. Osteokinematics c. Arthrokinematics d. Osteoporosis
b
How could the personal trainer make the "single-leg throw and catch" balance exercise more difficult for the client? Select one: a. Decreasing the distance between the client and the personal trainer b. Throwing the ball at the same height each time c. Decreasing the velocity of each throw d. Increasing the velocity of each throw
d
How is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) best defined? Select one: a. Energy expenditure through structured exercise alone, such as strength training and cardiorespiratory exercise b. The rate at which the body expends energy (calories) when fasted and at complete rest, such as asleep or lying quietly c. Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs d. The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest
c
In an integrated training program, what would the last portion of the training session involve as the main exercise or movement component? Select one: a. Balance training b. Cardiorespiratory training c. Resistance training d. Core training
c
Iodine has a major role in which bodily process? Select one: a. Heart function b. Liver function c. Thyroid function d. Kidney function
c
What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques? Select one: a. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis b. Cancer and bleeding disorders c. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis d. Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension
c
What condition is characterized by the narrowing of coronary arteries? Select one: a. Arrhythmia b. Heart valve problem c. Ischemic heart disease d. Hypertension
c
What depth is suggested for the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Butt to heels b. Knees to 45 degrees c. Femur parallel to ground d. Full-depth squat
c
What is a common cause of chronic hypertension? Select one: a. A low-fat diet b. Vigorous exercise c. Excess weight d. 1,500 mg of sodium per day
c
What is it called when an individual performs the same task repeatedly over time, which can lead to movement dysfunction? Select one: a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Autogenic inhibition c. Pattern overload d. Stretch reflex
c
What term refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent and repeatable results? Select one: a. Relevance b. Appropriateness c. Reliability d. Validity
c
What three joint actions comprise triple flexion? Select one: a. Spinal flexion, knee flexion, and elbow flexion b. Dorsiflexion, plantar flexion, and shoulder flexion c. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion d. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension
c
When developing a safe and effective warm-up for Phase 1, what is an important consideration for flexibility? Select one: a. Sports drills b. Active stretches c. Self-myofascial techniques d. Dynamic stretches
c
Which of the following is an open-ended question? Select one: a. Have you experienced barriers to reaching your goals? b. What do you currently weigh? c. What has prevented you from reaching your goals in the past? d. Did you exercise this week?
c
Which of the following is the initial assessment that should be completed prior to starting any exercise or training program? Select one: a. Anthropometric assessment b. Postural assessment c. Health risk assessment d. Cardiorespiratory assessment
c
Which of the following is true about the biologically active forms of vitamins? Select one: a. Biologically active forms lead to deficiency. b. Biologically active forms are less efficient. c. Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels. d. Biologically active forms lead to toxicity.
c
Which of the following options is not a benefit to all people who use balance training in their programming? Select one: a. Improved proprioception or body awareness b. Reduced risk of ankle sprains c. Decreased agility-based outcomes in athletes d. Reduced risk of falls
c
How should the amortization phase of the stretch-shortening cycle be described? Select one: a. The transition between the concentric and isometric phases b. The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading c. The transition between the isometric and eccentric phases d. The transition from concentric loading to eccentric unloading
d
If someone specifically wanted to burn a lot of fat (not necessarily total calories), what type of exercise should they do? Select one: a. Walking for 5 minutes b. High-intensity exercise for 10 to 15 minutes c. High-intensity exercise for less than 10 minutes d. Low- to moderate-intensity exercise for 30 to 60 minutes
d
If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity? Select one: a. Oxidative phosphorylation b. The ATP-PC system c. The electron transport chain d. Glycolysis
d
Long-term exercise adherence is associated with which type of motivation? Select one: a. Incentive motivation b. Amotivation c. Extrinsic motivation d. Intrinsic motivation
d
Maria is interviewing for her first job as a fitness professional at a boutique fitness studio. Which previous experience would she want to make sure to discuss during the interview to demonstrate qualities of a Certified Personal Trainer? Select one: a. Maria worked as a camp counselor at a youth sports camp while in college. b. Maria was a co-captain on a state champion volleyball team in high school. c. Maria placed second in her first bikini competition. d. Maria was repeatedly recognized as a top salesperson at the clothing store where she has been working.
d
What is the most important thing for a client to focus on when they are new to plyometric training? Select one: a. Amortization speed b. Explosive power c. Jump height d. Proper technique
d
Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness? Select one: a. Flexibility b. Aerobic fitness c. Muscular strength d. Power
d
Which pressing exercise would be appropriate for someone who has high levels of upper-body strength but has no equipment because they are traveling? Select one: a. Chin-ups b. Leg press c. Sit-ups d. Handstand push-up
d
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support? Select one: a. Semi-dynamic balance b. Dynamic balance c. Static balance d. Moderate-level balance
a
What are the two divisions of the skeletal system? Select one: a. Axial and appendicular b. Osteoclasts and osteoblasts c. Upper and lower d. Anterior and posterior
a
What is a physical benefit of resistance training? Select one: a. Increased muscular hypertrophy b. Decreased muscular hypertrophy c. Increased resting heart rate d. Decreased bone remodeling
a
What is defined as the specific outline created by a fitness professional that details the form of training, length of time, and specific exercises to be performed? Select one: a. Training plan b. Periodization c. Acute variables d. Macrocycle
a
What is defined as the state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream? Select one: a. Hypoglycemia b. Hyperglycemia c. Hypertension d. Hypotension
a
What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients? Select one: a. 1 or 2 sessions per week b. 3 or 4 sessions per week c. 5 to 7 sessions per week d. 0 sessions per week
a
What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system's role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists? Select one: a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Muscle imbalance c. Stretch-shortening cycle d. Length-tension relationship
a
What is the ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)? Select one: a. The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise b. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise c. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise d. The point at which a person can no longer talk during exercise
a
Which of the following is true about body image? Select one: a. Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately. b. Body image is measured accurately based on an individual evaluating a picture of themselves. c. Body image is more positive in individuals who regularly exercise in a group setting. d. Body image is a very stable variable and, once established, rarely changes for an individual.
a
Why is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) important? Select one: a. NEAT can be protective against obesity. b. NEAT can increase muscle mass. c. NEAT can increase cardiorespiratory fitness. d. NEAT can decrease the resting metabolic rate.
a
You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete? Select one: a. 4 to 8 drills per workout b. 1 or 2 drills per workout c. 2 or 3 drills per workout d. 9 or 10 drills per workout
a
Circuit training is best described as what? Select one: a. A system of handing straps that allows the user to use their own body weight to load exercise movements b. A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements c. Exercises that are performed back-to-back with no rest between each movement d. Taking two modalities and combining them into one exercise movement, such as placing the hands on a balance tool while performing a suspended crunch
b
How can basal metabolic rate (BMR) best be defined? Select one: a. An anabolic hormone produced by the liver, which is responsible for growth and development b. The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest c. The amount of energy required to maintain the body when active d. A method to help determine an individual's heart rate
b
How is osteopenia best described? Select one: a. A disease characterized by low bone density. b. The loss of bone density related to the aging process. c. An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults. d. A bone weakness disease caused by vitamin D deficiency.
b
What is end-systolic volume? Select one: a. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction b. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction c. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute d. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
b
What term describes the process of building a relationship based on communication and trust? Select one: a. Developing a unique selling proposition (USP) b. Building rapport c. Forecasting d. Working the floor
b
What term is defined as the generic modifiable factors that impact behavior? Select one: a. Attitudes b. Determinants c. Behavior change techniques d. Self-efficacy
b
What two activities are part of a client's warm-up? Select one: a. Core b. Flexibility and cardio c. Resistance d. Plyometrics
b
When attempting to increase muscular size and strength in the lower body, which of the following exercise is least likely to be beneficial? Select one: a. Sandbag squat b. BOSU squat c. Machine leg press d. Barbell squats
b
Which of the following is a characteristic of linear periodization? Select one: a. Helps prevent workouts from becoming boring b. Increases intensity while decreasing volume c. Involves training multiple styles each week d. Changes acute variables on a weekly basis
b
Which option is a common strength-focused resistance training exercise? Select one: a. Box jumps b. Barbell bench press c. Single-leg cable row d. Medicine ball soccer throw
b
When it comes to barriers to exercise, which statement is correct? Select one: a. All individuals have "lack of time" as a barrier. b. Barriers to exercise are often cited by people who are sedentary or infrequently active. c. It is impossible to ever fully overcome all barriers. d. Barriers never change; therefore, individuals need to focus on motives.
barriers to exercise are often cited by people who are sedentary on infrequently active
A client is asked to record what exercises they perform, how much they eat, and how much they sleep. Which of these strategies is the client using? Select one: a. Imagery b. Contemplation c. Self-monitoring d. Goal setting
c
How are dietary supplements defined? Select one: a. Dietary materials essential for achieving fitness goals b. Regulated substances that are too dangerous to discuss with clients c. Regulated dietary materials used to increase intake of a desired nutritional component d. Dietary products useful only for bodybuilders
c
How is heart rate collected during the YMCA 3-minute step test to evaluate the cardiorespiratory fitness level of an individual? Select one: a. It is measured over a 10-second count during the last 30 seconds of the test. b. It is measured over a 20-second count immediately following the test. c. It is measured over a 60-second count immediately following the test. d. It is measured over a 30-second count during the last minute of the test.
c
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with pes planus distortion syndrome? Select one: a. Hip flexors b. Adductor complex (inner thighs) c. Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius d. Upper trapezius
c
Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the upper extremities during a pushing movement? Select one: a. Pushing assessment b. Overhead press assessment c. Bench press strength assessment d. Pulling assessment
c
Which of the following nutrition topics are within the scope of practice for a Certified Personal Trainer? Select one: a. Specific nutrition recommendations for an individual's caloric, macronutrient, or micronutrient intake b. Medical nutrition therapy as related to an individual's medical diagnoses c. General guidance on the importance of nutrition for health and performance d. Meal planning with caloric or nutrient-specific guidelines for weight loss/gain or sports performance
c
Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat? Select one: a. Having less oxygen delivery to the muscle b. Having more glycogen stored in their muscle c. Having more mitochondria in their muscle d. Having more fat stored on their body
c
Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure? Select one: a. Relevance b. Reliability c. Validity d. Appropriateness
c
Which type of training can be used to improve activation of core muscles compared to traditional core training? Select one: a. Planking on a stable surface b. Marching on a stable surface c. Instability training using a stability ball d. Prone dead bugs on floor
c
Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower-body stretch? Select one: a. The stretch is too complicated for the older client. b. This stretch is too advanced for the average person. c. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee. d. The stretch provides excessive stress to the quadriceps muscles.
c
A person walks differently when they move from a sidewalk onto the sand. This is regulated by what function? Select one: a. Wolff's law b. Muscle function c. Neuroplasticity d. Motor function
d
Which common cause of death is the most preventable? Select one: a. Cancer b. Dementia c. Stroke d. Obesity
d
According to current research, what is the optimal range of daily protein intake to maximize muscle protein synthesis? Select one: a. 0.8 to 1.0 g/kg of body weight b. 2.4 to 3.5 g/kg of body weight c. 3.5 to 5.0 g/kg of body weight d. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight
d
Proper extensibility of which of these global core muscles is important prior to performing the medicine ball pullover throw? Select one: a. Multifidus b. Quadriceps c. Diaphragm d. Latissimus dorsi
d
What are three postural distortion patterns to look for in static postural assessments? Select one: a. Pes planus distortion syndrome, knees cave inward, and arms fall forward b. Low-back arches, shoulders elevate, and head juts forward c. Knee dominance, upper crossed syndrome, and lower crossed syndrome d. Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome
d
What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly? Select one: a. Barbell clean b. Depth jump c. Single-leg squat d. Step-ups
d
What is the function of the neuromuscular junction? Select one: a. The sliding filament theory b. Exposing actin-binding sites c. The site of muscular contractions d. The site where the nervous system and muscle fibers communicate
d
What is the most important reason not to allow the knee to cave inward during a lunge jump exercise? Select one: a. It makes the next jump too easy to execute. b. It creates too powerful a jump. c. It reduces force too much. d. It causes stress to the connective tissues
d
What statement best describes a low-cost health club? Select one: a. A health club that provides amenities like locker rooms, snack and supplement sales, and group fitness workouts included in the price of membership b. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives c. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities like towels and complimentary personal hygiene products, cafes, pools, sports courts, and childcare services d. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment
d
What training tip would enhance the benefits of resistance training by helping increase growth hormone, testosterone, and epinephrine? Select one: a. Speeding up the contraction time for the eccentric and concentric phases b. Slowing down the contraction time for the concentric phase and speeding up the time for the eccentric phase c. Speeding up the contraction time for the eccentric phase and slowing down the time for the concentric phase d. Slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases
d
When compared to machines, free weights provide which of the following benefits to users? Select one: a. Increased user safety b. Decreased challenges to balance and stability c. Decreased opportunities to perform full-body movements d. Increased multiplanar movement
d
Which of the following force couples is accurately linked to the movement created by their combined action? Select one: a. Upper trapezius and serratus anterior functioning to create downward rotation of the scapula b. Deltoid and rotator cuff functioning to create shoulder adduction c. The gastrocnemius and soleus functioning to create ankle dorsiflexion d. Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation
d
Which of the following is a question that may provoke resistance? Select one: a. If you decided to make a change, what might you do? b. What might you want to change? c. What might work for you? d. What makes you think you are not at risk?
d
Which of the following is an open-ended question? Select one: a. Are you taking any medications? b. Do you have any injuries? c. Are you currently exercising? d. What can you tell me about your past exercise experiences?
d
Which of the following modalities has the potential to be used effectively in every phase of the OPT model? Select one: a. Terra-Core b. Suspended bodyweight training c. TRX Rip Trainer d. Cable machines
d
Which of the following processes describes the passage of digested food into the blood system to be processed for energy, nutrients, and tissue building? Select one: a. Mastication b. Motility c. Peristalsis d. Absorption
d
Which type of exercise accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel, despite the movement speed remaining constant? Select one: a. Eccentric b. Concentric c. Isometric d. Isokinetic
d
What concern should you have when prescribing flexibility exercises to a client with osteoporosis? Select one: a. Osteoporosis is not considered a precaution for static stretching. b. Osteoporosis is considered more than a precaution for myofascial rolling. c. Osteoporosis is not a contraindication for any flexibility exercises. d. Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling.
osteoporosis is considered a contradiction to myofascial rolling.
Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion? Select one: a. Single-leg lift and chop b. Single-leg balance c. Multiplanar hop with stabilization d. Single-leg squat
single-leg squat
How is lower crossed syndrome characterized? Select one: a. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine b. Flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips c. Posterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine d. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive kyphosis of the lumbar spine
a
Maintaining one's balance while running on an uneven surface can best be described as what type of balance? Select one: a. Dynamic balance b. Static balance c. Stationary balance d. Semi-dynamic balance
a
Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface. Select one: a. Somatosensation b. Vision c. Vestibular d. Sensorimotor function
a
Training to enhance the size of muscle, or an increase in muscle mass, is an example of which improvement of the body? Select one: a. Muscle hypertrophy b. Muscle endurance c. Muscle strength d. Muscle power
a
Using the healthcare continuum, how would training with a fitness professional be classified? Select one: a. Preventive care b. Physical therapy c. Alternative medicine d. Behavioral health
a
What activity is especially beneficial for combating the loss of muscle mass, power, and strength for aging adults? Select one: a. Resistance training b. Aerobics c. Walking d. Cardio
a
What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion? Select one: a. Self-myofascial techniques b. Active stretching c. Dynamic stretching d. Static stretching
a
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment? Select one: a. Lower trapezius b. Serratus anterior c. Upper trapezius d. Cervical extensors
a
Which of the following statements is the most accurate when discussing strength-training machines? Select one: a. Not all strength-training machines are designed to fit all body types and thus can limit the effectiveness of the intended exercise. b. Machines always work well for those who are obese or are smaller or taller than average. c. Machines work in multiple planes and allow for greater gains in strength development. d. Machines are superior to free weights for improving core stability because they increase core stability demands.
a
Mac, an NASM-CPT, has been working as a personal trainer at a health club for almost 3 years. He has consistently received positive job evaluations, making him eligible for a promotion. What opportunity would be the most appropriate to pursue, given his experience? Select one: a. General manager b. Fitness manager c. Area fitness manager d. Group fitness manager
b
The anterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? Select one: a. Hamstrings and erector spinae b. Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators c. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum d. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
b
What is a joint disease in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue, causing an inflammatory response? Select one: a. Osteoporosis b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Osteopenia d. Osteoarthritis
b
What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest? Select one: a. 7.0 mL/kg/min b. 3.5 mL/kg/min c. 5.0 mL/kg/min d. 2.5 mL/kg/min
b
During balance training, gluteal muscles should remain in which state to hold the body stable? Select one: a. Relaxed b. Concentrically contracted c. Isometrically contracted d. Eccentrically contracted
c
How far down should a client squat during the barbell squat exercise? Select one: a. Knees at 80 degrees of flexion b. Knees at 90 degrees of flexion c. As far as can be controlled without compensating d. Thighs parallel to the ground
c
What is the bone type of the clavicle, radius, and ulna? Select one: a. Short b. Flat c. Long d. Irregular
c
What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as? Select one: a. Amortization phase b. Unloading phase c. Stretch-shortening cycle d. Loading phase
c
What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle? Select one: a. Acidosis b. Ketosis c. Beta-oxidation d. Glycolysis
c
What is the superior boundary of the core? Select one: a. Abdominal muscles b. Pelvic floor and hip musculature c. Diaphragm d. Lumbar spine and gluteal muscles
c
Which is very important as a prenatal vitamin? Select one: a. Vitamin C b. Pantothenic acid c. Folate d. Niacin
c
Which of the following contributes the most to the total calories burned in a day? Select one: a. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis b. Exercise c. Resting metabolic rate d. Thermic effect of food
c
Which of the following is a potential benefit of omega-3 fatty acids? Select one: a. Improved thyroid function b. Proinflammatory properties c. Anti-inflammatory properties d. Increased energy
c
Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect? Select one: a. Measuring intensity by performance (objective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity. b. It can produce results in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work. c. Measuring intensity by one's "effort" (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity. d. Intervals are performed at higher intensities and use longer recovery periods.
c
Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound exercise? Select one: a. Hip hinge b. Pushing c. Squatting d. Pulling
c
Which substrate provides nearly all the energy for activity at and above VT2? Select one: a. Protein b. Ketone bodies c. Glucose d. Fat
c
Which type of muscle fiber has a large number of capillaries? Select one: a. Type III b. Type IIa c. Type I d. Type IIx
c
What does optimal reactive performance of any activity depend on? Select one: a. Speed of force reduction b. Fat content c. Muscle size d. Speed of force generation
d
Which joint is the most mobile, able to move in all three directions? Select one: a. Hinge b. Saddle c. Pivot d. Ball-and-socket
d
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility? Select one: a. Vertical jump b. 40-yard dash c. Pro shuttle d. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
d
Why does a shorter amortization phase lead to more effective plyometric movement? Select one: a. It requires less eccentric deceleration. b. It decreases vertical jump height. c. It requires the use of less elastic energy. d. It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently.
d
You have a client seeking weight loss. What is the most appropriate amount of rest recommended between each repetition of an SAQ exercise? Select one: a. 60 to 90 seconds b. 0 to 15 seconds c. 90 to 120 seconds d. 15 to 60 seconds
d
Your client has shown great improvements in their mobility and flexibility. Following the OPT model, what phase would you recommend next? Select one: a. Phase 5 b. Phase 3 c. Phase 4 d. Phase 2
d
