NCC

Termination in time-limited groups should include a discussion of which of the following? a. The group as an entity and group cohesion b. Individual relationships that formed between members c. Individual's and the group's interactions with the leader d. How the members benefitted from the group e. All of the above f. All but b

E The group process should be discussed from all angles, including what clients learned, how they will apply it in the future, what relationships were enriching and which were challenging and appraisal of the leader. This appraisal can help members shift their view of authority to serve them better in the future.

A counselor has been working with a young teen who has had some gang involvement. The teen trusts the counselor and makes the co129. A counselor has been working with a young teen who has had some gang involvement. The teen trusts the counselor and makes the counselor "promise not to snitch" that the gang is pressuring him to target and shoot a rival gang member as a part of his initiation. What position does this disclosure place the counselor in? a. The counselor must just listen to the client and not impose his values. b. The counselor must keep this information in confidence. c. The counselor must notify the client's parents or guardians. d. The counselor must inform the client that he cannot keep that secret.

d The counselor cannot maintain client confidentiality. In cases where there is knowledge or information pertaining to danger or harm on behalf of the client or another person or party, the counselor must break confidentiality. According to "Duty to Warn", the counselor cannot keep a client's secret especially if there are threats of violence involved. It is the counselor's ethical duty to notify and involve the proper authorities in warning the targeted person or persons.

A stress management group would best be classified as a _________type of group. a. preventative b. remedial c. support d. developmenta

A A stress management group serves as a preventative group. Its purpose is to assist its member in preparing for and preventing stressful issues or events. It is not a remedial group because it is not seeking to fix something. Stress management is not a developmental issue.

A ______ test is always ________ and ________ a test's length increases reliability. a. Valid, reliable, increasing b. Valid, reliable, decreasing c. Reliable, valid, increasing d. Reliable, valid, decreasing

A A valid test is always reliable. A valid test is one that measures what it claims to be measuring. A reliable test produces consistent results over time. A test can be reliable and measure something consistently but might not be valid if it measures something other than what it claims to measure. Increasing a test's length increases its reliability. Conversely, if you shorten a test, you reduce its reliability.

Adler believed that the family was the primary socialization tool of children. He discussed many mistaken beliefs that develop as a result of childhood experiences before the age of five. Examples include over generalizing events in childhood to all situations and thinking everything is the same or alike, developing a false sense of security which causes people pleasing behavior, and the misperceptions of life and life's demands. He called these: a. Fictions b. Distortions c. Errors d. Blunders

A Adler called these "fictions." The counselor helps the client explore these faulty messages and take responsibility for change to enhance their lives.

Andrea is four years old and has a very close attachment to her dad. You might say she is a "Daddy's Girl". What stage of psychosocial development is she in? a. Phallic stage b. Oral stage c. Latency stage d. Genital stage

A Andrea is the phallic stage of psychosocial development. According to Freud's psychoanalytic approach, in the phallic stage (ages of 3 to 5 years old) a boy may develop an attraction to his mother known as the Oedipal complex and a girl may develop an attraction to her father known as the Electra complex.

A Type I error: a. Is when the researcher rejects the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is true b. Is when the researcher accepts the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is false c. Is a beta error d. None of the above

A Answer b describes a Type II error. A Type II error is also called a beta error; while a Type I error is called an alpha error.

Seventeen year old Patrick was the victim of a homicide. It is most likely that Patrick was: a. an African American adolescent boy b. a Latin(o) American adolescent boy c. an African American adolescent girl d. a Latin(a) American adolescent girl

A By the time they reach adolescence, African American males' leading cause of death is homicide. This remains the leading cause of death among African American males into middle adulthood, where homicide drops to the 3rd leading cause and is replaced by heart disease as number one.

The degree to which a test measures what it claims to be measuring is known as: a. construct validity b. criterion validity c. reliability d. predictive validity

A Construct validity is the extent to which a test measures what it claims to measure. Criterion validity is based on specific variables and how one set of variables predicts an outcome on another set. Predictive validity refers to the degree to which any measure can predict future or independent past events. Reliability refers to how consistent a test is at measuring an attribute.

Freud's view of human nature is that we are dynamic. This means we are: a. Ever-changing b. Static c. Rebellious d. Spiritual

A Dynamic means there is an exchange of energy and transformation occurs.

You hear the mother of your five-year-old client answer the girl's question about sex as follows: "Oh, now, Nellie, why would someone your age want to know about something like sex? No please get out of my way and go on and play." According to Erikson's stages of psychosocial development, this type of response will directly increase the child's: a. Guilt b. Mistrust c. Stagnation d. Despair

A Erikson's stage of "initiative vs. guilt" demonstrates the need for children's curiosity and creativity to be encouraged and not invalidated and squelched. Discouraging questions and activities with criticism, invalidation and indifference (dismissal) leads to increased guilt, less initiative, fewer social interactions and lower self-confidence. Mistrust is Erikson's first stage (up to age 1), stagnation refers to middle age and despair refers to the last stage of psychosocial development.

One of the key themes in Milgram's research is that obedience __________ when the distance between the teacher and the learner ________. a. decreases, decreases b. decreases, increases c. increases, decreases d. increases, increases

A In his 'touch proximity' condition, Milgram had his teacher participants hold the learner's hand on the shock plate. He found that the obedience was much less in this condition, demonstrating that decreasing the distance between the teacher and the learner decreased obedience.

You are retained by The Sunset Seed Company to assist their employees in career transition, as the company has recently been purchased by a competitor and the company headquarters is moving to Belgium. The first person you meet with is Derrick, who has worked for the company for 20 years and has moved through the company with progressive responsibility. He has never worked anywhere else. If you are practicing from Krumboltz's model of social learning theory, you see your role as to: a. help Derrick to respond to his layoff in a positive manner. b. assist Derrick in completing the unemployment forms. c. help Derrick to determine what he needs to earn in order to maintain his lifestyle. d. help Derrick look for a new job

A Krumboltz identified the role of the career counselor as to assist the client in responding to events, both those in and those beyond their control, with a positive outlook and positive outcome, and to use the opportunity as a learning experience to promote growth and foster development in the client.

A counselor is setting up group therapy screening appointments. She gathers the information that she will give the members to help them understand the process of being part of a therapy group. The best predictor of client success in a therapy group is: a. Commitment b. Dispelled myths about group c. What role one takes on d. Their level of participation

A Members that commit to change tend to attain positive outcome and therapeutic benefit from group therapy.

According to ___________ Theory of Vocational Choice, people go through changes as they grow and mature. Career patterns are influenced by socio-economic factors, mental and physical abilities, personal characteristics and the opportunities that people are exposed to. a. Super's b. Holland's c. Parson's d. Krumboltz

A One of Super's greatest contributions to career counseling has been his emphasis on the role that self-concept plays across the life span of person's career development.

Bandrua's "destiny idea" refers to which of the following? a. People with differing self-efficacy ideas perceive the world in a fundamentally different way b. Whether or not people are deterministic, regardless of self-efficacy c. People with differing self-efficacy ideas perceive the world in the same way, which is not deterministic d. A person's estimate of a given behavior will lead to a particular outcome

A People with high levels of self-efficacy generally believe they are in control of their own lives and their actions. People with low self-efficacy largely see their destiny as out of their hands.

Studying behavior under controlled conditions to test a hypothesis, looking at cause and effect and making predictions is called: a. Quantitative research b. Qualitative research c. Subjective research d. Parsimonious research

A Quantitative research involves being very objective, creating controls and comparing the experimental group with the control group in order to conclude something.

The "R" in SBIRT stands for: a. Referral b. Resources c. Ritalin d. Reference

A SBIRT is a brief intervention for assessment of substance use disorders. It stands for Screening, Brief Intervention, Referral and Treatment.

Which of the following is not one of Super's Five Vocational Developmental Tasks? a. Conformity b. Crystallization c. Specification d. Stabilization

A The Five vocational development task are:• Crystallization (ages 14-18). Adolescents formulate general vocational goals through awareness and drawing from a variety of influential resources.• Specification (ages 18-21). Young adults seek stability by moving from tentative vocational preferences to more specific vocational or career goals.• Implementation (21-24). Young adults will complete training for vocational preferences in order to develop a specific skill set to gain entry into career or employment.• Stabilization (ages 24-35). Adults will confirm and commit to a career or vocation choice utilizing their talents to perform that job and gain work experience over a period of time.• Consolidation (ages 35+). A period where an adult has established a career by gaining experience, status, advancement, and seniority.

Angel is a 16 year old homosexual male who is struggling with his sexual identity. Angel makes the following statement during the counseling session, "I hate being this way and I rather be by myself then hang with the other queers. This wouldn't be so hard if I had blonde hair and blue eyes." What stage of the Minority Identity Development Model is this client in? a. Stage 1, Conformity b. Stage 2, Dissonance c. Stage 3, Resistance and Immersion d. Stage 4, Introspection

A The client is in Stage 1, Conformity. In the state of conformity, the client is in the beginning phase where he is becoming aware of his homosexuality and is struggling with self-acceptance of his sexual identity. In the first stage of the Minority Identity Development Model, the client experiences self-depreciation and struggles with negative self-image and feelings shame. His attitude toward other homosexual peers is also depreciating. The client compares himself to members of the dominant culture and views them as being superior to his own culture.

What is the purpose of a developmental assessment when observing children? a. To measure a child's developmental progress from infancy to adolescence. b. To diagnosis developmental disorders in children. c. To identify the genetic predisposition in children. d. To track a child's developmental progress in the area of language development.

A The purpose of a developmental assessment is to identify normal patterns of development as well as identify early signs that may be indicators of developmental problems.

Which career theorist talked about life roles? a. Ginzberg b. Holland c. Parsons d. SuperD

D Super talked about the life roles of: child, student, homemaker, leisurite, citizen and worker.

Which of the following is not one of Bion's assumptions in group dynamics? a. Dependency b. Fight-flight c. Optimism d. Pairing

C Optimism was not one of Bion's assumptions, although he did believe it was important in the successful functioning of a group. Dependency, fight-flight and pairing were all specific components of his group work.

Jenny is a veteran returning from Afghanistan. Prior to joining the army Jenny had no work experience. Jenny completed the Strong Interest Inventory and according to the Holland Code scored Social, Enterprising and Realistic (SER). Which may not be a good career option for her? a. Police Officer b. Accountant c. Air Traffic Controller d. Athletic Director

B Accountant would possibly be a poor choice for Jenny because it is a more "conventional" type occupation for people who like to work with data and have clerical or numerical abilities and are very detail-oriented. Jenny's personal attributes seem directed her towards careers that include being social, working with people, influencing or leadership skills coupled with some physical skill or ability such as being a police officer or athletic director.

The reliability co-efficient of 0.60 means: a. That 40% of the scores are accurate b. That 60% of the scores are accurate c. That 4% of the scores are inaccurate d. That 60% of the questions will be answered correctly

B A 0.60 reliability co-efficient means that 60% of the scores are accurate.

A client is ready for discharge from a psychiatric facility. What will the client's counselor be asked to prepare to give to the other members of the mental health staff involved in the client's treatment? a. Treatment plan b. Psychological report c. Personality inventory d. Emotional Battery Test

B A psychological report is a summary of a client's assessment results that is written for the benefit of other professionals that may be involved in the client's care including any sources of referral for additional or the continuation of care. A psychological report will contain information regarding the demographic and background information of a client, any behavioral observations, test results and interpretations, recommendations and a summary.

Miguel is 64 years old, in good health and works full-time. Miguel has worked on his job for over 40 years. Miguel is eligible for retirement but he is afraid that if he stops working he will, "go downhill fast" and end up dying before his time like his father. Which theory would you promote? a. Integrity vs Despair b. Activity Theory c. Self-Actualization d. Social Learning Theory

B Activity Theory is the best theory to promote because it highlights the positive correlation between Miguel, an older adult, and his ability to remain active and age gracefully. The idea of continuing to work past the age of 65 conflicts with the American tradition of the social withdrawal known as retirement. Activity theory also states that individuals who led active lives as young adults are more likely to have active lives as older adults and that people who were less active as young adults may withdraw and become more disengaged as they age.

Adler believed that the___ _____________________ was the mainstay of personality development. a. Preconscious b. Unconscious c. Conscious d. Super-conscious

B Adlerian theory emphasizes personal responsibility for how people choose to interpret and respond to life events. Adler's theories branched from Freud and psychodynamic theories that focus on the unconscious. While Adler viewed the unconscious as less mystifying than Freud and Jung, he noted that we are all overcoming an inferiority complex. For instance, sometimes we feel unattractive, or that we do not belong somewhere, or we feel not strong or smart enough. So, as a human condition (which is largely unconscious until awareness is raised), everyone is trying to overcome something that is hampering them from becoming what they want to become

Which method of conveying pre-group information was not listed in Couch's article "Four Steps to Conducting a Pregroup Screening Interview" and the Associates for Specialists in Group Work's ethical guidelines? a. Individual in person interviews b. The use of filmed or videotaped information c. Group interviews d. The provision of written information

B Although not listed, some well-esteemed group therapists have used video. All others are listed as appropriate ways to convey group information, according to the ASGW.

The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory - 2, (MMPI-2) is considered an example of a _________________ test. a. subjective b. objective c. projective d. predictive

B An objective test or assessment usually invokes an answer that is factual. For example, answers are either right or wrong, or a client can choose to answer yes or no, or agree or disagree to certain statements. The client or test-taker's answers are clear-cut and therefore require little or no judgment on the part of the counselor to score the test or assessment. The counselor is to be aware of the patterns of answers that can lead to a conclusion regarding a diagnosis.

Your client says her employer is considering her for a promotion, and that the employer wanted to see if she could handle the job, so she was asked to take a chemistry test. Your client tells you that, while there is a lot of chemistry involved in the prospective job, it also requires skill in physics and management. Which of the following can be said of the employer's chemistry test? a. It has high content validity. b. It has low content validity. c. It measured projective qualities. d. It was an interest inventory.

B Content validity is concerned with a tests ability to include or represent all of the content of a particular construct. Since it appeared that this test did not assess all the skills needed on the job, it is said to have low content validity.

Which of the following is true about adolescents? a. Their parietal lobe of their brain doesn't develop until age 25. b. Death rates by injury between ages 15 and 19 are six times higher than between ages 10 and 14 c. Crime rates are highest among young females d. The adolescent brain is only 60% developed

B Death rates by injury rise in mid to late adolescence and then fall again. Answer a is incorrect, because the parietal lobe develops at about age 16. Answer c is incorrect, because crime rates are highest among young males. Answer d is incorrect, as the adolescent brain is about 80% developed.

Erik Erikson's 8 stages of psychosocial development was his theory of how: a. morality emerges b. the personality develops c. learning occurs d. the id conflicts with the ego

B Erik Erickson's objective in developing the 8 stages of psychosocial development was to identify the stages of healthy development that a human being passes through. Erikson believed that personality developed over a lifetime through and individual's ability to navigate, overcome and master conflicts that occur socially within a stage in order to proceed successfully to the next stage.

Betsy is waiting to find out if she got a job. She was told that she would hear something by Monday, but it is now Friday and she hasn't heard anything. She called the human resources director and was told that the hiring manager hadn't made the decision yet. Schlossberg would categorize Betsy's experience as a: a. Personal non-event b. Ripple non-event c. Resultant non-event d. Delayed non-event

B For Betsy, this is a ripple non-event, felt by her due to the nonevent of someone else. She didn't receive a call because the hiring manager hadn't made a decision yet. It may be a delayed non-event if the hiring manager continues to not make a decision.

Sara is a sixty-year-old client working on a goal of increasing her physical fitness to improve her overall health. When reviewing her treatment plan, it would be important to revise it if: a. Sara completed two of the five objectives. b. Sara has not completed any of the objectives. c. Sara was on vacation and didn't work on the goal during that time period. d. Sara is excited to get back to better health.

B If Sara has not completed any of the objectives, the counselor and Sara need to revise the treatment plan so Sara has achievable objectives. A is not correct because Sara still has 3 objectives to meet. C is not correct because her vacation is an extenuating circumstance.

Getting a follow-up appointment after discharge from mental health hospitalization is __________ for the long-term wellness of clients. a. unnecessary b. essential c. recommended, if covered by insurance, d. statistically significant

B If clients have a follow-up appointment within 7 days of discharge, studies show they are more likely to use ongoing services and stick with their prescriptions. C is incorrect because follow-up appointments are recommended, regardless of insurance. D is incorrect because statistically significant is a term used in statistical hypothesis testing.

Which of the following is NOT a type of group role? a. Blocking b. Task c. Maintenance d. None of the above; all are group roles

D Task roles help the group accomplish its task. Maintenance roles help keep the group running. Blocking roles call attention to ignored or suppressed individual needs in the group.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a cyclical test? a. WAIS-IV b. SAT c. WISC-III d. Stanford Binet

B In a cyclical test, there are several sections that are spiral and the items become progressively more difficult as you move through the tests. Nearly all intelligence testing sections are spiral tests and the intelligence test themselves are cyclical. The SAT is an aptitude test that contains sections of randomly organized questions. The questions on the SAT do not increase in difficulty as you progress through them.

According to Gladding and Corey, group member anxiety may increase during this stage. a. Initial b. Transition c. Working d. Completing

B It is in the transition stage that Gladding and Corey found an increase in anxiety as the group members settled into their roles and became more comfortable with the group. This would result in the group leader being challenged.

You are seeing a nine-year-old child who had been stashing food from home in his book bag each day because his friend always said she was hungry in the morning when arriving at school. This child's father has taken a strong stance and punished the boy, banning him for two weeks without screen time. The boy's father says that, "You have to teach them young; otherwise, they'll grow up to be burglars and muggers. Can't have that now, can we?" You notice he is in which level of moral reasoning? a. The first b. The second c. The third d. The sixth

B Kohlberg outlines three levels of moral reasoning. The first is pre-conventional (stages 1 and 2), housing levels one and two where people are more concerned with authority and consequences. The second is the conventional level and contains stages three and four. The father in this question is in the second level because he was concerned more about the effect the child's behavior would have on society (as "burglars and muggers") than on personal consequences. Those in the conventional level focus more on the effect that wrong-doing has on society than on personal consequences. Level 3 contains stages 5 and 6 and focuses on flexible thinking around morals. There is no sixth level of moral reasoning.

Marc attends a counseling group for grief and loss. The night he first attends, he is the only person in the group who has lost a child; everyone else is attending the group for end-of-life loss. Marc leaves the group session angry and frustrated and tells his wife that the group was pointless. Marc may be dealing with: a. Poor pregroup preparation b. Perceived goal incompatibility c. Subgrouping d. Groupthink

B Marc may have some perceived goal incompatibility between what he is looking for and the goals of the group. It is perceived, so it may not be accurate. There may be poor pregroup preparation as well, but this would be on the part of the counselor, not Marc. Marc wasn't present long enough for subgrouping to be an issue. Groupthink is a social construct.

Criticisms of Maslow's work include all of the following except: a. His method for determining his theory is flawed because it's subjective. b. His theory was too much like another theorist, and therefore cannot be deemed its own theory. c. His theory that these stages are hierarchical has been challenged due to studies that prove people in poverty can be very happy. d. His theory does not demonstrate any causal relationships.

B Maslow's work is considered its own theory. Answer a is true, as Maslow complied the biographies of the 21 people he felt were most actualized and determined their commonalities to define self-actualization. Answer c is true because many people in third-world countries have a sense of belonging and happiness, despite living in poverty and not having needs lower on the pyramid met. Answer d is true since it is true that he did not demonstrate any causal relationship and his research were not empirically based

Which of the following is NOT a type of play identified by Parten? a. Parallel b. Structured c. Cooperative d. Onlooker

B Parten described 6 types of play in her 1932 research. Depending on their age, mood and social setting, children will engage in one of the following types of play: unoccupied play, solitary play, onlooker play, parallel play, associative play and cooperative play.

One of your young adult male clients had a severe eating disorder as a teen. He has decided on a career as a personal trainer and professional athlete, where he must monitor his caloric, protein and carbohydrate intake. This is an example of: a. Compensation b. Sublimation c. Subliminal d. Projection

B Sublimation is when a person transforms an unacceptable urge into an acceptable one, in this case, in his career. "Subliminal" is a hidden message, often used in advertising. Projection is attributing one's own traits to another. Compensation is overdoing to make up for a deficit, for instance, if he had been overweight and teased, then lost weight to be likeable.

Karen worked as a Wall Street trader for 10 years after graduation and then quit working to raise a family. Now that her children are in school, she is interested in returning to the workforce. She has started taking classes to pursue a master's degree in art. As a career counselor practicing Super's theory, what technique might you use to help Karen understand her role variations? a. Johari window b. Career-life rainbow c. Self-directed search d. Strong interest inventory

B Super used the Career-Life Rainbow to assist clients in creating a visual map of the roles they play in their lives. The Self-Directed Search and Strong interest inventory are both foundationally from Holland's work.

The Counselor Preparation Comprehensive Examination, (CPCE) is an example of a: a. Academic Test b. Achievement Test c. Authentic Assessment d. Aptitude Test

B The Counselor Preparation Comprehensive Examination, (CPCE), is an example of an achievement test. An achievement test measures how much knowledge, skill or information a person has achieved through training, instruction or experience. The CPCE is designed to assess counseling students' knowledge of counseling information viewed as important by counselor preparation programs.

There are _______ combinations of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator. a. 5 b. 16 c. 24 d. 48

B The MBTI produces 16 different combinations. There are 4 scales, or continuums of the MBTI that offer up to 16 different types.

If a counselor is interested in starting a psycho-educational group for people who are grieving the loss of a pet in the community, the counselor would have to _______________ for members. a. assess and diagnose b. recruit and screen c. plan and organize d. find resources and referrals

B The counselor who is interested in starting a psycho-educational group for people who are grieving the loss of a pet in their community would have to recruit members as well as screen them for their appropriateness to participate in the group. The counselor would have to develop a marketing plan to attract members and be clear about the details, objectives and requirements for participating in the group.

A group member tells another that he did not appreciate a comment he made during the last group, and he did not think he should let it go. During a silent pause, John cracks a joke. John is playing the role of: a. Compromiser b. Harmonizer c. Energizer d. Playboy/playgirl

B The harmonizer of a group reconciles differences between others by relieving tension. The compromiser yields her own status by admitting wrong or moving in to a middle ground. The energizer prods the group to action or decision. The playboy/girl makes a display of his or her lack of involvement in the group through nonchalance, horseplay or otherwise.

Lucretia has decided to apply to the mall for a seasonal job. In addition to filling out the application, she is directed to a website to complete a 125-question survey about her behavior and attitudes. The questionnaire gives her choices and asks her to select the answer that best fits her. This survey is an example of: a. Subjective testing b. Objective testing c. Reality testing d. Intelligence testing

B This is an example of an objective test. There is a specified response set and the test can be scored in an objective way with limited interpretation. This is not a subjective test which is left up to interpretation because the answers are open-ended. The questions are about her behavior and attitudes, so it is not an intelligence or reality test.

An evolutionary principle that creates a predisposition toward distrusting anything or anyone unfamiliar or different is ___________________. a. Implicit egotism b. Adaptive conservatism c. Prejudice d. Discriminatio

B This is the definition of adaptive conservatism. None of the other answer choices are rooted in evolution

"Equal work for equal pay" is the catch phrase that corresponds to: a. Title IX of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 b. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 c. 19th Amendment of the US Constitution d. 21st amendment of the US Constitutio

B Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits employers from discriminating against employees on the basis of sex, race, color, national origin and religion. The 19th amendment provided women the right to vote but had no protections for work.

Which of the following is not one of the factors included in Bandura's Triadic Reciprocal Model of Causality? a. Personal attributes b. Verbal persuasion c. Overt behavior d. External environmental factor

B Verbal persuasion is an influential source of self-efficacy. It is not included in Bandura's Triadic Reciprocal Model of Causality.

When would it be most valuable to talk to a client about complying with the treatment plan? a. During the first session. b. When the client is starting a new prescription medication to treat depression. c. When the client misses an appointment. d. Counselors are not qualified to talk with clients about compliance.

B When clients start a new medication to treat a mental illness, many stop taking it before it's had enough time to work because they do not see immediate results. By educating the client about the treatment plan, they'd be more likely to comply with taking their medication. A is incorrect because the first session should focus on building rapport and getting to know a client. Also, the treatment plan may not even be established yet. C is incorrect because missing one appointment is sure to happen from time to time. If the client goes on to miss several appointments, talking with them about complying with the treatment plan would be appropriate. D is incorrect because it is imperative for counselors to educate clients about the value of complying with the treatment plan.

Binet founded the first. What was Binet attempting to do when he founded the first intelligence test in 1907? a. Gain esteem with colleagues b. Determine his daughters' intelligence and tutor them appropriately c. Discern between intelligent children and those needing alternative education methods d. Use as a measure of how group tests perform

C Binet was appointed by the French government to develop and lead a commission to identify children in need of enhanced education.

Which theorist believed that sublimation was the method by which we choose our careers? a. Bandura b. Ginzberg c. Brill d. Roe

C Brill believed that sublimation was the method by which we choose our careers. Roe believed in the power of the unconscious urges on career choice. Ginzberg was a developmental theorist who outlined three stages of career development. Bandura outlined the social cognitive theory.

This researcher's work is known as the Stanford Prison experiment. a. Asch b. Milgram c. Zimbardo d. Zajonc

C Phil Zimbardo's famous study of randomly assigning a group of students to be prisoners and another group to be guards didn't last as long as it was originally supposed to due to the undue distress by the students involved. Asch studied conformity; Milgram studied obedience to authority and Zajonc's research focused on cockroaches and the phenomenon of social facilitation.

In terms of Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning, which of his levels contain the "I'll scratch your back if you scratch mine" reasoning? a. Post-conventional b. Good interpersonal relationships c. Pre-Conventional d. Maintaining the social order

C "I'll scratch your back if you scratch mine" reflects level one (Pre-conventional) thinking, and belongs in stage two, "individualism and exchange" where those at this level view actions as right or wrong for each person involved. All of the other answers reflect more advanced moral reasoning. Answer b is conventional moral reasoning, and answer d is stage 4, in conventional moral reasoning.

According to Hersey and Blanchard, a leader with low task and high relationship behaviors is a ____________________leader. a. Selling b. Telling c. Participating d. Delegating

C A low task, high relationship leader is using a participating style. A low task, low relationship leader is using a delegating style. A high task, low relationship leader is using a telling style. A high task, high relationship leader is using a selling style.

Amanda recently graduated with a Master's Degree in Social Work. Amanda landed her first job in the field working as a counselor in a substance abuse program. Amanda finds it hard to work with the substance abuse population. Amanda is very unhappy and is currently looking for another job. According to Super's theory of vocational development what life stage is she in? a. Growth b. Exploration c. Establishment d. Maintenance

C Amanda is in the Trial sub-stage of the Establishment stage. Amanda has chosen a career but has found that this particular area of working with the substance abuse population is not for her. In this stage Amanda has identified that this type of work is not suitable for her. In the process of her attempting to establish and stabilize her career, Amanda may experience a few more changes in her career before she finds a job that is suitable according to her values and preferences.

Psychologist Carol Gilligan developed her theory of moral development specific to women because she felt Kohlberg's theory of moral development was less appropriate for females because: a. At the time women were considered second class citizens. b. The basis of men's morale principles has to do with masculine roles. c. Women base their morality on principles of caregiving and responsibility for self and others. d. Men base their moral principles on themselves and fail to include minorities.

C Carol Gilligan suggested that Kohlberg's theory of moral development was less appropriate for women because men based their morality on principles of justice and individual rights, and women based their morality on principles of care-giving and responsibility for self and others.

Jim enters session with his arm wrapped. When you inquire, he tells you that he punched his bedroom door after having a fight with his wife over finances again. He is describing the defense mechanism of: a. Reaction formation b. Denial c. Displacement d. Identification

C Displacement is the shifting of energy directed at an inappropriate target to a safer one, in this case, from his wife to the door.

Which of the following is NOT a type of generativity as described by Erikson? a. biological generativity b. parental generativity c. teaching generativity d. cultural generativity

C Erikson identified 4 types of generativity: biological, parental, technical and cultural. Biological generativity is the reproduction of the next generation or having children. Parental generativity is raising, or parenting, the next generation. Technical generativity relates to teaching or mentoring the next generation, and cultural generativity is the transmission of cultural values to the next generation.

The theory of Ginzberg, Ginsberg, Axelrad, and Herma recognizes four factors that influence vocational choice. What are the four factors? a. Crystallization, Specification, Implementation and Stabilization b. Realistic, Investigative, Artistic, and Social c. Reality, Educational Process, Emotional and Individual Values d. Id, Ego, Super Ego and Oedipus Complex

C Ginzberg, Ginsberg, Axelrad, and Herma Theory of 1951 suggest that a person's vocational choice is influenced by the reality factor, their educational process, their emotional factor and their personal values.

Harry scores a 72 on the WAIS-IV IQ test. His score is within ____ compared to the mean. a. Standard b. 1 standard deviation c. 2 standard deviations d. 3 standard deviations

C Harry's score is within 2 standard deviations. The mean of the WAIS-IV is 100 and one standard deviation is 15 points. For Harry to be within one standard deviation, his score would have to fall between 85 and 115. Two standard deviations is between 70 and 130, which is where Harry's score falls.

A forty-year-old male who you have been counseling for the last several months shares with you that he is not sure that what he is doing here on earth actually matters. You explore this further with him from an existential approach. Using existential therapy, you will consider how the client relates to his world in the following four dimensions: a. physiological, safety, love, esteem b. trust, initiative, intimacy, integrity c. physical, social, psychological, spiritual d. oral, anal, phallic, latent

C In existential therapy, the counselor helps the client examine how they relate to their environment (physical), others (social), themselves (psychological), and the unknown (spiritual). Throughout this process, the individual's freedom of thought and choice is emphasized. Answer A is incorrect because it lists 4 of the levels from Maslow's hierarchy of needs. Answer B is incorrect because it lists 4 of the psychosocial tasks from Erikson's stages of psychosocial development. Answer D is incorrect because it lists 4 stages from Freud's theory of development.

You read a story about a family with five kids, and then ask your 7-year-old client to tell you about the family - who is older than who, etc. He asks for some paper and a pencil so he can show you. He has not yet mastered: a. Assimilation b. Object permanence c. Inferential reasoning d. Conservation

C Inferential reasoning means having a mental representation of something without dependence on concrete manipulation. Assimilation is the concept of generalizing learned mental models; object permanence is the task of understanding something is still there even when it is hidden. Conservation is the developmental task of understanding that a thing itself is no different, even if its appearance is.

Jack is a major supporter of the local blood bank. He organizes the blood drive at work, encourages his co-workers to sign up and tells everyone about the importance of donating blood. On the day of the blood drive, Jack is nowhere to be found and has never given blood himself. Jack likely has: a. anemia b. a fear of giving blood c. cognitive dissonance d. social facilitation

C Jack is demonstrating a cognitive dissonance, or a conflict between his attitude, beliefs and behavior. Jack believes that giving blood is important, but his behavior does not match that belief.

Lent, Brown and Hackett's Social Cognitive Career Theory was influenced by _________________________ and his social cognitive theory. a. Alfred Adler b. Albert Ellis c. Albert Bandura d. Aaron Beck

C Lent, Brown and Hackett's Social Cognitive Theory was greatly influenced by the social cognitive theory work of Alfred Bandura. This theory suggests that cultural factors such as gender, genetics, social context and unexpected life events may influence, interact or supersede an individual's career choice.

______________ is believing that when something is delayed or made more difficult, the situation is unbearable. a. Self-criticism b. Catastrophizing c. Low-frustration tolerance d. Attention Deficit Disorder

C Low-frustration tolerance is a concept developed by psychologist Albert Ellis who is famous for developing Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT). Frustration occurs when a person has a goal that is being blocked or when there is a barrier that a person cannot overcome or when there is a gap between what you desire and what you actually get. Frustration is a common human trait. Low-frustration tolerance is the inability to emotionally accept the delay or blockage to getting what an individual wants. Low frustration tolerance is also the act of seeking immediate gratification or pleasure or the attempt to avoid something painful at the cost of long-term stress. Procrastination is a form of low frustration tolerance. It is putting off or avoiding the necessary when it is in one's best interest to face it. When people make statements like, "It's hard....I can't do it.....I can' take this," they are believing that the thing or event is difficult to tolerate and therefore must be intolerable.

Anne Roe's theory of personality career development and its progression is most similar to which counseling theorist's theory? a. Freud b. Gestalt c. Maslow d. Skinner

C Roe's theory posited that there were lower-order and higher-order career needs that a person needed to meet, similar to Maslow's hierarchy of needs. While both Freud and Roe had a focus on the unconscious, it is her use of leveled needs that connects her theory more to that of Maslow.

Separation Anxiety Disorder" is no longer a current diagnosis and has been replaced by: a. Separation Anxiety Disorder across the lifespan b. Separation Anxiety with adult onset c. Anxiety Disorder d. Borderline Personality Disorder

C Separation Disorder was defined as a disorder usually first diagnosed in infancy, childhood or adolescence. Today it is referred to as Anxiety Disorder. The criteria has been adjusted to include symptoms that represent separation anxiety in adulthood and no longer specifies that the age of onset must be before 18 years of age.

A client is asked by a counselor to remember a list of four words. The counselor then asks the client to count forward by 7's and repeat the list of four words that she previously mentioned. What is being measured or tested? a. Mathematic ability b. Executive functioning c. Sequential processing d. Emotional Intelligence

C Sequential processing is the mental ability to arrange stimuli in sequential or serial order in which to process information. Cognitive instruments may test or measure sequential processing ability.

The ASVAB measures _______. a. achievement b. ability c. aptitude d. adjustment

C The ASVAB stands for the Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery, thus measuring aptitude. ASVAB testing began in 1968 as a joint military effort to standardize military entrance testing.

Which of the following is NOT a classification of children in the New York Longitudinal Study? a. slow to Warm Up b. easy c. detached d. difficult

C The New York Longitudinal study by Thomas, Chess and Birch found that 40% of their study participants were classified as "easy" children; 10% were classified as "difficult" children, and 15% were classified as "slow to warm up" children. The remaining 35% of the participants had clusters of temperament traits and were not assigned to a category.

The generally acceptable level for most psychological attributes is a reliability coefficient of ____. a. .50 b. .60 c. .70 d. .80

C The generally acceptable level for most psychological attributes is a reliability coefficient of .70. A reliability coefficient of .50 is incorrect just as often as it is correct and .60 is not much better.

Bloch and Crouch identified all of the following except ____ as the areas that make up a therapy group. a. a therapeutic factor b. a condition for change c. vicarious learning d. a technique

C Vicarious learning is one of Yalom's 11 universal factors and is not associated with Bloch and Crouch.

Which of the following is a tool that is designed to assist an individual in understanding how their personal attributes can help identify career options and potential work environments that may be a good fit for them? a. Career theory b. Career development c. Career counseling d. Career assessment

D A career assessment is a tool that a career counselor may use to help an individual identify a college major or career opportunities. A career assessment is a survey that taps into a person's interests, values, strengths, and cultural influences in order to narrow down the occupational choices and help assist in the career decision making process.

Lisa is a professional counselor working in private practice. Lisa is currently credentialed to accept state insurance from clients. When Lisa submits her request to bill the insurance company she must submit a _________, along with a diagnosis, in order to be compensated for counseling services. a. Global Assessment of Functioning b. ICD codes c. Goals of Counseling d. Treatment Plan

D A professional counselor must submit documentation to the insurance company that outlines the plan of treatment for the client. A treatment plan is a written approach to counseling treatment that has been discussed, identified and agreed upon between the client and the counselor. The treatment plan should include the client's presenting problem, their goals for therapy, the therapeutic methods or interventions to be used and time estimate of the length of time or number of sessions that are predicted to be needed. Once a treatment plan is developed it is not written in stone and can be adapted according to the progress or lack of progress of the client, or if the goals of client happen to change.

According to Bowlby, "the attachment conceptualized as being a vital and close bond with just one attachment figure," is called: a. Monopoly b. Monogamy c. Monophagy d. Monotropy

D An example of monotropy is a maternal-infant bond, when a mother feels as if she can only bond with one child at a time. For instance, when a mother births twins and brings one home earlier than the other, and later feels less connected to the twin brought home second. The twin brought home second maybe more apt to fail to thrive.

Alexander is a freshman quarterback for the college football team, and you've been asked to meet with him because his performance has recently declined on the field. As you speak with Alexander, you learn that his new girlfriend recently started attending games, and his poor performances coincide with her attendance to the football games. The next football game is an away game and Alexander's girlfriend cannot go. His performance improves. You explain the concept of _______ to Alexander as a likely reason why his game suffers in his girlfriend's presence. a. social influence b. social facilitation c. social conformity d. social disruption

D Social disruption occurs when there is a worsening of performance in the presence of others. If Alexander's performance had improved in the presence of his girlfriend, it would be social facilitation.

A client, who has recently sought out therapy for marital stress due to his wife finding out that he had been having an extramarital affair, enters the office with his wife. He had not told you previously that he would include her in sessions. He asks to have her join the session. She starts the session by asking you what your client has told you about him still seeing the other woman. Which of the following accurately states the ethical guide in this matter? a. Answer her that he said he had not been seeing her for some time, because this is true. The client just gave you permission to answer, and it will help them continue to heal. b. Refuse to answer the question and ask the clients' wife to leave. c. Answer the question only after checking with your client whether he would like you to answer. He had been telling you he hadn't been seeing her. d. Refuse to answer the question, explain why, and process trust issues between them.

D Answers a and c are incorrect, as there is a strong possibility that the client feels pressured by his wife's presence and is not offering true informed consent for you to divulge such details. In the future, it is unlikely that the client would feel comfortable being honest with you should he have feelings or continued interaction with this other woman, given he believes that at any point you might tell his wife if she shows up for another session. Answer b is too abrupt and could undermine the therapeutic relationship and avert issues that need addressed. Answer d preserves your client's confidentiality, but also allows for processing of issues at hand that are affecting the marriage.

A couple is concerned about the behavior of their 5 year old who periodically throws tantrums and experiences angry outbursts when he is frustrated. This child does not quite meet the criteria to be diagnosed with bi-polar disorder but a counselor should withhold making the diagnosis because: a. The parents have not disclosed whether there is a history of bi-polar disorder in the family. b. An improper diagnosis could result in the child being labeled "special education" in the future. c. Much of the child's behavior could possibly be considered "normal" if it is found that the couple lacks parenting skills. d. All of the above.

D Children between the ages of 6 and 18 who experience persistent irritability, tantrums and behaviors more than three times a week for more than a year may be experiencing Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder. The child in this case is 5 years old and he or she may be considered too young for the diagnosis of DMDD. What has to be determined before the final diagnosis is made, is if the behavior of the child meets the criteria of the disorder or if the behavior is just reflective of normal development.

Which of the following is not a conditioning principle? a. Classical Conditioning b. Operant Conditioning c. Reinforcement Schedule d. Maturation

D Classical conditioning, operant condition and reinforcement schedule are theories that explain how learning and behavior develop. Ivan Pavlov was a Russian physiologist who was famous for his work in the area of understanding classical conditioning and was famous for the "Pavlov Dog" experiment.

Amy, a 48-year-old client that you have been assisting with career issues, shares the good news. She has been promoted to a Senior-level position! According to Super, she has accomplished which developmental task? a. Implementation b. Crystallization c. Stabilization d. Consolidation

D Consolidation involves advances in career. Implementation involves completing training and entering employment. Crystallization involves forming a general vocational goal. Stabilization involves confirming choice through work experience.

At which stages does leadership become shared by group participants? a. At the forming stage b. At the performing stage c. At the storming stage d. At the norming stage

D During the norming stage, as conflict dies, group members step up and share the function of leadership. The leader can assume more of a peripheral and less active role.

. Harlow is to _________ as Lorenz is to ________________. a. temperament; attachment b. attachment; temperament c. bonding; attachment d. attachment; bonding

D Harry Harlow worked with rhesus monkeys and focused his research on attachment studies. Harry removed infant monkeys from their mothers and placed them on either a cloth mother or wire mother substitute. He found that the infant monkeys stayed close to the cloth monkey for perceived comfort over the wire mother, which provided nourishment. His work was influenced by the earlier work of Konrad Lorenz, who studied imprinting in birds and found that birds will bond with the first moving thing they see upon birth.

Since Ben was three years old, he loved to follow his dad into the bathroom every morning and watch him get ready for the day. Little Ben would imitate his father and pretend to shave and brush his teeth and gargle just like him. Freudians would refer to this behavior as: a. Imitation b. Idolization c. Initialization d. Identification

D Identification is the act of internally adopting the values, attitudes or behaviors of another person. Freudians believe that during the Phallic Stage of Psychosexual Development (3-5years old) boys will develop an Oedipus Complex where the boys develops sexual desire for his mother and fears that his father would find out. Freud believes that how little boys work to resolve this conflict is that they learn to identify with their fathers by joining or imitating their masculine behavior as an attempt to identify with them.

Which of the following is a primary indicator that your client needs more than outpatient and/or group counseling? a. diagnosis of depression b. self-injurious behavior c. diagnosis of narcissistic personality disorder d. dual diagnosis

D If you were seeing a client for a mood disorder and then discovered they also had a substance abuse disorder, they could benefit from detox and treatment in a residential facility, followed by outpatient counseling. Answer a, b, and c are all appropriate for outpatient counseling. Self-injury is different from suicidal ideation/attempts and clients often benefit from CBT counseling to learn more appropriate coping skills.

Bowlby's work is closely associated with: a. Maslow b. Jung c. Erikson d. Lorenz

D Lorenz, who studied "imprinting", showed that attachment was innate and a survival mechanism. Lorenz's work showed that ducklings would attach to and follow the first object present after hatching. The two commonalities between Bowlby and Lorenz's work are "innate attachment" and the "critical period."

David is obsessed with doing all he can to interrupt the gay rights movement. Unconsciously, however, David has sexual attractions to his best friend and roommate. This is: a. Compensation b. Sublimation c. Rationalization d. Reaction formation

D Reaction formation is exhibited when the individual expresses the opposite feeling, emotion or impulse of that which causes the anxiety.

The National Counselor Examination (NCE) would be considered what type of test? a. Career Assessment b. Aptitude Test c. Personality Test d. Selected Response Test

D The National Counselor Examination (NCE) would be considered a "selected response test." Tests using multiple-choice, true and false or matching items are examples of selected response tests. The objective of a multiple-choice test is for the test-taker to be able to select the best choice answer among four or five other possible answers. The right answer is usually the best answer that is listed among several other possible answers which are set up to be "distractors." The purpose of this set up is to distinguish the person who has a good understanding of the subject matter from the person who does not. Most standardized test for state exams are achievement test. Achievement test are designed to test knowledge and skill and are made up primarily of multiple choice type questions.

Which of the following is NOT a group test? a. SAT b. MCAT c. Otis Lennon d. WISC-V

D The WISC-V is not a group test. It is an intelligence test that is administered individually. The Otis Lennon is an academic measure; the SAT and MCAT are both easily administered in group settings.

Several people are talking at once, and Jamie speaks up and says, "Why don't we each take a turn so we can listen to each other. I'm sure we all have good things to say." She is playing what group role? a. The elaborator b. The recorder c. The opinion seeker d. The gatekeeper

D The gatekeeper proposes the flow of communication or encourages communication from more passive members.

A parent explains to an 8-year old, "When you behave and do good, Mom and Dad are happy to rewards you. But when you behave badly, we punish you because parents are supposed to discipline their children." Which stage of Kohlberg's Moral Development are the parents attempting to represent? a. Transcendental morality b. Post-conventional morality c. Conventional morality d. Pre-conventional morality

D The parent's explanation to the 8-year old represents the pre-conventional level of Kohlberg's Six Stages of Moral Development. Stage one of the pre-conventional level morality is driven by obedience and punishment. Morality is judged by the direct consequences of the behavior. Children in this stage do not form ethical conceptualizations of right and wrong rather understand that certain behaviors bring about certain consequences. Children are able to associate that the consequence of bad behavior is punishment. They are also able to reference this concept in order to understand that the worse the behavior is, the more severe the punishment may be. This type of understanding may help children to choose obedience and avoid choices or behavior that they understand are linked to punishment or negative consequences.

Which is true about Freud's idea of the preconscious mind: a. It contains only hidden or forgotten memories. b. It contains only what is happening in the present. c. It's our mind's state before we're born. d. It contains both hidden memories and what is happening.

D The pre-conscious mind contains elements from both the unconscious and the conscious minds.

"Do you like to try new things?" This question most closely coincides to which continuum of the MBTI? a. Introvert/extravert b. Sensing/intuiting c. Thinking/feeling d. Judging/perceiving

D This most closely resembles the Judging/perceiving continuum as it is exploring structure. The thinking/feeling continuum explores the decision-making process. The introvert/extravert continuum relates to favorite world and social interactions. The sensing/intuiting continuum explores fact and information.

Taylor understands that while he is younger than his sister, he is older than his brother. This is because Taylor has a solid understanding of: a. classification b. decentering c. selective Attention d. transitive inference

D Transitive inference is a form of seriation and involves the ability to place things in logical order mentally. Taylor does not have to physically place the family members in birth order; he can arrange them in his mind.

Which of the following should be part of termination from a group? a. A review and reinforcement of changes and growth that occurred while in the group b. A ritual c. Appropriate referral d. All of the above e. Both a and c only

D Whether a group itself ends, the leader leaves, or members leave, all of these factors should occur for proper termination. A ritual helps bring closure.

The ultimate responsibility for ethical research practice lies with whom? a. The subjects/participants; they need to keep the research counselors apprised of any unethical happenings. b. The individual research counselors conducting the study. c. The principal investigator of the study. d. The agency affiliated with the research study.

c The ACA Code of Ethics states, "The ultimate responsibility for ethical research practice lies with the principal researcher. All others involved in the research activities share ethical obligations and responsibility for their own actions."