network exam 4, Network+ Chapter 10, Network+ Chapter 11, Networking +Chapter 12, Network+ 8th Edition Chapter 12

When using SNMP with TLS, what port do agents receive requests on?

10161

How many channels are in an ISDN PRI connection? 2B+D 2D+B 23D+B 23B+D

23B+D

Multiplexing enables a single T1 circuit to carry how many channels? a. 1 b. 64 c. 12 d. 24

24

How many transponders are contained within a typical satellite? a. 16 to 24 b. 8 to 16 c. 32 to 48 d. 24 to 32

24-32

In ACL statements, using the "any" keyword is equivalent to using a wildcard mask of what value? a. 0.0.0.0 b. 0.0.255.255 c. 255.255.0.0 d. 255.255.255.255

255.255.255.255

The C-Band utilized by satellites consists of what frequency range? a. 12 - 18 GHz b. 2.7 - 3.5 GHz c. 1.5 - 2.7 GHz d. 3.4 - 6.7 GHz

3.4-6.7

When using DOCSIS 3.0, what is the minimum number of channels that can be used? a. 16 b. 2 c. 4 d. 1

4

What is the maximum throughput of a DS3 connection? a. 44.736 Mbps b. 1.544 Mbps c. 3.152 Mbps d. 274.176 Mbps

44.736

In an ISDN connection, what amount of throughput did a single B channel provide? a. 96 Kbps b. 64 Kbps c. 32 Kbps d. 48 Kbps

64 Kbps

If you wish to maintain a "4 nines" availability rating, what is the maximum amount of down time you can have per day? a. 14 minutes, 23 seconds b. 8 seconds c. 1 minute, 26 seconds d. .4 seconds

8 seconds

What IEEE standard includes an encryption key generation and management scheme known as TKIP?

802.11i

A highly available server is available what percentage of the time? a. 99.999% b. 99.99% c. 90% d. 99%

99.999%

What statement regarding the use of a network attached storage device is accurate?

A NAS can be easily expanded without interrupting service.

​A centralized database of collected and analyzed data and control activities.

A centralized database of collected and analyzed data and control activities.

​62

A network with 6 bits remaining for the host portion will have how many usable hosts?​

​/24

A network with the subnet mask 255.255.255.0 would have what CIDR block?​

A trunk port

A single switch can manage traffic belonging to several VLANs on a single interface, by configuring the interface as what option below?​

What statement correctly describes a stateless firewall?

A stateless firewall manages each incoming packet as a stand-alone entity, without regard to currently active connections.

What feature of Windows Server allows for agentless authentication? AD (Active Directory) ACL (access control list) IDS (intrusion detection system) Network-based firewall

AD

Of all the DSL standards, which is the most commonly in use today? a. ADSL b. G.Lite c. SDSL d. VDSL

ADSL

f all the DSL standards, which is the most commonly in use today? a. SDSL b. ADSL c. VDSL d. G.Lite

ADSL

Which statement regarding the Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) technology is accurate?

ATM can provide 4 levels of QoS, from best effort delivery to guaranteed, real-time transmission.

Dedicated line, virtual circuit

An organization can lease a private, _________________ that is not shared with other users, or a _________________ that can be physically configured over shared lines in the carrier's cloud.

Which NGFW feature allows a network admin to restrict traffic generated by a specific game? Content filter User awareness Context awareness Application awareness

Application awareness

​hot site

At what type of recovery site would computers, devices, and connectivity necessary to rebuilt a network exist, and all are appropriately configured, updated, and connected to match your network's current state?​

What aspect of AAA is responsible for determining what a user can and cannot do with network resources?

Authorization

In order to prevent ports that are serving network hosts from being considered as best paths, what should be enabled to block BPDUs? a. root guard b. BPDU guard c. BPDU filter d. BPDU drop

BPDU guard

In North America, what ISDN connection type used two B channels and one D channel?

Basic Rate Interface (BRI)

Where does an MPLS label go in a PDU? Layer 1 Between Layers 2 and 3 Between Layers 1 and 2 Layer 3

Between Layers 2 and 3

The DTE or endpoint device for a leased line is known as which device below? a. CSU/DSU b. ISDN modem c. cable modem d. DSL modem

CSU/DSU

What kind of network is the PSTN?

Circuit-switched

When Comcast was found to be interfering with BitTorrent traffic, what method was being used? a. Comcast was creating access lists that blocked known BitTorrent trackers. b. Comcast used DNS poisoning to prevent clients from talking to other BitTorrent users. c. Comcast was interjecting TCP segments with the RST (reset) field set. d. Comcast used IP spoofing to impersonate other BitTorrent clients, then dropped traffic.

Comcast was interjecting TCP segments with the RST (reset) field set.

What specifications define the standards for cable broadband? ATM Digital signal ANSI DOCSIS

DOCSIS

QUESTION 14 What kind of network is the PSTN? Packet-switched Circuit-switched Virtual circuit Dedicated line

Dedicated line

What field in an IPv4 packet is altered to prioritize video streaming traffic over web surfing traffic? Traffic Class Priority Code Point Time to Live DiffServ

DiffServ

A RAID 5 configuration requires a minimum of two hard disks to operate.

False

The Spanning Tree Protocol operates at the Network layer of the OSI model. True False

False

WANs connect nodes, such as workstations, servers, printers, and other devices, in a small geographical area on a single network. True False

False

When utilizing Kerberos, an access granting ticket is the same as a key. True False

False

DSL services require many subscribers to share the same local line, causing potential security concerns. True False

Fasle

​Disable auto trunking and move native VLANs to unused VLANs.

How can VLAN hopping attacks be prevented on a network?​

When shopping for a new router, what does the MTBF tell you?

How long devices like this one will last on average until the next failure

24 bits

How many bits of a Class A IP address are used for host information?

24

How many channels exist in a T1 connection?​

The Link Aggregation Control Protocol was initially defined by what IEEE standard? a. IEEE 802.3bd b. IEEE 802.3af c. IEEE 802.3ad d. IEEE 802.1cd

IEEE 802.3ad

​Pull the power cable

If a destructive program is running that might be destroying evidence, what should be done?​

​32

In a PON system, an OLT contains a splitter that splits each port into how many logical channels?​

routing prefix

In an IPv6 address, the first 64 bits of the address are known as what?​

​64 Kbps

In an ISDN connection, what is the size throughput did a single B channel provide?​

​Carrier Ethernet Transport

In metro settings, end-to-end, carrier-grade Ethernet networks can be established via what protocol?​

​a router

In order to allow communication between VLANs for exchange of data, what must be used?​

​DMZ

In order to provide access to a historian by personnel working on the corporate network that are not authorized to work on the ICS network, where should the historian be placed?​

​ring topology

In what type of topology is each site connected to two other sites, ​providing redundancy?

What Storage Area Network (SAN) protocol runs on top of TCP, and can be used on an existing twisted-pair Ethernet network, while maintaining low cost? a. Internet SCSI (iSCSI) b. InfiniBand (IB) c. Fibre Channel (FC) d. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)

Internet SCSI (iSCSI)

What does the Common Address Redundancy Protocol do?

It allows a pool of computers or interfaces to share the same IP address.

At what point is a packet considered to be a giant? a. It becomes a giant when it exceeds the medium's maximum packet size. b. It becomes a giant when it exceeds 1500 bytes. c. It becomes a giant only when fragmented pieces are reassembled and the packet size is too large. d. It becomes a giant once a VLAN tag is added.

It becomes a giant when it exceeds the medium's maximum packet size.

How does a line conditioning UPS protect network equipment? a. It reduces fluctuations in incoming voltage. b. It shields equipment from lightning damage. c. It filters line noise from incoming power. d. It protects against electrical surges.

It filters line noise from incoming power.

A differential backup covers what data on a system? a. It includes data that has changed since the last full backup. b. It includes data that has changed since the last incremental backup. c. It includes only data that has changed since the last backup. d. It includes all data every time it is performed.

It includes data that has changed since the last full backup.

What is distributed switching? a. It is multiple switches that provide redundancy switching for all switches in the group. b. It is when multiple physical switches are configured to act as a single switch. c. It is a single physical switch that is partitioned in software to perform as multiple switches. d. It is a single distributed vSwitch that can service VMs across multiple hosts.

It is a single distributed vSwitch that can service VMs across multiple hosts.

What is a SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) system utilized for? a. It is a system used to evaluate data from security devices and generate alerts. b. It is an intellectual property protection software that prevents data links, and generates alerts. c. It is a system that monitors security device hardware availability. d. It is an advanced intrusion protection system with a GUI-frontend.

It is a system used to evaluate data from security devices and generate alerts.

When using Kerberos, what is the purpose of a ticket? a. It is the event that is generated when auditing a resource and unauthorized access is attempted. b. It is the name for a Kerberos client or user. c. It is a temporary set of credentials that a client uses to prove to other servers that its identity has been validated. d. It is a key used by the client to gain access to services that are protected by the key on the network.

It is a temporary set of credentials that a client uses to prove to other servers that its identity has been validated.

In a public switched telephone network, what portion of the network is known as the local loop? a. It is the portion of the network from the remote switching facility to the central office. b. It is the inside wire within the residence or business that connects to the NIU. c. It is the portion that connects any residence or business to the nearest central office. d. It is the portion of the network between the NIU and the remote switching facility.

It is the portion that connects any residence or business to the nearest central office.

What is a data-link connection identifier (DLCI) utilized for? a. It is a locally significant ID used to send connectionless information. b. It is used by ATM switches to determine how to create a switched virtual circuit. c. It is used by routers to determine which circuit to forward a frame to in a frame relay network. d. It is used by routers to establish a packet-switched path to the destination.

It is used by routers to establish a packet-switched path to the destination.

A network TAP serves what purpose on a network? a. It provides wireless monitoring capabilities, as well as spectrum analysis. b. It provides a mirrored port for monitoring traffic between other ports. c. It serves as a miniature firewall that can be placed in front of any connection. d. It monitors network throughput at a specific point in the network.

It provides a mirrored port for monitoring traffic between other ports.

The Wired Equivalent Privacy standard had what significant disadvantage?

It used a shared encryption key for all clients, and the key might never change.

When a device handles electrical signals improperly, usually resulting from a bad NIC, it is referred to by what term below? a. jabber b. talker c. ghost d. blabber

Jabber

Active Directory and 389 Directory Server are both compatible with which directory access protocol?

LDAP

What is the lowest layer of the OSI model at which LANs and WANs support the same protocols? Layer 2 Layer 3 Layer 4 Layer 5

Layer 3

At what layer of the OSI model do proxy servers operate? Layer 3 Layer 2 Layer 7 Layer 4

Layer 7

In regards to the use of local authentication, what statement is accurate? a. Local authentication does not allow for strong enough passwords. b. Local authentication is scalable for large networks. c. Local authentication is network and server failure tolerant. d. Local authentication provides the most security.

Local authentication is network and server failure tolerant.

Which legacy authentication protocol requires mutual authentication? a. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) b. Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol, version 2 (MS-CHAPv2) c. Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (MS-CHAP) d. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)

Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol, version 2 (MS-CHAPv2)

Which SONET OC level is a popular choice for large businesses, and is equivalent to 100 T1s? a. OC-1 b. OC-24 c. OC-3 d. OC-12

OC-3

When using Spanning Tree Protocol, which port on non-root bridges can forward traffic toward the root bridge? a. Only one root port, which is the bridge's port that is furthest from the root bridge, can forward. b. Only one root port, which is the bridge's port that is closest to the root bridge, can forward. c. All ports can forward frames to the root bridge, provided they are not in a down state. d. All ports will forward frames to the root bridge, unless a BPDU is received back on that same port.

Only one root port, which is the bridge's port that is closest to the root bridge, can forward.

What 3-bit field in a 802.1Q tag is modified to set a frame's Class of Service (CoS)?

Priority Code Point (PCP)

255.255.255.192

Question 19 5 / 5 pts ​A CIDR block of /26 is equivalent to what subnet mask below?

By far the most popular AAA service, what open-source service runs in the Application layer and can use UDP or TCP in the Transport layer? a. Kerberos b. Google Authenticator c. TACACS+ d. RADIUS

RADIUS

What statement regarding role-based access control is accurate?

RBAC allows a network administrator to base privileges and permissions around a detailed description of a user's roles or jobs.

What descendant of the Spanning Tree Protocol is defined by the IEEE 802.1W standard, and can detect as well as correct for link failures in milliseconds? a. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) b. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links (TRILL) c. Shortest Path Bridging (SPB) d. Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MST

Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)

Which encryption standard was originally utilized with WPA's TKIP? a. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) b. Rivest Cipher 4 (RC4) c. Data Encryption Standard (DES) d. Blowfish

Rivest Cipher 4 (RC4)

Which type of DSL technology has equal download and upload speeds maxing out at around 2 Mbps? a. VDSL b. ADSL2+ c. SDSL d. HDSL

SDSL

​bridge ID (BID)

STP selects the root bridge based on what option below?​

When using satellite services for your WAN connection, what statement is accurate? a. Satellite services suffer more latency and jitter issues. b. Satellite services are only available for fixed location clients. c. Satellite downlink rates range from 50 to 100 Mbps. d. Satellite uplink rates range from 5 to 10 Mbps.

Satellite services suffer more latency and jitter issues.

Which protocol designed to replace STP operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model? a. Shortest Path Bridging (SPB) b. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links (TRILL) c. Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) d. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)

Shortest Path Bridging (SPB)

What kind of device can monitor a connection at the demarc but cannot interpret data? CSU/DSU NID NIU Smart jack

Smart jack

On an ATM network, how is the path that data will take determined?

Switches determine the optimal path between sender and receiver, and then establish the path before transmission.

What method does a GSM network use to separate data on a channel? SIM CDMA TDMA TDM

TDMA

In-band management

Telnet and SSH are called __________________ systems because they use the existing network and its protocols to interface with the switch.

​in-band

Telnet and SSH are known as what type of management system?​

What happens when an NMS uses the SNMP walk command?

The NMS uses get requests to move through sequential rows in the MIB database.

​802.1aq

The Shortest Path Bridging protocol is defined in what IEEE standard?​

With a SIP trunk, what is the only limitation on the number of calls that can run at any one time?

The amount of available bandwidth.

In planning for disaster recovery, what is the ultimate goal?

The continuation of business. False

​802.1d

The first iteration of STP was defined in what IEEE standard below?​

out-of-band management

The management option that can provide on-site infrastructure access when the network is down or complete remote access in cases of connectivity failures on the network, such as via a cellular signal, is known as?

When viewing a syslog message, what does a level of 0 indicate? a. The message represents debug information. b. The message is a warning condition on the system. c. The message is an error condition on the system. d. The message is an emergency situation on the system.

The message is an emergency situation on the system.

What is NOT a variable that an network access control list can filter traffic with? a. The operating system used by the source or destination device. b. The Transport layer protocol used for the packet. c. The Network layer protocol used for the packet. d. The source or destination TCP/UDP port number in the packet.

The operating system used by the source or destination device.

Considering that multiple users occupy the same channel when using CDMA, how are various calls using this technology kept separate? a. The packets include the end user's SIM IMEI in each packet. b. The packets are coded such that individual calls can be distinguished. c. The sending and receiving of data is performed on different frequencies. Users hop between these frequencies to avoid interference. d. The transmissions are encrypted, such that only the appropriate device can decrypt its own call.

The packets are coded such that individual calls can be distinguished.

​maintenance window

The time period in which a change can be implemented is known as what option below?​

______________ in SONET are analogous to the ________________ of T-carriers. Throughput, digital signal levels OC levels, digital signal levels QoS levels, OC levels OC levels, carrier levels

Throughput, digital signal levels

Your roommate has been hogging the bandwidth on your router lately. What feature should you configure on the router to limit the amount of bandwidth his computer can utilize at any one time?

Traffic shaping

By default, Active Directory is configured to use the Kerberos protocol, but can be configured to use LDAP or a combination of LDAP and Kerberos. True False

True

Class of Service utilizes 8 levels of priority, and modifies the PCP field in an 802.1Q tag. True False

True

Most UNIX and Linux desktop operating systems provide a GUI application for easily viewing and filtering the information in system logs. True False

True

The storm-control command is a type of flood guard that is available on most major network switch vendor platforms. True False

True

The word "synchronous" as used in the name of Synchronous Optical Network means that data being transmitted and received by nodes must conform to a timing scheme. True False

True

subpoena

Upon receipt of what type of notification is a company required to activate a defensible policy for the preservation of relevant data?​

Which of the following features is common to both an NGFW and traditional firewalls? Application Control IDS and/or IPS User awareness User authentication

User Authentication

Which DSL standard has the fastest speeds immediately outside the CO? VDSL ADSL SDSL ADSL2+

VDSL

802.16

What IEEE committee established WiMAX technologies?

​802.1Q

What IEEE standard specifies how VLAN information appears in frames and how switches interpret that information?​

​OC-48

What OC level is primarily used as a regional ISP backbone, and occasionally by very large hospitals, universities, or other major enterprises?​

2h - 2 = Z

What is the formula for determining the number of possible hosts on a network?

Layer 3

What is the lowest layer of the OSI model at which LANs and WANs support the same protocols?

​622.08 Mbps

What is the maximum amount of throughput provided by an OC-12?​

​44.736

What is the maximum throughput of a DS3 connection?​

​53 bytes

What is the size of an ATM packet?​

Hypervisor

What is the software that allows you to define VMs and manage resource allocation and sharing among them?

Smart jack

What kind of device can monitor a connection at the demarc but cannot interpret data?

Throttling

What method do ISPs use to purposely slow down bandwidth utilization by customers?

Server mirroring

What process ensures that exact duplicates of servers are available if needed in the event of a disaster?

MLP

What protocol is used to bond multiple T-1s?

Determine if escalation is necessary

What should be the first step of a response policy?​

DMZ

What should you place between the corporate network and the ICS network?

DOCSIS

What specification defined the standards for broadband cable?

​manager

What team member role coordinates the resources necessary to solve a problem?​

​technical support specialist

What team member role focuses on only one thing: solving the problem as quickly as possible?​

​public relations specialist

What team member role, if necessary, learns about the situation and the response and then acts as official spokesperson for the organization to the public or other interested parties?​

Ethernet over power line

What technology allows a user to access the Internet through the wiring of a home?

Native VLAN

What type of VLAN automatically receives all untagged frames?

​degausser

What type of device can be used to erase contents of a hard drive using a magnetic field?​

​biorecognition access

What type of physical security solution involves a device that scans an individual's unique physical characteristics?​

​patch

What type of software is a correction, improvement, or enhancement to a piece of software?​

​ADSL

What version of xDSL is the most popular?​

Virtual switch

What virtual, logically defined device operates at the Data Link layer to pass frames between nodes?

​ADSL

What xDSL standard is the most popular?​

​RJ-48

When copper cabling is used to carry T-1 traffic, what kind of connector is used?

​proprietary source code

When performing inventory on software packages, which of the following is not something that should be inventoried?​

RTU

Which ICS component senses attributes of the physical system and converts analog data to digital data, but cannot control the physical system?

Mesh topology

Which WAN topology always sends data directly from its origin to its destination?

MOU

Which business document fills the gap between an informal handshake and the legally binding signatures on contracts?

Active card

Which of the following cards specifically contains an internal lithium battery?

​Attempt to access files to determine if they are compromised

Which of the following is NOT a step that should be taken as part of a ​response policy?

To reduce the number of routing table entries by combining several entries

Which of the following is not a good reason to subnet a network?

increase performance

Which of the following is not a valid reason for using virtualization?​

​You pay only for the bandwidth you've used.

Which option below is an advantage of leasing a frame relay circuit over leasing a dedicated circuit?

Trunk port

Which port on a switch manages traffic for multiple VLANs?

VRRP

Which protocol assigns a virtual IP to a group of routers?

MTU

Which server controls the physical system in an ICS system?

​dispatcher

Which team role is the person on call who first notices or is alerted to a problem?​

​cold site

Which type of disaster recovery site is a place where the computers, devices, and connectivity necessary to rebuild a network exist, but they are not appropriately configured, updated, or connected?

Hot site

Which type of disaster recovery site is the most expensive?

​warm site

Which type of recovery site is a place where computers, devices, and connectivity necessary to rebuild a network exist, with some pieces ​appropriately configured, updated, or connected?

DHCP relay agent

While designing your network's VLAN topology, your team has decided to use a centrally managed DHCP server rather than creating a separate DHCP server for each VLAN. What software will you need?

On a separate device or on a sheet of paper, make notes on everything that you've seen and done so far.

While troubleshooting a network connection issue on a corporate workstation, you've just discovered that the workstation has been used for illegal gambling activities. You've notified your supervisor, and she said she's on her way to collect the computer for an investigation. While you're waiting for your supervisor to arrive, what should you do?

stack master

With VTP, the VLAN database is stored on a switch known as which option below?​

NAT mode

With which network connection type does the VM obtain IP addressing information from its host?

What scenario might be ideal for the use of root guard in configuring a switch? a. You wish to prevent switches beyond a certain port from becoming the root bridge, but still wish to use STP. b. You wish to block BPDUs on an access port serving network hosts. c. You wish to disable STP on a port connected to a partnered company's switch. d. You wish to prevent a rogue switch or computer from hijacking the network's STP paths.

You wish to prevent switches beyond a certain port from becoming the root bridge, but still wish to use STP.

MLA

Your company has developed a Web site that includes a small program that collects real-time data on mortgage rates in specific geographic areas, and uses that information to calculate mortgage payment amounts based on the user's inputted data. The program was written by an independent software developer, who has granted your company a license to incorporate the program into your Web site for your customers' use. Which document was used?

Inform technical staff and users of the problem and what to expect.

Your team is in the process of implementing what you thought would be a relatively minor update to the NOS. You've hit a small but time-consuming snag, and it's now obvious that the update won't be completed until about an hour after your maintenance window passes. What should you do immediately?

OC levels, digital signal levels

______________ in SONET are analogous to the ________________ of T-carriers.

12. Of all the DSL standards which is the most commonly in use today? a. ADSL b. VDSL c. SDSL d. G.Lite

a. ADSL

5. In North America what ISDN connection type used two B channels and one D channel? a. Basic Rate Interface (BRI) b. Primary Rate Interface (PRI) c. Bearer Rate Interface (BRI) d. Dedicated Rate Interface (DRI)

a. Basic Rate Interface (BRI)

13. The DTE or endpoint device for a leased line is known as which device below? a. CSU/DSU b. cable modem c. DSL modem d. ISDN modem

a. CSU/DSU

22. What is a data-link connection identifier (DLCI) utilized for? a. It is used by routers to determine which circuit to forward a frame to in a frame relay network. b. It is used by routers to establish a packet-switched path to the destination. c. It is used by ATM switches to determine how to create a switched virtual circuit. d. It is a locally significant ID used to send connectionless information.

a. It is used by routers to determine which circuit to forward a frame to in a frame relay network.

18. Which of the following Layer 1 WAN technologies is not normally used as last mile service but rather traverses multiple ISP networks connecting these networks to the Internet backbone? a. SONET (Synchronous Optical Network) b. T-carrier (T1s fractional T1s and T3s) c. Carrier-Ethernet Transport (CET) d. digital subscriber line (DSL)

a. SONET (Synchronous Optical Network)

3. On an ATM network how is the path that data will take determined? a. Switches determine the optimal path between sender and receiver, and then establish the path before transmission. b. Data is transmitted, and then the path taken will vary depending on the load encountered at each ATM participant node. c. A frame relay route table establishes each hop that will be taken to a single destination. d. When data is ready to be transmitted, an ATM participating router will contact the destination ATM router, establish a tunnel, then pass the data.

a. Switches determine the optimal path between sender and receiver, and then establish the path before transmission.

9. Considering that multiple users occupy the same channel when using CDMA how are various calls using this technology kept separate? a. The packets are coded such that individual calls can be distinguished. b. The packets include the end user's SIM IMEI in each packet. c. The sending and receiving of data is performed on different frequencies. Users hop between these frequencies to avoid interference. d. The transmissions are encrypted such that only the appropriate device can decrypt its own call.

a. The packets are coded such that individual calls can be distinguished.

Which of the following is not one of the three AAA services provided by RADIUS and TACACS+?

access control

Which of the following ACL commands would permit web-browsing traffic from any IP address to any IP address? access-list acl_2 deny tcp any any access-list acl_2 permit http any any access-list acl_2 deny tcp host 2.2.2.2 host 3.3.3.3 eq www access-list acl_2 permit icmp any any

access-list acl_2 permit http any any

What software might be installed on a device in order to authenticate it to the network?

agent

25. Which statement regarding the Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) technology is accurate? a. In ATM, a message is called a frame and always consists of 1500 bytes of data. b. ATM can provide 4 levels of QoS, from best effort delivery to guaranteed, real-time transmission. c. ATM is highly dependent on predetermined schemes that specify the timing of data transmissions. d. ATM is a point-to-multipoint WAN access technology that uses packet switching.

b. ATM can provide 4 levels of QoS, from best effort delivery to guaranteed, real-time transmission.

23. In metro settings end-to-end carrier-grade Ethernet networks can be established via what protocol? a. Metro Carrier Transport b. Carrier Ethernet Transport c. Intra-city Ethernet d. Ethernet SONET

b. Carrier Ethernet Transport

8. Which SONET OC level is a popular choice for large businesses and is equivalent to 100 T1s? a. OC-1 b. OC-3 c. OC-12 d. OC-24

b. OC-3

11. In a cellular network where does each wireless base station connect to? a. They connect directly to the central office. b. They connect to a mobile switching center. c. They connect to other wireless base stations then to the central office. d. They connect to a wireless station repeater.

b. They connect to a mobile switching center.

20. Which of the following is an advantage of leasing a frame relay circuit over leasing a dedicated circuit? a. You are guaranteed to receive the maximum amount of bandwidth specified in the circuit contract b. You pay only for the bandwidth you require. c. The paths that your data will take are always known. d. Frame relay is a newly established network technology with more features than other technology.

b. You pay only for the bandwidth you require.

24. What type of virtual circuit allows connections to be established when parties need to transmit then terminated after the transmission is complete? a. permanent virtual circuit (PVC) b. switched virtual circuit (SVC) c. dynamic virtual circuit (DVC) d. looping virtual circuit (LVC)

b. switched virtual circuit (SVC)

4. Multiplexing enables a single T1 circuit to carry how many channels? a. 1 b. 12 c. 24 d. 64

c. 24

16. The C-Band utilized by satellites consists of what frequency range? a. 1.5 - 2.7 GHz b. 2.7 - 3.5 GHz c. 3.4 - 6.7 GHz d. 12 - 18 GHz

c. 3.4 - 6.7 GHz

19. When using DOCSIS 3.0 what is the minimum number of channels that can be used? a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 16

c. 4

14. What is the maximum throughput of a DS3 connection? a. 1.544 Mbps b. 3.152 Mbps c. 44.736 Mbps d. 274.176 Mbps

c. 44.736 Mbps

15. Which statement regarding the use of cable modems is NOT accurate? a. Modems that utilize the DOCSIS 3.0 or 3.1 standard are backward compatible with older DOCSIS networks. b. DOCSIS 3.1 allows for full duplex speeds up to 10 Gbps. c. Cable modems only operate at the Physical layer of the OSI model. d. Cable broadband provides a dedicated and continuous connection.

c. Cable modems only operate at the Physical layer of the OSI model.

2. What OC level is primarily used as a regional ISP backbone and occasionally by very large hospitals universities or other major enterprises? a. OC-3 b. OC-12 c. OC-48 d. OC-96

c. OC-48

6. Where are MPLS labels placed within a frame? a. between the layer 3 header and the data payload b. between the data payload and the layer 2 trailer c. between the layer 2 header and the layer 3 header d. at the end of the layer 2 trailer

c. between the layer 2 header and the layer 3 header

The grouping of multiple servers so that they appear as a single device to the rest of the network is known as which term? a. server overloading b. link aggregating c. clustering d. load balancing

clustering

Which type of disaster recovery site contains all the equipment you would need to get up and running again after a disaster, and yet would require several weeks to implement?

cold site

What kind of firewall can block designated types of traffic based on application data contained within packets?

content-filtering firewall

1. A fractional T1's bandwidth can be leased multiples of what data rate? a. 28 Kbps b. 32 Kbps c. 48 Kbps d. 64 Kbps

d. 64 Kbps

21. In a public switched telephone network what portion of the network is known as the local loop? a. It is the inside wire within the residence or business that connects to the NIU. b. It is the portion of the network between the NIU and the remote switching facility. c. It is the portion of the network from the remote switching facility to the central office. d. It is the portion that connects any residence or business to the nearest central office.

d. It is the portion that connects any residence or business to the nearest central office.

17. Which type of DSL technology has equal download and upload speeds maxing out at around 2 Mbps? a. ADSL2+ b. VDSL c. HDSL d. SDSL

d. SDSL

7. With a SIP trunk what is the only limitation on the number of calls that can run at any one time? a. The maximum number of channels available on the transmission medium. b. The total number of time division slots allocated to the SIP client organization. c. The total number of SIP bearer channels provisioned on the SIP switch. d. The amount of available bandwidth.

d. The amount of available bandwidth.

10. The T-carrier standards also called T-CXR standards utilize what type of multiplexing over two wire pairs to create multiple channels? a. wavelength division multiplexing (WDM) b. frequency division multiplexing (FDM) c. orthogonal frequency division multiplexing (OFDM) d. time division multiplexing (TDM)

d. time division multiplexing (TDM)

An organization can lease a private _________________ that is not shared with other users, or a _________________ that can be physically configured over shared lines in the carrier's cloud. PVC (permanent virtual circuit), SVC (switched virtual circuit) SVC (switched virtual circuit), dedicated line dedicated line, virtual circuit SVC (switched virtual circuit), PVC (permanent virtual circuit)

dedicated line, virtual circuit

When using DiffServ, what type of forwarding utilizes a minimum departure rate from a given node, which is then assigned to each data stream? a. expedited forwarding b. prioritized forwarding c. scaled forwarding d. assured forwarding

expedited forwarding

A hot site consists of computers, devices, and connectivity necessary to rebuild a network exist, but without appropriate configuration. True False

false

A stateless firewall inspects each incoming packet to determine whether it belongs to a currently active connection. True False

false

A system with an availability of 99.999% can be down for a maximum of 52 minutes per year. True False

false

CDMA (Code Division Multiple Access) is an open standard that is accepted and used worldwide.

false

DSL signals travel over telephone lines using the 300 to 3300 Hz frequency range. True False

false

Of the three methods of access control (RBAC, DAC, and MAC), RBAC is the least secure of the options.

false

Proxy servers and ACLs on network devices are examples of non-security devices with security features, while firewalls and IDS/IPS systems are the network's specialized security devices.

false

Setting a NIC to run in promiscuous mode will allow it to see all network traffic passing through a network switch. True False

false

When using a host-based intrusion detection system, what additional feature might be available to alert the system of any changes made to files that shouldn't change? a. file integrity monitoring (FIM) b. file checksum watching (FCW) c. file access auditing (FAA) d. file change management (FCM)

file integrity monitoring (FIM)

When using a host-based intrusion detection system, what additional feature might be available to alert the system of any changes made to files that shouldn't change? a. file access auditing (FAA) b. file checksum watching (FCW) c. file integrity monitoring (FIM) d. file change management (FCM)

file integrity monitoring (FIM)

Which power backup method will continually provide power to a server if the power goes out during a thunderstorm? Online UPS Generator Dual power supplies Standby UPS

generator

Enforcing a virtual security perimeter using a client's geographic location is known by what term?

geofencing

The Group Policy utility can be opened by typing what name into a Run box?

gpedit.msc

A snapshot is most similar to which type of backup scheme? a. versioned backup b. incremental backup c. differential backup d. full backup

incremental backup

On a Linux system, which command allows you to modify settings used by the built-in packet filtering firewall? a. ipf b. iptables c. netwall d. modfire

iptables

What term is used to describe the average amount of time that will pass for a device before a failure is expected to occur? a. mean time between failures (MTBF) b. estimated time to failure (ETTF) c. maximum time available (MTA) d. product cycle lifetime (PCL)

mean time between failures (MTBF)

Once a device has failed, what metric measures the average amount of time to repair? a. mean field replacement time (MFRT) b. mean time to repair (MTTR) c. mean time to restore (MTTR) d. mean restoration time (MRT)

mean time to repair

Each managed object on a managed device using SNMP is assigned which of the following? a. TCP/UDP port b. object identifier (OID) c. inode number d. process ID

object identifier

What OC level is primarily used as a regional ISP backbone, and occasionally by very large hospitals, universities, or other major enterprises?

oc-48

Which power backup method will continually provide power to a server if the power goes out during a thunderstorm Online UPS Generator Dual power supplies Standby UPS

online ups

Which type of uninterruptible power supply uses AC power to continuously charge its battery, while also providing power to devices through the battery? a. surge UPS b. standby UPS c. line conditioning UPS d. online UPS

online ups

What port do SNMP agents listen on? Port 161 Port 21 Port 162 Port 20

port 161

Which of the following terms is used to describe the configuration of a port to copy all traffic passing through the switch to the device at the other end of the port? a. port lurking b. port mirroring c. port supertrunking d. port shadowing

port mirroring

Which adaptation of EAP utilizes EAP-MSCHAPv2 inside of an encrypted TLS tunnel? a. EAP-TLS b. LEAP c. EAP-FAST d. Protected EAP (PEAP)

protected EAP

Packets that are smaller than a medium's minimum packet size are known by what term below? a. giants b. jabbers c. ghosts d. runts

runts

Which of the following features of a network connection between a switch and server is not improved by link aggregation? Bandwidth Fault tolerance Speed Availability

speed

Which of the following is an example of proxy server software?

squid

Which command on an Arista switch would require an SNMP notification when too many devices try to connect to a port? mac-limit switchport port-security storm-control shutdown

switch port-security

What type of virtual circuit allows connections to be established when parties need to transmit, then terminated after the transmission is complete?

switched virtual circuit (SVC)

The Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM) utilizes what technology to create timeslots on a channel? a. frequency division multiplexing (FDM) b. wavelength division multiplexing (WDM) c. time division multiple access (TDMA) d. dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM)

time division multiple access (TDMA)

The T-carrier standards, also called T-CXR standards, utilize what type of multiplexing over two wire pairs to create multiple channels?

time division multiplexing (TDM

One of your coworkers downloaded several, very large video files for a special project she's working on for a new client. When you run your network monitor later this afternoon, what list will your coworker's computer likely show up on?

top listeners

A brownout is a momentary decrease in voltage; also known as a sag.

true

Although MPLS can operate over Ethernet frames, it is more often used with other Layer 2 protocols, like those designed for WANs.

true

In a frame relay WAN, the ISP typically has the data circuit terminating equipment (DCE). True False

true

In a public switched telephone network, lines are terminated at the central office. True False

true

Most satellites circle the Earth 22,300 miles above the equator in a geosynchronous orbit. True False

true

The PEAP standard creates an encrypted TLS tunnel between the supplicant and the server before proceeding with the usual EAP process.

true

The supplicant is an EAP entity responsible for requesting authentication, such as a smartphone or laptop.

true

Wireshark or any other monitoring software running on a single computer connected to a switch doesn't see all the traffic on a network, but only the traffic the switch sends to it, which includes broadcast traffic and traffic specifically addressed to the computer. True False

true

You can find out where various logs are kept on some UNIX and Linux systems by viewing the /etc/syslog.conf or /etc/rsyslog.conf files.

true

You are attempting to determine how available your Linux systems are, and need to find the current system uptime. What command should you use? a. display stats b. uptime c. lastboot d. show runtime

uptime

​150 m

​An active card, which contains an internal battery, can provide a usable range of up to what distance?

ambient data

​In computer forensics, hidden data such as deleted files and file fragments are known as what term?

​CSU/DSU

​The DTE or endpoint device for a leased line is known as which device below?

​1/4 mile

​The best 802.11n signal can travel approximately how far?

split horizon​

​What Layer 3 technology is employed by distance-vector routing protocols in which a router knows which of its interfaces a routing update and will not retransmit, or advertise, that same update on the same interface?

​3.4 - 6.7 GHz

​What is the frequency range of the C-band that is used by satellites?

​MLPPP

​What protocol is commonly used to aggregate / bond T-1 / T-3 lines?

​OpenFlow

​What protocol is used to provide a common language between virtualized service applications and a network's physical devices?

​data link connection identifier

​When using frame relay, what is the name of the identifier that routers use to determine which circuit to send frames to?

​bridged mode

​Which network type allows a vNIC to access a network directly using the host machine's NIC?

​255.255.252.0

​Which supernet mask below would allow an organization to cover the following networks with one routing entry: 192.168.0.0/24, 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, 192.168.3.0/24?

​DOCSIS 3

​Which version of DOCSIS provides 38 Mbps per channel and requires a minimum of 4 channels to be used?

host-only mode​

​Which virtual network type allows VMs to communicate with each other on the same host, but disallows communication with other nodes on the network?