Network+ Super Practice Test

A rule-based access control mechanism implemented on routers, switches, and firewalls is referred to as: a. ACL (Access Control List) b. CSR (Certificate Signing Request) c. DLP (Data Loss Prevention) d. AUP (Acceptable Use Policy)

A. ACL (Access Control List)

Which type of switch simplifies virtual network configuration by enabling an option to configure switching for the entire network from a single interface? a Managed Switch b. Distributed Switch c. Stackable Switch d. Aggregation Switch

B. Distributed Switch

A dedicated communication channel used exclusively between two connected hosts is a characteristic feature of packet-switching networks. a. True b. False

B. False

Circuit-switching networks move data divided into small blocks over a shared connection. a. True b. False

B. False

Which of the following typically applies to a request that doesn't match the criteria defined in an ACL? a. Group Policy b. Implicit Deny Rule c. Transitive Trust d. Context-aware authentication

B. Implicit Deny Rule

Which of the answers listed below refers to a technology designed to simplify network infrastructure management? a. SAN (Storage Area Network) b. SDN (Software Defined Network) c. SSP (Service Switching Point)

B. SDN (Software Defined Network)

Which of the following enables automatic configuration of an IPv6 address? a. EUI-64 (Extended Unique Identifier-64) b. UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) c. APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) d. MAC-48 (Media Access Control-48)

a. EUI-64 (Extended Unique Identifier-64)

CRC allows for collecting metrics that provide information on: a. Error rates b. Network utilization c. Packet drops d. Bandwidth/throughput

a. Error rates

Which of the following remote file-access protocols do not offer encryption? (Select 2 answers) a. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) b. FTPS (File Transfer Protocol Secure - uses two connections: a command channel and a data channel. You can choose to encrypt both connections or only the data channel over SSL.) c. SCP (Secure Copy Protocol) d. SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol - based on the network protocol SSH (Secure Shell)) e. TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol)

a. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) e. TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol)

Which type of cabling provides the best protection against EMI/RFI? a. Fiber-optic cabling b. STP cabling c. Coaxial cabling d. UTP cabling

a. Fiber-optic cabling

What is the function of a Time-Domain Reflectometer (TDR)? a. Finding breaks in copper network cables b. Locating the beginning and the end of a cable in a cabling bundle c. Checking network installation for compliance with TIA or ISO standards d. Finding breaks in fiber-optic network cables

a. Finding breaks in copper network cables

A type of technology that provides control over the usage of a mobile device within a designated area is referred to as: a. Geofencing b. Quarantine network c. Geolocation d. GPS tagging

a. Geofencing

TCP port 1720 is used by: a. H.323 (Telecommunication Standardization Sector) b. SMB (Server Message Block) c. LDAPS (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol with SSL/TLS) d. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)

a. H.323 (Telecommunication Standardization Sector)

Which of the following terms refers to a duplicate of the original site, with fully operational computer systems as well as near-complete backups of user data? a. Hot site b. Warm site c. Cold site

a. Hot site

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) falls into the category of: a. Hybrid routing protocols b. Link-state routing protocols c. Distance-vector routing d. protocols e. Static routing protocols

a. Hybrid routing protocols

TCP port 80 is assigned to: a. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) b. Hypertext Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL (HTTPS) c. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) d. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

a. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

In virtualization technology, a software program that manages multiple operating systems (or multiple instances of the same operating system) on a single computer system is called: a. Hypervisor b. Distributed switch c. ICS server (Internet Connection Sharing Server) d. Virtual router

a. Hypervisor

Which IEEE standard provides the implementation basis for most modern WLANs? a. IEEE 802.11 b. IEEE 802.1x c. IEEE 802.3 d. IEEE 802.1q

a. IEEE 802.11

Which of the answers listed below applies to a situation where an Ethernet switch acts as an authenticator for devices connecting to a network through one of its ports? a. IEEE 802.1X b. IEEE 802.11ac c. IEEE 802.1D d. IEEE 802.11x

a. IEEE 802.1X

Vulnerability scanning: (Select 3 answers) a. Identifies lack of security controls b. Actively tests security controls c. Identifies common misconfigurations d. Exploits vulnerabilities e. Passively tests security controls

a. Identifies lack of security controls c. Identifies common misconfigurations e. Passively tests security controls

Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to example(s) of fiber-optic connectors (Select all that apply) a. LC (Lucent Connector) b. DB-25 c. ST (Straight Connector) d. SC (Standard Connector) e. MT-RJ f. RG-6

a. LC (Lucent Connector) c. ST (Straight Connector) d. SC (Standard Connector) e. MT-RJ

A type of diagnostic tool that allows to measure signal strength in fiber-optic cabling is called: a. Light meter b. Tone generator c. Multimeter d. Loopback adapter

a. Light meter

What are the characteristic components of the OSI data link layer? (Select 3 answers) a. MAC address b. Packet c. Switch d. Network cabling e. Router f. Frame

a. MAC address c. Switch f. Frame

A network access method whereby the 48-bit physical address assigned to each NIC is used to grant/deny network access is known as: a. MAC filtering b. Network Address Translation (NAT) c. Static IP addressing d. Network Access Control (NAC)

a. MAC filtering

Which of the following UDP ports is assigned to the Domain Name System (DNS)? a. 53 b. 67 c. 110 d. 389

a. 53

A network administrator wants to secure the existing access to a directory service with SSL/TLS encryption. Which of the following TCP ports needs to be opened to implement this change? a. 636 b. 389 c. 443 d. 1720

a. 636

A limited IPv4-to-IPv6 transition mechanism that allows for encapsulation of IPv6 packets in IPv4 packets transmitted over IPv4 networks is referred to as: a. 6to4 b. 802.3af c. eDiscovery d. Miredo

a. 6to4

The IEEE 802.11n standard offers backward compatibility with which of the following standards? (Select all that apply) a. 802.11g b. 802.11ac c. 802.11b d. 802.11a

a. 802.11g c. 802.11b d. 802.11a

Which of the answers listed below refers to a rule-based network access control mechanism implemented on routers, switches, and firewalls that allows to filter network traffic by IP address or port number? a. ACL (Access Control List) b. NAC (Network Access Control) c. WAF (web application firewall) d. NAT (Network address translation)

a. ACL (Access Control List)

An IPv6 link-local address is an equivalent of IPv4's: a. APIPA address b. Routable IP address c. Public IP address d. MAC address

a. APIPA address

An attacker managed to associate his/her MAC address with the IP address of the default gateway. In result, a targeted host is sending network traffic to the attacker's IP address instead of the IP address of the default gateway. Based on the given info, which type of attack is taking place in this scenario? a. ARP poisoning b. Replay attack c. Cross-site request forgery d. DNS poisoning

a. ARP poisoning

An Ethernet switch table containing IP-to-MAC address mappings is called: a. ARP table b. Routing table c. MAC address table d. DNS table

a. ARP table

Which part of the AAA security architecture deals with the verification of the identity of a person or process? a. Authentication b. Authorization c. Accounting

a. Authentication

Penetration testing: (Select all that apply) a. Bypasses security controls b. Only identifies lack of security controls c. Actively tests security controls d. Exploits vulnerabilities e. Passively tests security controls

a. Bypasses security controls c. Actively tests security controls d. Exploits vulnerabilities

Which of the following answers refers to a bus topology network first developed for use in vehicles? a. CAN (Controller Area Network) b. PAN (Private Area Network) c. VNC (Virtual Network Computing) d. SAN (Storage Area Network)

a. CAN (Controller Area Network)

What is the name of an AES-based encryption mode implemented in WPA2? a. CCMP (Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol) b. ECB (Electronic Codebook) c. CBC (Cipher Block CHaining) d. TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol)

a. CCMP (Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol)

Which of the following answers refers to a channel access method used in 3G cellular networks? a. CDMA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access) b. CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access w/ Collision Detection) c. TDMA (Time Division Multiple Access) d. CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access w/ Collision Avoidance)

a. CDMA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access)

In IPv4 addressing, the leading octet of an IP address with a value of 1 through 126 denotes that the IP address within that range belongs to the: a. Class A address space b. Class B address space c. Class C address space d. Class D address space

a. Class A address space

Which of the following answers refer to the characteristic features of the 10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255 (10.0.0.0/8) IPv4 address space? (Select 2 answers) a. Class A range b. Public IP address range c. Class B range d. Non-routable (private) IP address range e. Class C range

a. Class A range d. Non-routable (private) IP address range

What are the characteristics of the RG-59 cabling specification? (Select 3 answers) a. Coaxial cabling b. Suitable for short-distance cable runs c. Used for analog video and CCTV installations d. Twisted-pair copper cabling e. Suitable for long-distance cable runs f. Used for cable television, satellite television and cable modems

a. Coaxial cabling b. Suitable for short-distance cable runs c. Used for analog video and CCTV installations

Which of the answers listed below refer to the characteristic features of a modem? (Select 3 answers) a. Converts digital data into analog signal b. Allows a computer to send and receive information over telephone lines c. Forwards frames between network segments d. Converts analog signal into digital data e. Filters and transfers data packets between dissimilar types of computer networks

a. Converts digital data into analog signal b. Allows a computer to send and receive information over telephone lines d. Converts analog signal into digital data

Which of the following connector types are used for RS-232 serial communications? (Select 2 answers) a. DE-9 b. RG-59 c. RJ-45 d. DB-25 e. RG-6 f. RJ-11

a. DE-9 d. DB-25

Remapping a domain name to a rogue IP address is an example of what kind of exploit? a. DNS poisoning b. Domain hijacking c. ARP poisoning d. URL hijacking

a. DNS poisoning

Examples of protocols used for implementing secure VPN tunnels include: (Select 3 answers) a. DTLS (Datagram Transport Layer Security) b. bcrypt c. SCP (Secure Copy Protocol) d. IPsec (IP Security) e. SSL/TLS (Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security)

a. DTLS (Datagram Transport Layer Security) d. IPsec (IP Security) e. SSL/TLS (Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security)

Which of the EAP methods listed below relies on client-side and server-side certificates for authentication? a. EAP-TLS b. PEAP (Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol) c. EAP-TTLS d. EAP-FAST (Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling)

a. EAP-TLS

A network admin can ping remote host by its IP address, but not by FQDN. Which of the following is the most probable source of the problem? a. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) b. DNS (Domain Name Server/Service) c. NetBIOS (Network Basic Input/Output System) d. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)

b. DNS (Domain Name Server/Service)

Which of the following answers refers to a system containing mappings of domain names to various types of data, such as numerical IP addresses? a. TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) b. DNS (Domain Name Server/Service) c. SQL (Structured Query Language) d. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)

b. DNS (Domain Name Server/Service)

Which of the following antenna types provide a 360-degree horizontal signal coverage? (Select 2 answers) a. Unidirectional antenna b. Dipole antenna c. Yagi antenna d. Omnidirectional antenna e. Dish antenna

b. Dipole antenna d. Omnidirectional antenna

Which of the terms listed below refers to a backup technique that allows for creating an exact copy of an entire drive and replicating the drive to a new computer or to another drive on the same computer in case of a hard drive failure? a. Repair installation b. Drive imaging c. Incremental backup d. Differential backup

b. Drive imaging

A type of coaxial connector commonly used for cable television and cable modems is called: a. RG-6 b. F-type c. DB-9 d. MT-RJ

b. F-type

Which of the answers listed below refers to an IPv6 link-local address? a. 2002::/16 b. FE80::/10 c. 2001::/32 d. ::1/128

b. FE80::/10

A cold site is the most expensive type of backup site for an organization to operate. a. True b. False

b. False

A forward DNS lookup zone returns a domain name for a given IP address. a. True b. False

b. False

A logical network diagram is a document that describes the detailed layout of the building and the way devices are connected to the network through the actual cabling that transmits data. a. True b. False

b. False

A reverse DNS lookup zone is used for finding an IP address associated with a given domain name. a. True b. False

b. False

A type of wiring closet that interconnects WAN links coming into the building with the internal network is known as Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF). a. True b. False

b. False

Domain information groper (dig) and nslookup are command-line tools used for DNS queries. Both utilities are available on Windows and Linux. Of the two, nslookup is the preferred tool on UNIX-like systems; dig is the default DNS query tool for MS Windows. a. True b. False

b. False

Dynamic Network Address Translation (DNAT) provides a permanent mapping between a private IP address and a public IP address on a one-to-one basis. a. True b. False

b. False

Establishing a theory of probable cause of the problem is a troubleshooting step that apart from conducting research based on symptoms may also involve asking for assistance of a more experienced tech. a. True b. False

b. False

Which of the following answers refers to a Network Address Translation (NAT) method that binds a combination of private IP address and port number with a corresponding public IP address and port information? a. PAT (Private Address Translation) b. NAT (Network Address Translation) c. RAS (Remote Access Sever) d. EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)

a. PAT (Private Address Translation)

High MTBF (mean time between failures) value indicates that a component or system provides low reliability and is more likely to fail. a. True b. False

b. False

In a differential backup strategy, restoring data from backup requires only a working copy of the last full backup. a. True b. False

b. False

Static Network Address Translation (SNAT) provides a mapping between a private IP address and any of the IP addresses belonging to the available public IP address pool. a. True b. False

b. False

The term "DHCP snooping" refers to an exploit that enables operation of a rogue DHCP network server. a. True b. False

b. False

Which type of agreement would be the most suitable for regulating responsibilities of users with administrative rights on a network? a. PUA (Personal User Agent) b. NDA (non-disclosure agreement) c. SOW (statement of work) d. AUP (acceptable use policy)

a. PUA (Personal User Agent)

Which of the following examples meets the requirement of multifactor authentication? a. Password and biometric scan b. Username and PIN c. Smart card and ID badge d. Iris and fingerprint scan

a. Password and biometric scan

Which of the following password policy settings determines the number of unique new passwords that must be associated with a user account before an old password can be reused? a. Password history setting b. Maximum password age setting c. Account lockout threshold setting d. Minimum password age setting

a. Password history setting

The two factors that are considered important for creating strong passwords are: (Select 2 answers) a. Password length b. Minimum password age c. Password history d. Password complexity e. Maximum password age

a. Password length d. Password complexity

Which of the following answers refer to common cabling type used for connecting workstations to network devices? (Select 2 answers) a. Patch cable b. RG-59 cable c. Crossover cable d. RG-6 cable e. Straight-through cable

a. Patch cable e. Straight-through cable

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is an example of a connectionless protocol. Because TCP doesn't support three-way handshake while establishing a network connection, it is referred to as unreliable or best-effort protocol. a. True b. False

b. False

A social engineering technique whereby attackers under disguise of legitimate request attempt to gain access to confidential information they shouldn't have access to is commonly referred to as: a. Phishing b. Privilege escalation c. Backdoor access d. Shoulder surfing

a. Phishing

A fraudulent email requesting its recipient to reveal sensitive information (e.g. user name and password) used later by an attacker for the purpose of identity theft is an example of: (Select 2 answers) a. Phishing b. Watering hole attack c. Social engineering d. Bluejacking e. Vishing

a. Phishing c. Social engineering

A type of enclosed space in a building (such as the one between a dropped ceiling and the structural ceiling) used for air handling is commonly referred to as: a. Plenum b. Main Distribution Frame (MDF) c. HVAC system d. Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF)

a. Plenum

Which of the following allows an administrator to inspect the traffic passing through a network switch? a. Port mirroring b. VLAN tagging c. Fault-tolerant mode d. Port scanning

a. Port mirroring

What does the term "Blackout" refer to? a. Power outage b. Drop in voltage c. EMI (electromagnetic interference) d. Power spike

a. Power outage

A DHCP server's IP exclusion configuration option allows network administrators to remove a single IP address or a range of IP addresses from the pool of addresses being assigned automatically to the requesting DHCP client computers. IP exclusion prevents other DHCP clients from requesting an IP address statically assigned to other essential network hosts (e.g. servers, or a wireless printers) via DHCP reservation. a. True b. False

a. True

A cloud delivery model consisting of two or more interlinked cloud infrastructures (private, community, or public) is referred to as a hybrid cloud. a. True b. False

a. True

A double colon in an IPv6 address indicates that part of the address containing only zeros has been compressed to make the address shorter. a. True b. False

a. True

A hybrid routing protocol combines the features of distance-vector and link-state routing protocols. a. True b. False

a. True

A network device that apart from the function of an ordinary network switch can also provide additional functions at higher levels of the OSI reference model is known as a multilayer switch. a. True b. False

a. True

A single non-standard Ethernet frame that allows for much larger maximum payload size is commonly referred to as jumbo frame. a. True b. False

a. True

A special type of cabling with fire-retardant jacket placed inside the space between structural floor and dropped ceiling or inside walls is known as a plenum-rated cabling. a. True b. False

a. True

A type of IDS that relies on predetermined attack patterns to detect intrusions is referred to as a signature-based IDS. a. True b. False

a. True

An IP address that doesn't correspond to any actual physical network interface is called a virtual IP address (VIP/VIPA). a. True b. False

a. True

As opposed to the simple Denial of Service (DoS) attacks that usually are performed from a single system, a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack uses multiple compromised computer systems to perform the attack against its target. The intermediary systems that are used as platform for the attack are the secondary victims of the DDoS attack; they are often referred to as zombies, and collectively as a botnet. a. True b. False

a. True

User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is a connection-oriented protocol using a three-way handshake which is a set of initial steps required for establishing network connection. UDP supports retransmission of lost packets, flow control (managing the amount of data that is being sent), and sequencing (rearranging packets that arrived out of order). a. True b. False

b. False

Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MIMO) is a wireless technology that allows for significant increase in data throughput due to the use of multiple antennas and multiple data streams. a. True b. False

a. True

Network Address Translation (NAT) provides an IP proxy between a private LAN and a public network such as the Internet. a. True b. False

a. True

Networked clients not residing on the same subnet as the DHCP server can still obtain an IP address from the server through a DHCP relay agent (a.k.a. IP helper). a. True b. False

a. True

One of the features of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is the capability for static allocation of an IP address based on the IP-to-MAC address mapping. a. True b. False

a. True

Optical Carrier (OC) transmission rate specifications adhere to a pattern where the OC prefix is followed by a number designating a multiple of the base unit of 51.84 Mbps. a. True b. False

a. True

Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer (OTDR) is a type of specialized cable tester that allows for locating faults and breaks in fiber-optic cabling. a. True b. False

a. True

What are the characteristic features of WPA/WPA2 Enterprise mode? (Select 2 answers) a. Suitable for large corporate networks b. Does not require an authentication server c. Suitable for all types of wireless LANs d. Requires RADIUS authentication server

a. Suitable for large corporate networks d. Requires RADIUS authentication server

Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3) uses: a. TCP port 110 b. UDP port 123 c. TCP port 143 d. UDP port 161

a. TCP port 110

What kind of tool would be used for troubleshooting short/open circuits inside a copper cable? a. TDR (time-domain reflectometer) b. Loopback adapter c. OTDR (optical time-domain reflectometer) d. Spectrum analyzer

a. TDR (time-domain reflectometer)

UDP port 69 is assigned to: a. TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) b. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) c. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) d. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)

a. TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol)

Which of the answers listed below refer to copper cabling termination specifications? (Select 2 answers) a. TIA/EIA 568a b. IEEE 802.3ab c. TIA/EIA 568b d. IEEE 802.3af

a. TIA/EIA 568a c. TIA/EIA 568b

Which of the answers listed below refers to a possible symptom of exhausted DHCP scope? a. Duplicate IP addresses b. APIPA address (Automatic Private IP Addressing) c. Duplicate MAC addresses d. Loopback address

b. APIPA address (Automatic Private IP Addressing)

Which of the answers listed below refers to the process of granting or denying access to resources? a. Authentication b. Authorization c. Accounting

b. Authorization

Which unencrypted remote-access method enables control over another computer on the network via command line? a. Telnet (TCP/IP protocol for accessing remote computers) b. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) c. VNC (Virtual Network Computing) d. SSH (Secure Shell)

a. Telnet (TCP/IP protocol for accessing remote computers)

Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a policy of permitting employees to bring personal mobile devices and to use those devices for accessing privileged company information and applications? a. BSOD (Blue Screen of Death) b. BYOD (bring your own device) c. JBOD (just a bunch of disks) d. BYOB (Bring your own bandwidth)

b. BYOD (bring your own device)

A type of historical network data kept as a reference for resolving future performance issues is referred to as: a. Audit log b. Baseline c. Change management documentation d. Template

b. Baseline

Which of the following answers refers to a fiber transceiver equipped with the capability to transmit and receive signals over a single fiber strand? a. Simplex b. Bidirectional c. Half duplex d. Unidirectional

b. Bidirectional

An attack against encrypted data that relies heavily on computing power to check all possible keys and passwords until the correct one is found is referred to as: a. Replay attack b. Brute-force attack c. Dictionary attack d. Birthday attack

b. Brute-force attack

Which of the following answers refers to a software or hardware that monitors network traffic and depending on the configuration settings applied to each data packet either blocks it or allows it to pass through? a. HIDS (host-based intrusion detection system) b. Firewall c. Packet filter d. Vulnerability scanner

b. Firewall

Disabling SSID broadcast: a. Is one of the measures used in the process of securing wireless networks b. Makes a WLAN harder to discover c. Blocks access to a WAP d. Prevents wireless clients from accessing the network

b. Makes a WLAN harder to discover

Which of the following answers refers to a security policy enforcement software tool or service placed between cloud service users and cloud applications? a. UTM (Unified Threat Management) b. CASB (Cloud Access Security Brokers) c. NGFW (Next-Generation Firewall) d. DMVPN (Dynamic Multipoint Virtual Private Network)

b. CASB (Cloud Access Security Brokers)

Which of the DNS database records listed below allows multiple domain names to resolve to the same IP address? a. MX (Mail Exchanger Record) b. CNAME (Canonical Name) c. AAAA (Resource record is a record that stores a single IPv6 address) d. PTR (Pointer Record)

b. CNAME (Canonical Name)

Which tool would be used for detecting incorrect cabling pin-out assignments? a. Multimeter b. Cable tester c. Tone generator d. Fiber termination kit

b. Cable tester

What type of Ethernet cable would be used for establishing a direct communication link between two PCs? a. Patch cable b. Crossover cable c. Rollover cable d. Straight-through cable

b. Crossover cable

Which of the following attack types relies on amplification effect? a. Zero-day attack b. DDoS attack c. Brute-force attack d. MITM attack

b. DDoS attack

Which of the following are hashing algorithms? (Select 2 answers) a. MD5 (Message-Digest Algorithm) b. CCMP (Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol ) c. AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) d. RC4 ( symmetric key cipher and bite-oriented algorithm) e. SHA (Secure Hash Algorithm)

a. MD5 (Message-Digest Algorithm) e. SHA (Secure Hash Algorithm)

Which type of UPS provides the best power outage protection? (Select 2 answers) a. Online b. Double-conversion c. Standby d. Line-interactive e. Offline

a. Online b. Double-conversion

A type of limited-range computer network used for data transmission among various types of personal devices is generally referred to as: a. PAN (Private Area Network) b. LAN (Local Area Network) c. SAN (Storage Area Network) d. MAN (Metropolitan Area Network)

a. PAN (Private Area Network)

Which of the following answers refer to the 1000BaseSX Ethernet standard? (Select 2 answers) a. Single-mode fiber-optic cabling b. Maximum cable segment length between 220 and 500 meters c. Multimode fiber-optic cabling d. Maximum cable segment length of 185 meters e. Twisted-pair copper cabling

b. Maximum cable segment length between 220 and 500 meters c. Multimode fiber-optic cabling

Telnet: (Select 3 answers) a. Encrypts network connection b. Provides username & password authentication c. Transmits data in an unencrypted form d. Does not provide authentication e. Enables remote login and command execution

b. Provides username & password authentication c. Transmits data in an unencrypted form e. Enables remote login and command execution

Which of the following ports is used by HTTPS? a. TCP port 80 b. TCP port 443 c. UDP port 53 d. TCP port 143

b. TCP port 443

Which of the ports listed below are assigned to the Session Initiation Protocol (SIP)? (Select 2 answers) a. UDP port 67 b. TCP port 5060 c. TCP port 389 d. UDP port 68 e. TCP port 5061 f. TCP port 3389

b. TCP port 5060 e. TCP port 5061

Which of the answers listed below refers to a channel access method used in 2G GSM networks? a. CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access w/ Collision Avoidance) b. TDMA (Time Division Multiple Access) c. CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access w/ Collision Detection) d. CDMA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access)

b. TDMA (Time Division Multiple Access)

A security protocol designed to strengthen existing WEP implementations without requiring the replacement of legacy hardware is called: a. PEAP (Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol) b. TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) c. CCMP (Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol ) d. WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access version 2)

b. TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol)

An IPv4 packet header field that specifies how many more hops a packet can travel before being discarded is called: a. SPB (Shortest Path Bridging) b. TTL (Time-to-live ) c. MTU (Maximum transmission unit) d. DSCP (IP Differentiated Services Code Point)

b. TTL (Time-to-live )

What are the characteristic features of FCoE? (Select all that apply) a. Requires separate cabling infrastructure b. Takes advantage of copper cabling c. Enables connectivity between servers and data storage devices d. Does not require any specialized hardware e. Takes advantage of fiber-optic cabling f. Requires specialized hardware g. Does not require separate cabling infrastructure

b. Takes advantage of copper cabling c. Enables connectivity between servers and data storage devices d. Does not require any specialized hardware g. Does not require separate cabling infrastructure

An IPv4-to-IPv6 transition mechanism with native support for Network Address Translation (NAT) is known as: a. 6to4 b. Teredo c. eDiscovery d. Miredo

b. Teredo

Once the theory of probable cause of the problem has been established, the next troubleshooting step should be: a. Verifying full system functionality b. Testing the theory to determine the problem cause c. Implementing the solution d. Establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem

b. Testing the theory to determine the problem cause

Which of the following tools would be used for locating a cable in a cabling bundle or tracing individual wires in a cable? a. Spectrum analyzer b. Toner and probe kit c. Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) d. Multimeter

b. Toner and probe kit

Which of the following answers refers to a modular network device designed to provide a seamless link between different types of network interfaces (e.g. copper and fiber, or vice versa)? a. Bridge b. Transceiver c. Active hub d. Managed switch

b. Transceiver

Bayonet Neill-Concelman (BNC) connector is used with: a. Twisted-pair copper cabling b. Single-mode fiber-optic cabling c. Coaxial copper cabling d. Multimode fiber-optic cabling

c. Coaxial copper cabling

A disaster recovery facility that provides only the physical space for recovery operations is called: a. Hot site b. Warm site c. Cold site d. Mirror site

c. Cold site

An application software used to selectively block access to certain websites is an example of: a. Captive portal b. Firewall c. Content filter d. Proxy server

c. Content filter

Shielded Twisted-Pair (STP) cabling reduces what kind of interference? (Select 2 answers) a. Jitter b. Signal attenuation c. Crosstalk d. EMI e. Signal latency

c. Crosstalk d. EMI

An expired IP address indicates a problem with: a. HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) b. DNS (Domain Name Server/Service) c. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) d. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)

c. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)

A security feature of a network switch that provides countermeasures against rogue DHCP servers is called: a. DHCP scope b. DHCP reservation c. DHCP snooping d. DHCP relay agent

c. DHCP snooping

In order to connect to a website and display its contents, a URL entered in the web browser address bar needs to be translated into an IP address. Which of the servers listed below is used to handle this type of request? a. ICS server (Internet Connection Sharing Server) b. Web server c. DNS server d. DHCP server

c. DNS server

Layer 2 of the OSI model is known as: a. Transport layer b. Network layer c. Data link layer d. Physical layer

c. Data link layer

Which of the following methods provides the most effective way for permanent removal of data stored on a magnetic drive? a. Quick format b. Overwriting data c. Degaussing d. Low-level format

c. Degaussing

A wireless disassociation attack is a type of: a. Downgrade attack b. Brute-force attack c. Denial of Service (DoS) attack d. Cryptographic attack

c. Denial of Service (DoS) attack

LDAP is an example of: a. Authentication protocol b. Address resolution protocol c. Directory access protocol d. File exchange protocol

c. Directory access protocol

Which of the answers listed below refers to a type of routing protocol that determines the best route for data packets based on the lowest number of hops? a. Hybrid b. Link-state c. Distance-vector d. Dynamic

c. Distance-vector

The term "Brownout" refers to what kind of situation? a. Power spike b. EMI (electromagnetic interference) c. Drop in voltage d. Power outage

c. Drop in voltage

Automatic routing table update is a feature of: a. Static routing b. Route redistribution c. Dynamic routing d. Route aggregation

c. Dynamic routing

Which of the following EAP methods offers the highest level of security? a. PEAP (Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol) b. EAP-FAST (Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling) c. EAP-TLS d. EAP-TTLS

c. EAP-TLS

Which of the following terms is used to describe an average time required to repair a failed component or device? a. MTBF (mean time between failures) b. RPO (recovery point objective) c. MTTR (mean time to repair) d. SLA (service level agreement)

c. MTTR (mean time to repair)

Which of the following DNS database records maps a domain name to a list of mail servers for that domain? a. NS (Network Administration) b. SPF (Sender Policy Framework) c. MX (Mail Exchanger Record) d. PTR (Pointer Record)

c. MX (Mail Exchanger Record)

Which type of network documentation would be of help in determining the physical location of a network server? a. Network diagram b. IDF documentation (Intermediate Distribution Frame) c. Rack diagram d. MDF documentation (Main Distribution Frame)

c. Rack diagram

Malware that restricts access to a computer system by encrypting files or locking the entire system down until the user performs requested action is called: a. Grayware b. Adware c. Ransomware d. Spyware

c. Ransomware

A device designed to filter and transfer data packets between dissimilar types of computer networks is called: a. Hub b. Load balancer c. Router d. Switch

c. Router

A strong password that meets the password complexity requirement should contain: (Select best answer) a. Uppercase letters (A-Z) b. Digits (0-9) c. Non-alphanumeric characters if permitted (e.g. !, @, #, $) d. Lowercase letters (a-z) e. A combination of characters from at least 3 character groups

e. A combination of characters from at least 3 character groups

Examples of technologies used for SAN connectivity include: a. FCoE (Fibre Channel over Ethernet) b. InfiniBand c. iSCSI (Internet Small Computer System Interface) d. Fibre Channel e. All of the above

e. All of the above

Which of the following can be the source of RFI and cause disruptions in network connectivity? a. Cordless phones b. Fluorescent lights c. Microwave ovens d. Bluetooth devices e. All of the above

e. All of the above

Which of the answers listed below refers to an example of a valid subnet mask? a. 255.255.225.0 b. 255.255.191.0 c. 255.255.127.0 d. 255.255.64.0 e. None of the above is a valid subnet mask

e. None of the above is a valid subnet mask

A network device hardening process should include: a. Changing default credentials / Avoiding common passwords b. Firmware upgrades / Patching and updates c. File hashing d. Disabling unnecessary services and unused ports (physical and virtual) e. Implementation of secure protocols f. Cryptographic key renewal g. All of the above

g. All of the above

Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a technology that allows for real-time analysis of security alerts generated by network hardware and applications? a. LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol) b. DSCP (IP Differentiated Services Code Point) c. SIEM (security information and event management) d. HIDS (host-based intrusion detection system)

c. SIEM (security information and event management)

An agreement between a service provider and users defining the nature, availability, quality, and scope of the service to be provided is referred to as: a. SOW (statement of work) b. MSA (multi-source agreement) c. SLA (service level agreement) d. MOU (memorandum of understanding)

c. SLA (service level agreement)

A type of protocol used in network management systems for monitoring network-attached devices is called: a. SMB (Server Message Block) b. NTP (Network Time Protocol) c. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) d. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)

c. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)

Which DNS records are commonly used with the DNS TXT record? (Select 2 answers) a. PTR (Pointer Record) b. CNAME (Canonical Name) c. SPF (Sender Policy Framework) d. MX (Mail Exchanger Record) e. DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail)

c. SPF (Sender Policy Framework) e. DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail)

Which DNS records are used to protect a domain from being wrongfully identified as a source of email spam? (Select 2 answers) a. NS (Network Administration) b. SPF (Sender Policy Framework) c. CNAME (Canonical Name) d. DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail) e. SRV (Server Record)

c. SPF (Sender Policy Framework) e. DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail)

Which of the protocols listed below enables secure remote access to another computer on the network via command line? a. VNC (Virtual Network Computing) b. Telnet (TCP/IP protocol for accessing remote computers) c. SSH (Secure Shell) d. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)

c. SSH (Secure Shell)

Which of the answers listed below refer to implementations of certificate-based authentication? (Select 2 answers) a. CHAP (Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol) b. 802.3at c. Smart cards d. 802.3af e. PAP (Password Authentication Protocol) f. 802.1X

c. Smart cards f. 802.1X

What type of backups are commonly used with virtual machines? a. Tape b. Incremental c. Snapshot d. Differential

c. Snapshot

An unauthorized practice of obtaining confidential information by manipulating people into disclosing sensitive data is referred to as: a .Shoulder surfing b. Privilege escalation c. Social engineering d. Penetration testing

c. Social engineering

A type of diagnostic tool used for measuring the strength of a wireless signal is referred to as: a. Tone generator b. Multimeter c. Spectrum analyzer d. Network mapper

c. Spectrum analyzer

A network topology in which each node connects to a central switching device is called: a. Bus topology b. Ring topology c. Star topology d. Mesh topology

c. Star topology

Which device improves network performance by dividing a given network segment into separate collision domains? a. Hub b. Repeater c. Switch d. Router

c. Switch

A type of server used for collecting diagnostic and monitoring data from networked devices is known as: a. Proxy server b. UC server c. Syslog server d. ICS server

c. Syslog server

The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) Control Connection for administering a session is established through: a. TCP port 20 b. UDP port 20 c. TCP port 21 d. UDP port 21

c. TCP port 21

A network technician uses Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) client on their Windows OS to remotely troubleshoot a problem on another Windows machine. Which of the following ports needs to be opened for the built-in Windows RDP server to allow this type of network connection? a. TCP port 1720 b. TCP port 636 c. TCP port 3389 d. TCP port 445

c. TCP port 3389

What does the term "Miredo" refer to? a. IPv4 to IPv6 migration mechanism b. Load balancing solution c. Teredo tunneling software d. Content filtering solution

c. Teredo tunneling software

What are the characteristic features of the RJ-45 connector? (Select 2 answers) a. Used with telephone cabling b. Coaxial cabling connector c. Used with Ethernet network cabling d. Copper cabling connector e. Fiber-optic cabling connector

c. Used with Ethernet network cabling d. Copper cabling connector

Switch spoofing and double tagging are attack methods used in: a. DDoS attacks b. Downgrade attacks c. VLAN hopping attacks d. Wireless disassociation attacks

c. VLAN hopping attacks

Which of the terms listed below does not fall into the category of preventive physical security controls? a. ID badges b. Biometrics c. Video surveillance d. Smart cards e. Key fobs f. Hardware locks

c. Video surveillance

Which of the following would be the best solution for securing a small network lacking an authentication server? a. WPA-PSK b. WPA2-Enterprise c. WPA2-PSK d. WPA-Enterprise

c. WPA2-PSK

An optimal Wireless Access Point (WAP) antenna placement provides a countermeasure against: a. War chalking b. Spoofing c. War driving d. Insider threat

c. War driving

A type of network device used for improving wireless signal strength within homes and small offices is called: a. Wireless hotspot b. Distributed switch c. Wireless range extender d. Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF)

c. Wireless range extender

Which of the answers listed below refers to a wireless protocol designed to provide communication between appliances in a home automation network? a. FCoE (Fibre Channel over Ethernet) b. SDN (Software-Defined Networking) c. Z-Wave d. SIEM ( Security Information And Event Management)

c. Z-Wave

What is the name of a Windows command-line utility that can be used to display TCP/IP configuration settings? a. ifconfig b. cnslookup c. ipconfig d. netstat

c. ipconfig

A command-line utility in MS Windows used for displaying protocol statistics and current TCP/IP network connections is called: a. tracert b. traceroute c. netstat d. nslookup

c. netstat

Which of the following answers refers to a command-line packet capturing utility? a. netcat b. Zenmap c. tcpdump d. Nmap

c. tcpdump

Which of the following answers refers to a dedicated local network consisting of devices that provide data access? a. SDN (Software-defined networking) b. NAS (Network-attached storage) c. iSCSI (Internet Small Computer System Interface) d. SAN (Storage area network)

d. SAN (Storage area network)

Which of the following answers refers to a protocol used for managing real-time sessions that include voice, video, application sharing, or instant messaging services? a. L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol) b. BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) c. RSTP (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol) d. SIP (Session Initiation Protocol)

d. SIP (Session Initiation Protocol)

TCP port 25 is used by: a. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) b. Telnet c. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) d. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)

d. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)

Which of the answers listed below refers to a secure replacement for Telnet? a. CHAP (Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol) b. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) c. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) d. SSH (Secure Shell)

d. SSH (Secure Shell)

Which of the protocols listed below provide protection against switching loops? (Select 2 answers) a. RTP (Real-Time Transport Protocol) b. SRTP (Secure Real-Time Transport Protocol) c. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) d. STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) e. RSTP (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol)

d. STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) e. RSTP (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol)

A range of IP addresses that a DHCP server can lease out to DHCP clients is known as: a. Lease b. Reservation c. Pool d. Scope

d. Scope

Which OSI layer assumes the responsibility for managing network connections between applications? a. Network layer b. Data link layer c. Application layer d. Session layer

d. Session layer

Which preventive physical security control would provide basic means for securing door access? a. Motion detection b. Warning signs c. Video surveillance d. Smart card reader

d. Smart card reader

Which of the following allows to determine which network segment an IP address belongs to? a. Physical address b. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) c. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) d. Subnet mask

d. Subnet mask

Secure Shell (SSH) protocol runs on: a. TCP port 21 b. UDP port 22 c. TCP port 20 d. TCP port 22

d. TCP port 22

Layer 4 of the OSI model is also referred to as: a. Network layer b. Data link layer c. Session Layer d. Transport layer

d. Transport layer

Which of the following answers refers to a non-proprietary RDP alternative that enables control over another computer on the network with the use of a graphical user interface? a. VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol) b. VRF (Virtual routing and forwarding) c. VTC (Video teleconferencing) d. VNC (Virtual Network Computing)

d. VNC (Virtual Network Computing)

A computer network connecting multiple smaller networks over very large geographical areas is known as: a. PAN (Private Area Network) b. LAN (Local Area Network) c. MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) d. WAN (Wide Area Network)

d. WAN (Wide Area Network)

Which of the following tools would be of help in determining the optimal placement of a WAP? a. War driving b. Optical power meter c. Network mapper d. Wi-Fi analyzer

d. Wi-Fi analyzer

Which network device enables centralized management of WAPs? a. VPN concentrator b. Load balancer c. Multilayer switch d. Wireless LAN controller

d. Wireless LAN controller

Which command in MS Windows displays a table consisting of IP addresses and their resolved physical addresses? a. arp -e b. netstat -n c. nslookup d. arp -a

d. arp -a

A network command-line utility in MS Windows that tracks and displays the route taken by IPv4 packets on their way to another host is called: a. ping b. traceroute c. nslookup d. tracert

d. tracert

Which of the answers listed below refer to an IPv4 loopback address? a. ::1 b. FE80::/10 c. 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 d. 169.254/16 e. 127.0.0.1

e. 127.0.0.1

The IEEE 802.11ac standard specifies a maximum channel bandwidth of: a. 20 MHz b. 22 MHz c. 40 MHz d. 80 MHz e. 160 MHz

e. 160 MHz

Which of the following answers refer to the IPv4 multicast address block? (Select 2 answers) a. 128 - 191 b. Class B range c. 192 - 223 d. Class C range e. 224 - 239 f. Class D range

e. 224 - 239 f. Class D range

Which of the statements listed below is not true? a. The ATM PDU is the cell b. OSI physical layer PDU is the bit c. OSI data link layer PDU is the frame d. OSI network layer PDU is the packet e. OSI transport layer PDU is the segment f. PDUs between OSI session and application g. layers are referred to simply as the data h. All of the above statements are true

h. All of the above statements are true

Which netstat parameter allows to display all active TCP connections and the TCP/UDP ports on which the computer is listening? a. -a b. -p c. -e d. -r

a. -a

Which of the choices listed below would allow for setting up three Wireless Access Points (WAPs) on non-overlapping channels? a. 1 b. 5 c. 6 d. 9 e. 11

a. 1 c. 6 e. 11

T1 lines support data transfer rates of up to: a. 1.544 Mbps b. 2.048 Mbps c. 34.368 Mbps d. 44.736 Mbps

a. 1.544 Mbps

Network Time Protocol (NTP) runs on UDP port: a. 123 b. 110 c. 161 d. 137

a. 123

What is the leading octet value range for an IPv4 address belonging to a class B network? a. 128 - 191 b. 1 - 126 c. 192-223 d. 224-239

a. 128 - 191

Which of the TCP port numbers listed below is assigned to the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)? a. 143 b. 389 c. 443 d. 636

a. 143

The IEEE 802.11a standard specifies a channel bandwidth of: a. 20 MHz b. 22 MHz c. 40 MHz d. 80 MHz

a. 20 MHz

The IEEE 802.11g standard specifies a channel bandwidth of: a. 20 MHz b. 22 MHz c. 40 MHz d. 80 MHz

a. 20 MHz

The IEEE 802.11n standard specifies available channel bandwidth options of: (Select 2 answers) a. 20 MHz b. 22 MHz c. 40 MHz d. 80 MHz e. 160 MHz

a. 20 MHz c. 40 MHz

Which of the following answers lists the default (classful) subnet mask for a class A network? a. 255.0.0.0 b. 255.128.0.0 c. 224.0.0.0 d. 255.224.0.0

a. 255.0.0.0

An IPv4 address consists of: a. 32 bits b. 48 bits c. 64 bits d. 128 bits

a. 32 bits

Frequency bands used by 802.11 networks include: (Select 2 answers) a. 5.0 GHz b. 5.4 GHz c. 2.0 GHz d. 2.4 GHz

a. 5.0 GHz d. 2.4 GHz

An SNMP-compliant device includes a virtual database containing information about configuration and state of the device that can be queried by an SNMP management station. This type of data repository is referred to as: a. MIB (management information base) b. DCS (distributed control system) c. NMS (network management system) d. SIEM (security information and event management)

a. MIB (management information base)

What are the characteristic traits of a network switch? (Select all that apply) a. Makes forwarding decisions in hardware (ASIC) b. Typically capable of connecting more network segments than bridge (more physical ports) c. Older and less effective type of network device in comparison to network bridge d. Makes forwarding decisions in software e. Sometimes referred to as multiport bridge f. Newer and more effective type of network device in comparison to network bridge g. Typically capable of connecting fewer network segments than bridge (fewer physical ports)

a. Makes forwarding decisions in hardware (ASIC) b. Typically capable of connecting more network segments than bridge (more physical ports) e. Sometimes referred to as multiport bridge f. Newer and more effective type of network device in comparison to network bridge

Which of the answers listed below refer to the characteristic features of the IEEE 802.11a wireless standard? (Select 3 answers) a. Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps b. 5.0 GHz frequency band c. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method d. 2.4 GHz frequency band e. Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps f. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) network access method

a. Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps b. 5.0 GHz frequency band c. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method

Which password policy setting prevents users from repeatedly changing their passwords to bypass the password history policy setting and get back to their original/preferred password? a. Minimum password age setting b. Password complexity setting c. Account lockout threshold setting d. Login time restrictions

a. Minimum password age setting

The characteristic features of the IEEE 802.11n wireless standard include: (Select all that apply) a. Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MIMO) b. Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps c. 2.4 GHz frequency band d. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) network access method e. 5.0 GHz frequency band f. Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO) g. Maximum data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps h. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method

a. Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MIMO) c. 2.4 GHz frequency band e. 5.0 GHz frequency band g. Maximum data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps h. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method

A type of computer security solution that allows to define and enforce network access policies is referred to as: a. NAC (Network Access Control) b. NIDS (Short for network intrusion detection system) c. NFC (Near-field communication) d. NAT (Network address translation)

a. NAC (Network Access Control)

Which of the IPv6 protocols listed below is used by networked nodes for locating routers? a. NDP (Neighbor Discovery Protocol) b. NTP (Network Time Protocol) c. NDR (Network Data Representation) d. NCP (Network Control Protocol)

a. NDP (Neighbor Discovery Protocol)

Which type of technology enables contactless payment transactions? a. NFC (Near Field Communication) b. SDN (Software-Defined Networking) c. PED (Portable Electronic Device) d. WAP (Wireless Application Protocol)

a. NFC (Near Field Communication)

Which of the answers listed below refers to a network protocol used for synchronizing clocks over a computer network? a. NTP (Network Time Protocol) b. VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol) c. NNTP (Network News Transfer Protocol) d. RTP (Real-Time Transport Protocol)

a. NTP (Network Time Protocol)

Which of the following command-line tools is used for discovering hosts and services on a network? a. Nmap b. netcat c. Zenmap d. tcpdump

a. Nmap

Which of the answers listed below refer to IMAP4? (Select 2 answers) a. Offers improved functionality in comparison to POP3 b. Serves the same function as POP3 c. Enables sending email messages from client devices d. Offers less functions than POP3 e. Enables email exchange between mail servers

a. Offers improved functionality in comparison to POP3 b. Serves the same function as POP3

Which of the answers listed below refer to a very basic UPS type commonly used for protecting a single PC? (Select 2 answers) a. Offline b. Standby c. Line-interactive d. Online e. Double-conversion

a. Offline b. Standby

Which of the answers listed below refers to a common antenna type used as a standard equipment on most Access Points (APs) for indoor Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) deployments? a. Omnidirectional antenna b. Dish antenna c. Unidirectional antenna d. Yagi antenna

a. Omnidirectional antenna

What are the characteristic features of RADIUS? (Select 3 answers) a. Primarily used for network access b. Encrypts the entire payload of the access-request packet c. Combines authentication and authorization d. Encrypts only the password in the access-request packet e. Primarily used for device administration Separates authentication and authorization

a. Primarily used for network access c. Combines authentication and authorization d. Encrypts only the password in the access-request packet

What are the characteristic features of RADIUS? (Select 3 answers) a. Primarily used for network access b. Encrypts the entire payload of the access-request packet c. Combines authentication and authorization d. Encrypts only the password in the access-request packet e. Primarily used for device administration f. Separates authentication and authorization

a. Primarily used for network access c. Combines authentication and authorization d. Encrypts only the password in the access-request packet

What are the characteristic features of TFTP? (Select 2 answers) a. Provides no security features b. Typically used for exchanging files over the Internet c. A very basic form of file sharing protocol d. Provides authentication and encryption e. Directory access protocol

a. Provides no security features c. A very basic form of file sharing protocol

Which of the solutions listed below add(s) redundancy in areas identified as single points of failure? (Select all that apply) a. RAID b. Dual-power supply c. Virtualization d. Failover clustering e. Load balancing

a. RAID b. Dual-power supply d. Failover clustering e. Load balancing

A Microsoft-proprietary protocol providing a user with graphical interface for connecting to another networked host is known as: a. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) b. SSH (Secure Shell) c. Telnet d. RSH (Remote Shell)

a. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)

Which of the following answers refers to a Microsoft-proprietary remote-access protocol providing a user with graphical interface for connecting to another computer over a network? a. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) b. SSH (Secure Shell) c. VNC (Virtual Network Computing) d. Telnet (TCP/IP protocol for accessing remote computers)

a. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)

Which VPN type is used for connecting computers to a network? (Select all that apply) a. Remote-access b. Client-to-site c. Site-to-site d. Point-to-point

a. Remote-access b. Client-to-site

In computer networking, the term "Attenuation" refers to a loss in signal strength during transmission caused by increasing distance and obstacles encountered on the signal path. The problem of attenuating circuit on the network can be solved by adding a device that boosts the signal strength. This type of device is known as: a. Repeater b. Media converter c. Inverter d. Load balancer

a. Repeater

In the Kerberos-based authentication process, the purpose of the client's timestamp is to provide countermeasure against: a. Replay attacks b. Dictionary attacks c. Birthday attacks d. Downgrade attacks

a. Replay attacks

Which of the devices listed below is used for separating broadcast domains? a. Router b. Switch c. Repeater d. Hub

a. Router

Which of the answers listed below refer to the components that can be found at the OSI network layer? (Select 3 answers) a. Router b. Network cabling c. IP address d. TCP/UDP protocols e. Switch f. Packet

a. Router c. IP address f. Packet

Which of the answers listed below refers to a network protocol used in the most common types of spoofing attacks? a. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) b. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) c. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) d. Telnet (A terminal emulation protocol used on the Internet and TCP/IP-based networks)

a. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)

Which DNS record specifies a host and port information that allow to find specific services on a network? a. SRV (Server Record) b. NS (Network Administration) c. PTR (Pointer Record) d. DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail)

a. SRV (Server Record)

Examples of copper cabling types used in Ethernet networks include: (Select all that apply) a. STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) b. Multimode c. UTP (Unshielded twisted pair) d. Single-mode e. Coax

a. STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) c. UTP (Unshielded twisted pair) e. Coax

The SMTP protocol is used for: (Select 2 answers) a. Sending email between mail servers b. Name resolution c. Serving of web pages d. Retrieving email from mail servers e. Sending email from a client device

a. Sending email between mail servers e. Sending email from a client device

Layer 5 of the OSI model is also referred to as: a. Session layer b. Application layer c. Transport layer d. Presentation layer

a. Session layer

Which of the tools listed below allows for secure disposal of physical documents? a. Shredder b. Hard drive sanitation c. Degaussing tool d. Recycle Bin

a. Shredder

Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the feature(s) of SFP? (Select all that apply) a. Small form factor transceiver b. Converts electrical signals to optical signals c. Data transfer of 10 Gbps d. Newer transceiver type that replaces GBIC e. Modular (hot swappable) interface f. Converts optical signals to electrical signals g. Fixed physical interface h. Data transfer of 1 Gbps

a. Small form factor transceiver b. Converts electrical signals to optical signals d. Newer transceiver type that replaces GBIC e. Modular (hot swappable) interface f. Converts optical signals to electrical signals h. Data transfer of 1 Gbps

An email sent from unknown source disguised as the source known to the message receiver is an example of: (Select 2 answers) a. Spoofing b. Dictionary attack c. Trojan horse d. Brute forcing e. Social engineering f. Tailgating

a. Spoofing e. Social engineering

Which of the answers listed below refers to a permanent assignment of an IP address? a. Static IP address b. Private IP address c. Dynamic IP address d. Public IP address

a. Static IP address

A manually-configured routing table entry is known as: a. Static route b. Dynamic route c. Hybrid route d. Default route

a. Static route

Materials from which the plenum-rated cable's cover is made include low-smoke polyvinyl chloride (PVC) and fluorinated ethylene polymer (FEP). a. True b. False

a. True

Authentication process can be based on different categories of authentication factors, including unique physical traits of each individual such as fingerprints ("something you are"), physical tokens such as smart cards ("something you have"), or user names and passwords ("something you know"). Additional factors might include geolocation ("somewhere you are"), or user-specific activity patterns, such as keyboard typing style ("something you do"). Multifactor authentication systems require implementation of authentication factors from two or more different categories. a. True b. False

a. True

Category 3 (Cat 3) cable is a 10 Mbps twisted-pair copper cable used in telephone wiring and older Ethernet (10BaseT) networks. a. True b. False

a. True

Category 7 is a twisted-pair cabling standard featuring improved specifications for canceling crosstalk and system noise. As in Cat 6A, Cat 7 cabling offers 10 Gbps data transfer rate over a cable segment length of 100 meters in 10GBaseT networks. Category 7 standard introduces new connector types (the GG45 and TERA connector). Cat 7 cabling hasn't seen a widespread market adoption yet, because all manufacturers of active equipment and network cards prefer Cat 6A standard which offers similar performance and takes advantage of the traditional RJ-45 connector. a. True b. False

a. True

Changing the native VLAN on all trunk ports to an unused VLAN ID is one of the countermeasures against VLAN hopping. a. True b. False

a. True

Chassis intrusion detection is an option that can be enabled/disabled in the BIOS setup utility (if a BIOS comes equipped with this feature). Coupled with a hardware sensor mounted inside the computer case, this functionality can be used to check if the case was opened and display a notification alert during next boot. a. True b. False

a. True

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol version 6 (DHCPv6) is the IPv6 equivalent of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) for IPv4. a. True b. False

a. True

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is an authentication framework frequently used in wireless networks and point-to-point connections. EAP provides an authentication framework, not a specific authentication mechanism. There are many authentication mechanisms (referred to as EAP methods) that can be used with EAP. Wireless networks take advantage of several EAP methods, including PEAP, EAP-FAST, EAP-TLS, and EAP-TTLS. a. True b. False

a. True

For a wireless client to be able to connect to a network, the security type (e.g. WEP, WPA or WPA2) and encryption type (e.g. TKIP or AES) settings on the connecting host must match the corresponding wireless security settings on a Wireless Access Point (WAP). a. True b. False

a. True

Hash functions allow for mapping large amounts of data content to a small string of characters. The result of hash function provides the exact "content in a nutshell" (in the form of a string of characters) derived from the main content. In case there's any change to the data after the original hash was taken, the next time when hash function is applied, the resulting hash value calculated after content modification will be different from the original hash. In computer forensics procedures, comparing hashes taken at different stages of evidence handling process ensures that the evidence hasn't been tampered with and retains its integrity. a. True b. False

a. True

In 10GBaseT networks, Category 6 (Cat 6) cabling supports a 10 Gbps data transfer rate at a limited range of 33-55 meters, whereas Cat 6A (Augmented) cabling allows for 10 Gbps data transfer rate over a cable segment length of 100 meters. a. True b. False

a. True

In STP network topology, the term "Root guard" refers to a security mechanism designed to protect integrity of the designated main switch. a. True b. False

a. True

In a network using subnets, the term "Default gateway" refers to a network device (e.g. router) that enables exchange of data between hosts residing in different subnets. a. True b. False

a. True

In computer networking, the term "Collision" refers to a situation in which two or more demands are made simultaneously on an equipment that can handle only one request at any given moment. a. True b. False

a. True

In computer networking, the term "Out-of-band management" refers to a network device management technique that enables device access through a dedicated communication channel separate from the network where a given device operates. Managing access can be established either locally by installing an out-of-band management card on the device, or remotely by establishing a dedicated connection to the device with the use of a modem or console router. a. True b. False

a. True

In computer security, the term "Biometrics" refers to physical characteristics of the human body that can be used for identification and access control purposes. a. True b. False

a. True

In computer security, the term "Exploit" refers to a any method that allows malicious users to take advantage of a vulnerability found in computer systems. a. True b. False

a. True

In telecommunications, Protocol Data Unit (PDU) is a term used for describing a specific unit of data passed across a network. a. True b. False

a. True

In terms of size and reach, a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) can be placed between a LAN (smaller type of network) and a WAN (larger type of network). a. True b. False

a. True

In the patch management process, an unwanted change introduced by an update can typically be reverted via rollback feature which allows for restoring an application or system to a state prior to the update. a. True b. False

a. True

Long Term Evolution (LTE) is a wireless communications standard for mobile devices and wireless hotspots. LTE offers significant improvements in terms of speed when compared to the older generation of 3G cellular networks. LTE and its later revision LTE-Advanced (LTE-A) are often marketed as 4G standards. a. True b. False

a. True

Physical and logical network diagrams provide visual representation of network architecture. A physical network diagram contains information on hardware devices and physical links between them. A logical network diagram describes the actual traffic flow on a network and provides information related to IP addressing schemes, subnets, device roles or protocols that are in use on the network. a. True b. False

a. True

Private Branch Exchange (PBX) is an internal telephone exchange or switching system implemented in a business or office. PBX allows for handling of internal communications without the use of paid Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) service. A Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) PBX, which takes advantage of existing LAN cables, can further reduce costs by removing the need for separate telephone cabling infrastructure in a building or office. a. True b. False

a. True

Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) is an extension to the Secure Shell protocol (SSH) and runs by default on TCP port 22. a. True b. False

a. True

Setting up a wireless network to operate on a non-overlapping channel allows multiple networks to coexist in the same area without causing interference. a. True b. False

a. True

The 66 block (older type/primarily used in analog telephone systems) and the 110 block (newer type/used in computer networks) are examples of punch-down blocks used for connecting sets of wires. a. True b. False

a. True

The Internet is an example of a large public WAN. a. True b. False

a. True

The general feature of all twisted-pair cabling types is that wires inside the cable are grouped into pairs and wires in each pair are twisted around each other to reduce signal interference from adjacent wire pairs (effect known as crosstalk). a. True b. False

a. True

The importance of changing default user names and passwords can be illustrated on the example of certain network devices (e.g. routers) which are often shipped with default and well-known admin credentials that can be looked up on the web. a. True b. False

a. True

The main difference between the UTP and STP cabling is that STP cable takes advantage of additional protective cover reducing signal interference from outside sources. a. True b. False

a. True

The process of securing networking devices should include the practice of disabling unused physical ports. a. True b. False

a. True

The purpose of the Carrier Sense Multiple Access (CSMA) protocol is to verify the absence of other traffic on a shared medium before transmitting to prevent collisions and loss of data. a. True b. False

a. True

The shape and angle of the tip of a fiber-optic connector can have an impact on the performance of a fiber-optic communication link. The two basic types of fiber end are Ultra Physical Contact (UPC) and Angled Physical Contact (APC). In the UPC-type connector, the connector end is polished with no angle, while APC connectors feature a fiber end polished at an 8-degree angle. Besides additional labeling (UPC or APC) that helps in identifying further details about a given connector type, fiber-optic connectors can also have different colors. The rule of thumb is that a UPC-type connector typically would be blue while APC connector would have a green color. a. True b. False

a. True

The term "Default route" refers to a "last resort" network path used by a router for forwarding all packets with destination addresses not listed in its routing table. a. True b. False

a. True

The term "Dual-stack IP" refers to a solution that relies on implementing both IPv4 and IPv6 protocol stacks on various network devices to facilitate seamless migration from IPv4 to IPv6. a. True b. False

a. True

The term "Evil twin" refers to a rogue Wireless Access Point (WAP) set up for eavesdropping or stealing sensitive user data. Evil twin replaces the legitimate access point and by advertising its own presence with the same Service Set Identifier (SSID, a.k.a. network name) appears as a legitimate access point to connecting hosts. a. True b. False

a. True

The term "Intrusion Detection System" (IDS) refers to a device or software application designed to detect malicious activities and violations of security policies on a network or computer host. An IDS designed to monitor networks is known as Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS). A type of IDS installed on a host monitoring only that host is called Host Intrusion Detection System (HIDS). IDSs do not take any active steps to prevent or stop the intrusion relying only on passive response which may include sending an alert to a management console or saving information about the event in logs. a. True b. False

a. True

The term "Unified Threat Management" (UTM) refers to a network security solution, commonly in the form of a dedicated device (called UTM appliance or web security gateway), which combines the functionality of a firewall with additional safeguards such as URL filtering, content inspection, spam filtering, gateway antivirus protection, IDS/IPS functionality, or malware inspection. a. True b. False

a. True

The term "VoIP endpoint" refers to a dedicated hardware device or an application program that enables Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) telephone calls from computing devices. a. True b. False

a. True

The very last step of the troubleshooting process involves documenting findings, actions and outcomes. This step comes after verification of full system functionality and implementation of applicable preventive measures. a. True b. False

a. True

To allow traffic from multiple VLANs on a single communication link, frames from individual VLANs must be identified. The most common and preferred method, IEEE 802.1Q, adds a tag to the Ethernet frame header, labeling it as belonging to a certain VLAN. a. True b. False

a. True

Transmission carried out in one direction only is described as simplex mode. Communication that takes place only in one direction at a time is referred to as half-duplex mode. Two devices communicating with each other in both directions simultaneously are said to be in full-duplex mode. Network devices supporting autonegotiation feature automatically configure best mode supported by both devices. Duplex mismatch is the term used for a situation where two devices communicate with each other using different duplex modes. a. True b. False

a. True

Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) is a network security standard which simplifies configuration of new wireless networks by providing non-technical users with a capability to easily configure network security settings and add new devices to an existing network. WPS has known vulnerabilities and disabling this functionality is one of the recommended ways of securing wireless networks. a. True b. False

a. True

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) and Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) are encryption standards designed for securing wireless networks. WEP is an older standard and due to its vulnerabilities is not recommended. WPA was designed as an interim replacement for WEP, and WPA2 was introduced as the official standard offering the strongest security of the three. a. True b. False

a. True

Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to UTP cabling? (Select all that apply) a. Twisted-pair copper cabling b. Used in Ethernet networks and telephone systems c. Low cost and ease of installation d. Takes advantage of additional protective cover reducing signal interference from outside sources e. Coaxial cabling f. Not surrounded by any shielding that would provide protection against interference from outside sources g. Fiber-optic cabling h. In Ethernet networks, installed with RJ-45 connector type

a. Twisted-pair copper cabling b. Used in Ethernet networks and telephone systems c. Low cost and ease of installation f. Not surrounded by any shielding that would provide h. In Ethernet networks, installed with RJ-45 connector type

Which of the protocols listed below reside at the OSI transport layer? (Select 2 answers) a. UDP (User Datagram Protocol) b. SSL/TLS (Secure Socket Layer/Transport Layer Security) c. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) d. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) e. ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode)

a. UDP (User Datagram Protocol) d. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol)

Which of the cabling types listed below is the most susceptible to EMI/RFI? a. UTP cabling b. Coaxial cabling c. STP cabling d. Fiber-optic cabling

a. UTP cabling

A type of network traffic intended for a single host identified by a unique IP address is referred to as: a. Unicast b. Multicast c. Broadcast

a. Unicast

Which of the answers listed below refer to the RJ-11 connector? (Select 2 answers) a. Used with telephone cabling b. Copper cabling connector c. Used with Ethernet network cabling d. Fiber-optic cabling connector e. Coaxial cabling connector

a. Used with telephone cabling b. Copper cabling connector

Which of the terms listed below refers to a logical grouping of computers that allow computer hosts to act as if they were attached to the same broadcast domain regardless of their physical location? a. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) b. DMZ (Demilitarized Zone) c. SNMP community (Simple Network Management Protocol) d. VPN (Virtual Private Network)

a. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network)

Which of the following answers refers to a dedicated device designed to manage encrypted connections established over an untrusted network, such as the Internet? a. VPN concentrator b. Proxy server c. Distributed switch d. UTM appliance (Unified threat management appliance)

a. VPN concentrator

Which of the terms listed below refers to a solution that allows multiple operating systems to work simultaneously on the same hardware? a. Virtualization b. Clustering c. Hyperthreading d. Multitasking

a. Virtualization

Which of the following answers lists an example of a modern network bridging device? a. WAP (Wireless Access Point) b. Active hub c. VoIP endpoint d. Wireless range extender

a. WAP (Wireless Access Point)

Which of the answers listed below refer to highly directional antenna type used for long-range point-to-point bridging links? (Select 3 answers) a. Yagi antenna b. Omnidirectional antenna c. Dish antenna d. Non-directional antenna e. Parabolic antenna f. Dipole antenna

a. Yagi antenna c. Dish antenna e. Parabolic antenna

What is the name of a Linux command-line utility that can be used to display TCP/IP configuration settings? a. ifconfig b. netstat c. nslookup d. ipconfig

a. ifconfig

A command-line utility used for checking the reachability of a remote network host is called: a. ping b. tracert c. dig d. netstat

a. ping

Which of the tools listed below can provide information on network latency problems? (Select 3 answers) a. ping b. Packet analyzer c. Network mapper d. tracert/traceroute e. netstat

a. ping b. Packet analyzer d. tracert/traceroute

Which ipconfig parameter allows to view the physical address of a Network Interface Card (NIC)? a. -S srcaddr b. /all c. -i address d. eth_addr

b. /all

Which of the following answers refer to IPv6 loopback addresses? (Select 2 answers) a. 127.0.0.1 b. 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 c. 169.254/16 d. ::1 e. FE80::/10

b. 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 d. ::1

Which of the answers listed below refer to the 10GBaseT Ethernet standard? (Select 3 answers) a. Single-mode fiber-optic cable b. 10 Gbps transfer rate over a maximum cable segment length of 55 meters (Cat 6 cable) c. Multimode fiber-optic cable d. 10 Gbps transfer rate over a maximum cable segment length of 100 meters (Cat 6A and Cat 7 cable) e. Twisted-pair copper cabling

b. 10 Gbps transfer rate over a maximum cable segment length of 55 meters (Cat 6 cable) d. 10 Gbps transfer rate over a maximum cable segment length of 100 meters (Cat 6A and Cat 7 cable) e. Twisted-pair copper cabling

What is the first valid host address that can be assigned to a node residing in the 10.119.136.143/20 network? a. 10.119.96.1 b. 10.119.128.1 c. 10.119.132.1 d. 10.119.136.1

b. 10.119.128.1

Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the characteristic feature(s) of Category 5 (Cat 5) cabling? (Select all that apply) a. Coaxial cabling b. 100 Mbps transfer rate over 2 pairs of cables (100BaseT networks) c. F-type connector d. 55-meter cable segment length e. 1 Gbps transfer rate over all 4 pairs of cables (1000BaseT networks) f. BNC connector g. 100-meter cable segment length h. 10 Gbps transfer rate over all 4 pairs of cables (10GBaseT networks) i. Twisted-pair copper cabling j. RJ-45 connector k. Fiber-optic cabling

b. 100 Mbps transfer rate over 2 pairs of cables (100BaseT networks) e. 1 Gbps transfer rate over all 4 pairs of cables (1000BaseT networks) g. 100-meter cable segment length i. Twisted-pair copper cabling j. RJ-45 connector

Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the characteristic feature(s) of Category 5e (Cat 5e) cabling? (Select all that apply) a. BNC connector b. 100-meter cable segment length c. Coaxial cabling d. Twisted-pair copper cabling e. Fiber-optic cabling f. 1 Gbps transfer rate over 2 pairs of cables (1000BaseT networks) g. RJ-45 connector h. 55-meter cable segment length i. 1 Gbps transfer rate over 4 pairs of cables (1000BaseT networks) j. F-type connector

b. 100-meter cable segment length d. Twisted-pair copper cabling g. RJ-45 connector i. 1 Gbps transfer rate over 4 pairs of cables (1000BaseT networks)

Which of the answers listed below refers to a binary representation of the decimal number 192? a. 10101100 b. 11000000 c. 01100010 d. 10101010

b. 11000000

Which of the following answers refers to an IPv4 address range used for loopback addresses? a. 0.0.0.0 - 0.255.255.255 (0.0.0.0/8) b. 127.0.0.0 - 127.255.255.255 (127.0.0.0/8) c. 169.254.0.0 - 169.254.255.255 (169.254.0.0/16) d. 240.0.0.0 - 255.255.255.254 (240.0.0.0/4)

b. 127.0.0.0 - 127.255.255.255 (127.0.0.0/8)

Compared to SFP, SFP+ offers enhanced data transfer rates of up to: a. 10 Gbps b. 16 Gbps c. 20 Gbps d. 40 Gbps

b. 16 Gbps

Which of the following answers lists a decimal notation of the binary number 10101100? a. 168 b. 172 c. 192 d. 224

b. 172

Which of the answers listed below refers to the maximum data transfer rate of E1 connection? a. 1.544 Mbps b. 2.048 Mbps c. 34.368 Mbps d. 44.736 Mbps

b. 2.048 Mbps

Which of the answers listed below refers to a channel bandwidth used in 802.11b networks? a. 20 MHz b. 22 MHz c. 40 MHz d. 80 MHz

b. 22 MHz

Which of the following answers lists the default (classful) subnet mask for a class B network? a. 255.252.0.0 b. 255.255.0.0 c. 255.248.0.0 d. 255.224.0.0

b. 255.255.0.0

Which of the following answers refers(s) to the feature(s) of the IEEE 802.11ac wireless standard? (Select all that apply) a. Data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps b. 5.0 GHz frequency band c. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) network access method d. Maximum data signaling rate of up to 6.77 Gbps e. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method f. Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO) g. 2.4 GHz frequency band

b. 5.0 GHz frequency band d. Maximum data signaling rate of up to 6.77 Gbps e. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method f. Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO)

Which of the following would require troubleshooting if a network connectivity problem originates from mismatched transceiver types? (Select 2 answers) a. SPF (Sender Policy Framework) b. GBIC (gigabit interface converter) c. ASIC (application-specific integrated circuit) d. SFP (Small Form-factor Pluggable) e. MDI-X (medium dependent interface w/ crossover - connection between liked devices)

b. GBIC (gigabit interface converter) d. SFP (Small Form-factor Pluggable)

Which of the answers listed below refers to a protocol used for managing VoIP and VTC services? a. SMB (Server Message Block) b. H.323 (Telecommunication Standardization Sector) c. SCP (Secure Copy Protocol) d. IGP (Interior Gateway Protocol)

b. H.323 (Telecommunication Standardization Sector)

Which protocol allows for retrieving contents of an Internet page from a web server? a. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) b. HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) c. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) d. IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol)

b. HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)

Which of the following protocols reside at the application layer of the OSI model? (Select 3 answers) a. ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) b. HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) c. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) d. IP (Internet Protocol) e. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) f. TCP/UDP (Transmission Control Protocol/User Datagram Protocol)

b. HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) c. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) e. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)

What is the name of a network protocol that secures web traffic via SSL/TLS encryption? a. SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) b. HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) c. FTPS (File Transfer Protocol Secure) d. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)

b. HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure)

Which of the protocols listed below enables remote access to another computer on the network via web browser? a. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) b. HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) c. SSH (Secure Shell) d. VNC (Virtual Network Computing)

b. HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure)

Which alternate site allows for fastest disaster recovery? a. Cold site b. Hot site c. Warm site

b. Hot site

A network segment utilizing only this type of device is the most prone to network performance degradation due to large number of network collisions. a. Bridge b. Hub c. Switch d. Router

b. Hub

Which network protocol enables detection of packet loss? a. SMB (Server Message Block Protocol) b. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) c. ARP (address resolution protocol) d. SNTP (Simple Network Time Protocol)

b. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol

Which of the following standards implements PoE+? a. IEEE 802.1d b. IEEE 802.3at c. IEEE 802.1X d. IEEE 802.3ab

b. IEEE 802.3at

What is the name of a network layer protocol that specifies the format of packets and addressing scheme in network communications? a. UDP (User Datagram Protocol) b. IP (Internet Protocol) c. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) d. NetBIOS

b. IP (Internet Protocol)

Which of the answers listed below refer to methods for creating secure connections between clients and cloud service providers? (Select 3 answers) a. Telnet b. IPsec (Internet Protocol Security) c. PAP (Password Authentication Protocol) d. SSL/TLS encryption (Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security) e. VPN (Virtual Private Network)

b. IPsec (Internet Protocol Security) d. SSL/TLS encryption (Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security) e. VPN (Virtual Private Network)

Which of the solutions listed below would be used to provide redundant power source for datacenter server racks? a. Offline UPS b. Independent power circuits c. Backup generator d. Standby UPS

b. Independent power circuits

What is the function of archive bit? a. Search indexing b. Indicating whether a file has been modified since the last backup c. Setting file attribute to read-only d. Creating an additional copy of a file

b. Indicating whether a file has been modified since the last backup

Which of the answers listed below refers to a high-speed alternative to Fibre Channel technology? a. FCoE (Fibre Channel over Ethernet) b. InfiniBand c. iSCSI (Internet Small Computer System Interface) d. PPPoE (Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet)

b. InfiniBand

A wireless networking topology consisting of at least one Access Point (AP) is referred to as: a. IEEE 802.3at b. Infrastructure mode c. IEEE 802.3af d. Ad hoc mode e. Peer-to-peer mode

b. Infrastructure mode

Which term best describes disgruntled employees abusing legitimate access to company's internal resources? a. Script kiddies b. Insider threat c. Hacktivists d. Organized crime

b. Insider threat

A network connecting computers within a small geographical area such as a building or group of buildings is known as: a. PAN (Private Area Network) b. LAN (Local Area Network) c. MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) d. WAN (Wide Area Network)

b. LAN (Local Area Network)

TCP port 389 is the default network port for: a. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) b. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) c. SMB (Server Message Block) d. LDAPS (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol with SSL/TLS)

b. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)

A type of routing protocol that calculates the best path between source and destination nodes based on a map of network connectivity between nodes is called: a. Dynamic b. Link-state c. Static d. Distance-vector

b. Link-state

Malicious code activated by a specific event is known as: a. Backdoor b. Logic bomb c. Rootkit d. Trojan horse

b. Logic bomb

A type of attack that relies on intercepting and altering data sent between two networked hosts is known as: a. Zero-day attack b. MITM attack c. Watering hole attack d. Replay attack

b. MITM attack

Which of the following metrics is used to describe the largest allowable data unit that can be transmitted across a network? a. PDU (Protocol Data Unit) b. MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) c. DSU (Data Service Unit) d. BPDU (Bridge Protocol Data Units)

b. MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit)

What are the characteristic features of the 100BaseTX Ethernet standard? (Select 3 answers) a. Twisted-pair copper cabling (Category 3 or higher) b. Maximum cable segment length of 100 meters c. Transfer rate of 100 Mbps over two-pair Cat 5 or better cable d. Maximum cable segment length of 55 meters e. Twisted-pair copper cabling (Category 5 or higher) f. Transfer rate of 1000 Mbps (1 Gbps) over four-pair Cat 5 or better cable

b. Maximum cable segment length of 100 meters c. Transfer rate of 100 Mbps over two-pair Cat 5 or better cable e. Twisted-pair copper cabling (Category 5 or higher)

What are the characteristics of the IEEE 802.11g wireless standard? (Select 3 answers) a. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) network access method b. Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps c. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method d. 2.4 GHz frequency range e. Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps f. 5.0 GHz frequency range

b. Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps c. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method d. 2.4 GHz frequency range

Which type of network topology provides the highest level of redundancy? a. Ring b. Mesh c. Bus d. Star

b. Mesh

What are the characteristic traits of GBIC? (Select all that apply) a. Data transfer of 10 Gbps b. Modular (hot swappable) interface c. Converts optical signals to electrical signals d. Fixed physical interface e. Converts electrical signals to optical signals f. Data transfer of 1 Gbps

b. Modular (hot swappable) interface c. Converts optical signals to electrical signals e. Converts electrical signals to optical signals f. Data transfer of 1 Gbps

What are the characteristic traits of single-mode fiber optics? (Select 3 answers) a. Transmission distances of up to 2 km b. More expensive than multimode fiber optics c. Uses LED as the source of light d. Transmission distances of up to 100 km e. Uses laser as the source of light f. Less expensive than multimode fiber optics

b. More expensive than multimode fiber optics d. Transmission distances of up to 100 km e. Uses laser as the source of light

A type of network traffic intended for a particular group of hosts is called: a. Unicast b. Multicast c. Broadcast

b. Multicast

A dedicated storage appliance that can be added to a local network is known as: a. SPS (SIP proxy server) b. NAS (Network-attached storage) c. SAN (Storage area network) d. NFS (Network File System)

b. NAS (Network-attached storage)

A legal contract between the holder of confidential information and another person to whom that information is disclosed prohibiting that other person from disclosing the confidential information to any other party is known as: a. ISA (Internet Security and Acceleration) b. NDA (Non Disclosure Agreement) c. BPA (Business Process Automation) d. SLA (service level agreement)

b. NDA (Non Disclosure Agreement)

An IPv6 protocol performing the function of IPv4's Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is called: a. NCP (Network Control Protocol) b. NDP (Neighbor Discovery Protocol) c. NTP (Network Time Protocol) d. NDR (Network Data Representation)

b. NDP (Neighbor Discovery Protocol)

DNS record that specifies a list of additional name servers on a domain is called: a. SPF (Sender Policy Framework) b. NS (Network Administration) c. PTR (Pointer Record) d. SRV (A Service Record)

b. NS (Network Administration)

Which protocol ensures the reliability of the Kerberos authentication process? a. EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol) b. NTP (Network Time Protocol) c. IPsec d. RTP (Real-Time Transport Protocol)

b. NTP (Network Time Protocol)

Which of the following acronyms refers to a client authentication method used in WPA/WPA2 Personal modes? a. AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) b. PSK (Pre-Shared Key) c. RC4 (symmetric key stream cipher and bite-oriented algorithm) 4. IKE (Internet Key Exchange)

b. PSK (Pre-Shared Key)

Which of the following terms refer to solutions used for controlling network resources and assigning priority to different types of traffic? (Select 2 answers) a. Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) b. Packet shaping c. Bandwidth cap d. Quality of Service (QoS) e. Fair access policy

b. Packet shaping d. Quality of Service (QoS)

A dedicated software tool used for monitoring and examining contents of a network traffic is called: (Select 2 answers) a. Port scanner b. Packet sniffer c. Vulnerability scanner d. Protocol analyzer e. Network mapper

b. Packet sniffer d. Protocol analyzer

A solution that allows to supply electricity over standard Ethernet cables is known as: (Select 2 answers) a. IEEE 802.3ab b. PoE (Power Over Ethernet) c. Metro-Ethernet d. IEEE 802.3af e. PSTN (Public Switched Telephone)

b. PoE (Power Over Ethernet) d. IEEE 802.3af

Which WAP configuration setting allows for adjusting the boundary range of a wireless signal? a. SSID broadcast b. Power level controls c. Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) d. Quality of Service (QoS)

b. Power level controls

Character encoding, data compression and encryption/decryption take place at the: a. Application layer of the OSI model b. Presentation layer of the OSI model c. Session layer of the OSI model d. Transport layer of the OSI model

b. Presentation layer of the OSI model

What are the characteristics of SMB/CIFS? (Select 2 answers) a. Used mainly by computers running Linux distributions b. Provides shared access to files, directories, and devices c. Used mainly by computers running Microsoft Windows operating systems d. Enables voice and multimedia communications over IP networks

b. Provides shared access to files, directories, and devices c. Used mainly by computers running Microsoft Windows operating systems

Which port enables the FTP's Data Connection for sending file data? a. UDP port 20 b. TCP port 20 c. UDP port 21 d. TCP port 21

b. TCP port 20

Setting up a wireless connection in Network and Sharing Center Control Panel applet in MS Windows requires: (Select 3 answers) a. Typing in the network's subnet mask b. Providing the wireless network name c. Selecting security/encryption type d. Providing IP address of the Wireless Access Point (WAP) e. Typing in the network security key (Wi-Fi password)

b. Providing the wireless network name c. Selecting security/encryption type e. Typing in the network security key (Wi-Fi password)

Which of the tools listed below is used for attaching wires to a patch panel? a. Cable crimper b. Punchdown tool c. Cable stripper d. Needle-nose pliers

b. Punchdown too

What is the functionality provided by the Class of Service (CoS) parameter? (Select 2 answers) a. Security b. Quality of Service (QoS) c. Authentication d. Traffic management e. Accounting

b. Quality of Service (QoS) d. Traffic management

Which of the answers listed below describe the function of DiffServ architecture? (Select 2 answers) a. Security b. Quality of Service (QoS) c. Authentication d. Traffic management e. Accounting

b. Quality of Service (QoS) d. Traffic management

Which of the following wireless technologies enables identification and tracking of tags attached to objects? a. WAF (Web Application Firewall) b. RFID (Radio Frequency Identification) c. GPS (Global Positioning System) d. WTLS (Wireless Transport Layer Security)

b. RFID (Radio Frequency Identification)

Which of the terms listed below refers to permanent IP address assignment from a DHCP server? a. Scope b. Reservation c. DHCP relay d. Lease

b. Reservation

A network topology in which each node connects to exactly two other nodes is referred to as: a. Partial mesh topology b. Ring topology c. Full mesh topology d. Star topology

b. Ring topology

A network protocol that allows for secure file transfer over Secure Shell (SSH) is called: a. TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) b. SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol - using SSH) c. Telnet d. FTPS (File Transfer Protocol Secure)

b. SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol - using SSH)

Which of the following terms refers to an agreement that specifies performance requirements for a vendor? a. MSA (multi-source agreement) b. SLA (service level agreement) c. MOU (memorandum of understanding) d. SOW (statement of work)

b. SLA (service level agreement)

Which of the following protocols runs on TCP port 445? a. HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL) b. SMB/CIFS (Server Message Block/Common Internet File System) c. IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) d. H.323 (Telecommunication Standardization Sector)

b. SMB/CIFS (Server Message Block/Common Internet File System)

A metric that compares the amount of usable data and the background noise that is being sent over a transmission channel is known as: a. BRI (Basic Rate Interface) b. SNR (signal-to-noise ratio) c. RFI (radio frequency interference) d. SVC (switched virtual circuit)

b. SNR (Short for signal-to-noise ratio)

Unblocking TCP port 22 enables what type of traffic? (Select 2 answers) a. FTPS b. SSH c. SFTP d. FTP e. HTTP

b. SSH c. SFTP

A type of cryptographic network protocol for secure data communication, remote command-line login, remote command execution, and other secure network services between two networked computers is known as: a. TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) b. SSH (Secure Shell) c. Telnet d. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)

b. SSH (Secure Shell)

A unique WLAN identifier (a.k.a. wireless network name) is commonly referred to as: a. EUI (Extended Unique Identifier) b. SSID (service set identifier) c. OUI (Organizational Unique Identifier) d. CNAME (Canonical Name)

b. SSID (service set identifier)

An authentication subsystem in which a single set of authentication credentials provides access to multiple systems within a single organization is referred to as: a. NAC (Network Access Control) b. SSO (Single sign-on) c. RBAC (Role-based access control) d. DAC (discretionary access control)

b. SSO (Single sign-on)

A cloud computing service model offering remote access to applications based on monthly or annual subscription fee is called: a. PaaS (Platform As A Service) b. SaaS (Software As A Service) c. IaaS (Infrastructure As A Service) d. MaaS (Monitoring As A Service)

b. SaaS (Software As A Service)

Which of the following answers refers to a set of bug fixes or code enhancements available in the form of a single installable package? a. Hotfix b. Service pack c. Software distribution d. System update

b. Service pack

Which type of VPN enables connectivity between two networks? a. Point-to-point b. Site-to-site c. Remote-access d. Client-to-site

b. Site-to-site

Which of the following network topologies is most commonly used in contemporary Ethernet LANs? a. Bus topology b. Star topology c. Ring topology d. Mesh topology

b. Star topology

Which of the answers listed below refers to a data link layer (layer 2) device designed to forward frames between network segments? a. Hub b. Switch c. Firewall d. Router

b. Switch

Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) provides protection against: a. DNS poisoning b. Switching loops c. VLAN hopping d. Replay attacks

b. Switching loops

NTP enables: a. Allocation of IP addresses b. Synchronization of clocks over a computer network c. Retrieving contents of an Internet page from a web server d. Monitoring of network-attached devices

b. Synchronization of clocks over a computer network

Which of the following answers refer(s) to authentication protocol(s) providing the AAA functionality? (Select all that apply) a. CHAP (Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol) b. TACACS+ c. PAP (Password Authentication Protocol) d. RADIUS e. MS-CHAP (Microsoft version of the CHAP)

b. TACACS+ d. RADIUS

Which of the answers listed below refer to the characteristics of multimode fiber optics? (Select 3 answers) a. Uses laser as the source of light b. Transmission distances of up to 2 km c. More expensive than single-mode fiber optics d. Transmission distances of up to 100 km e. Less expensive than single-mode fiber optics f. Uses LED as the source of light

b. Transmission distances of up to 2 km e. Less expensive than single-mode fiber optics f. Uses LED as the source of light

A type of port assigned to carry traffic from all the VLANs connected to a specific network switch is known as: a. Default gateway b. Trunk port c. Registered port d. Mirrored port

b. Trunk port

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) runs on: (Select 2 answers) a. UDP port 53 b. UDP port 67 c. UDP port 68 d. UDP port 69 e. UDP port 161

b. UDP port 67 c. UDP port 68

What is the name of a solution that increases the efficiency of IP address space management by allowing network administrators to divide networks into subnets of different sizes? a. DNAT (Destination Network Address Translation) b. VLSM (Variable Length Subnet Masking) c. MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching) d. VLAN (virtual Local Area Network)

b. VLSM (Variable Length Subnet Masking)

Which of the following tools would be of help in troubleshooting wireless signal loss and low wireless network signal coverage? a. Protocol analyzer b. WAP power level controls c. Logical network diagram d. Network mapper

b. WAP power level controls

A type of network consisting of computers and peripheral devices that use high-frequency radio waves to communicate with each other is called: a. MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) b. WLAN (Wireless Local Area Network) c. LAN (Local Area Network) d. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network)

b. WLAN (Wireless Local Area Network)

The process of planning and designing new WLANs for optimal performance, security and compliance typically involves: a. Penetration testing b. Wireless site survey c. Vulnerability scanning d. End user awareness and training

b. Wireless site survey

Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to reversed TX/RX? (Select 2 answers) a. Far end crosstalk b. Wrong TIA/EIA cable standard type used c. Frequency mismatch d. Wrong pin/pair assignments on cable ends e. Near end crosstalk

b. Wrong TIA/EIA cable standard type used d. Wrong pin/pair assignments on cable ends

Which of the tools listed below enable troubleshooting of problems related to name resolution? (Select 2 answers) a. ipconfig b. dig c. netstat d. ifconfig e. nslookup

b. dig e. nslookup

Which of the following answers refers to a lower-cost alternative to Fibre Channel technology? a. ATM (Asynchronous transfer mode) b. iSCSI (Internet Small Computer System Interface) c. InfiniBand d. MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching)

b. iSCSI (Internet Small Computer System Interface)

Which of the following command-line commands in MS Windows are used for resetting the DHCP configuration settings for all adapters? (Select 2 answers) a. ifconfig eth0 down b. ipconfig /release c. ifconfig eth0 up d. ipconfig /renew

b. ipconfig /release d. ipconfig /renew

Which of the following network administration command-line utilities can be used for DNS queries? a. tracert b. nslookup c. ping d. pathping

b. nslookup

Which of the software tools listed below allows for obtaining a domain name to IP address mapping? a. netstat b. nslookup c. tracert d. pathping

b. nslookup

Which network command-line utility in MS Windows combines the features of ping and tracert? a. nbtstat b. pathping c. nslookup d. netstat

b. pathping

Which command-line command in MS Windows is used to display the contents of a routing table? a. netstat -a b. route print c. ipconfig /all d. print route

b. route print

A Linux command-line utility for displaying intermediary points (routers) the IPv4 packet is passed through on its way to another network node is known as: a. nbtstat b. traceroute c. netstat d. tracert

b. traceroute

The answers below have been arranged to represent the DNS hierarchy, from the highest level of the DNS tree (1), to the lowest level (5). Which of these answers are out of order? (Select all that apply) a. (1) Root domain (".", e.g. the optional trailing dot in "example.com.") b. (2) Top level domain (e.g. ".com", ".org", or ".edu") c. (3) Subdomain (e.g. "department" in "department.example.com") d. (4) Second level domain (e.g. "example.com") e. (5) Host or resource name (e.g. "a" in "a.department.example.com")

c. (3) Subdomain (e.g. "department" in "department.example.com") d. (4) Second level domain (e.g. "example.com")

Which netstat parameter allows to display the names of applications and executable file components that are accessing the network? a. -a b. -n c. -b d. -p

c. -b

Which of the following answers lists the CIDR notation of the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask? a. /25 b. /26 c. /27 d. /28

c. /27

Which of the answers listed below refers to an ipconfig command parameter used for displaying the full TCP/IP configuration information for all adapters? a. -a b. /? c. /all d. /-a

c. /all

What is the typical cable segment length for a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable? a. 33 meters b. 55 meters c. 100 meters d. 250 meters

c. 100 meters

Which of the following answers lists the broadcast address for the 192.168.50.155/20 network? a. 192.168.31.255 b. 192.168.47.255 c. 192.168.63.255 d. 192.168.79.255

c. 192.168.63.255

Which of the answers listed below refers to the default (classful) subnet mask for a class C network? a. 255.255.192.0 b. 255.255.224.0 c. 255.255.255.0 d. 255.255.252.0

c. 255.255.255.0

Which of the following answers refers to the maximum data transfer rate of E3 connection? a. 1.544 Mbps b. 2.048 Mbps c. 34.368 Mbps d. 44.736 Mbps

c. 34.368 Mbps

The IEEE 802.11g standard is backwards compatible with: a. 802.11n b. 802.11a c. 802.11b d. 802.11ac

c. 802.11b

A type of document stipulating rules of behavior to be followed by users of computers, networks, and associated resources is referred to as: a. SLA (service level agreement) b. EULA (End User License Agreement) c. AUP (acceptable use policy) d. BPA (Business Process Automation)

c. AUP (acceptable use policy)

In the AAA security architecture, the process of tracking accessed services as well as the amount of consumed resources is called: a. Authentication b. Authorization c. Accounting

c. Accounting

A wireless networking topology in which client devices communicate directly with each other without the use of a controlling Access Point (AP) is called: a. IEEE 802.3af b. Star topology c. Ad hoc mode d. IEEE 802.3at e. Infrastructure mode

c. Ad hoc mode

According to the troubleshooting theory, verification of full system functionality and implementation of applicable preventative measures should be performed: a. After documenting findings, actions and outcomes b. As the first step of the troubleshooting process c. After implementing the solution d. As the last step of the troubleshooting process

c. After implementing the solution

Which of the answers listed below refers to a special type of frame used by STPs? a. MTU (maximum transmission unit) b. Jumbo frame c. BPDU (bridge protocol data unit) d. ATM cell (Asynchronous transfer mode)

c. BPDU (bridge protocol data unit)

Which of the following terms does not fall into the category of detective physical security controls? a. Motion sensors b. CCTV (Closed-circuit television) c. Biometrics d. Asset tracking tags

c. Biometrics

Which of the following reside at the physical layer of the OSI model? (Select 2 answers) a. IP address b. Switch c. Bit d. Router e. Network cabling f. Frame

c. Bit e. Network cabling

A popular, short-range wireless technology used for connecting various personal devices in a WPAN is called: a. 802.11 b. NFC (Near Field Communication) c. Bluetooth d. Z-Wave

c. Bluetooth

A networked host with unknown address can be reached via: a. Unicast b. Multicast c. Broadcast

c. Broadcast

In which type of network topology, the main network cable becomes a single point of failure? a. Star b. Full mesh c. Bus d. Partial mesh

c. Bus

A type of tool used for verifying correct electrical connections of wires in a cable is known as: a. Loopback plug b. Tone generator c. Cable tester d. Multimeter

c. Cable tester

Which of the following answers refers to a solution allowing administrators to block network access for users until they perform required action? a. Honeypot b. Quarantine network c. Captive portal d. Firewall

c. Captive portal

Which of the following answers refers to the minimum requirement for twisted-pair copper cabling in modern Ethernet networks? a. Cat 3 b. Cat 5 c. Cat 5e d. Cat 6 e. Cat 6A

c. Cat 5e

Which of the answers listed below refer to the 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255 (172.16.0.0/12) IPv4 address space? (Select 2 answers) a. Class A range b. Public IP address range c. Class B range d. Non-routable (private) IP address range e. Class C range

c. Class B range d. Non-routable (private) IP address range

In IPv4 addressing, the leading octet of an IP address with a value of 192 through 223 denotes that the IP address within that range belongs to the: a. Class A address space b. Class B address space c. Class C address space d. Class D address space

c. Class C address space

Which optional field in an Ethernet frame header can be used to enable the Quality of Service (QoS) functionality? a. CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check) b. Preamble c. CoS (Class of Service) d. Payload

c. CoS (Class of Service)

Which of the following answers refers to a connector type not used with copper cabling? a. RJ-11/RJ-45 b. BNC c. MT-RJ d. DB-9/DB-25 e. F-type

c. MT-RJ

What are the characteristics of TACACS+? (Select 3 answers) a. Encrypts only the password in the access-request packet b. Combines authentication and authorization c. Encrypts the entire payload of the access-request packet d. Primarily used for device administration e. Separates authentication and authorization f. Primarily used for network access

c. Encrypts the entire payload of the access-request packet d. Primarily used for device administration e. Separates authentication and authorization

What is the name of a security mechanism that protects a network switch against populating its MAC table with invalid source addresses? a. BPDU guard (bridge protocol data unit) b. UTM (Unified threat management) c. Flood guard d. Root guard

c. Flood guard

IPv6 addresses are expressed with the use of: a. Octagonal numbers b. Binary numbers c. Hexadecimal numbers d. Decimal numbers

c. Hexadecimal numbers

Which of the following answers refers to a protocol used by routers, hosts and network devices to generate error messages and troubleshoot problems with delivery of IP packets? a. CCMP (Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol) b. RSTP (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol) c. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) d. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)

c. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)

Which of the following answers refers to a cable rack that interconnects wiring between an MDF and workstation devices? a. ICS (Internet Connection Sharing) b. MDI (Medium Dependent Interface) c. IDF (Intermediate Distribution Frame) d. MTU (Maximum transmission unit)

c. IDF (Intermediate Distribution Frame)

Which of the answers listed below refers to a means for executing reflective DOS attack? a. Phishing b. Logic bomb c. IP spoofing d. Man-in-the-middle

c. IP spoofing

The arp command can be used to perform what kind of resolution? a. IP to FQDN b. MAC to IP c. IP to MAC d. FQDN to IP

c. IP to MAC

The DNS database AAAA record creates a pointer that maps a hostname to: a. IPv4 address b. Mail server c. IPv6 address d. Canonical name

c. IPv6 address

Which of the answers listed below refers to a short distance, line-of-sight technology used for example in home remote controls? a. NFC (Near Field Communication) b. 802.3 c. IR (Infrared Radiation) d. Z-Wave

c. IR (Infrared Radiation)

Which of the following solutions enables simultaneous digital transmission of voice, video, data, and other network services over a PSTN? a. WiMAX (Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access) b. PoE (Power over Ethernet) c. ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) d. HSPA+ (evolved high speed packet access)

c. ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network)

Which of the following actions should be the first step in the troubleshooting process? a. Establishing a theory of probable cause of the problem b. Conducting external or internal research based on problem symptoms c. Identifying the problem d. Establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem

c. Identifying the problem

Once a plan of action to resolve a problem has been established, the next step in the troubleshooting methodology process is to: a. Conduct research based on symptoms b. Test the theory to determine problem cause c. Implement the solution d. Establish a theory of probable cause of the problem

c. Implement the solution

An emerging field of new technologies, such as wearable tech or home automation is known as: a. SoC (Security Operations Center) b. NFC (Near Field Communication) c. IoT (Internet Of THings) d. ESN (Enterprise Social Networking)

c. IoT (Internet Of THings)

Which of the following answers refers to a network authentication protocol that provides the single sign-on functionality? a. RADIUS b. MS-CHAP (Microsoft Version of CHAP) c. Kerberos d. TACACS+

c. Kerberos

Which of the following solutions enables combining several physical ports of a switching device into a single logical channel? a. RSTP (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol) b. VRRP (Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol) c. LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol) d. HSRP (Hot Standby Router Protocol)

c. LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol)

Physical layer of the OSI model is also known as: a. Layer 2 b. Layer 7 c. Layer 1 d. Layer 4

c. Layer 1

Which of the following terms refers to the OSI network layer? a. Layer 2 b. Layer 5 c. Layer 3 d. Layer 4

c. Layer 3

The term "Presentation layer" refers to: a. Layer 7 of the OSI model b. Layer 5 of the OSI model c. Layer 6 of the OSI model d. Layer 4 of the OSI model

c. Layer 6 of the OSI model

A network device designed for managing the optimal distribution of workloads across multiple computing resources is referred to as: a. Content filter b. Network Attached Storage (NAS) c. Load balancer d. Domain controller

c. Load balancer

Which of the actions listed below can be taken by an IDS? (Select 2 answers) a. Firewall reconfiguration b. Closing down connection c. Logging d. Terminating process e. Sending an alert

c. Logging e. Sending an alert

An Ethernet switch forwards LAN traffic from connected devices based on the information stored in: a. DNS table b. Routing table c. MAC address table d. Firmware

c. MAC address table

A computer network connecting multiple LANs over an area of a city or campus is referred to as: a. PAN (Private Area Network) b. LAN (Local Area Network) c. MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) d. WAN (Wide Area Network)

c. MAN (Metropolitan Area Network)

What are the characteristic features of the 1000BaseT Ethernet standard? (Select 3 answers) a. Maximum cable segment length of 185 meters b. Single-mode fiber-optic cabling c. Maximum cable segment length of 100 meters d. Twisted-pair copper cabling (Cat 5 or higher) e. Uses two pairs of wires in a cable for data transmission f. Multimode fiber-optic cabling g. Uses all four pairs of wires in a cable for data transmission

c. Maximum cable segment length of 100 meters d. Twisted-pair copper cabling (Cat 5 or higher) g. Uses all four pairs of wires in a cable for data transmission

Which of the answers listed below refer to the 1000BaseLX Ethernet standard? (Select 3 answers) a. Twisted-pair copper cabling b. Transfer rate of 1 Gbps over two-pair Cat 5e or better cable c. Maximum cable segment length of up to 5 km over single-mode fiber d. Fiber-optic cabling e. Maximum cable segment length of 100 meters f. Transfer rate of 1 Gbps over four-pair Cat 5e or better cable g. Maximum cable segment length of up to 500 m over multimode mode fiber

c. Maximum cable segment length of up to 5 km over single-mode fiber d. Fiber-optic cabling g. Maximum cable segment length of up to 500 m over multimode mode fiber

Which of the following answers refers to the new feature introduced with the IEEE 802.11ac standard? a. Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MIMO) b. 40 MHz channel width c. Multi-User MIMO (MU-MIMO) d. Maximum data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps

c. Multi-User MIMO (MU-MIMO)

Which of the following solutions alleviates the problem of the depleting IPv4 address space by allowing multiple hosts on the same private LAN to share a single public IP address? a. DNS (Domain Name Server/Service) b. APIPA (Automatic Private Internet Protocol Addressing) c. NAT (Network Address Translation) d. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)

c. NAT (Network Address Translation)

Which of the solutions listed below hides the internal IP addresses by modifying IP address information in IP packet headers while in transit across a traffic routing device? a. QoS (Quality of Service) b. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) c. NAT (Network Address Translation) d. DNS (Domain Name Server/Service)

c. NAT (Network Address Translation)

An IPv6 protocol used by routers to advertise their presence on a network is known as: a. NDR (Network Data Representation) b. NCP (Network Control Protocol) c. NDP (Neighbor Discovery Protocol) d. NTP (Network Time Protocol)

c. NDP (Neighbor Discovery Protocol)

A type of advanced firewall capable of more in-depth inspection of network traffic that enables detection of application-specific attacks is referred to as: (Select 2 answers) a. Packet filter b. Layer 4 firewall c. NGFW d. Second-generation firewall e. Layer 7 firewall

c. NGFW e. Layer 7 firewall

The process of combining multiple physical network adapters into a single logical interface for increased throughput and redundancy is known as: a. Route aggregation b. Virtualization c. NIC teaming (network interface card teaming) d. Device pairing

c. NIC teaming (network interface card teaming)

What is the fastest way for validating a digital certificate? a. CRL (Certificate Revocation List) b. Key escrow c. OCSP (Online Certificate Status Protocol) d. CSR (Certificate Signing Request)

c. OCSP (Online Certificate Status Protocol)

EMI shielding protects the transferred data signals from: (Select 2 answers) a. Decryption b. Signal refraction c. Outside interference d. Eavesdropping e. Signal attenuation

c. Outside interference d. Eavesdropping

VoIP gateway is a network device that converts voice and fax calls, in real time, between an IP network and: (Select 2 answers) a. T1/T3 lines - T1 = dedicated transmission connection between a service provider and client - T3 = point-to-point Internet connection capable b. Site-to-site VPN c. PSTN (Public switched telephone network) d. E1/E3 lines - E1 = digital transmission link with a total transmit and receive rate of 2.048 Mbps - E3 = high-speed WAN digital communication e. Remote-access VPN f. POTS (plain old telephone service)

c. PSTN f. POTS

Which of the following statements describing the function of a DNS PTR record are true? (Select 2 answers) a. PTR record creates a pointer that maps a hostname to an IP address for reverse lookups. b. The functionality provided by a PTR record allows multiple domain names to resolve to the same IP address. c. PTR record resolves an IP address to a hostname for reverse lookups. d. The functionality provided by a PTR record is the opposite of A and AAAA DNS records. e. PTR record maps a domain name to a list of mail servers for that domain.

c. PTR record resolves an IP address to a hostname for reverse lookups. d. The functionality provided by a PTR record is the opposite of A and AAAA DNS records.

Which of the following cloud service types would provide the best solution for a web developer intending to create a web app? a. MaaS (Monitoring As A Service) b. SaaS (Software As A Service) c. PaaS (Platform As A Service) d. IaaS (Infrastructure As A Service)

c. PaaS (Platform As A Service)

An Ethernet straight-through cable is also commonly referred to as: a. Rollover cable b. Crossover cable c. Patch cable d. Yost cable

c. Patch cable

A server with a private IP address has been set up to handle requests from an outside (public) network. Which of the solutions listed below would enable this function? a. Port bonding b. Port labeling c. Port forwarding d. Port mirroring

c. Port forwarding

What is the function a DNS TXT record? (Select 2 answers) a. Resolves an IP address to a hostname for reverse lookups b. Maps a domain name to a list of mail servers for that domain c. Provides outside services with additional information about a domain d. Not used to direct any traffic e. Allows multiple domain names to resolve to the same IP address

c. Provides outside services with additional information about a domain d. Not used to direct any traffic

Which type of RAID does not offer fault tolerance? a. RAID 5 b. Disk duplexing c. RAID 0 d. Disk mirroring e. RAID 1

c. RAID 0

Examples of distance-vector routing protocols include: (Select 2 answers) a. EGP (Exterior Gateway Protocol) b. OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) c. RIP (Routing Information Protocol) d. EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) e. BGP (Border Gateway Protocol)

c. RIP (Routing Information Protocol) d. EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol)

Which of the netstat utility parameters listed below allows to display the contents of an IP routing table? a. -a b. -p c. -e d. -r

d. -r

An IPv6 address consists of: a. 32 bits b. 48 bits c. 64 bits d. 128 bits

d. 128 bits

What is the network address for a 154.24.67.147/22 host? a. 154.24.48.0 b. 154.24.60.0 c. 154.24.62.0 d. 154.24.64.0

d. 154.24.64.0

SNMP runs on UDP port: a. 123 b. 137 c. 143 d. 161

d. 161

Which of the following answers refer to the IEEE 802.11b wireless standard? (Select 3 answers) a. Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps b. 5.0 GHz frequency range c. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) network access method d. 2.4 GHz frequency range e. Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps f. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method

d. 2.4 GHz frequency range e. Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps f. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method

Which of the TCP ports listed below is used by Telnet? a. 20 b. 21 c. 22 d. 23

d. 23

Which of the answers listed below refers to an IPv4 address range reserved for future use? a. 10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255 (10.0.0.0/8) b. 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255 (172.16.0.0/12) c. 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255 (192.0.0.0/24) d. 240.0.0.0 - 255.255.255.254 (240.0.0.0/4)

d. 240.0.0.0 - 255.255.255.254 (240.0.0.0/4)

QSFP offers data transfer rates of up to: a. 1 Gbps b. 1.6 Gbps c. 2 Gbps d. 4 Gbps

d. 4 Gbps

T3 lines support data transfer rates of up to: a. 1.544 Mbps b. 2.048 Mbps c. 34.368 Mbps d. 44.736 Mbps

d. 44.736 Mbps

Which of the following answers lists the number of connections in a full mesh network consisting of 10 nodes? a. 21 b. 28 c. 36 d. 45

d. 45

Which of the DNS database records listed below returns a 32-bit IP address? a. MX (Mail Exchanger Record) b. AAAA (Record Is A DNS Record That Maps To An IPv6 Address) c. CNAME (Canonical Name) d. A (Associates A Name To The Server IP Address) e. PTR (Pointer Record)

d. A (Associates A Name To The Server IP Address)

Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a set of rules that specify which users or system processes are granted access to objects as well as what operations are allowed on a given object? a. CRL (Certificate Revocation List) b. NAT (Network Addess Translation) c. BCP (Bridging Control Protocol) d. ACL (Access Control List)

d. ACL (Access Control List)

Which of the following answers refers to a wireless connectivity technology used for monitoring sensor data collected from low-powered sports and fitness equipment? a. CAN (Controller Area Network) b. WTLS (Wireless Transport Layer Security) c. UAV (Unmanned Aerial Vehicle) d. ANT+ (Wireless Radio Networking Protocol)

d. ANT+ (Wireless Radio Networking Protocol)

Restoring data from an incremental backup requires: (Select 2 answers) a. Copy of the last incremental backup b. All copies of differential backups made since the last full backup c. Copy of the last differential backup d. All copies of incremental backups made since the last full backup e. Copy of the last full backup

d. All copies of incremental backups made since the last full backup e. Copy of the last full backup

A type of Ethernet interface that automatically detects the required cable connection type (straight-through vs. crossover) and configures the connection appropriately is known as: a. GBIC b. Basic-Rate Interface (BRI) c. UC gateway d. Auto MDI-X

d. Auto MDI-X

Which of the answers listed below refers to a solution that replaces the classful network design? a. VLAN (virtual Local Area Network) b. RSTP (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol) c. SNAT (Source Network Address Translation) d. CIDR (Classless Inter-Domain Routing)

d. CIDR (Classless Inter-Domain Routing)

A solution that allows to control access to a shared transmission medium in 802.11 networks is known as: a. CWDM (Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing) b. CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection) c. CDMA (Code-Division Multiple Access) d. CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access w/ Collision Avoidance)

d. CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access w/ Collision Avoidance)

Which of the following allows for verifying the absence of traffic on a shared transmission medium in 802.3 networks? a. CDMA (Code-Division Multiple Access) b. CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access w/ Collision Avoidance) c. CWDM (Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing) d. CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection)

d. CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection)

A dedicated local network consisting of devices providing data access is called: a. SDN (Software-D efined Networking) b. NAS (Network Attached Storage) c. iSCSI (Internet Small Computer Systems Interface) d. SAN (Storage Area Network)

d. SAN (Storage Area Network)

Which of the following answers refer to the RG-6 cabling specification? (Select 3 answers) a. Twisted-pair copper cabling b. Suitable for short-distance cable runs c. Used for analog video and CCTV installations d. Coaxial cabling e.Suitable for long-distance cable runs f. Used for cable television, satellite television and cable modems

d. Coaxial cabling e.Suitable for long-distance cable runs f. Used for cable television, satellite television and cable modems

Which of the tools listed below would be used for attaching RJ-45 connectors to a twisted-pair Ethernet cable? a. Cable tester b. Needle-nose pliers c. Punchdown tool d. Crimper

d. Crimper

A network protocol providing an alternative solution to the manual allocation of IP addresses is known as: a. DNS (Domain Name Server/Service) b. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) c. NAT (Network Address Translation) d. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)

d. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)

APIPA addresses are valid only for communications within a network segment that a given host is connected to. A host with APIPA-assigned address (i.e. an IP address in the range between 169.254.0.1 and 169.254.255.254) cannot connect to the Internet. The assignment of APIPA address typically indicates a problem related to: a. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) b. DNS (Domain Name Server/Service) c. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) d. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)

d. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)

A lightly protected subnet consisting of publicly available servers placed on the outside of the company's firewall is referred to as: a. VPN (Virtual Private Network) b. Extranet c. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) d. DMZ (Demilitarized zone)

d. DMZ (Demilitarized zone)

IPv4 addresses are expressed with the use of: a. Octagonal numbers b. Binary numbers c. Hexadecimal numbers d. Decimal numbers

d. Decimal numbers

An attempt to flood the bandwidth or resources of a targeted system so that it becomes overwhelmed with false requests and in result doesn't have time or resources to handle legitimate requests is known as: a. Spoofing b. MITM attack c. Phishing d. DoS attack

d. DoS attack

Which of the following would add power redundancy on a server box? a. Standby UPS b. Backup generator c. Offline UPS d. Dual-power supply

d. Dual-power supply

POP3 is used for: a. Name resolution b. Sending email messages c. File exchange d. Email retrieval

d. Email retrieval

Which of the following answers lists a valid address of FE80:00A7:0000:0000:02AA:0000:4C00:FE9A after compression? a. FE80:00A7::2AA:0:4C:FE9A b. FE80:A7::2AA::4C00:FE9A c. FE80:00A7::2AA:0:4C00:FE9A d. FE80:A7::2AA:0:4C00:FE9A

d. FE80:A7::2AA:0:4C00:FE9A * Remeber. You can only do a compression once

A network protocol that allows for secure file transfer over SSL is called: a. TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) b. SCP (Secure Copy Protocol) c. SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol - based on the network protocol SSH (Secure Shell)) d. FTPS (File Transfer Protocol Secure - uses two connections: a command channel and a data channel. You can choose to encrypt both connections or only the data channel over SSL.)

d. FTPS (File Transfer Protocol Secure - uses two connections: a command channel and a data channel. You can choose to encrypt both connections or only the data channel.)

Which of the answers listed below refers to a technology designed to provide connectivity between servers and data storage devices over fiber-optic or copper cable links? a. FCoE (Fibre Channel over Ethernet) b. Frame relay c. DMVPN (dynamic multipoint virtual private network) d. Fibre Channel

d. Fibre Channel

What is the function of FTP? a. Mail services b. Serving of web pages c. Directory access d. File exchange

d. File exchange

Which of the answers listed below refers to a type of software embedded into a hardware chip? a. Adware b. Background app c. Device driver d. Firmware

d. Firmware

A network topology in which each node has a direct physical connection to every other node is known as: a. Star b. Partial mesh c. Bus d. Full mesh e. Ring

d. Full mesh

Which of the following passwords is the most complex? a. T$7C52WL4SU b. GdL3tU8wxYz c. @TxBL$nW@Xt d. G$L3tU8wY@z

d. G$L3tU8wY@z

A monitored host holding no valuable data specifically designed to detect unauthorized access attempts and divert attacker's attention from the actual corporate network is known as: a. Captive portal b. Honeynet c. UTM appliance (Unified threat management) d. Honeypot

d. Honeypot

The disadvantage from using this device results from the fact that any incoming signal on any of its ports is re-created and sent out on any connected ports which has a negative impact on network performance. a. Router b. Switch c. Bridge d. Hub

d. Hub

Which of the answers listed below illustrates the difference between passive and active security breach response? a. HIPS vs. NIPS - host-based intrusion detection system - network-based intrusion prevention system b. UTM vs. Firewall - Unified threat management c. NIPS vs UTM - network-based intrusion prevention system - Unified threat management d. IDS vs. IPS - Intrusion detection system - Intrusion prevention system

d. IDS vs. IPS - Intrusion detection system - Intrusion prevention system

In 802.11 networks, the term "Channel bonding" refers to a technique that allows for combining adjacent channels to increase the amount of available bandwidth. Channel bonding was first introduced with the: a. IEEE 802.11a standard b. IEEE 802.11b standard c. IEEE 802.11g standard d. IEEE 802.11n standard e. IEEE 802.11ac standard

d. IEEE 802.11n standard

Which of the following answers refers to a method for managing a network's IP address space? a. WMS (Warehouse Management System) b. SIEM (Security information and event management) c. UTM (Unified threat management) d. IPAM (IP address management)

d. IPAM (IP address management)

Which of the answers listed below refers to a cloud computing delivery model in which clients, instead of buying all the hardware and software, purchase computing resources as an outsourced service from suppliers who own and maintain all the necessary equipment and software? a. SaaS (Software As A Service) b. MaaS (Monitoring As A Service) c. PaaS (Platform As A Service) d. IaaS (Infrastructure As A Service)

d. IaaS (Infrastructure As A Service)

Assigning a unique encrypted key, called a ticket, to each user that logs on to the network is a characteristic feature of: a. SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) b. TOTP ( time-based one-time password) c. RADIUS d. Kerberos

d. Kerberos

Which of the following answers refers to an SSL/TLS-based directory access protocol? a. H.323 (Telecommunication Standardization Sector) b. PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol) c. Kerberos d. LDAPS (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)

d. LDAPS (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)

The application layer of the OSI model is also known as: a. Layer 1 b. Layer 3 c. Layer 6 d. Layer 7

d. Layer 7

The duration of time a DHCP client can use an IP address dynamically assigned by the DHCP server is referred to as: a. Option b. Reservation c. Scope d. Lease

d. Lease

Which of the answers listed below refer to iptables? (Select 2 answers) a. Packet capturing utility b. MS Windows command-line tool c. Packet tracing utility d. Linux command-line tool e. Packet filtering utility

d. Linux command-line tool e. Packet filtering utility

While troubleshooting problems with a Network Interface Card (NIC), connector pins on the NIC's port can be tested with the use of: a. POST card b. Cable tester c. Multimeter d. Loopback plug

d. Loopback plug

Which of the following is an example of active eavesdropping? a. Spoofing b. Zero-day attack c. Spear phishing d. MITM

d. MITM

A document describing procedures for safe handling, use, storage and disposal of potentially hazardous materials is called: a. AUP (acceptable use policy) b. MSTSC (Microsoft Terminal Services Client - RDP) c. MAU (Media Access Unit) d. MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet)

d. MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet)

Which of the following answers describe the features of a network bridge? (Select 3 answers) a. Makes forwarding decisions in hardware (ASIC) b. Newer and more effective type of network device in comparison to network switch c. Typically capable of connecting more network segments than switch (more physical ports) d. Makes forwarding decisions in software e. Typically capable of connecting fewer network segments than switch (fewer physical ports) f. Older and less effective type of network device in comparison to network switch

d. Makes forwarding decisions in software e. Typically capable of connecting fewer network segments than switch (fewer physical ports) f. Older and less effective type of network device in comparison to network switch

A type of layer 2 network switch with configuration features that can be modified through a user interface is referred to as: a. Virtual switch b. Multilayer switch c. PoE switch d. Managed switch

d. Managed switch

Which of the password policy settings listed below prevents attackers using cracked passwords from gaining permanent access to a Windows workstation? a. Login time restrictions b. Password complexity setting c. Account lockout threshold setting d. Maximum password age setting

d. Maximum password age setting

A network link consisting of two dissimilar transmission medium types requires an intermediary device known as: a. Coupler b. Patch panel c. Content filter d. Media converter

d. Media converter

Which of the tools listed below would be used for testing power supply voltage output? a. Torx screwdriver b. Toner and probe kit c. Loopback plug d. Multimeter

d. Multimeter

Which IPv6 protocol is used by networked hosts to determine the link layer address of adjacent nodes? a. NTP (Network Time Protocol) b. NDR (Network Data Representation) c. NCP (Network Control Protocol) d. NDP (Neighbor Discovery Protocol)

d. NDP (Neighbor Discovery Protocol)

What are the characteristic features of the 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255 (192.0.0.0/24) IPv4 address space? (Select 2 answers) a. Class A range b. Public IP address range c. Class B range d. Non-routable (private) IP address range e. Class C range

d. Non-routable (private) IP address range e. Class C range

Which of the following answers refers to a link-state routing protocol? a. BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) b. EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) c. RIP (Routing Information Protocol) d. OSPF (Open Shortest Path First)

d. OSPF (Open Shortest Path First)

A simple device consisting of multiple connector blocks and ports used for cable management is known as: a. Media converter b. Demarc c. Main Distribution Frame (MDF) d. Patch panel

d. Patch panel

Which of the tools listed below would be used to identify running services on a networked host? a. Packet sniffer b. Loopback interface c. Protocol analyzer d. Port scanner

d. Port scanner

A type of cloud infrastructure available solely for a single organization is known as: a. Public cloud b. Community cloud c. Hybrid cloud d. Private cloud

d. Private cloud

In computer networking, a computer system or application that acts as an intermediary between another computer and the Internet is commonly referred to as: a. Bridge b. Active hub c. Server d. Proxy

d. Proxy

Which of the following answers refers to a cloud computing delivery model in which the cloud infrastructure is provisioned for open use by the general public? a. Hybrid cloud b. Private cloud c. Community cloud d. Public cloud

d. Public cloud

Which of the answers listed below refers to an encryption algorithm used in TKIP? a. DES (Data Encryption Standard) b. 3DES c. AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) d. RC4 (symmetric key stream cipher and bite-oriented algorithm)

d. RC4 (symmetric key stream cipher and bite-oriented algorithm)