Neuro PrepU P2
A nurse is working on a neurological unit with a nursing student who asks the difference between primary and secondary headaches. The nurse's correct response will include which of the following statements? "A secondary headache is one for which no organic cause can be identified." "A secondary headache is located in the frontal area." "A secondary headache is associated with an organic cause, such as a brain tumor." "A migraine headache is an example of a secondary headache."
"A secondary headache is associated with an organic cause, such as a brain tumor." Explanation: A secondary headache is a symptom associated with an organic cause, such as a brain tumor or an aneurysm. A primary headache is one for which no organic cause can be identified. These types include migraine, tension, and cluster headaches. Secondary headaches can be located in all areas of the head.
The nurse is taking health history from a client admitted to rule out Guillain-Barre syndrome. An important question to ask related to the diagnosis is which of the following? "Have you experienced any viral infections in the last month?" "Have you experienced any ptosis in the last few weeks?" "Have you had difficulty with urination in the last 6 weeks?" "Have you developed any new allergies in the last year?"
"Have you experienced any viral infections in the last month?" Explanation: An antecedent event (most often a viral infection) precipitates clinical presentation. The antecedent event usually occurs about 2 weeks before the symptoms begin. Ptosis is a common symptom associated with myasthenia gravis. Urination and development of allergies are not associated with Guillain-Barre.
A 30-year-old was diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Which statement by the client would indicate a need for more teaching from the nurse? "I will have progressive muscle weakness." "I will lose strength in my arms." "My children are at greater risk to develop this disease." "I need to remain active for as long as possible."
"My children are at greater risk to develop this disease." Explanation: There is no known cause for ALS, and no reason to suspect genetic inheritance. ALS usually begins with muscle weakness of the arms and progresses. The client is encouraged to remain active for as long as possible to prevent respiratory complications.
A client recently experienced a stroke with accompanying left-sided paralysis. His family voices concerns about how to best interact with him. They report the client doesn't seem aware of their presence when they approach him on his left side. What advice should the nurse give the family? "The client is feeling an emotional loss. He'll eventually start acknowledging you on his left side." "The client is unaware of his left side. You should approach him on the right side." "The client is unaware of his left side. You need to encourage him to interact from this side." "This condition is temporary."
"The client is unaware of his left side. You should approach him on the right side." Explanation: The client is experiencing unilateral neglect and is unaware of his left side. The nurse should advise the family to approach him on his unaffected (right) side. Approaching the client on the affected side would be counterproductive. It's too premature to make the determination whether this condition will be permanent.
A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome has paralysis affecting the respiratory muscles and requires mechanical ventilation. When the client asks the nurse about the paralysis, how should the nurse respond? "The paralysis caused by this disease is temporary." "You'll be permanently paralyzed; however, you won't have any sensory loss." "It must be hard to accept the permanency of your paralysis." "You'll first regain use of your legs and then your arms."
"The paralysis caused by this disease is temporary." Explanation: The nurse should inform the client that the paralysis that accompanies Guillain-Barré syndrome is only temporary. Return of motor function begins proximally and extends distally in the legs.
The parents of a client intubated due to the progression of Guillain-Barré syndrome ask whether their child will die. What is the best response by the nurse? "Don't worry; your child will be fine." "Once Guillain-Barré syndrome progresses to the diaphragm, survival decreases significantly." "There are no guarantees, but a large portion of people with Guillain-Barré syndrome survive." "It's too early to give a prognosis."
"There are no guarantees, but a large portion of people with Guillain-Barré syndrome survive." Explanation: The survival rate of Guillain-Barré syndrome is approximately 90%. The client may make a full recovery or suffer from some residual deficits. Telling the parents not to worry dismisses their feelings and does not address their concerns. Progression of Guillain-Barré syndrome to the diaphragm does not significantly decrease the survival rate, but it does increase the chance of residual deficits. The family should be given information about Guillain-Barré syndrome and the generally favorable prognosis. With no prognosis offered, the parents are not having their concerns addressed.
A nurse is providing education about migraine headaches to a community group. The cause of migraines has not been clearly demonstrated, but is related to vascular disturbances. A member of the group asks about familial tendencies. The nurse's correct reply will be which of the following? "There is a very weak familial tendency." "No familial tendency has been demonstrated." "There is a strong familial tendency." "Only secondary migraine headaches show a familial tendency."
"There is a strong familial tendency." Explanation: Migraine headaches have a strong familial tendency. Migraines are primary headaches, not secondary headaches.
A nurse is teaching a client who was recently diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. Which statement should the nurse include in her teaching? "You'll continue to experience progressive muscle weakness and sensory deficits." "You'll need to take edrophonium (Tensilon) to treat the disease." "The disease is a disorder of motor and sensory dysfunction." "This disease doesn't cause sensory impairment."
"This disease doesn't cause sensory impairment." Explanation: Myasthenia gravis affects motor function; therefore, the nurse should inform the client that sensory impairments won't occur. This disease is chronic; there's no cure. It can be managed with edrophonium in the diagnostic phase; however, this drug isn't used to treat the condition.
A nurse is reviewing a patient's laboratory test results. Which serum albumin level would lead the nurse to suspect that the patient is at risk for pressure ulcers? 2.5 g/mL 3.1 g/mL 3.5 g/mL 4.0 g/mL
2.5 g/mL Explanation: Serum albumin is a sensitive indicator of protein deficiency. Levels below 3 g/mL are associated with hypoalbuminemic tissue edema and increased risk of pressure ulcers.
Cerebral edema peaks at which time point after intracranial surgery? 12 hours 24 hours 48 hours 72 hours
24 hours Explanation: Cerebral edema tends to peak 24 to 36 hours after surgery.
A nurse assesses the patient's level of consciousness using the Glasgow Coma Scale. What score indicates severe impairment of neurologic function? 3 6 9 15
3 Explanation: Each criterion in the Glasgow Coma Scale (eye opening, verbal response, and motor response) is rated on a scale from 3 to 15. A total score of 3 indicates severe impairment of neurologic function, brain death, or pharmacologic inhibition of the neurologic response. A score of 15 indicates that the patient is fully responsive.
A patient is admitted via ambulance to the emergency room of a stroke center at 1:30 p.m. with symptoms that the patient said began at 1:00 p.m. Within 1 hour, an ischemic stroke had been confirmed and the doctor ordered tPA. The nurse knows to give this drug no later than what time? 2:00 p.m. 3:00 p.m. 4:00 p.m. 7:00 p.m.
4:00 p.m. Explanation: Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) must be given within 3 hours after symptom onset. Therefore, since symptom onset was 1:00 pm, the window of opportunity ends at 4:00 pm.
Which value indicates a normal intracranial pressure (ICP)? 5 mm Hg 17 mm Hg 20 mm Hg 27 mm Hg
5 mm Hg Explanation: ICP is usually measured in the lateral ventricles. Pressure measuring 0 to 10 mm Hg is considered normal. The other values are incorrect.
The nurse is preparing to administer tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) to a patient who weighs 132 lb. The order reads 0.9 mg/kg t-PA. The nurse understands that 10% of the calculated dose is administered as an IV bolus over 1 minute, and the remaining dose (90%) is administered IV over 1 hour via an infusion pump. How many milligrams IV bolus over 1 minute will the nurse initially administer?
5.4 Explanation: The patient is weighed to determine the dose of t-PA. Typically two or more IV sites are established prior to administration of t-PA (one for the t-PA and the other for administration of IV fluids). The dosage for t-PA is 0.9 mg/kg, with a maximum dose of 90 mg. Of the calculated dose, 10% is administered as an IV bolus over 1 minute. The remaining dose (90%) is administered IV over 1 hour via an infusion pump. First, the nurse must convert the patient's weight to kilograms (132/2.2 = 60 kg), then multiply 0.9 mg × 60 kg = 54 mg. Next, the nurse figure out that 10% of 54 mg is 5.4 (54 ×.10). The nurse will initially administer 5.4 mgs IV bolus over 1 minute.
A client with a head injury is being monitored for increased intracranial pressure (ICP). His blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg and the ICP is 18 mm Hg; therefore his cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is: 48 mm Hg. 52 mm Hg. 68 mm Hg. 88 mm Hg.
52 mm Hg. Explanation: To determine CPP, subtract the ICP from the mean arterial pressure (MAP). The MAP is derived using the following formula using the diastolic pressure (DP) and systolic pressure (SP): MAP = DP + 1/3(SP - DP) In this case MAP = 60 mm Hg + 1/3(90 mm Hg - 60 mm Hg) = 70 mm Hg CPP = MAP - ICP CPP = 70 mm Hg - 18 mm Hg = 52 mm Hg
A patient is admitted to the hospital with an ICP reading of 20 mm Hg and a mean arterial pressure of 90 mm Hg. What would the nurse calculate the CPP to be? 50 mm Hg 60 mm Hg 70 mm Hg 80 mm Hg
70 mm Hg Explanation: Changes in ICP are closely linked with cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP). The CPP is calculated by subtracting the ICP from the mean arterial pressure (MAP). For example, if the MAP is 100 mm Hg and the ICP is 15 mm Hg, then the CPP is 85 mm Hg. The normal CPP is 70 to 100 mm Hg (Hickey, 2009).
A client has been hospitalized for diagnostic testing. The client has just been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis, which the physician explains is an autoimmune disorder. How would the nurse explain an autoimmune disease to the client? A disorder in which the body has too many immunoglobulins A disorder in which histocompatible cells attack the immunoglobulins A disorder in which killer T cells and autoantibodies attack or destroy natural cells—those cells that are "self" A disorder in which the body does not have enough immunoglobulins
A disorder in which killer T cells and autoantibodies attack or destroy natural cells—those cells that are "self" Explanation: Autoimmune disorders are those in which killer T cells and autoantibodies attack or destroy natural cells—those cells that are "self." Autoantibodies, antibodies against self-antigens, are immunoglobulins. They target histocompatible cells, cells whose antigens match the person's own genetic code. Autoimmune disorders are not caused by too many or too few immunoglobulins, and histocompatible cells do not attack immunoglobulins in an autoimmune disorder.
Myasthenia gravis occurs when antibodies attack which receptor sites? Serotonin Dopamine Acetylcholine GABA
Acetylcholine Explanation: In myasthenia gravis, antibodies directed at the acetylcholine receptor sites impair transmission of impulses across the myoneural junction. Serotonin, dopamine, and GABA are not receptor sites that are attacked in myasthenia gravis.
An elderly woman diagnosed with osteoarthritis has been referred for care. The client has difficulty ambulating because of chronic pain. When creating a nursing care plan, what intervention will best promote the client's mobility? Motivate the client to walk in the afternoon rather than the morning. Encourage the client to push through the pain in order to gain further mobility. Administer an analgesic as prescribed to facilitate the client's mobility. Have another person with osteoarthritis visit the client.
Administer an analgesic as prescribed to facilitate the client's mobility. Explanation: At times, mobility is restricted because of pain, paralysis, loss of muscle strength, systemic disease, an immobilizing device (e.g., cast, brace), or prescribed limits to promote healing. If mobility is restricted because of pain, providing pain management through the administration of an analgesic will increase the client's level of comfort during ambulation and allow the client to ambulate. Motivating the client or having another person with the same diagnosis visit is not an intervention that will help with mobility. The client should not be encouraged to "push through the pain."
During a Tensilon test to determine if a patient has myasthenia gravis, the patient complains of cramping and becomes diaphoretic. Vital signs are BP 130/78, HR 42, and respiration 18. What intervention should the nurse prepare to do? Place the patient in the supine position. Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for the allergic reaction. Administer atropine to control the side effects of edrophonium. Call the rapid response team because the patient is preparing to arrest.
Administer atropine to control the side effects of edrophonium. Explanation: Atropine should be available to control the side effects of edrophonium, which include bradycardia, sweating, and cramping.
The nurse is caring for an 82-year-old client diagnosed with cranial arteritis. What is the priority nursing intervention? Administer corticosteroids as ordered. Assess for weight loss. Document signs and symptoms of inflammation. Give acetaminophen per orders.
Administer corticosteroids as ordered. Explanation: Cranial arteritis is caused by inflammation, which can lead to visual impairment or rupture of the vessel. Administering the corticosteroid as ordered can decrease the chance of losing vision or vessel rupture. The client should receive an analgesic (acetaminophen) for the pain, but the corticosteroid should help decrease the pain and prevent complications. The nurse should assess for weight loss, but that can be determined after the medication is administered. Signs and symptoms of inflammation should be documented by the nurse after measures have been taken to decrease complications.
A nurse is caring for a client with a brain tumor and increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which intervention should the nurse include in the care plan to reduce ICP? Encourage coughing and deep breathing. Position the client with the head turned toward the side of the brain tumor. Administer stool softeners. Provide sensory stimulation.
Administer stool softeners. Explanation: Stool softeners reduce the risk of straining during a bowel movement, which can increase ICP by raising intrathoracic pressure and interfering with venous return. Coughing also increases ICP. Keeping the head in a midline position and avoiding extreme neck flexion prevents obstruction of venous outflow from the brain. Sensory stimulation and noxious stimuli can increase ICP.
A community health nurse is giving an educational presentation about stroke and heart disease at the local senior citizens' center. What nonmodifiable risk factor for stroke should the nurse cite? Physical inactivity Hypertension Advanced age Tobacco use
Advanced age Explanation: Advanced age is a nonmodifiable risk factor for stroke. Physical inactivity, hypertension, and tobacco use are all modifiable risks.
Which is a late sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? Irritability Slow speech Altered respiratory patterns Headache
Altered respiratory patterns Explanation: Altered respiratory patterns are late signs of increased ICP and may indicate pressure or damage to the brainstem. Headache, irritability, and any change in LOC are early signs of increased ICP. Speech changes, such as slowed speech or slurring, are also early signs of increased ICP.
A client who recently experienced a stroke tells the nurse that he has double vision. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate? Encourage the client to close his eyes. Alternatively patch one eye every 2 hours. Turn out the lights in the room. Instill artificial tears.
Alternatively patch one eye every 2 hours. Explanation: Patching one eye at a time relieves diplopia (double vision). Closing the eyes and making the room dark aren't the most appropriate options because they deprive the client of sensory input. Artificial tears relieve eye dryness but don't treat diplopia.
Which nursing intervention is appropriate for a client with double vision in the right eye due to MS? Apply an eye patch to the right eye. Exercise the right eye twice a day. Administer eye drops as needed. Place needed items on the right side.
Apply an eye patch to the right eye. Explanation: An eye patch to the affected eye would help the client with double vision see more clearly, thus promoting safety. Exercises for the eye would not benefit the client. Eye drops may be needed for dryness to prevent corneal abrasion but would not have any benefit for a client with double vision. Needed items should be placed on the unaffected (left) side.
Which nursing intervention is the priority for a client in myasthenic crisis? Assessing respiratory effort Administering intravenous immunoglobin (IVIG) per orders Preparing for plasmapheresis Ensuring adequate nutritional support
Assessing respiratory effort Explanation: A client in myasthenic crisis has severe muscle weakness, including the muscles needed to support respiratory effort. Myasthenic crisis can lead to respiratory failure and death if not recognized early. Administering IVIG, preparing for plasmapheresis, and ensuring adequate nutritional support are important and appropriate interventions, but maintaining adequate respiratory status or support is the priority during the crisis.
Which positions is used to help reduce intracranial pressure (ICP)? Avoiding flexion of the neck with use of a cervical collar Keeping the head flat, avoiding the use of a pillow Rotating the neck to the far right with neck support Extreme hip flexion, with the hip supported by pillows
Avoiding flexion of the neck with use of a cervical collar Explanation: Use of a cervical collar promotes venous drainage and prevents jugular vein distortion, which can increase ICP. Slight elevation of the head is maintained to aid in venous drainage unless otherwise prescribed. Extreme rotation of the neck is avoided because compression or distortion of the jugular veins increases ICP. Extreme hip flexion is avoided because this position causes an increase in intra-abdominal pressure and intrathoracic pressure, which can produce a rise in ICP.
A nurse caring for a patient with head trauma will be monitoring the patient for Cushing's triad. What will the nurse recognize as the symptoms associated with Cushing's triad? Select all that apply. Bradycardia Bradypnea Hypertension Tachycardia Pupillary constriction
Bradycardia Bradypnea Hypertension At a certain point as intracranial pressure increases due to an injury, the brain's ability to autoregulate becomes ineffective and decompensation (ischemia and infarction) begins. When this occurs, the patient exhibits significant changes in mental status and vital signs. The bradycardia, hypertension, and bradypnea associated with this deterioration are known as Cushing's triad, which is a grave sign.
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with Guillain-Barré syndrome. The client states, "It's getting harder to take a deep breath." Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? Call the physician and prepare for intubation. Explain the progression of the syndrome. Assess lung sounds. Encourage the client to cough.
Call the physician and prepare for intubation. Explanation: The progression of Guillain-Barré syndrome leads to neuromuscular respiratory failure in a large proportion of the people affected. Changes in vital capacity and negative inspiratory force are usually key indicators to be monitored for early intervention. The nurse should be alert to the earliest signs that a client may be heading toward respiratory failure. Explaining the progression of the syndrome will not change the potential need for mechanical ventilation due to respiratory failure. Because the respiratory failure is caused by neurologic changes, assessing the lung sounds, although appropriate, is not the highest priority . Encouraging the client to cough will not change the progression of the syndrome.
Which is the earliest sign of increasing intracranial pressure? Vomiting Change in level of consciousness Headache Posturing
Change in level of consciousness Explanation: The earliest sign of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) is a change in level of consciousness. Other manifestations of increasing ICP are vomiting, headache, and posturing
When performing a postoperative assessment on a client who has undergone surgery to manage increased intracranial pressure (ICP), a nurse notes an ICP reading of 0 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse perform first? Check the equipment. Contact the physician to review the care plan. Continue the assessment because no actions are indicated at this time. Document the reading because it reflects that the treatment has been effective.
Check the equipment. Explanation: A reading of 0 mm Hg indicates equipment malfunction. The nurse should check the equipment and report problems. Normal and stable ICP values are less than 15 mm Hg. Some pressure is always present in the cranial vault. The nurse shouldn't contact the physician to review the care plan at this time. The nurse needs to complete the assessment of the client and equipment before making a report to the physician.
A nurse is assessing a client who will be discharged home after rehabilitation for a stroke. The nurse is questioning the client about his instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs). Which of the following would the nurse address? Bathing Grooming Dressing Cooking
Cooking Explanation: Instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) include cooking, cleaning, shopping, doing laundry, managing personal finances, developing social and recreational skills, and handling emergencies. Bathing, grooming, and dressing are activities of daily living (ADLs).
The critical care nurse is caring for a client with bacterial meningitis. The client has developed cerebral vasculitis and increased ICP. What neurologic sequelae might this client develop? Damage to the optic nerve Damage to the vagal nerve Damage to the olfactory nerve Damage to the facial nerve
Damage to the optic nerve Explanation: Neurologic sequelae in survivors include damage to the cranial nerves that facilitate vision and hearing. Sequelae to meningitis do not include damage to the vagal nerve, the olfactory nerve or the facial nerve.
A 58-year-old construction worker fell from a 25-foot scaffolding and incurred a closed head injury as a result. As his intracranial pressure continues to increase, the potential of herniation also increases. If the brain herniates, which of the following are potential consequences? Choose all correct options. Death Permanent neurologic dysfunction Impaired cellular activity Insomnia Seizures
Death Permanent neurologic dysfunction Impaired cellular activity Seizures As increased ICP progresses, the consequences include impaired cellular activity, seizures, temporary or permanent neurologic dysfunction, or death.
A client with a traumatic brain injury has already displayed early signs of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following would be considered late signs of increasing ICP? Decerebrate posturing and loss of corneal reflex Loss of gag reflex and mental confusion Complaints of headache and lack of pupillary response Mental confusion and pupillary changes
Decerebrate posturing and loss of corneal reflex Explanation: Early indications of increasing ICP include disorientation, restlessness, increased respiratory effort, mental confusion, pupillary changes, weakness on onside of the body or in one extremity, and constant, worsening headache. Later indications of increasing ICP include decreasing level of consciousness until client is comatose, decreased or erratic pulse and respiratory rate, increased blood pressure and temperature, widened pulse pressure, Cheyne-Stokes breathing, projectile vomiting, hemiplegia or decorticate or decerebrate posturing, and loss of brain stem reflexes (pupillary, corneal, gag, and swallowing).
Which posture exhibited by abnormal flexion of the upper extremities and extension of the lower extremities? Decerebrate Decorticate Flaccid Normal
Decorticate Explanation: Decorticate posturing is an abnormal posture associated with severe brain injury, characterized by abnormal flexion of the upper extremities and extension of the lower extremities. Decerebration is an abnormal body posture associated with a severe brain injury, characterized by extreme extension of the upper and lower extremities. Flaccidity occurs when the client has no motor function, is limp, and lacks motor tone.
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) and moderate carotid stenosis who has undergone a carotid endarterectomy. Which postoperative finding would cause the nurse the most concern? Neck pain rated 3 of 10 (on a 0 to 10 pain scale) Blood pressure 128/86 mm Hg Mild neck edema Difficulty swallowing
Difficulty swallowing Explanation: The client's inability to swallow without difficulty would cause the nurse the most concern. Difficulty swallowing, hoarseness, or other signs of cranial nerve dysfunction must be assessed. The nurse focuses on assessment of the following cranial nerves: facial (VII), vagus (X), spinal accessory (XI), and hypoglossal (XII). Some edema in the neck after surgery is expected; however, extensive edema and hematoma formation can obstruct the airway. Emergency airway supplies, including those needed for a tracheostomy, must be available. The client's neck pain and mildly elevated blood pressure need to be addressed but would not cause the nurse the most concern. Hypotension is avoided to prevent cerebral ischemia and thrombosis. Uncontrolled hypertension may precipitate cerebral hemorrhage, edema, hemorrhage at the surgical incision, or disruption of the arterial reconstruction.
The nurse is completing an assessment on a client with myasthenia gravis. Which of the following historical recounting provides the most significant evidence regarding when the disorder began? Shortness of breath Sensitivity to bright light Muscle spasms Drooping eyelids
Drooping eyelids Explanation: Ptosis (eyelid drooping) is the most common manifestation of myasthenia gravis. Muscle weakness varies depending on the muscles affected. Shortness of breath and respiratory distress occurs later as the disease progresses. Muscle spasms are more likely in multiple sclerosis. Photophobia is not significant in myasthenia gravis.
A client is undergoing testing to confirm a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. The nurse explains that a diagnosis is made if muscle function improves after the client receives an IV injection of a medication. What is the medication the nurse tells the client he'll receive during this test? Cyclosporine (Sandimmune) Edrophonium (Tensilon) Immunoglobulin G (Iveegam EN) Azathioprine (Imuran)
Edrophonium (Tensilon) Explanation: The most useful and reliable diagnostic test for myasthenia gravis is the edrophonium (Tensilon) test. Within 30 to 60 seconds after injection of edrophonium, most clients with myasthenia gravis will demonstrate a marked improvement in muscle tone that lasts about 4 to 5 minutes. Cyclosporine, an immunosuppressant, is used to treat myasthenia gravis, not to diagnose it. Immunoglobulin G is used during acute relapses of the disorder. Azathioprine is an immunosuppressant that's sometimes used to control myasthenia gravis symptoms.
A nurse is caring for a client in a coma who has suffered a closed head injury. What intervention should the nurse implement to prevent increases in intracranial pressure (ICP)? Suction the airway every hour and as needed. Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees. Turn the client every 2 hours. Maintain a well-lit room.
Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees. Explanation: To facilitate venous drainage and avoid jugular compression, the nurse should generally elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees. Clients with increased ICP poorly tolerate suctioning and should not be suctioned on a regular basis. Turning the client from side to side increases the risk of jugular compression and increases in ICP, so turning and changing positions should be avoided. The room should be kept quiet and dimly lit.
A client undergoes a craniotomy with supratentorial surgery to remove a brain tumor. On the first postoperative day, the nurse notes the absence of a bone flap at the operative site. How should the nurse position the client's head? Flat Turned onto the operative side Elevated no more than 10 degrees Elevated 30 degrees
Elevated 30 degrees Explanation: After supratentorial surgery, the nurse should elevate the client's head 30 degrees to promote venous outflow through the jugular veins. The nurse would keep the client's head flat after infratentorial, not supratentorial, surgery. However, after supratentorial surgery to remove a chronic subdural hematoma, the neurosurgeon may order the nurse to keep the client's head flat; typically, the client with such a hematoma is older and has a less expandable brain. A client without a bone flap can't be positioned with the head turned onto the operative side because doing so may injure brain tissue. Elevating the head 10 degrees or less wouldn't promote venous outflow through the jugular veins.
The nurse is expecting to admit a client with a diagnosis of meningitis. While preparing the client's room, which of the following would the nurse most likely have available? Equipment to maintain infection control precautions Nasogastric tubing Extra lighting IV tensilon
Equipment to maintain infection control precautions Explanation: An important component of nursing care for the client with meningitis is instituting infection control precautions until 24 hours after initiation of antibiotic therapy. Oral and nasal discharge is considered infectious. This client may well experience photophobia, so the lighting should be kept dim. IV Tensilon is used to diagnose myasthenia gravis.
A client with a traumatic brain injury has developed increased intracranial pressure resulting in diabetes insipidus. While assessing the client, the nurse expects which of the following findings? Excessive urine output and decreased urine osmolality Oliguria and decreased urine osmolality Oliguria and serum hyperosmolarity Excessive urine output and serum hypo-osmolarity
Excessive urine output and decreased urine osmolality Explanation: Diabetes insipidus is the result of decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). The client has excessive urine output, decreased urine osmolality, and serum hyperosmolarity.
Bell palsy is a disorder of which cranial nerve? Trigeminal (V) Vestibulocochlear (VIII) Facial (VII) Vagus (X)
Facial (VII) Explanation: Bell palsy is characterized by facial dysfunction, weakness, and paralysis. Trigeminal neuralgia, a disorder of the trigeminal nerve, causes facial pain. Ménière syndrome is a disorder of the vestibulocochlear nerve. Guillain-Barré syndrome is a disorder of the vagus nerve.
While performing an initial nursing assessment on a client admitted with suspected tic douloureux (trigeminal neuralgia), for which of the following would the nurse expect to observe? Facial pain in the areas of the fifth cranial nerve Hyporeflexia and weakness of the lower extremities Ptosis and diplopia Fatigue and depression
Facial pain in the areas of the fifth cranial nerve Explanation: Tic douloureux (trigeminal neuralgia) is manifested by pain in the areas of the fifth (trigeminal) cranial nerve. Ptosis and diplopia are associated with myasthenia gravis. Hyporeflexia and weakness of the lower extremities are associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome. Fatigue and depression are associated with multiple sclerosis.
A client experiences loss of consciousness, tongue biting, and incontinence, along with tonic and clonic phases of seizure activity. The nurse should document this episode as which type of seizure? Jacksonian Absence Generalized Sensory
Generalized Explanation: A generalized seizure causes generalized electrical abnormality in the brain. The client typically falls to the ground, losing consciousness. The body stiffens (tonic phase) and then alternates between episodes of muscle spasm and relaxation (clonic phase). Tongue biting, incontinence, labored breathing, apnea, and cyanosis may also occur. A Jacksonian seizure begins as a localized motor seizure. The client experiences a stiffening or jerking in one extremity, accompanied by a tingling sensation in the same area. Absence seizures occur most commonly in children. They usually begin with a brief change in the level of consciousness, signaled by blinking or rolling of the eyes, a blank stare, and slight mouth movements. Symptoms of a sensory seizure include hallucinations, flashing lights, tingling sensations, vertigo, déjà vu, and smelling a foul odor.
During assessment of a patient who has been taking dilantin for seizure management for 3 years, the nurse notices one of the side effects that should be reported. What is that side effect? Alopecia Gingival hyperplasia Diplopia Ataxia
Gingival hyperplasia Explanation: Side-effects of dilantin include visual problems, hirsutism, gingival hyperplasia, arrhythmias, dysarthria, and nystagmus.
A client is demonstrating an altered level of consciousness from a traumatic brain injury. Which assessment will the nurse use as a sensitive indicator of neurologic function? Cerebellar function Glasgow Coma Scale Cranial nerve function Mental status evaluation
Glasgow Coma Scale Explanation: An altered level of consciousness (LOC) is present when the client is not oriented, does not follow commands, or needs persistent stimuli to achieve a state of alertness. LOC is gauged on a continuum, with a normal state of alertness and full cognition (consciousness) on one end and coma on the other end. LOC, a sensitive indicator of neurologic function, is assessed based on the criteria in the Glasgow Coma Scale: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. Cerebellar function, cranial nerve function, and mental status evaluation are all elements of the neurologic assessment.
The nurse is assisting a patient to sit up on the side of the bed in preparation for standing. The patient has been on strict bedrest for more than a week. While assuming the sitting position, the patient begins to report feeling dizzy and nauseated. The patient is pale and diaphoretic. Which of the following would the nurse do next? Encourage the patient to take deep breaths. Have the patient stand up immediately. Have the patient lie back down. Obtain a transfer board to ease the change.
Have the patient lie back down. Explanation: The patient is exhibiting signs of orthostatic hypotension and cerebral insufficiency from the change in position. The best action would be have the patient lie back down because he or she is not tolerating the change in position. Taking deep breaths would be ineffective in raising the patient's blood pressure or increasing the blood supply to the brain. Having the patient stand up immediately would worsen the patient's symptoms. Using a transfer board would have no effect on the patient's symptoms, which are from the change in position.
The nurse is caring for a client with a traumatic brain injury and experiencing increased intracranial pressure. The nurse has administered mannitol, an osmotic diuretic, as ordered. This medication promotes the shift of fluid from the intracellular to the intravascular compartment. Therefore, it is necessary for the nurse to continually assess for which of the following? Heart failure Kidney failure Pancreatitis Diabetes insipidus
Heart failure Explanation: It is possible for the client to have a fluid overload that creates such an increased workload for the heart that it fails.
A client undergoes cerebral angiography for evaluation of a subarachnoid hemorrhage. Which findings indicate spasm or occlusion of a cerebral vessel by a clot? Nausea, vomiting, and profuse sweating Hemiplegia, seizures, and decreased level of consciousness Difficulty breathing or swallowing Tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension
Hemiplegia, seizures, and decreased level of consciousness Explanation: Spasm or occlusion of a cerebral vessel by a clot causes signs and symptoms similar to those of a stroke: hemiplegia, seizures, decreased level of consciousness, aphasia, hemiparesis, and increased focal symptoms. Nausea, vomiting, and profuse sweating suggest a delayed reaction to the contrast medium used in cerebral angiography. Difficulty breathing or swallowing may signal a hematoma in the neck. Tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension suggest internal hemorrhage.
Which term refers to the shifting of brain tissue from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure? Herniation Autoregulation Cushing response Monro-Kellie hypothesis
Herniation Explanation: With a herniation, the herniated tissue exerts pressure on the brain area into which it has shifted, which interferes with the blood supply in that area. Cessation of cerebral blood flow results in cerebral ischemia, infarction, and brain death. Autoregulation is an ability of cerebral blood vessels to dilate or constrict to maintain stable cerebral blood flow despite changes in systemic arterial blood pressure. Cushing response is the brain's attempt to restore blood flow by increasing arterial pressure to overcome the increased ICP. The Monro-Kellie hypothesis is a theory that states that because of limited space for expansion within the skull, an increase in any one of the cranial contents causes a change in the volume of the others
A 52-year-old married man with two adolescent children is beginning rehabilitation following a motor vehicle accident. The nurse planning the client's care. Who will the client's condition affect? Himself His wife and any children that still live at home Him and his entire family No one, provided he has a complete recovery
Him and his entire family Explanation: Clients and families who suddenly experience a physically disabling event or the onset of a chronic illness are the ones who face several psychosocial adjustments, even if the client recovers completely.
Following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, a nurse should assess a client for which condition? Hypocortisolism Hypoglycemia Hyperglycemia Hypercalcemia
Hypocortisolism Explanation: Although steroids should be given during surgery to prevent hypocortisolism, the nurse should assess the client for it. Abrupt withdrawal of endogenous cortisol may lead to severe adrenal insufficiency. Signs of hypocortisolism include vomiting, increased weakness, dehydration, and hypotension. After the corticotropin-secreting tumor is removed, the client shouldn't be at risk for hyperglycemia. Calcium imbalance and hypoglycemia shouldn't occur in this situation.
After sustaining a stroke, a client is transferred to the rehabilitation unit. The medical-surgical nurse reviews the client's residual neurological deficits with the rehabilitation nurse. Which neurological deficit places the client at risk for skin breakdown? Right-sided visual deficit and dysarthria Incontinence and right-sided hemiparesis Dysarthria and left-sided visual deficit Constipation and lower extremity weakness
Incontinence and right-sided hemiparesis Explanation: Incontinence and right-sided hemiparesis place the client at risk for skin breakdown. Visual deficits, dysarthria, constipation, and lower extremity weakness don't place the client at risk for skin breakdown.
The nurse is caring for a patient postoperatively after intracranial surgery for the treatment of a subdural hematoma. The nurse observes an increase in the patient's blood pressure from the baseline and a decrease in the heart rate from 86 to 54. The patient has crackles in the bases of the lungs. What does the nurse suspect is occurring? Increased ICP Exacerbation of uncontrolled hypertension Infection Increase in cerebral perfusion pressure
Increased ICP Explanation: Increased ICP and bleeding are life threatening to the patient who has undergone intracranial surgery. An increase in blood pressure and decrease in pulse with respiratory failure may indicate increased ICP.
The nurse is caring for a client with a ventriculostomy. Which assessment finding demonstrates effectiveness of the ventriculostomy? The pupils are dilated and fixed. The mean arterial pressure (MAP) is equal to the intracranial pressure (ICP). Increased ICP is 12 mm Hg. Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is 21 mm Hg.
Increased ICP is 12 mm Hg. Explanation: A ventriculostomy is used to continuously measure ICP and allows cerebral spinal fluid to drain, especially during a period of increased ICP. The normal ICP is 0 to 15 mm Hg, so ICP measured at 12 mm Hg would demonstrate the effectiveness of the ventriculostomy. Dilated and fixed pupils are not a normal assessment finding and would not indicate an improvement in the neurologic system. Cerebral circulation ceases if the ICP is equal to the MAP. Normal CPP is 70 to 100. A CPP reading less than 50 is consistent with irreversible neurologic damage.
You are the nurse caring for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS). The client also has an ascending paralysis. Knowing the complications of the disorder, what should you keep always ready at the bedside? Nebulizer and thermometer Intubation tray and suction apparatus Blood pressure apparatus Incentive spirometer
Intubation tray and suction apparatus Explanation: Progressive GBS can move to the upper areas of the body and affect the muscles of respiration. If the respiratory muscles are involved, endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation become necessary. A spirometer is used to evaluate the client's ventilation capacity. A blood pressure apparatus, nebulizer, and thermometer are not required because generally a client with GBS does not show signs of increased blood pressure or temperature.
The nurse is caring for a client admitted with a stroke. Imaging studies indicate an embolus partially obstructing the right carotid artery. What type of stroke does the nurse know this client has? Ischemic Hemorrhagic Right-sided Left-sided
Ischemic Explanation: Ischemic strokes occur when a thrombus or embolus obstructs an artery carrying blood to the brain; about 80% of strokes are the ischemic variety. The other options are incorrect.
A client spends most of his time in a wheelchair. The nurse would be especially alert for the development of pressure ulcers in which area? Greater trochanter Lateral malleolus Scapula Ischial tuberosity
Ischial tuberosity Explanation: For a client who sits for prolonged periods, such as in a wheelchair, the ischial tuberosity would be highly susceptible to pressure ulcer development. Areas such as the greater trochanter and lateral malleolus would be susceptible for clients lying on their side. The scapula would be considered a high risk area for clients lying on their back.
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a hemorrhagic stroke. The nurse recognizes that which intervention is most important? Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees Monitoring for seizure activity Administering a stool softener Maintaining a patent airway
Maintaining a patent airway Explanation: Maintaining the airway is the most important nursing intervention. Immediate complications of a hemorrhagic stroke include cerebral hypoxia, decreased cerebral blood flow, and extension of the area of injury. Providing adequate oxygenation of blood to the brain minimizes cerebral hypoxia. Brain function depends on delivery of oxygen to the tissues. Administering supplemental oxygen and maintaining hemoglobin and hematocrit at acceptable levels will assist in maintaining tissue oxygenation. All other interventions are appropriate, but the airway takes priority. The head of the bed should be elevated to 30 degrees, monitoring the client because of the risk for seizures, and stool softeners are recommended to prevent constipation and straining, but these are not the most important interventions.
A client with a traumatic brain injury is showing early signs of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP). While planning care for this client, what would be the priority expected outcome? Attains desired fluid balance Displays no signs or symptoms of infection Maintains a patent airway Demonstrates optimal cerebral tissue perfusion
Maintains a patent airway Explanation: Maintenance of a patent airway is always a first priority. Loss of airway is a possible complication of increasing ICP, as well as aspiration from vomiting.
The nurse is planning care for a client with Guillain-Barre syndrome. The priority client outcome would be which of the following? Maintains effective respirations and airway clearance Shows increasing mobility Receives adequate nutrition and hydration Demonstrates recovery of speech
Maintains effective respirations and airway clearance Explanation: All outcomes are appropriate for this client, but airway/respiratory status is always the priority.
A nurse working on a medical-surgical floor walks into a patient's room to find the patient with an altered level of consciousness (LOC). Which of the following actions would be the first priority? Positioning to prevent complications Maintenance of a patent airway Assessment of pupillary light reflexes Determination of the cause
Maintenance of a patent airway Explanation: The most important consideration in managing the patient with altered LOC is to establish an adequate airway and ensure ventilation.
A client is about to be discharged after undergoing surgery for the treatment of a brain tumor and has a referral in place for medical and radiation oncology. Which component(s) should be included in the discharge teaching for this client? Select all that apply. Medication regimen Appointments for chemotherapy or radiotherapy Adverse effects of chemotherapy or radiation and techniques for managing them Nutritional support Electromyography
Medication regimen Appointments for chemotherapy or radiotherapy Adverse effects of chemotherapy or radiation and techniques for managing them Nutritional support The nurse should include the medication regimen, appointments for chemotherapy and radiotherapy, adverse effects of chemotherapy or radiation and techniques for managing them, and nutritional support as components of the discharge teaching for this client. Electromyography is used in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) to validate weakness in the affected muscles and should not be included for the client being discharged after surgery for a brain tumor.
A nurse is continually monitoring a client with a traumatic brain injury for signs of increasing intracranial pressure. The cranial vault contains brain tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid; an increase in any of the components causes a change in the volume of the others. This hypothesis is called which of the following? Monro-Kellie Cushing's Dawn phenomenon Hashimoto's disease
Monro-Kellie Explanation: The Monro-Kellie hypothesis states that, because of the limited space for expansion in the skull, an increase in any one of its components causes a change in the volume of the others. Cushing's response is seen when cerebral blood flow decreases significantly. Systolic blood pressure increases, pulse pressure widens, and heart rate slows. The Dawn phenomenon is related to high blood glucose levels in the morning in clients with diabetes. Hashimoto's disease is related to the thyroid gland.
A nurse is assessing a patient's urinary output as an indicator of diabetes insipidus. The nurse knows that an hourly output of what volume over 2 hours may be a positive indicator? 50 to 100 mL/h 100 to 150 mL/h 150 to 200 mL/h More than 200 mL/h
More than 200 mL/h DI = too little ADH Explanation: For patients undergoing dehydrating procedures, vital signs, including blood pressure, must be monitored to assess fluid volume status. An indwelling urinary catheter is inserted to permit assessment of renal function and fluid status. During the acute phase, urine output is monitored hourly. An output greater than 200 mL per hour for 2 consecutive hours may indicate the onset of diabetes insipidus (Hickey, 2009).
Which is the primary vector of arthropod-borne viral encephalitis in North America? Birds Spiders Mosquitoes Ticks
Mosquitoes Explanation: The primary vector in North America related to anthropoid-borne virus encephalitis is a mosquito. Birds are associated with the West Nile virus. Spiders and ticks are not vectors for arthropod-borne virus encephalitis.
Which is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system characterized by the occurrence of small patches of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord? Parkinson disease Huntington disease Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease Multiple sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis Explanation: The cause of MS is not known, and the disease affects twice as many women as men. Parkinson disease is associated with decreased levels of dopamine caused by destruction of pigmented neuronal cells in the substantia nigra in the basal ganglia of the brain. Huntington disease is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary dancelike movements and dementia. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rare, transmissible, progressive fatal disease of the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain.
A client is receiving baclofen for management of symptoms associated with multiple sclerosis. To evaluate the effectiveness of this medication, what does the nurse assess? Sleep pattern Mood and affect Appetite Muscle spasms
Muscle spasms Explanation: Baclofen is a drug used to manage symptoms of muscle spasticity and rigidity in clients diagnosed with neuromuscular disorders. Because of the effects on the CNS, initially, baclofen may cause drowsiness, but sleep is not the intended goal for this therapy. Mood and appetite are not a factor in the administration of this drug.
The nurse is performing an initial nursing assessment on a client with possible Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which of the following findings would be most consistent with this diagnosis? Muscle weakness and hyporeflexia of the lower extremities Fever and cough Hyporeflexia and skin rash Ptosis and muscle weakness of upper extremities
Muscle weakness and hyporeflexia of the lower extremities Explanation: Guillain-Barre syndrome typically begins with muscle weakness and diminished reflexes of the lower extremities. Fever, skin rash, cough, and ptosis are not signs/symptoms associated with Guillain-Barre.
When educating a patient about the use of antiseizure medication, what should the nurse inform the patient is a result of long-term use of the medication in women? Anemia Osteoarthritis Osteoporosis Obesity
Osteoporosis Explanation: Because of bone loss associated with the long-term use of antiseizure medications, patients receiving antiseizure agents should be assessed for low bone mass and osteoporosis. They should be instructed about strategies to reduce their risks of osteoporosis (AANN, 2009).
The most common cause of cholinergic crisis includes which of the following? Overmedication Infection Undermedication Compliance with medication
Overmedication Explanation: A cholinergic crisis, which is essentially a problem of overmedication, results in severe generalized muscle weakness, respiratory impairment, and excessive pulmonary secretion that may result in respiratory failure. Myasthenic crisis is a sudden, temporary exacerbation of MG symptoms. A common precipitating event for myasthenic crisis is infection. It can result from undermedication.
Which of the following drugs may be used after a seizure to maintain a seizure-free state? Valium Phenobarbital Ativan Cerebyx
Phenobarbital Explanation: IV diazepam (Valium), lorazepam (Ativan), or fosphenytoin (Cerebyx) are administered slowly in an attempt to halt seizures immediately. Other medications (phenytoin, phenobarbital) are administered later to maintain a seizure-free state. In general, a single drug is used to control the seizures.
After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, a client is likely to undergo hormone replacement therapy. A transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is performed to treat which type of cancer? Esophageal carcinoma Pituitary carcinoma Laryngeal carcinoma Colorectal carcinoma
Pituitary carcinoma Explanation: Pituitary carcinoma most commonly arises in the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis) and must be removed by way of a transsphenoidal approach, using a bivalve speculum and rongeur. Surgery to treat esophageal carcinoma usually is palliative and involves esophagogastrectomy with jejunostomy. Laryngeal carcinoma may necessitate a laryngectomy. To treat colorectal cancer, the surgeon removes the tumor and any adjacent tissues and lymph nodes that contain cancer cells.
A nurse has taught a client how to perform quadriceps-setting exercises. The nurse determines that the client has understood the instructions when he demonstrates which of the following? Contracts the buttocks together for a count of five Pushes the popliteal area against the mattress while raising the heel Raises the body by pushing the hands against the chair seat Lifting the body off the bed while holding on to a trapeze
Pushes the popliteal area against the mattress while raising the heel Explanation: The client demonstrates quadriceps-setting exercises by attempting to push the popliteal area against the mattress and at the same time raising the heel. With gluteal setting exercises, the client contracts the buttocks together for a count of five and then relaxes them for a count of five. With push-up exercises, the client raises the body by pushing the hands against the chair seat or mattress while he is in a sitting position. For pull-up exercises, the client lifts the body off the mattress while holding onto a trapeze while in bed or raises the arms above the head then lowers them while holding weights.
A patient diagnosed with MS 2 years ago has been admitted to the hospital with another relapse. The previous relapse was followed by a complete recovery with the exception of occasional vertigo. What type of MS does the nurse recognize this patient most likely has? Benign Primary progressive Relapsing-remitting (RR) Disabling
Relapsing-remitting (RR) Explanation: Approximately 85% of patients with MS have a relapsing-remitting (RR) course. With each relapse, recovery is usually complete; however, residual deficits may occur and accumulate over time, contributing to functional decline.
The nurse is performing an initial assessment on a client admitted to rule out Guillain-Barre syndrome. On which of the following areas will the nurse focus most heavily? Respiratory Gastrointestinal Urinary Skin
Respiratory Explanation: Because of its possible rapid progression and neuromuscular respiratory failure, Guillain-Barre syndrome is a medical emergency. After baseline values are identified, assessment of changes in muscle strength and respiratory function alert the team to the physical and respiratory needs of the client. The other three choices may become problem areas later, but respiratory issues are always a priority.
A client with neurological infection develops cerebral edema from syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which is an important nursing action for this client? Maintaining adequate hydration Administering prescribed antipyretics Restricting fluid intake and hydration Hyperoxygenation before and after tracheal suctioning
Restricting fluid intake and hydration Explanation: Fluid restriction may be necessary if the client develops cerebral edema and hypervolemia from SIADH. Antipyretics are administered to clients who develop hyperthermia. In addition, it is important to maintain adequate hydration in such clients. A client with neurological infection should be given tracheal suctioning and hyperoxygenation only when respiratory distress develops.
A nurse is caring for a client who requires a wheelchair. Which piece of equipment impedes circulation to the area it's meant to protect? Specialty mattress Ring or donut Gel flotation pad Water bed
Ring or donut Explanation: The nurse shouldn't use rings or donuts with any client because this equipment restricts circulation. Specialty mattresses evenly distribute pressure. Gel pads redistribute the client's weight, and water beds distribute pressure over the entire surface.
Following a generalized seizure in a client, which nursing assessment is a priority for detailing the event? Seizure began at 1300 hours. The client cried out before the seizure began. Seizure was 1 minute in duration including tonic-clonic activity. Sleeping quietly after the seizure
Seizure was 1 minute in duration including tonic-clonic activity. Explanation: Describing the length and the progression of the seizure is a priority nursing responsibility. During this time, the client will experience respiratory spasms, and their skin will appear cyanotic, indicating a period of lack of tissue oxygenation. Noting when the seizure began and presence of an aura are also valuable pieces of information. Postictal behavior should be documented along with vital signs, oxygen saturation, and assessment of tongue and oral cavity.
The nurse is caring for a patient having a hemorrhagic stroke. What position in the bed will the nurse maintain this patient? High-Fowler's Prone Supine Semi-Fowler's
Semi-Fowler's Explanation: The head of the bed is elevated 15 to 30 degrees (semi-Fowler's position) to promote venous drainage and decrease intracranial pressure.
The nurse is developing a bowel training program for a patient. What education can the nurse provide for the patient that will increase the chance of success of the bowel program? (Select all that apply.) Set a daily defecation time that is within 15 minutes of the same time every day. Have an adequate intake of fiber containing foods. Have a fluid intake between 2 and 4 L/day. Take a retention enema daily. Take a laxative daily.
Set a daily defecation time that is within 15 minutes of the same time every day. Have an adequate intake of fiber containing foods. Have a fluid intake between 2 and 4 L/day. Regularity, timing, nutrition (including increased fiber intake), and fluids (2 to 4 L daily), exercise, and correct positioning promote predictable defecation (National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence, 2010). A regular time for defecation is established, and attempts at evacuation should be made within 15 minutes of the designated time daily. Enemas and laxatives are only needed if the patient is constipated and then only as needed, not daily.
A nursing assistant tells the nurse that a client with paraplegia has an area of skin breakdown on his left calf. When the nurse assesses the client, he is sitting on a cushion in a wheelchair and wearing specialty boots. The nurse notes a circular wound 2 cm × 2 cm × 0.25 cm on the posterior aspect of the calf. What most likely caused the client's skin breakdown? Leg rest of the wheelchair Absence of sensation in the lower extremities and immobility Sitting in the wheelchair for long periods of time Specialty boots
Specialty boots - paraplegia = paralysis of lower body Explanation: The area of skin breakdown was most likely caused by the specialty boot — ordered to reduce pressure in the heels — rubbing against the skin. Although the wheelchair leg rest is located near the wound site, the wound described is likely to be caused by pressure, not a laceration caused by contact with the leg rest. Immobility and decreased sensation places the client at risk for skin breakdown, but these factors aren't the direct cause of this wound. A paraplegic is capable of sitting in a wheelchair for extended periods because he can shift his weight throughout the day.
A client with increased intracranial pressure has a cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) of 40 mm Hg. How should the nurse interpret the CPP value? The CPP is high. The CPP is low. The CPP is within normal limits. The CPP reading is inaccurate.
The CPP is low. Explanation: The normal CPP is 70 to 100 mm Hg. Therefore, a CPP of 40 mm Hg is low. Changes in intracranial pressure (ICP) are closely linked with cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP). The CPP is calculated by subtracting the ICP from the mean arterial pressure (MAP). Patients with a CPP of less than 50 mm Hg experience irreversible neurologic damage.
A patient who has experienced a stroke is learning to use a cane to ambulate. The patient has left-sided weakness. After teaching the patient about using the cane, the nurse determines that the patient has understood the instructions when stating that using the cane on the right is done for which purpose? To prevent leaning to one side To distribute weight away from the affected side To promote a long stride length To reduce the risk of edema
To distribute weight away from the affected side Explanation: Holding a cane on the uninvolved side distributes weight away from the involved side. Holding the cane close to the body prevents leaning. Using a cane won't promote a long stride length or reduce the risk of edema.
A nurse is caring for a client with a history of severe migraines. The client has a medical history that includes asthma, gastroesophageal reflux disease, and three pregnancies. Which medication does the nurse anticipate the physician will order for the client's migraines? Verapamil (Calan) Metoprolol (Lopressor) Amiodarone (Cordarone) Carvedilol (Coreg)
Verapamil (Calan) Explanation: Calcium channel blockers, such as verapamil, and beta-adrenergic blockers, such as metoprolol, are commonly used to treat migraines because they help control cerebral blood vessel dilation. Calcium channel blockers, however, are ordered for clients who may not be able to tolerate beta-adrenergic blockers, such as those with asthma. Amiodarone and carvedilol aren't used to treat migraines.
A nurse is teaching a client who has facial muscle weakness and has recently been diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. The nurse should teach the client that myasthenia gravis is caused by: genetic dysfunction. upper and lower motor neuron lesions. decreased conduction of impulses in an upper motor neuron lesion. a lower motor neuron lesion.
a lower motor neuron lesion. Explanation: Myasthenia gravis is characterized by a weakness of muscles, especially in the face and throat, caused by a lower motor neuron lesion at the myoneural junction. It isn't a genetic disorder. A combined upper and lower motor neuron lesion generally occurs as a result of spinal injuries. A lesion involving cranial nerves and their axons in the spinal cord would cause decreased conduction of impulses at an upper motor neuron.
A nurse is teaching a client with a long leg cast how to use crutches properly while descending a staircase. The nurse should tell the client to transfer body weight to the unaffected leg, and then: advance both legs. advance the unaffected leg. advance the affected leg. advance both crutches.
advance both crutches. Explanation: The nurse should instruct the client to advance both crutches to the step below, then transfer his body weight to the crutches as he brings the affected leg to the step. The client should then bring the unaffected leg down to the step.
A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of trigeminal neuralgia. Which activity is altered as a result of this diagnosis? chewing swallowing smelling tasting
chewing Explanation: Trigeminal neuralgia is a painful condition that involves the fifth (V) cranial nerve (the trigeminal nerve) and is important to chewing.
A nurse is monitoring a client for increasing intracranial pressure (ICP). Early signs of increased ICP include: pupillary changes. diminished responsiveness. decreasing blood pressure. elevated temperature.
diminished responsiveness. Explanation: Usually, diminished responsiveness is the first sign of increasing ICP. Pupillary changes occur later. Increased ICP causes systolic blood pressure to rise. Temperature changes vary and may not occur even with a severe decrease in responsiveness.
In planning care for a patient with an extrapyramidal disorder, the nurse recognizes that a major difference between Parkinson disease and Huntington disease is the development of what symptom in clients with advanced Huntington disease? hallucinations and delusions depression bradykinesia muscle fasciculations
hallucinations and delusions Explanation: As Huntington disease progresses, hallucinations, delusions, and impaired judgment develop due to degeneration of the cerebral cortex. Depression is a likely symptom for clients with both Parkinson disease and Huntington disease. Bradykinesia, slowness in performing spontaneous movement, is commonly associated with Parkinson disease. Muscle fasciculations, or twitching, are commonly associated with ALS.
Which are contraindications for the administration of tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)? Select all that apply. intracranial hemorrhage Ischemic stroke Age 18 years or older Systolic BP less than or equal to 185 mm Hg Major abdominal surgery within 10 days
intracranial hemorrhage Major abdominal surgery within 10 days Intracranial hemorrhage, neoplasm, aneurysm, and major surgical procedures within 14 days are contraindications to t-PA. Clinical diagnosis of ischemic stroke, being 18 years of age or older, and a systolic BP less than or equal to 185 mm Hg are eligibility criteria.
A nurse is teaching a client with multiple sclerosis (MS). When teaching the client how to reduce fatigue, the nurse should tell the client to: take a hot bath. rest in an air-conditioned room. increase the dose of muscle relaxants. avoid naps during the day.
rest in an air-conditioned room. Explanation: Fatigue is a common symptom in clients with MS. Lowering the body temperature by resting in an air-conditioned room may relieve fatigue; however, extreme cold should be avoided. A hot bath or shower can increase body temperature, producing fatigue. Muscle relaxants, ordered to reduce spasticity, can cause drowsiness and fatigue. Frequent rest periods and naps can relieve fatigue. Other measures to reduce fatigue in the client with MS include treating depression, using occupational therapy to learn energy-conservation techniques, and reducing spasticity.
A client is being treated for increased intracranial pressure (ICP). The nurse should ensure that the client does not develop hypothermia because: shivering in hypothermia can increase ICP. hypothermia is indicative of severe meningitis. hypothermia is indicative of malaria. hypothermia can cause death to the client.
shivering in hypothermia can increase ICP. Explanation: Care must be taken to avoid the development of hypothermia because hypothermia causes shivering. Shivering, in turn, can increase intracranial pressure.
The nurse is caring for a client immediately after supratentorial intracranial surgery. The nurse performs the appropriate action by placing the patient in the dorsal recumbent position. supine position with the head slightly elevated. prone position with the head turned to the unaffected side. Trendelenburg position.
supine position with the head slightly elevated. Explanation: After surgery, the nurse should place the client in either a supine position with the head slightly elevated or a side-lying position on the unaffected side. The dorsal recumbent, Trendelenburg, and prone positions can increase intracranial pressure.
A nurse is assessing a client who has been in a motor vehicle collision. The client directly and accurately answers questions. The nurse notes a contusion to the client's forehead; the client reports a headache. Assessing the client's pupils, what reaction would confirm increasing intracranial pressure? unequal response equal response rapid response constricted response
unequal response Explanation: In increased ICP, the pupil response is unequal. One pupil responds more sluggishly than the other or becomes fixed and dilated.
A client has a 12-year history of cluster headaches. After the client describes the characteristics of the head pain, the nurse begins to discuss its potential causes. What would the nurse indicate that the origin of the headaches is: unknown. muscular. vasodilating agents. endocrine.
unknown. Explanation: Although cluster headaches can be triggered by vasodilating agents, the cause of cluster headaches is unknown.