NSCA Certified Strength & Conditioning Specialist - CSCS COMPLETE REVIEW! STILL IN PROGRESS..........

What is the minimum number of stair steps needed to set up the Margaria-Kalamen test? a. 5 b. 7 c. 9

ANSWER c. 9 EXPLANATION The Margaria-Kalamen test measures maximum muscular power (high-speed strength). Equipment needed is a staircase with nine or more steps, each approximately 7 inches high, and a straight and flat lead-up area of 20 feet or more in length. The athlete will sprint up the stairs, stepping on every third step (steps 3, 6 and 9). Timing devices are placed on the third and ninth steps, so the athlete can see how fast they move from stair 3 to stair 9. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 13, pg 272

What is considered the ideal temperature for a strength and conditioning facility? a. 65-72 degrees Fahrenheit b. 62-65 degrees Fahrenheit c. 72-78 degrees Fahrenheit

ANSWER: C. 72-78 degrees Fahrenheit EXPLANATION: A strength and conditioning facility needs to maintain a comfortable training temperature. The heating, ventilation, and air conditioning system should ideally have the capability to heat and cool individual sections of the facility. Most sources indicate that anywhere between 68 and 78 degrees Fahrenheit is a good temperature range, with many suggesting that operation is optimal at 72-78 degrees. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 23, pg 627

How far apart should racks and platforms be from each other? a. 3-4 feet b. 2-3 feet c. 6 feet

ANSWER: a. 3-4 feet EXPLANATION: Racks and platforms should have enough room between them so that if someone were to fall, people nearby would not be injured. Weightlifting racks should be bolted to the floor to ensure they they do not move when in use. If a rack is portable, it should be moved to a designated area when not in use. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 23, pg 630

Anaerobic capacity is quantified as maximal power output achieved during activity lasting how long? a. 30-90 seconds b. less than 10 seconds c. longer than 5 minutes

ANSWER: a. 30-90 seconds EXPLANATION: Anaerobic capacity is the maximal rate of energy production by the combined phosphagen and anaerobic glycolytic energy systems for moderate-duration activities. It is typically quantified as the maximal power output during muscular activity between 30 and 90 seconds using a variety of tests for upper and lower body, as opposed to maximal anaerobic power test, which last no longer than 10 seconds. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 13, pg 261

If an athlete performs 3 sets of 10 reps at 100 pounds of bench press, what is the volume load? a. 3000 pounds b. 300 pounds c. 30 pounds

ANSWER: a. 3000 pounds EXPLANATION: Volume load is the total number of sets multiplied by the number of repetitions per set, then multiplied by the weight lifted per repetition. This number can be represented by pounds or kilograms, depending on the information provided. 3 sets x 10 reps x 100 pounds = 3000 pounds Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 17, pg 462-463

When using the "220 minus age" age-adjusted heart rate technique, what heart rate percentage range best corresponds to a 25-year-old athlete exercising with a heart rate of 160 bpm? a. 80-85% maximum heart rate b. 55-65% minimum heart rate c. 60-75% maximum heart rate

ANSWER: a. 80-85% maximum heart rate EXPLANATION: 220 - 20 = 195 max heart rate according to the athlete's age. 80-85% maximum heart rate for a 25-year-old is between 156 and 165 bpm, calculated by the Karnoven method or the 220 - age method. While the Karvonen method and the percentage of maximal heart rate formula provide practical intensity assignments, basing them on age-predicted maximal heart rates may entail some inaccuracies when exercise intensity is being monitored during cycling or running. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 20, pg 563

Before the electrical signal of the heart travels from the atria to the ventricles, it is delayed in what region? a. AV node b. SA node c. Purkinje fibers

ANSWER: a. AV node EXPLANATION: The conductive system is organized so the impulse does not travel into the ventricles to quickly. This allows time for the blood to empty into the ventricles from the atria before a ventricle contraction starts. This delay, caused by the AV node, allows enough time for the blood to fill the ventricle and be followed by a ventricle contraction. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 1, pg 13

After a hard training session, an athlete observes a decrease in her vertical jump height. Which phase of the adaptive process is she experiencing? a. alarm b. exhaustion c. resistance

ANSWER: a. alarm EXPLANATION: General adaptation syndrome (GAS) has a three-stage response to stress: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion GAS states that any time the body experiences a new or more intense stress than one previously applied, it is in the alarm phase, which is an accumulation of fatigue, stiffness, or reduction of energetic stores that results in a reduction in performance capability. Depending on the stress, this response may last several hours, days, or weeks. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 21, pg 584-585

Which of the following is a common exercise that can utilize chains? a. bench press b. lat pull-down c. biceps curl

ANSWER: a. bench press EXPLANATION: Chains added to traditional resistance training are becoming quite popular. Depending on how the chains are placed on the barbell, the weight is usually its heaviest at the top position and lowest at the bottom position. This is because, as the weight is lowered toward the chest, the chains will touch the floor, decreasing the actual load the athlete is lifting. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 16, pg 413-414

For beginning position in a right-handed one-arm dumbbell snatch, where should you place the dumbbell? a. between the feet b. outside of the right knee c. outside of the right foot

ANSWER: a. between the feet EXPLANATION; A right-handed one-arm snatch should begin with the dumbbell on the ground. The NSCA guidelines for a one-arm snatch state that the athlete should straddle the dumbbell, making "between the feet" the correct choice. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 16, pg 436

Which of the following statements about diet planning is false? a. caloric intake will be similar for all individuals, whether an athlete or a sedentary person b. age, body size, and sex should be taken into consideration when planning an athlete's diet c. basic nutritional principles for both health and disease prevention should be followed when planning an athlete's diet

ANSWER: a. caloric intake will be similar for all individuals, whether an athlete or a sedentary person EXPLANATION: Acompetitive athlete has very different physiological needs from individuals who are sedentary, as well as those competing in other sports. Those who are more active should adjust their diets to meet their specific needs. They need a higher daily intake of proteins, carbohydrates, and fats, as well as vitamins and minerals. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 9, pg 178-179

In a bent-over row, the athlete should use what type of grip? a. closed, pronated grip b. alternated grip c. supinated grip

ANSWER: a. closed, pronated grip EXPLANATION: The purpose of a bent-over row is to pull the weight off the floor toward the chest while in a bent-over position. The appropriate grip for this exercise is a pronated grip with the hands slightly wider than shoulder-width apart. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 15, pg 362

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the ideal performance state? a. continual analysis of performance b. absence of fear c. a sense of effortlessness

ANSWER: a. continual analysis of performance EXPLANATION: The ideal performance state has been studied from a number of perspectives. Williams and Krane listed the following characteristics that athletes typically report about this state: - Absence of fear -- no fear of failure - No thinking about or analysis of performance - A narrow focus of attention concentrated on the activity itself - A sense of effortlessness -- an involuntary experience - A sense of personal control - A distortion of time and space, in which time seems to slow Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 8, pg 156

An athlete is performing a high-intensity strength training session with one- to two- minute rests between sets. Which of the following energy substrates is most likely to become depleted, leading to fatigue? a. creatine phosphate b. protein c. carbohydrate

ANSWER: a. creatine phosphate EXPLANATION: Fatigue during exercise appears to be at least partially related to the decrease in phosphagens. Phosophagen concentrations in muscle are more rapidly depleted as a result of high-intensity anaerobic exercise compared to aerobic exercise. Creatine phosphate can decrease markedly during the first stage of high-intensity exercise of short and moderate duration and can be almost completely depleted as a result of very intense exercise to exhaustion. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 3, pg 55

Monitoring urine color is the simplest method to determine hydration status. Which of the following urine colors would indicate that the body is in a dehydrated state? a. dark yellow b. clear c. pale yellow

ANSWER: a. dark yellow EXPLANATION: Preventing dehydration is important for athletes to maintain performance levels. A quick and simple way to check is looking at one's urine color. While judging urine color can be very subjective, seeing dark yellow-colored urine can be an indication of dehydration. Urine color and quantity can be misleading immediately following rehydration periods after dehydration. When athletes consume large quantities of hypotonic fluid, they produce copious amounts of urine long before they become adequately hydrated. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 9, pg 197

The guidelines for what type of stretching include carrying out 5 to 10 repetitions of each movement, progressively increasing the ROM on each repetition, increasing the ROM on each repetition, increasing the speed of motion on subsequent sets, and contracting the muscles while moving through the ROM? a. dynamic stretching b. PNF stretching c. static stretching

ANSWER: a. dynamic stretching EXPLANATION: Dynamic stretching is a type of functionally based stretching that uses both sport-generic and sport-specific movements to prepare the body for activity. Dynamic stretching is preferred over static stretching before a workout or game. This is because it stretches muscles to the ideal position. One should move progressively through the ROM, move deliberately but avoid bouncing, and should not sacrifice good technique for additional range of motion. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 14, pg 324

Which exercise can be performed by the anterior deltoids to improve shoulder flexion? a. front shoulder raise b. lateral raise c. lat pulldown

ANSWER: a. front shoulder raise EXPLANATION: The anterior deltoid is responsible for flexion of the shoulder. Incorporating front shoulder raises will strengthen this movement. They are performed by holding two dumbbells with the palms pronated, then raising the arms up until they are parallel with the ground. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 1, pg 12

Regarding movement analysis, which of the following descriptions best describes movements of an offensive lineman in football? a. grabbing, pushing, repelling, and deflecting opponents b. running, repetitive leg and arm movement c. running, jumping, ball handling, blocking, and rebounding

ANSWER: a. grabbing, pushing, repelling, and deflecting opponents EXPLANATION: When developing a needs analysis in the beginning stages of program design, movement analysis of the sport is crucial. Developing programs must include exercises that can transfer into specific sport tasks. For example, offensive linemen need to guard the quarterback and deflect any defensive lineman for him. They push defensive the linemen, grab their jerseys, etc. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 17, pg 441-443

When performing a front plank, how far apart should the feet be? a. hip-width b. almost touching each other c. slightly wider than hip-width

ANSWER: a. hip-width EXPLANATION: The front plank, which targets the abdominal muscles, is an exercise that isometrically holds the torso in a rigid position with the elbows under the shoulders and the head in a neutral position, with the feet hip-width apart. The front plank targets the rectus abdominus, internal obliques, external obliques, and erector spinae. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 16, pg 426

During a stability ball pike, which of the following joints is flexing? a. hips b. elbows c. knees

ANSWER: a. hips EXPLANATION: With your feet on the ball and hands on the floor, you must maintain full extension of the elbows and knees while flexing the hips. This movement is focusing on working the rectus abdominis and iliopsoas. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 16, pg 426

A team's test results are considered to be unreliable because two coaches have different ideas of how low athletes should have to squat for the movement to count as valid. Which type of variability does this scenario describe? a. interrater reliability b. intrarater variability c. intrasubject variability

ANSWER: a. interrater reliability EXPLANATION: Interrater reliability, also referred to as objectivity or interrater agreement, is the degree to which different raters agree in their test results over time or on repeated occasions; it is a measure of consistency. A clearly defined scoring system and competent scorers who are trained and experienced wit the test are essential to enhance interrater reliability. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 12, pg 252

Jane is a 25-year-old endurance athlete. She consumes a strict vegetarian diet and does not take supplements. Which of the following supplements should Jane be taking for optimal running performance? a. iron b. calcium c. riboflavin

ANSWER: a. iron EXPLANATION: Iron is an important mineral that is essential for both functioning and synthesis of hemoglobin, a protein that transfers oxygen throughout the body. Iron deficiency is the most prevalent nutrition deficiency in the world. There are three stages to iron deficiency: 1. Depletion 2. Marginal deficiency 3. Anemia Distance runners, vegetarian athletes, female athletes, those who lose a significant amount of blood during their menstrual cycle, people who take excessive amounts of antacids, and people with certain types of digestive diseases such as celiac disease are more likely to have iron deficiencies. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 9, pg 194-195

The bar is pulled down and toward the upper chest with a pronated grip, while the torso is maintained in a slight backward lean in the downward movement phase. What exercise is being performed? a. lat pulldown b. seated row c. low-pulley seated row

ANSWER: a. lat pulldown EXPLANATION: On the downward movement, is is important to note that the torso shouldn't jerk, and that the bar must reach the clavicle and upper chest. In the upward movement phase of the lat pulldown, the athlete allows the elbows to slowly return to the starting position while keeping the torso in the same position. At the end of the set, the athlete stands up and returns the bar to its resting position. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 15, pg 364

When training aerobically, which chamber of the heart most increases in volume and wall thickness? a. left ventricle b. right atrium c. right ventricle

ANSWER: a. left ventricle EXPLANATION: The left ventricle hypertrophies the most because of the repeated forceful contractions to increase blood flow during exercise. With aerobic training, the heart increases its cardiac output (stroke volume x heart rate), which primarily is due to increased stroke volume (blood ejected with each beat). The parasympathetic tone (part of the autonomic nervous system) will attempt to keep the heart rate low. Due to the heart rate wanting to remain low, the stroke volume becomes the reason for the cardiac output. When the stroke volume increases, it will cause an increase in the left ventricle's size. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 6, pg 121-122

Which of the following must be obtained before beginning any stregnth and conditioning program? a. medical clearance b. personal information c. performance testing restuts

ANSWER: a. medical clearance EXPLANATION: Before participating in any strength and conditioning program, preparticipation screening and clearance in accordance with relevant governing bodies is required. This needs to be done by the sports medicine staff, not the strength and conditioning professional. It is out of the scope of practice for the strength and conditioning professional. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 24, pg 647

After completion of the catch of the power snatch, where should the weight be balanced on the feet? a. middle b. toes c. heels

ANSWER: a. middle EXPLANATION: During the last phase of the upward movement of a snatch (the catch), the athlete must consider the balance of the weight. To ensure that the weight is balanced overhead and the body is in proper position, the weight must be in the middle of the feet. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 15, pg 407

What repetition tempo would be recommended for an athlete looking to increase recruitment of motor units? a. moderate to fast b. slow to moderate c. moderate

ANSWER: a. moderate to fast EXPLANATION: A motor unit is the functional unit of the neuromuscular junction and consists of an alpha motor neuron and the muscle fibers that it activates. When maximal force is desired all the available motor units must be activated within the muscle. Change in firing rate of the motor unit also affects the ability to generate force. Increased force with greater firing rates reflects the summation of successive muscle contractions whereby action potentials overlap. With increased motor unit firing rates, the muscle fibers are continually activated by subsequent action potentials before they have time to completely relax following a prior action potential. Motor units high in the recruitment order are used primarily for high force, speed, or power production. As the demands for force expression increase, motor units are recruited in a sequential fashion, from low- to high-threshold motor units. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 5, pg 90-91

"Design and administer strength, flexibility, aerobic, plyometric and other training program that reduce the occurrence of injuries and improve athletic performance" is a good example of what aspect of a program? a. objective b. mission c. goal

ANSWER: a. objective EXPLANATION: Program objectives are the specific means of attaining a program goals. Merely stating program goals but failing to designate the objectives that will fulfill those goals may result in athletes failing to achieve them. All areas of the program should be addressed in program objectives to ensure that goals are attained. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 24, pg 462

Which of the following is not abslutely necessary for a member of the strength and conditioning staff? a. post-secondary degree b. first aid certification c. CPR certification

ANSWER: a. post-secondary degree EXPLANATION: Strength and conditioning professionals need a certification from an independently accredited organization, such as the Certified Strength and Conditioning Specialist certification, and must maintain the certification through continued education credits. Additionally the strength coach should have updated CPR and first aid certifications, and should understand the program policies and maintenance issues of the facility. Knowing and understanding the program philosophy is of great value to the strength coach as well. There is no requirement for a post-secondary degree for the strength coach. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 24, pg 646

When performing seated rows, what shoulder muscle acts as a synergist? a. posterior deltoids b. anterior deltoids c. pectoralis minor

ANSWER: a. posterior deltoids EXPLANATION: The seated row targets mainly the latissimus dorsi, while the posterior deltoid assists as a synergist. As the arms are pulled backwards, the latissimus dorsi and posterior deltoids work together to create retraction. This posterior head of the deltoids is located on the back side of the shoulder. The pectoralis minor and anterior deltoids both create a pushing motion, while the posterior deltoids create a pulling motion. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 15, pg 365

A strength and conditioning department has a mandate to educate all athletes on the importance of good nutrition for affecting health and performance. Which of the following does this statement describe? a. program objectives b. program policies c. program goals

ANSWER: a. program objectives EXPLANATION: Program objectives are the specific means of achieving the goals of a program. They should encompass all areas of the program to ensure that the goals are attained. Objectives should help a strength and conditioning professional to handle the job. For example: - Design strength, flexibility, aerobic, plyometric, and other training programs that reduce the likelihood of injury. - Develop training programs to account for biomechanical and physiological differences between individual athletes - Recognize acute and chronic physiological responses and adaptations to training and their implications for the design of sport-specific training programs. - Educate athletes on the importance of good nutrition as well as sleep and their role in health and performance. - Educate athletes about the effects of performance-enhancing substances and their abuse, relevant school policy and legislation. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 24, pg 642-643

Which grip should be used in the lat pull-down exercise to minimize the assistance of the biceps brachii muscle? a. pronated b. supinated c. exaggerated

ANSWER: a. pronated EXPLANATION: In the lat-pulldown, the assistance of the biceps brachii muscle is minimized when the hands are in a pronated position (facing forward). The hands are placed just outside shoulder width apart. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 15, pg 364

A female endurance athlete consumes a very low-fat diet on a daily basis. What would you expect to happen to her running performance? a. reduced performance due to lower triglyceride levels for energy production b. reduced performance due to lower blood lipids c. improved performance due to weight loss

ANSWER: a. reduced performance due to lower triglyceride levels for energy production EXPLANATION: Fat stores are large and represent a vast source of fuel for exercise. At rest and during low-intensity exercise, a high percentage of the energy produced is derived from fatty acid oxidation. In addition to training, the body adapts to using greater amounts of fat for energy when a higher-fat, lower-carbohydrate diet is consumed over a period of time. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 9, pg 189-190

As a personal trainer, what advice would you offer your client if he request a nutrition plan for weight loss? a. refer the client to a registered dietitian b. counsel the client and prescribe a weight loss plan c. conduct a nutrition assessment with the client

ANSWER: a. refer the client to a registered dietitian EXPLANATION: A personal trainer, or even a strength and conditioning specialist, should have a general understanding of nutrition to help guide clients/athletes. However, providing nutrition plans is outside the scope of their duties. Dietitians should be the people to turn to for nutrition advice. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 9, pg 176-177

What is defined as the employment of strategies that will decrease and control the risk of injury from athletic participation? a. risk management b. assumption of risk c. standard of care

ANSWER: a. risk management EXPLANATION: Risk management is defined as the employment of strategies to decrease and control the risk of injury fro athletic participation and therefore the risk of liability exposure. The first steps in risk management are to understand integral key terms and identify the areas of potential liability exposure that could cause injuries and lead to litigation. Such terms the strength and conditioning coach should know and understand are: - informed consent - liability - standard of care - negligence - assumption of risk Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 24, pg 647

Instructing all athletes on proper spotting and exercise technique will likely decrease which of the following? a. risk of liability exposure b. assumption of risk c. rick of product liability

ANSWER: a. risk of liability exposure EXPLANATION: Decreasing risk of liability exposure is a form of risk management, in which strategies are employed to decrease the risk of injury from any athletic preparation by the strength and conditioning department. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 24, pg 647

Which of the following is defined as a group of sequentially performed repetitions completed prior to a rest period? a. set b. progression c. volume

ANSWER: a. set EXPLANATION: A set is a group of repetitions sequentially performed before the athlete stops to rest. While single-set (versus multiple-set) training may be suitable for untrained individuals, research has indicated that higher volumes are required to promote additional gains in strength. This is especially applicable to intermediate and advanced resistance-trained athletes. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 17, pg 462-463

What exercise might an athlete perform in an attempt to reduce lower body bilateral asymmetries? a. single-leg squat b. front squat c. back squat

ANSWER: a. single-leg squat EXPLANATION: Adding unilateral exercises to your program can help to reduce bilateral asymmetries. Single-leg squats, also known as a Bulgarian split squats, are an example of a unilateral exercise for the lower body. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 16, pg 421

When someone experiences chornic tachycardia, which structure of the heart is most likely compromised? a. sinoatrial node b. atrioventricular node c. pulmonary artery

ANSWER: a. sinoatrial node EXPLANATION: The sinoatrial (SA) node is the primary pacemaker of the heart. When it is not functioning properly, an irregular heartbeat -- one that beats too fast, too slow, or both -- is present. This occurs when the sympathetic neurons within the SA node are stimulated, throwing off its chronotropic effect, and in turn making the heart beast faster. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 1, pg 14

When pulling weight from the floor, where should the shoulders be in relation to the bar? a. slightly in front b. at lease one foot in front c. slightly behind

ANSWER: a. slightly in front EXPLANATION: The exercise described as pulling weight from the floor is known as the deadlift. The entire concept of the exercise is to lift the bar up from the ground and place it back down on the floor. In order to maintain a safe and healthy back position and to ensure the line of pull is through the hips and feet, the shoulders should be over or slightly in front of the bar when pulling it from the floor. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 15, pg 389

An athlete has the following rankings in a group of tests: - 50th percentile in the vertical jump - 58th percentile in the 1RM back squat - 60th percentile in the pro-agility test - 42nd percentile in the 40-yard dash Which attribute should be addressed first in this athlete's training program? a. speed b. strength c. power

ANSWER: a. speed EXPLANATION: Percentile rank is one way to statistically analyze the results of any test. It is simply the percentage of test takers that scored lower than the individual in question; therefore, the lowe the individual's percentile rank, the worse they performed on the test compared to their peers. This athlete's lowest percentile rank was in the speed category. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 13, pg 292

For hypertrophy training, which type of program is typically advised for maximum gains? a. split routines b. full body routines c. upper body routines

ANSWER: a. split routines EXPLANATION: When considering training frequency for strength gains, as athletes adapt to their training stimulus, it is often recommended that they resistance-train four or more times per week. Because of this, adopting a split routine seems to work best to maximize results. A split routine system involves breaking up the body parts to be trained on separate days. This allows for a higher volume of training with moderate intensity as opposing muscle groups are rested on a rotating basis. Training nearly every day seems to violate the recommended guidelines for recovery, but grouping exercises that train portion of the body or certain muscle areas gives the trained athlete an opportunity to adequately recover between similar training sessions. As an example, lower body routines can be marked for Monday and Thursday, while upper body routines are marked for Tuesday and Friday. Setting it up this way gives good spacing between each training day for similar body areas. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 17, pg 447

An athlete is performing the bench press for four sets of four repetitions. Which of the following is most likely their training goal? a. strength b. muscular endurance c. power

ANSWER: a. strength EXPLANATION: When training an athlete for strength, assigning volume begins with an examination of the optimal number of repetitions for maximal strength gains. This appears to be sets of six or fewer repetitions for core exercises, according to research. Comprehensive reviews conclude that a range of two to five sets ore three to six sets promotes the greatest increases in strength. When applying this information to our athlete lifting four sets of four, this athlete appears to be training for strength. Power exercises are typically lower in volume that those for strength training in order to maximize the quality of exercise. The reduction in volume results from fewer goal repetitions than the number of sets. Muscular endurance involves performing many repetitions, 12 or more per set. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 17, pg 464-465

The trapezius is described as what, in terms of anatomical position, in relation to the erctor spinae? a. superior b. anterior c. inferior

ANSWER: a. superior EXPLANATION: Superior means toward the head, or above. If you were describing where the trapezius muscles were, you could say they are superior in the location to the erector spinae, since they are closer to the person's head. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 1, pg 4

Which of the following should be kept in mind when advising athletes about food choices using the glycemic index? a. the goals of the athlete b. the weight of the athlete c. the age of the athlete

ANSWER: a. the goals of the athlete EXPLANATION: Foods with high glycemic indices that rapidly appear as glucose in the blood, such as oatmeal, are appropriate when the goal is quick replenishment of glucose and glycogen. However, although there is proof that these metabolic changes do occur, they do not always result in improvements in performance. For that reason, it is advisable for athletes to experiment with food choices during training to decide which ones are beneficial. Athletes who use the glycemic index (GI) to guide their food choices can try pre-exercise low and high-GI foods during exercise to provide immediate sources of energy for activity and immediately after exercise to more rapidly replenish glycogen stores. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 9, pg 186

What component of resistance work also considers the quality of the work performed by an athlete? a. the intensity value b. time c. the load-volume

ANSWER: a. the intensity value EXPLANATION: Volume load is not affected by the rep and set scheme. Various repetition and set schemes affect the true intensity value for resistance exercise and indicate the quality of work performed. Rather than using time to determine mechanical or metabolic power or intensity, it is more useful to use rep-volume, a value that is instead proportional to time, Hence, dividing the load-volume by the rep-volume provides an average weight lifted in each repetition over the course of a workout session. This gives an excellent approximation of an athlete's mechanical and metabolic power output which, in turn, provides true intensity or the quality of work parameters. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 17, pg 451

Which of the following statements is true regarding Golgi tendon organs? a. they are mechanoreceptors located within the musculotendinous junction that are sensitive to tension and rate of tension change b. they are mechanoreceptors located in joints throughout the fibrous capsule and ligaments that respond to joint position, movement, and pressure change c. they are major sensory organs that are sensitive to change in length and rate of length change

ANSWER: a. they are mechanoreceptors located within the musculotendinous junction that are sensitive to tension and rate of tension change EXPLANATION: Golgitendonorgans (GTOs) are activated when the tendon attached to an active muscle is stretched. As tension increases within a muscle, discharge of the GTOs increases. They inhibit a motor neuron when muscle tension increases, and this inhibition is thought to provide a mechanism that protects against the development of excessive tension. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 1, pg 12

What is the overarching goal of sprinting? a. to achieve optimal stride length and stride frequency b. to achieve optimal stride length and power c. to achieve less time in contact with the ground

ANSWER: a. to achieve optimal stride length and stride frequency EXPLANATION: With the combination of proper stride length and stride frequency, maximal sprinting ability can be achieved. When stride length or frequency is "off" in any way, the chances for maximal sprinting ability are lowered. The correct application of high force into the ground is also important. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 19, pg 529

In terms of liability, what is the legal responsibility of strength and conditioning professionals to the athletes they serve? a. to act not only in the event of an injury but also to prevent injury b. to act when an injury occurs c. to continue coaching a session when an injury occurs

ANSWER: a. to act not only in the event of an injury but also to prevent injury EXPLANATION: There are legal and ethical issues all strength and conditioning professionals must be aware of. Liability is a legal responsibility, duty, or obligation. Strength and conditioning professionals have a duty to the athletes they serve by virtue of their employment not only to act when an injury occurs, but also to prevent injury. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 24, pg 647

Why do sedentary ,healthy adults require dietary proteins/amino acids to maintain good health? a. to maintain cellular structure and function b. to prevent diseases such as cancer c. to strengthen bones

ANSWER: a. to maintain cellular structure and function EXPLANATION: Protein is the primary structural and functional component of every cell in the human body. Dietary proteins are used for growth and development and to build and repair cells; they serve as enzymes, transport carriers, and hormones. Therefore, dietary protein is essential for maintaining health, reproduction, and cellular structure and function. This applies to both active and sedentary individuals. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 9, pg 181-182

An injury to which heart valve would cause a backflow from the ventricle into the atrium? a. tricuspid valve b. aortic valve c. pulmonary valve

ANSWER: a. tricuspid valve EXPLANATION: If the tricuspid valve, which is located between the right atria and ventricle, is damaged, blood will leak back from the ventricle to the atrium, decreasing the amount of blood pumped to the lungs. An injury to the pulmonary valve would create backflow from the pulmonary artery into the ventricles. An injury to the aortic valve would cause backflow from the aortic valve into the ventricles. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 1, pg 12

The Romanian deadlift is assisted by which of the following muscles? a. hamstrings b. erector spinae c. quadriceps

ANSWER: b erector spinae EXPLANATION; The hamstrings are the primary movers in the Romanian deadlift. The erector spinae, along with the gluteus maximus and the adductor magnus, is the synergist (assistant) in the movement. The quadriceps are not involved in the Romanian deadlift. Only the posterior muscles of the body are involved. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 15, pg 391

Which of the following tests would be the least valid for a young athlete with no training experience? a. 1.5-mile run b. 1 rep max back squat c. sit and reach

ANSWER: b. 1 rep max back squat EXPLANATION: When selecting tests, the safety of the athlete is always the priority. 1RM testing requires an adequate training status and lifting experience, because the assessment of maximal strength places significant stress on the involved muscles, connective tissues, and joints. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 17, pg 453

A group of ten athletes performed a vertical jump test and received scores of 28, 59.5, 24, 30, 27, 28, 32.5, 30.5, 26, and 27 inches. What is the median of this group of scores? a. 32 b. 28 c. 24

ANSWER: b. 28 EXPLANATION: The median is the middlemost score of a group of scores ordered from lowest to highest. With an even number of scores, the median is the average of the two middlemost scores. It is a measure of central tendency, sometimes even better than the mean. 24, 26, 27, 27, 28, 28, 29.5, 30, 30.5, 32.5 Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 13, pg 291

When estimating 1RM for power exercises, what is the maximum number of repetitions one can use for estimation? a. 8 b. 5 c. 6

ANSWER: b. 5 EXPLANATION: Power exercises do not lend themselves well to multiple-RM testing above five repetitions for repeated testing sets, because technique can deteriorate quickly. Other types of exercise can use more than five repetitions. Using a 10RM load to predict 1RM is a common method. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 17, pg 454

What is the estimated load increase for upper body exercises for a larger, stronger, and more fully trained athlete? a. 2.1 to 5 pounds b. 5 to 10 (or more) pounds c. 10-15 (or more) pounds

ANSWER: b. 5 to 10 (or more) pounds EXPLANATION: Estimating load increases for athletes depends on the status of the athlete. For smaller, weaker, less trained athletes, upper body increases of 2.5 to 5 pounds is the recommendation. Athletes that are larger, stronger, and more trained can increase upper body loads by 5 to 10 (or more) pounds. To contend with this variability, relative load increases of 2.5% to 10% can be used instead of absolute values. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 17, pg 459-460

The filaments that are pulled across during a contraction are attached to which structure of the sarcomere? a. A-band b. Z-line c. H zone

ANSWER: b. Z-line EXPLANATION: The smallest contractile unit within a muscle, a sarcomere, is organized specifically to create efficient muscle contraction. Myosin and actin connect to each other via a corss bridge and overlap one another to create tight pulls. Some of the organizational structures of a sarcomere are: 1. A-band: contains actin and myosin overlap areas 2. I-band: contains only actin 3. H zone: contains only myosin 4. Z-line: thin dark line running longitudinally through I-band The thin filaments (actin) that are pulled across the thick filaments (myosin) during a concentric contraction are anchored to the Z-line Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 1, pg 7

The goal of a precompetition meal is to arrive at the competition or exercise session in a fed state. What should this meal consist of to help achieve this goal? a. a meal that is high in fat, low in carbohydrates and moderate in protein b. a meal that is low in fat, high in carbohydrates and moderate in protein c. a meal with balanced macronutrients

ANSWER: b. a meal that is low in fat, high in carbohydrates and moderate in protein EXPLANATION: A precompetition meal helps provide fluid to maintain adequate hydration and carbohydrate to maximize blood glucose and stored glycogen levels, in addition to keeping hunger pangs at bay. Precompoetition foods and beverages should be familiar to the athlete, low in fat and fiber so that they empty rapidly from the stomach and minimize any potential gastrointestinal distress, and moderate in protein.

During the dumbbell lateral raise exercise, what action are the arms performing? a. adduction b. abduction c. rotation

ANSWER: b. abduction EXPLANATION: Abduction is when you raise the arms upward and out to the sides (away from the midline of the body). During the lateral shoulder raise, the elbows and upper arms should rise together ahead of the forearms, hands, and dumbbells. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 15, pg 397

A person's efforts to master a task, achieve excellence, overcome obstacles, and engage in competition or social comparison is known as what? a. motive to avoid failure b. achievement motivation c. motive to achieve success

ANSWER: b. achievement motivation EXPLANATION: Achievement motivation refers to a person's efforts to master a task, achieve excellence, overcome obstacles, and engage in competition or social comparison. All things being equal between two athletes, whoever is higher in achievement motivation will be the better athlete because he or she has a greater appetite for competition. Motive to achieve success (MAS) refers to the capacity to experience pride in one's accomplishments and is characterized by a desire to challenge oneself and evaluate one's abilities. Motive to avoid failure (MAF) relates to the desire to protect one's ego and self-esteem. MAF is not really about avoiding the perception of shame that accompanies the failure. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 8, pg 162

What is the blend of physiological and psychological activation in an individual that refers to the intensity of motivation at any given moment? a. stress b. arousal c. anxiety

ANSWER: b. arousal EXPLANATION: While arousal, anxiety and stress may seem interchangeable, they are different entities. Arousal is a measurement of degree of activation, physically and psychologically, that can get a person excited, down, or content. For example, when an athlete is "psyched up" there is a mental activation characterized by positive thoughts and a strong sense of control, whereas a "fat" athlete can experience minimal activation with feelings of boredom. Arousal is always present in some degree in everyone. Arousal is not only highs and lows, but simply a measurement of activation. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 8, pg 157

Which of the following is an appropriate stretch for the primary mover of the chin-up exercise? a. pillar b. behind-neck stretch c. side quadriceps stretch

ANSWER: b. behind-neck stretch EXPLANATION: In a chin-up, the primary mover is the latissimus dorsi. The behind-neck stretch (also known as the chicken wing) is a great stretch to target this muscle group. In addition to stretching the latissimus dorsi, the behind-neck stretch targets the triceps brachii. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 14, pg 332

Which is an example of an exercise that would use an underhand grip? a. bent-over row b. biceps curl c. triceps pushdown

ANSWER: b. biceps curl EXPLANATION: A biceps curl uses an underhand grip, also known as a supinated grip. This is where the palms face upward and the knuckles face down. The triceps pushdown and bent-over row use a pronated grip. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 15, pg 367

Strength training programs for youth should prioritize consideration of which of the following factors? a. training experience b. biological age c. chronological age

ANSWER: b. biological age EXPLANATION: Because of considerable variation in the rates of growth and development, it is not particularly accurate to define a stage of maturation or development by age in months or years, which is known as chronological age. Children do not grow at a constant rate, and the vast differences in individual physical maturity of children of any age group dictates that biological age, or maturity of the physical structure. The child must be examined closely when designing strength programs. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 7, pg 136-137

During exercises where the athlete is supine on a bench, what is an example of one of the five points of contact? a. head is raised above the bench or pad b. buttocks are placed evenly on the bench or pad c. right and left feet are placed on a foot rest

ANSWER: b. buttocks are placed evenly on the bench or pad EXPLANATION: There are five points of contact for exercises when the athlete is seated or supine on a bench: 1. head is placed firmly on the bench or pad 2. shoulders and upper back are placed firmly and evenly on the bench or pad 3. buttocks are placed evenly on the bench or pad 4. right foot is flat on the floor 5. left foot is flat on the floor Establishing and maintaining these five points of contact promotes maximal stability and spinal support. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 15, pg 353

Performing a squat, push-up, biceps curl, leg curl and chin-up, with each exercise immediately following the last, is an example of what type of training? a. cardio training b. circuit training c. core training

ANSWER: b. circuit training EXPLANATION: Circuit training is a series of exercises performed consecutively with little to no rest in between. It's a great way of realizing benefits from aerobic and anaerobic training simultaneously. It's also a way to get a good workout in less time. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 17, pg 449

An athlete performing a set of bench presses followed immediately by a set of push-ups is performing which of the following types of resistance training sets? a. superset b. compound set c. non-alternating set

ANSWER: b. compound set EXPLANATION: In a compound set, stress on one muscle is multiplied because both exercises recruit the same muscle area. Although efficient in terms of time, both compound sets and supersets are deliberately more demanding, and therefore may be unsuitable for unconditioned athletes. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 17, pg 451

What are the three types of criterion-referenced validity? a. intrasubject, intrarater and interrater b. concurrent, predictive and discriminant c. objective, subjective and independent

ANSWER: b. concurrent, predictive and discriminant EXPLANATION: There are many ways in which the validity of a test is measured. Criterion-based validity is defined as the extent to which test scores are associated with some other measure of the same ability. The three types of criterion-referenced validity are concurrent, predictive, and discriminant. Concurrent validity is frequently estimated statistically and gauges the extent to which test scores are related to other accepted tests that measure the same ability. Convergent validity, a type of concurrent validity, has to do with a high positive correlation between the test's scores and the so-called gold standard, the recognized measure of the construct; field tests utilized by strength and conditioning professionals should exhibit this form of validity. Measured by the extent to which the test score corresponds with future behavior or performance. This can be measured through comparison of a test score with some measure of success in the sport itself. For example, in basketball, predictive validity can show how a battery of tests correlates to game performance, such as points, scored, rounds, assists, etc. Discriminant validity is the ability of a test to distinguish between two different constructs and is evidenced by a low correlation between the results and those tests of a different construct. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 12, pg 251-252

Which of the following ergogenic aids does not result in increase protein synthesis? a. testosterone b. creatine c. branched chain amino acids

ANSWER: b. creatine EXPLANATION: Testosterone and growth hormone are both anabolic hormones that stimulate protein synthesis. Branched chain amino acids (isoleucine, leucine, and valine) fuel protein synthesis when ingested immediately following resistance training. Creatine helps to improve recovery between high intensity periods of activity, but does not directly stimulate protein synthesis. It has an essential role in energy metabolism as a substrate for formation of ATP, especially during high-intensity exercise. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 11, pg 242

The percentile ranks of an athlete's vertical jump, standing long jump, stair sprint test and 1RM power clean vary greatly. Which of the following types of validity would these results question? a. discriminant validity b. criterion-referenced validity c. content validity

ANSWER: b. criterion-referenced validity EXPLANATION: Criterion-referenced validity is defined as the extent to which test scores are associated with other measures of the same ability. All the tests performed by this athlete measure power. Therefore, the fact that they vary widely would call into question criterion-referenced validity; the results do not show conclusively whether the athlete is powerful or not. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 12, pg 251

Which of the following is a written document detailing the appropriate procedures for injury care? a. injury guide b. emergency action plan c. designation of procedures

ANSWER: b. emergency action plan EXPLANATION: Safety is always the first priority when an emergency occurs. Having a written response plan provides a guideline for proper procedures to be followed; this is the emergency action plan. The items that should be part of an emergency action plan include emergency medical services activation procedures; names and contact information of primary, secondary and tertiary individuals; specific address of the facility; locations of phones, emergency supplies/first aid kit and nearest exits; designated sports medicine staff; ambulance access; and an action plan in the even of fire, terrorism, tornado, life-threatening injury, crime, etc. This plan should be posted in a clearly visible area, and all strength and conditioning professionals must keep their first aid and CPR certification current and practice the emergency care plan at least quarterly. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 24, pg 653

During the pull-up, many muscles of the back assist the latissimus dorsi (primary mover). Which of the following muscles does not assist the latissimus dorsi? a. teres major b. erector spinae c. rhomboids

ANSWER: b. erector spinae EXPLANATION: The erector spinae does not assist the latissimus dorsi in the pull-up exercise; rather, it stabilizes. Examples of synergists in the pull-up are the rhomboids and teres major. All synergists of this movement have to be able to adduct the humerus and downwardly rotate the scapula, which the teres major and rhomboids do. Erector spinae only assist in stabilizing the back to keep the spinal column protected. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 15, pg 364

A semi-leg straddle stretch is targeting which muscle area? a. quadriceps b. erector spinae c. latissimus dorsi

ANSWER: b. erector spinae EXPLANATION: The erector spinae muscle group is attached to the sacrum and to the lumbar and thoracic vertebrae and the cervical vertebrae at the top of the spine. These muscles are responsible for controlling spinal extension and aiding in posture control. During the semi-leg straddle, sit with your knees flexed 30-50 degrees and let the legs completely relax. Allow the knees to point outward and begin leaning forward from the waist, reaching forward with extended arms. Because this puts the spine in a flexed position, the extensor muscles of the back are stretched. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 14, pg 334

What is the process of analyzing test results for the purpose of making decisions? a. test b. evaluation c. field test

ANSWER: b. evaluation EXPLANATION: Evaluation refers to the process of analyzing test results for the purpose of making decisions. For example, a coach examines the results of physical performance tests to determine whether the athlete's training program is effective in helping achieve the training goals or whether modifications in the program are needed. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 12, pg 250

The biceps femoris contracts concentrically to produce which of the following movements of the knee? a. rotation b. flexion c. extension

ANSWER: b. flexion EXPLANATION: The biceps femoris is one of the muscles making up the hamstrings. Collectively, the hamstrings help to perform flexion of the knee. A concentric movement of the biceps femoris means the muscles are creating a larger force. This allows the muscles to shorten and flex the knee. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 2, pg 32

When planning and designing a new strength and conditioning facility, which is the first step that should be completed? a. preparing a needs assessment b. forming a committee of professionals who represent various areas of expertise c. conducting a feasibility study

ANSWER: b. forming a committee of professionals who represent various areas of expertise EXPLANATION: The committee can be compromised of an administrator, architect, contractors, attorney, instructors who will ultimately use the facility, a variety of sport conditioning experts, etc. This committee will assist with the facility design as well as considering the economic aspects of opening a new facility. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 23, pg 624

Your facility is 55 feet in length. What is the maximum number of Olympic lifting platforms that can be placed side by side along the wall? a. seven b. four c. five

ANSWER: b. four EXPLANATION: Olympic platforms are typically eight feet wide, and four feet of walking space is required between each platform. A general rule is one Olympic platform for every twelve feet of linear space. Calculation of space needed for Olympic platforms: Lifting platform height (typically 8 ft + a perimeter walkway safety space cushion of 4 ft x lifting platform width (typically 8 ft) + perimeter walkway safety space cushion of 4 ft. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 23, pg 630-631

Which substance is usually ingested by overweight females in hopes of losing weight? a. erythropoietin b. human chorionic gonadotropin c. testosterone

ANSWER: b. human chorionic gonadotropin EXPLANATION: Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) is a hormone obtained from the placenta of pregnant women and is very closely related in structure and function to luteinizing hormone. In fact, it is the pregnancy indicator used by pregnancy test kits. HCG is sometimes injected into overweight females under medical supervision in conjunction with low-calorie diets for the purpose of weight loss. When injected into men, HCG can increase testicular testosterone production. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 11, pg 233-234

In a partial curl-up test, what is the strength and conditioning professional testing? a. aerobic capacity b. local muscular endurance c. flexibility

ANSWER: b. local muscular endurance EXPLANATION: The partial curl-up test measures muscular endurance of the abdominal muscles. It is favored over the sit-up test because it eliminates the use of the hip flexor muscles. Procedure: 1. The athlete is in a supine position on a mat, knees 90 degrees, arms at the sides, fingers touching a 4-inch long piece of masking tape positioned perpendicular to the fingers. A second piece of tape is situated parallel to the first piece of tape at a distance determined by the age of the athlete. 2. A metronome is set to 49 beats per minute and the athlete does a slow, controlled curl-up to lift the shoulder blades off the mat in time with the metronome. 3. The athlete does as many curl-ups as they can, up to 75. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 13, pg 274

When consuming a low-carbohydrate diet, what is a main contributor to weight loss? a. loss of muscle mass b. loss of water weight c. increase in fat calories

ANSWER: b. loss of water weight EXPLANATION: The effectiveness of low carbohydrate diets may have less to do with cutting carbohydrates and more to do with a temporary decrease in water weight, cutting calories, and increasing protein intake. When people significantly reduce their carbohydrate intake, they deplete their glycogen stores (carbohydrate stored with three to four parts water) and therefore quickly drop pounds from water weight. Once carbohydrates are reintroduced into the diet, they can rapidly gain weight back. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 10, pg 218

Which of the following is a measurement about which data tends to cluster? a. measures of statistical analysis b. measures of central tendency c. measures of standard deviation

ANSWER: b. measures of central tendency EXPLANATION: There are three types of central tendencies: mean, median and mode. The most commonly used measure of central tendency is the mean, which is the sum of the scores divided by the number of scores (this is also called the average). The median, the middlemost score when a set of scores is arranged by magnitude, can be a better measure of central tendency than the mean; however that is dependent on the distribution of scores, with very high or very low scores of one or a few members of the tested group raising or lowering the group mean to the point that it inadequately describes the ability of most of the group members. The mode, which is the most frequently occurring score, is considered to be the lease useful measure of central tendency. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 13, pg 291

Which body type best suits a football linebacker? a. endomorphic b. mesomorphic c. ectomorphic

ANSWER: b. mesomorphic EXPLANATION: There are three different body types: 1. ectomorph 2. endomorph 3. mesomorph Ectomorphs tend to be tall and skinny individuals, which is not helpful for a football player. Endomorphs are those who bodies tend to retain more body fat, which is better than the ectomorph type but still undesirable. Mesomorphs are those with athletic body types -- muscular and broad-shouldered. This is the perfect body type for a football player. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 7, pg 139

What is the difference between nutrient-dense foods and calorie-dense foods? a. nutrient-dense foods have high carbohydrate content and calorie-dense foods have high fat content b. nutrient-dense foods are high in nutrients such as vitamins, minerals, and fiber, and caloric density refers to calorie content of a food c. calorie-dense foods are based on nutrients such as vitamins, minerals, and fiber, and nutrient-dense refers to calorie content of a food

ANSWER: b. nutrient-dense foods are high in nutrients such as vitamins, minerals, and fiber, and caloric density refers to calorie content of a food EXPLANATION: Though there is no standardized definition of the term nutrient density, in general, choosing nutrient-dense foods means looking for those filled with vitamins, minerals, and fiber, as well as the healthy plant-based compounds that they provide, whereas caloric density refers merely to the caloric content of a food regardless of what makes up those calories. Foods high in nutrient density include milk, vegetables, protein foods, and grains, while foods high in caloric density but low in nutrient density typically include potato chips, deserts, and candy. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 9, pg 195

Several athletes are complaining of continued fatigue and difficulty sleeping following recent resistance training sessions. What are these athletes likely experiencing? a. extreme muscle soreness b. overtraining syndrome c. overreaching

ANSWER: b. overtraining syndrome EXPLANATION: Overtraining syndrome (OTS) is a "prolonged maladaptation" not only of the athlete, but also of several biological, neurochemical, and hormonal regulation mechanisms. Many alternative terms have been suggested by OTD, including burnout, chronic overwork, staleness, unexplained underperformance syndrome, and overfatigue. OTS can last as long as six months or beyond, and can potentially ruin an athletic career. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 5, pg 107

Which muscle is directly targeted during the pec-deck? a. deltoids b. pectoralis major c. triceps brachii

ANSWER: b. pectoralis major EXPLANATION: In the pec-deck movement, the idea is to create a long level out of your arms, therefore putting more pressure on the primary and secondary muscles. The pec-deck directly targets the pectoralis major, and does so in a way different than a bench press because the elbows are unlocked throughout the whole range of motion. This length in the arms makes the movement much harder. The deltoids and triceps brachii are assistance muscles, working with the pectoralis major to create the movement. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 15, pg 376

A strength coach prescribes the bench press to a group of athletes. Which primary muscle group is the coach targeting? a. deltoids b. pectoralis major c. triceps brachii

ANSWER: b. pectoralis major EXPLANATION: The bench press is the most popular exercise for the pectoralis major. As the athlete works the bar up and down over the chest, the pectoralis major is the major muscle group involved in performing that task. Other muscles involved are the anterior deltoids and triceps, but those muscles act more as synergists than agonists. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 15, pg 371-372

Of the following tests in a battery, which sequence would produce the most reliable results? - 40-yard dash - Vertical jump - Pro agility - 225-pound bench press a. vertical jump, pro agility, 225-pound bench press, 40-yard dash b. pro agility, vertical jump, 40-yard dash, 225-pound bench press c. 225-pound bench press, vertical jump, 40-yard dash, pro agility

ANSWER: b. pro agility, vertical jump, 40-yard dash, 225-pound bench press EXPLANATION: A logical sequence, although there are some variations, is to administer tests in this order: 1. Non-fatiguing tests (height, weight, etc.) 2. Agility tests (pro agility) 3. Max strength or power tests (1RM squat, 1RM power clean) 4. Sprint tests (40-yard dash) 5. Muscular endurance tests (push-up) 6. Anaerobic capacity tests (300 yard shuttle) 7. Aerobic capacity tests (1.5 mile run) Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 12, pg 256

Continually adding weight to one's working sets of bench press on a weekly or bimonthly basis is an example of which of the following? a. load variation b. progression c. loading

ANSWER: b. progression EXPLANATION: As an athlete adapts to the training stimulus, the strength and conditioning professional needs to have a strategy for advancing exercise loads so that improvements will continue over time; this is defined as progression. Monitoring each athlete's training and charting his or her response to the prescribed workouts enable the strength and conditioning professional to know when and to what extent the loads should be increase. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 17, pg 459

Which of the following is a macronutrient? a. potassium b. protein c. vitamin A

ANSWER: b. protein EXPLANATION: Macronutrients (carbohydrates, proteins and fats) are nutrients that provide calories or energy. They are required in significant amounts in the diet, providing a certain amount of energy per gram of macronutrient, as follows: - carbohydrates: 4 kcal/g - proteins: 4 kcal/g - fats: 9 kcal/g Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 9, pg 181,188

A strength and conditioning coach is trying to decrease their exposure to liability within their setting. Which of the following practices will not aid them in this goal? a. regularly inspect, clean and repair equipment b. require supervision of athletes by sport coaches when strength coaches are not available c. require pre-participation screening by a medical professional

ANSWER: b. require supervision of athletes by sport coaches when strength coaches are not available EXPLANATION: Supervision of athletes must occur by a qualified and knowledgeable professional who understands the procedures and regulations of the facility. A sport coach does not fit this description. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 24, pg 651

During a dumbbell lateral raise, how far should the arms reach during the upward phase of the lift? a. just above shoulder height b. shoulder height c. just below shoulder height

ANSWER: b. shoulder height EXPLANATION: The lateral shoulder raise works the deltoids of the shoulders, almost exclusively towards the lateral head and anterior head. During the upward phase of the movement, your elbows are slightly flexed and the arms should eventually reach a point where they are parallel with the ground, or shoulder height. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 15, pg 397

Which of the following would be considered a muscle buffer? a. testosterone b. sodium bicarbonate c. human growth hormone

ANSWER: b. sodium bicarbonate EXPLANATION: During high-intensity anaerobic exercise, a significant accumulation of H+ ions is coupled with a reduction in low pH levels in skeletal muscle. This has been shown to decrease performance. The ability to regulate H+ concentration in skeletal muscle during high-intensity exercise has been termed muscle buffer capacity (MBC). There is a strong relationship between MBC and exercise performance. The more the athlete can regulate MBC, the higher their performance. Some examples of muscle buffers are B-alanine, sodium bicarbonate and citrate. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 11, pg 240-241

An effective and safe staff-to-athlete ratio is primarily based on which two factors? a. the experience of the staff and the type of strength and conditioning program being conducted b. the age and experience of the athletes and the type of strength and conditioning program being conducted c. the age and experience of the athletes and the avoidance of scheduling issues

ANSWER: b. the age and experience of the athletes and the type of strength and conditioning program being conducted EXPLANATION: All athletes should be constantly supervised, which requires the physical presence of a qualified strength and conditioning professional for overseeing all activity. To provide proper supervision, supervisor stations need to be located where a clear view of the facility and athletes is possible. Suggested staff-to-athlete ratios should be also adhered to, but these can vary depending on the type of training. For instance, if a group of athletes is performing a machine circuit, they do not need as much supervision as athletes who are lifting with free weights. Also, athletes with a low training age need more supervision than athletes who are more experienced in the weight room. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 24, pg 652

The flexor carpi radialis muscle attaches in two different places: 1. The medial condyle of the humerus 2. The base of the second and third metacarpals From this information, which is the insertion location? a. the glenohumeral joint b. the base of the second and third metacarpals c. the medial condyle of the humerus

ANSWER: b. the base of the second and third metacarpals EXPLANATION: A muscle's origin is the attachment point that is most proximal (closest to midline of body). A muscle's insertion is the attachment point that is most distal (away from the midline). Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 2, pg 20

A strength training session with 45 high-school-aged athletes should contain how many strength and conditioning professionals at a minimum? a. four b. three c. two

ANSWER: b. three EXPLANATION: At a high school level, a strength and conditioning professional should be present with a maximum of fifteen athletes. At the junior high level, this lowers to ten athletes and jumps to twenty athletes at the collegiate level. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 24, pg 652

Which of the following exercises is considered a single-joint exercise? a. front squat b. triceps extension c. power clean

ANSWER: b. triceps extension EXPLANATION: Single-join exercises are those that involve one joint. Usually they involve smaller muscles and are considered assistance exercises. Multi-joint exercises use more than one joint and are considered core exercises, which recruit big muscle groups. The triceps extension involves only the elbow joint. The front squat includes the ankle, hip and knee joints, and the power clean involves most joints of the body. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 11, pg 382. 399, 404; Ch 17, pg 444

A power lifter looking for an assistance exercise to improve his or her bench press should include which of the following exercises? a. military press b. triceps pushdown c. pull-ups

ANSWER: b. triceps pushdown EXPLANATION: Assistance exercises target smaller muscles and usually one specific joint. An assistance exercise for bench press will target the triceps. The triceps pushdown targets the triceps and will help strengthen this area for future help in the bench press. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 4, pg 444; Ch 15, pg 399

An athlete is performing steady state exercise that has crossed the lactate threshold. What type of muscle fiber will increase in use after this point? a. slow twitch b. type II c. type I

ANSWER: b. type II EXPLANATION: The lactate threshold (LT) represents a significantly increase reliance on anaerobic mechanisms for energy production to meet demand. Typically, for trained individuals, LT begins at 70% of maximal oxygen uptake. Large motor units (type II fibers) are then recruited during increasing exercise intensities. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 3, pg 50-51

How much recoery time is allowed for muscular endurance resistance exercises? a. up to 3 minutes b. up to 30 seconds c. up to 2 minutes

ANSWER: b. up to 30 seconds EXPLANATION: A muscular endurance training program has very short rest periods, often less than 30 seconds. This restriction of the recovery time is purposeful; only a minimal amount of rest is allowed when light loads are being lifted for many repetitions. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 17, pg 466-467

An athlete suggests adding the pro-agility test before the season. Which of the following characteristics of this test is the most important when determining whether to add it to a testing batter? a. floor surface b. validity c. inter-rater agreement

ANSWER: b. validity EXPLANATION: The most important aspect of any test is its validity: the degree to which it measures what it is supposed to measure. To be valid, the test must mimic the physical attributes, movements and bioenergetic systems of the athlete's sport. The are several types of validity: contract validity, face validity, content validity, and criterion-referenced validity. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 12, pg 250-251

What is the most important factor to be considered when evaluating the quality of a test? a. specificity b. validity c. reliability

ANSWER: b. validity EXPLANATION: To be valid, tests must measure what they are supposed to measure; thus, validity is the most important characteristic of a well-designed test. There are several types of validity: construct validity, face validity, content validity, and criterion-referenced validity. Construct validity is the ability of a test to represent the underlying theory. Face validity is the appearance to the athlete and others that the test is measuring what it is intended to measure. Content validity is the assessment by experts that the test thoroughly covers all relevant subtopics or component abilities in appropriate proportions. Criterion-referenced validity is the extent to which test scores are associated with some other measure of the same ability. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 12, pg 250-251

When assessing athletic program needs, the strength and conditioning professional does not need to consider which of the following? a. number of athletes expected to use the facility b. variety of equipment provided for the athletes c. training experience of the athletes using the facility

ANSWER: b. variety of equipment provided for the athletes EXPLANATION: When assessing existing facility equipment, the strength and conditioning professional should consider a few things: - How many athletes will be using the facility? - What are the training goals for the athletes, coaches, and administration? - What are the demographics of the athletes? - What will the training experience of the athletes be? - How will the athletes be scheduled? - What equipment needs to be repaired or modified? Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 23, pg 626

Which of the following testing sequences produces the most reliable results of these tests? - wingate test - 12-minute run - vertical jump - 1 RM bench press a. wingate test, 12-minute run, vertical jump, 1 RM bench press b. vertical jump, 1 RM bench press, wingate test, 12-minute run c. 1 RM bench press, vertical jump, wingate test, 12-minute run

ANSWER: b. vertical jump, 1 RM bench press, wingate test, 12-minute run EXPLANATION: A logical sequence, although there are some variations, is to administer tests in this order: 1. non-fatiguing tests (height, weight, etc.) 2. agility tests (pro agility) 3. max strength or power tests (1RM squat, 1RM power clean) 4. sprint tests (40-yard dash) 5. muscular endurance tests (push-up) 6. anaerobic capacity test (300-yard shuttle) 7. aerobic capacity tests (1.5 mile run) Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 12, pg 256

What is the minimal recommended daily amount of protein for an athlete competing in the sport of rowing? a. 1.8 g/kg/day b. 1.2 g/kg/day c. 1.4-1.7 g/kg/day

ANSWER: c. 1.4-1.7 g/kg/day EXPLANATION: The sport of rowing is categorized as a combination of aerobic and anaerobic exercise, where the athlete must have good stamina, yet have the ability to forcefully move the oar. For this athlete, who needs both strength and aerobic endurance, recommended protein intake is 1.4-1.7 g/kg/day. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 9, pg 183

When placing a wheelchair ramp at your strength and conditioning facility, how many inches should the ramp run horizontally for every 1-inch rise? a. 6 inches b. 10 inches c. 12 inches

ANSWER: c. 12 inches EXPLANATION: Your facility should be wheelchair-accessible for people with disabilities. A ramp should run 12 inches horizontally for every 1-inch rise. Another safety consideration is that steps should have rough strips on them to help prevent falls. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 23, pg 627

To comply with ADA accessibility requirements, what should be the minimum width for walkways to keep proper traffic flow? a. 48 inches (122 cm) b. 60 inches (152 cm) c. 36 inches (91 cm)

ANSWER: c. 36 inches (91 cm) EXPLANATION: Traffic flow is heavily influenced by equipment placement. Most facilities are one big room, and walkways can be created via arrangement of the equipment. Most racks are machines are best placed lined up in a row running the length of the facility. This usually creates two or three main walkways which should be at least 36 inches (91 cm) wide. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 23, pg 629

What is the estimated average speed of an athlete who performed a pro-agility test in five seconds? a. 5 yards per second b. 3 yards per second c. 4 yards per second

ANSWER: c. 4 yards per second EXPLANATION: Speed is measured by dividing the total distance covered by the time taken to cover that distance. The pro-agility test involves covering a total approximate distance of 20 yards (5 yards from the middle to one lateral cone, 10 yards to the other lateral cone, and 5 yards back through the middle) Speed = 20 yards / 5 seconds = 4 yards per second Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 13, pg 261

In terms of stretching and stationary warm-up drills, what size area should be allotted per athlete? a. 24 square feet (2.3 square meters) b. 60 square feet (5.6 square meters) c. 49 square feet (4.6 square meters)

ANSWER: c. 49 square feet (4.6 square meters) EXPLANATION: A stretching and warm-up area is an open are with soft tissue instruments, mats, or bands. This area should include foam rollers, bands, PVC pipes, tennis balls, gold balls, softballs, and even jump ropes. If possible, there should be at lease 49 square feet (4.6 square meters) of open space so that athletes can perform a dynamic warm-up, as well as enough room for several people to be using the area at the same time. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 23, pg 629

An athlete who is hoping to gain one to two pounds per week must consume how many calories per day above their current caloric intake? a. 800 to 1,000 kcal b. 1,000 to 2,000 kcal c. 500 to 700 kcal

ANSWER: c. 500 to 700 kcal EXPLANATION: As a general guideline, the athlete should consume approximately 500 to 700 additional calories. To increase caloric intake, it's recommended that athletes consume larger portions of food at each meal,m eat at least five times a day, and choose higher-calorie foods. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 10, pg 217

A group of ten athletes performed a vertical jump test and received scores of 28, 29.5, 24, 30, 27, 28, 32.5, 30.5, 26, and 27 inches. What is the range of this group of scores? a. 10 b. 14.5 c. 8.5

ANSWER: c. 8.5 EXPLANATION: The range is the difference between the highest and lowest scores. It is a measure of variability. Given values: 28, 29.5, 24, 30, 27, 28, 32.5, 30.5, 26, 27 lowest value: 24 highest value: 32.5 32.5 - 24 = 8.5 Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 13, pg 291

During the knee flexion of the leg curl exercise, which of the following structures within a sarcomere of the biceps femoris decreases in length and eventually disappears? a. I band b. A band c. H zone

ANSWER: c. H zone EXPLANATION: The biceps femoris shortens during knee flexion of the leg curl exercise. When a muscle contracts, the sliding-filament theory begins with the myofibrils. This is when the actin slides over the myosin more than it already is. The H zone we are referring to is a zone where there is only myosin, no myosin/actin overlap. As contraction happens, there is more myosin/actin overlap and less H zone space. Eventually, there is no H zone space. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 1, pg 7

What are of the spinal column makes up 85% to 90% of all intervertebral disk herniations? a. T5 to T8 b. C1 to C4 c. L4 to S1

ANSWER: c. L4 to S1 EXPLANATION: The L4/L5 and L5/S1 region tend to make up the majority of spinal column herniation injuries. This is due to extremely high compressive forces on the disks during lifting, as well as great torque about the lower intervertebral disks due to the large horizontal distance between the lower back and the weight. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 2, pg 38

Which of the following statements is false regarding carbohydrate loading? a. carbohydrate loading can enhance the endurance potential in an athlete b. cereals, grains, fruits and vegetables can contribute to carbohydrate loading c. an athlete should carbohydrate-load for 3-10 days for the best results

ANSWER: c. an athlete should carbohydrate-load for 3-10 days for the best results EXPLANATION: Carbohydrate loading has been used for decades to enhance muscle glycogen before aerobic endurance events. It includes high carbohydrate intake in the days leading up to an event to maximize glycogen stores, and therefore carbohydrate availability, in the later stages of the event. Carb loading offers potential benefits for distance runners, road cyclists, cross-country skiers, and other aerobic endurance athletes who risk depleting glycogen stores, and it may benefit other athletes as well. Common methods include three days of a high-carb diet in concert with tapering exercise the week before the event. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 10, pg 204-205

An endurance athlete has injured her shoulder. Maintaining her aerobic capabilities on a stationary bike would be considered: a. a subluxation b. a rehabilitation c. an indication

ANSWER: c. an indication EXPLANATION: An indication is a required or recommended form of treatment. If an athlete injures something on the upper body, the athletic trainer should request that the athlete perform lower body strength, speed, agility, and power exercises during the injury time period, so that the upper body injury has a chance to heal. Therefore, lower body exercise is indicated. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 22, pg 607

The tibialis anterior is considered which type of muscle during a calf press exercise? a. passive b. agonist c. antagonist

ANSWER: c. antagonist EXPLANATION: The tibialis anterior would be the antagonist to the gastrocnemius during a calf raise. The muscle most directly involved in bringing about a movement is called the agonist, also known as the prime mover. An antagonist is a muscle or muscle group that can slow down or stop the movement. The antagonist assists in joint stabilization and in braking the limb toward the end of a fast movement, thereby protecting ligamentous and cartilaginous joint structures from potentially destructive forces. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 2, pg 20

By the end of the first pull of the power clean, where should the bar be located? a. middle of shin b. mid-thigh c. at the knees

ANSWER: c. at the knees EXPLANATION: The starting position of the power clean is when the bar should be located mid-shin, because the bar starts on the ground. At the end of the first pull, the bar should reach to the knees. After the first pull comes the transition, and this is when the bar reaches mid-thigh, just before the second pull begins. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 15, pg 404-405

What is defined as a group of test results related to sport-specific abilities crucial to quality performance in a sport or a particular position in a sport? a. test battery b. percentile ranking c. athletic profile

ANSWER: c. athletic profile EXPLANATION: To determine the sport-specific training status of an athlete, the strength and conditioning professional can combine the results of selected tests to generate an athletic profile. There are 6 steps involved in preparing an athletic profile: 1. Select tests that will measure the specific parameters most closely related to the sport(s) in question. 2. Choose valid and reliable tests, allowing sufficient between-test rest to support test reliability. 3. Administer the test battery to as many athletes as possible; present a visual profile, calculate percentile ranks. 4. Determine the smallest worthwhile change for the test and compare to normative data where appropriate. 5. Conduct repeat testing and use the results to present a visual profile with figures. 6. Use the results of the testing in some meaningful way. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 13, pg 293

Due to its structure, what type of synovial joint allows for the greatest range of motion (ROM)? a. hinge b. ellipsoidal c. ball-and-socket

ANSWER: c. ball-and-socket EXPLANATION: The joints found in the hips and shoulders are ball-and-socket joints. Because they allow movement in all three perpendicular axes, this makes them the joints with the highest ROM. Other types of joints only allow ROM in one or two axes of rotation. For example, the hinge joint at the elbow can only move in flexion and extension. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 1, pg 2

A 120-pound female basketball player has the following test results: - 1RM bench press: 155 pounds - 1RM back squat: 225 pounds - Vertical jump: 15 inches - 1-minute partial curl-up test: 65 Based on these results, which of the following exercises should be added to her training program? a. dumbbell fly b. leg extension c. box jumps

ANSWER: c. box jumps EXPLANATION: Box jumps must be added to this athlete's training program. Female athletes average around 20 inches for the vertical jump; therefore, improvements need to be made by this athlete who jumps only 15 inches. Testing is often used as a way to evaluate both an athlete and their training program. This program must be adjusted based on poor scores and lacking abilities exposed by analyzing test results. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 13, pg 300

An athlete is looking to improve their endurance with ephedrine. Which of the following substances will increase the effectiveness of ephedrine? a. creatine b. insulin c. caffeine

ANSWER: c. caffeine EXPLANATION Ephedrine has been widely used for common illnesses, such as bronchial asthma, allergies, and the common cold. It's also popular among bodybuilders because of its strong thermogenic quality. It increases energy expenditure and ultimately results in fat loss. It is often used as a stacking agent with caffeine to enhance the thermogenic effect and cause improvements in aerobic endurance performance. the results are equivocal regarding its effect on anaerobic exercise performance. Caffeine stacked with ephedrine seems to work better than taking the supplement alone. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 11, pg 246

Which type of hormone acts in a "flight-or-flight" mode and is responsible for functions such as increased muscle contraction rate, increased force production via central mechanisms, and increased metabolic enzyme activity? a. testosterone b. cortisol c. catecholamines

ANSWER: c. catecholamines EXPLANATION: Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine are the primary catecholamines and are used in a fight-or-flight manner to stimulate anabolic hormones. Catecholamines also increase force production during heavy resistance training. This can really benefit in creating muscular adaptations from resistance training programs. Other roles of the catecholamines are increasing muscle contraction rate, increasing blood pressure, increasing energy availability, increasing muscle blood flow, and augmenting secretion rates of other hormones (such as testosterone). Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 4, pg 84

You as the strength and conditioning specialist are preparing a schedule. When would it be appropriate to schedule high-intensity upper body plyometric training? a. days that have high-intensity lower body resistance training b. days that have low-intensity upper body resistance training c. days that have low-intensity lower body resistance training

ANSWER: c. days that have low-intensity lower body resistance training EXPLANATION: When designing a plyometrics program, it's important to be smart about intensity of plyometrics versus resistance training. High-intensity resistance training should be matched with lower body plyometrics training. Upper body resistance training should be matched with lower body plyometrics, and vice versa. Therefore, if a day is designated for high-intensity upper body plyometrics, it should be paired with low-intensity lower body resistance training. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 18, pg 480

Which of the following statements about the design phase is false? a. the length of the desing phase is approximately three months or about 10% of the total project time b. the project's architect is selected during the design phase c. development of the master plan is one of the steps in the design phase

ANSWER: c. development of the master plan is one of the steps in the design phase EXPLANATION: During the design phase, committee members are finalized, as are facility blueprints. Equipment specifications are included in the project design, and the facility is designed to provide easy access to athletes with or without disabilities. Development of the master plan is done during the predesign phase. The master plan serves as the general plan for all phases of the new facility. This includes the budget and construction plan, facility design, budget information, and an operational plan to act on once the facility is actually complete. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 23, pg 624

What is defined as the difference between an athlete's testing score at the beginning and at the end of a training period? a. central tendency b. variability c. difference score

ANSWER: c. difference score EXPLANATION: An important outcome of repeated performance testing is evaluation of both the improvement of individual athletes and the overall effectiveness of the physical conditioning program as determined by changes in test scores. A difference score is the difference between an athlete's score at the beginning and at the end of a training period or between any two separate testing times. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 13, pg 291

Which of the following is outside the scope of practice of a strength and conditioning professional? a. introduction of exercise technique b. administrative record keeping c. evaluation and treatment of injury

ANSWER: c. evaluation and treatment of injury EXPLANATION: For preparticipation evaluations or medical evaluations for those coming back after injury, the sports medicine staff is responsible, not the strength and conditioning specialist. This stipulation is important because it is not in the strength and conditioning professional's scope of practice to diagnose or evaluate an individual's medical or health condition. Only sports medicine staff can provide medical clearance and answer questions about eligibility for participation. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 24, pg 647-648

The variables to consider when designing an aerobic endurance training program include which of the following? a. time of day of training b. exercise clothing c. exercise mode

ANSWER: c. exercise mode EXPLANATION: There are a few things to consider when designing aerobic training programs: - exercise mode: the specific activity performed by the athlete (cycling, running, etc.) - training frequency: the number of training sessions conducted per day or week. - training intensity: the effort expended during a training session - exercise duration: the length of time of the training session - exercise progression: progression of a training variable to advance in the sport, whether through frequency, intensity, duration, etc. Evidence has shown that males and females respond similarly to training; therefore, there is no need to make gender-specific workout programs. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 20, pg 562

Which of the following is not a reason for testing athletes? a. for identifying areas that need improvement b. for goal setting c. for choosing a team captain

ANSWER: c. for choosing a team captain EXPLANATION: A test, by definition, is a procedure for assessing ability in a particular endeavor. Testing helps athletes and coaches assess athletic talent and identify physical abilities and areas in need of improvement. Test scores can be used in goal setting, where baseline measurements can be used to establish starting points for setting goals. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 12, pg 250

Which pre-workout routine is performed first and consists of 5 to 10 minutes of slow or low-intensity activities? a. sport-specific warm-ups b. pre-workout stretches c. general warm-ups

ANSWER: c. general warm-ups EXPLANATION: The goal of a general warm-up is to increase heart rate, blood flow, deep muscle temperature, respiration rate, and perspiration, and to increase the viscosity of joint fluids. This phase is typically followed by a period of general stretching that aims to replicate the ranges of motion required for the upcoming activity. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 14, pg 318

When glucose is not metabolized for energy when it enters the muscles and liver and is synthesized to form glycogen, which of the following processes has taken place? a. hemogenesis b. gluconeogenesis c. glycogenesis

ANSWER: c. glycogenesis EXPLANATION: Glycogenesis occurs when glucose is not metabolized for energy when it enters the muscles and liver and is synthesized to form glycogen. Three-quarters of the body's glycogen is stored in skeletal muscles with the remainder stored in the liver. The liver has the highest glycogen content of all body tissues and can convert many of the end products of digestion into glycogen through the process of gluconeogenesis. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 9, pg 184

Which of the following amino acids are all considered essential? a. proline, serine and valine b. lysine, methionine and alanine c. histidine, isoleucine and leucine

ANSWER: c. histidine, isoleucine and leucine EXPLANATION: Nine of the amino acids are denoted as "essential" because they cannot be manufactured by the body; therefore, they must be included in the diet. Essential amino acids include: histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methoionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan and valine. It should be noted that while some people can synthesize histidine on their own, it is an essential amino acid for most people. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 9, pg 182

During a training run, an athlete begins to breathe more heavily and feels a burning sensation in her legs. What level of endurance ability has she reached? a. maximal lactate steady state b. exercise economy c. lactate threshold

ANSWER: c. lactate threshold EXPLANATION: The lactate threshold is the point at which blood lactate concentration begins to rise above resting levels. It is that speed of movement or percentage of VO2 max at which a specific blood lactate concentration is observed. The lactate threshold is considered by researchers to be a better indicator of an athlete's endurance performance than VO2 max. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 20, pg 561

In the power clean, the bar is racked on the athlete's shoulders and clavicles. A common problem with this position is the poor posture of trunk flexion. As a personal trainer, what suggestion would you make to remedy your client's posture issue? a. retract the scapulae and engage the ankle flexors b. open up the sternum and widen the grip on the bar c. make sure the scapulae are depressed and retracted

ANSWER: c. make sure the scapulae are depressed and retracted EXPLANATION: Get the scapulae depressed and retracted in the starting position of the power clean. This will pop out the chest and create better posture at the torso for beginning this power exercise. In addition to depressed and retracted scapulae, having the eyes focused straight ahead can be helpful in keeping the torso up straight. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 15, pg 404-405

Which of the following guidelines is the most important to follow when planning to administer an aerobic endurance test in the heat? a. have the athletes fill out a waiver before conduction the test b. eliminate the warm-up prior to performing the test c. measure the relative humidity and air temperature before testing

ANSWER: c. measure the relative humidity and air temperature before testing EXPLANATION: It is necessary to consider the environment when selecting and administering tests of basic athletic ability. High ambient temperature especially in in combination with high humidity, can impair endurance exercise performance, pose health risks, and lower the validity of an aerobic endurance test. Aerobic and sprint performance may be impaired when the temperature approaches 80 degrees, especially when the humidity exceeds 50%. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 12, pg 253

A 32-year old male athlete wants to measure his body fat percentage by using skinfold calipers. Which of the following is a common location to measure a skinfold? a. biceps b. trapezius c. midaxilla

ANSWER: c. midaxilla EXPLANATION: Skinfold measurements are a popular method to calculate body fat percentage, and are easily performed by strength and conditioning professionals. Common locations of skinfold measurements are the following: - Chest - Thigh - Abdomen - Triceps - Suprailium - Midaxilla - Subscapula - Calf After obtaining the measurement, the strength and conditioning professional can then use appropriate equations to determine body fat percentage. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 13, pg 288

During a training session, an athlete is working at an intensity of 8 to 12 reps at 70-85% of his 1RM. What specific adaptation will the athlete achieve from training at this intensity? a. muscular strength b. muscular endurance c. muscle hypertrophy

ANSWER: c. muscle hypertrophy EXPLANATION: There are certain load and repetition assignments based on training goals: - Strength: >85% 1RM, <6 repetitions - Power: 75-90% 1RM, 1-5 repetitions - Hypertrophy: 67-85% 1RM, 6-12 repetitions - Muscular endurance: <67% 1RM, >12 repetitions It is generally accepted that higher training volumes are associated with increases in muscular size, which is the result of both a moderate-to-higher number of repetitions (6-12) and the commonly recommended 3-6 sets per exercise. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 17, pg 458, 465

In which season is the priority low for sports practice and high for resistance training? a. in-season b. pre-season c. off-season

ANSWER: c. off-season EXPLANATION: In periodization, there are certain phases that require particular attention. During the preparatory period, also referred to as the off-season, there are no competitions, and technical, tactical or sport-specific work is limited. The central goal of the off-season is to develop a base level of conditioning in order to increase the athlete's ability to tolerate more intense training. The off-season/preparatory period is composed of hypertrophy/stregnth endurance, basic strength, and dips into the strength/power phase as the athlete enters the first transition period. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 1, pg 12

What is the quality of muscle that allows it to assume a new lengthened position? a. elasticity b. stretch reflex c. plasticity

ANSWER: c. plasticity EXPLANATION: Plasticity is the quality of connective tissues that allows them to alter their length through the use of stretching exercises that take advantage of their plastic potential. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 14, pg 321

What is the difference between policies and procedures? a. procedures are a facility's rules and regulations, and polices describe the ways in which those procedures are implemented b. policies and procedures are essentially the same c. policies are a facility's rules and regulations, and procedures describe the ways in which those policies are implemented

ANSWER: c. policies are a facility's rules and regulations, and procedures describe the ways in which those policies are implemented EXPLANATION: Both athletes and strength and conditioning professionals should be concerned about a facility's policies and procedures. Because both program goals and objectives form their foundation, they should be examined prior to the development of policies and procedures. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 24, pg 642

During which phase should staff be finalizing interior decor? a. operation b. construction c. preoperation

ANSWER: c. preoperation EXPLANATION: The preoperation phase consists of the final steps before the facility can open. These steps include finishing the interior decor and hiring a qualified staff. The staff should have at least the minimum required certifications and education. There should also be a plan for staff development as well, from workshops to staff meetings. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 23, pg 625

Which of the following is one of the elements that must exist for a strength and conditioning professional to be found negligent? a. presence of an effect b. presence of ab obligation c. presence of a duty

ANSWER: c. presence of a duty EXPLANATION: Negligence is a failure to act as a reasonable and prudent person would under similar circumstances. Four elements must exist for negligence to be proven: presence of a duty, breach of duty, proximate cause and damages. To be proven negligent, the professional must have had a duty to act and failed to do so, which is termed a breach of duty. In addition, a professional must act with the appropriate level of care, and failure to do so must have resulted in either physical injury or economic damage because of the natural and continuous sequence of reasonably foreseeable events (approximate cause). Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 24, pg 647

Performing warm-up sets prior to performing a 1RM bench press test will increase which of the following test characteristics? a. inter-rater agreement b. validity c. reliability

ANSWER: c. reliability EXPLANATION: Performing a warm-up before any testing will increase a test's reliability. An appropriately organized warm-up consists of a general warm-up followed by a specific warm-up. Both types of warm-ups include body movements similar to those involved in the test. An organized, instructor-led general warm-up ensures uniformity. It is acceptable to allow two or three activity-specific warm-up trials, depending on the test protocol, and have subsequent trials actually count towards the score. Depending on the test protocol, the score can be the best or the average of the post-warm-up trials. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 12, pg 257

The neck moves in all three planes of motion. Which of the following specific movements can it perform? a. adduction b. abduction c. rotation

ANSWER: c. rotation EXPLANATION: The neck can perform four types of movements: rotation, lateral flexion, flexion, and extension. An example of rotation is looking right or left. An example of lateral flexion is putting your ear on your shoulder. An example of flexion is putting your chin on your chest. An example of extension is looking up at the ceiling. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 2, pg 26

Ben thinks he may require assistance during the last rep of his bench press, and he asks Dave to help him. Which of the following is not true of Dave's responsibility as a spotter? a. spotters are rarely required to handle the entire load when assisting an athlete to complete a repetition b. typically, athletes need just enough help to complete a repetition c. spotters are usually required to handle the entire load when assisting an athlete to complete a repetition

ANSWER: c. spotters are usually required to handle the entire load when assisting an athlete to complete a repetition EXPLANATION: While in a partner-assisted action, athletes may need a limited amount of help to complete a repetition; knowledge about how much and when to help requires experience. Spotters must be alert to indications that the athlete is having a problem and, when taking the weight, they should act quickly and smoothly to avoid abrupt changes in the load being handled by the athlete. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 15, pg 356

Which of the following are appropriate stretches for the adductor brevis, adductor longus, and adductor magnus? a. wall stretch and straddle b. sitting toe touch and semi straddle c. straddle and butterfly

ANSWER: c. straddle and butterfly EXPLANATION: Although both the straddle (spread eagle) and butterfly are groin stretches, they have different effects and goals. The straddle affects the gastrocnemius, hamstrings, erecetor spinae, hip adductors and sartorius. The butterfly affects the hip adductors and the sartorius. The hip adductors are made up of the adductor brevis, adductor longus, and adductor magnus. The semi straddle is incorrect because it stretches the erector spine muscles, not the adductor group. The sitting toe touch is incorrect because it targets muscles on the back of the body, such as the erecetor spinae, hamstrings, and gastrocnemius. The wall stretch targets the gastrocnemius. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 14, pg 339

Which, if any, of the following groups or individuals are typically allowed the use of a strength and conditioning facility at an institution? a. friends of newly incoming student athletes b. members of the community c. students in physical education classes

ANSWER: c. students in physical education classes EXPLANATION: Under certain circumstances and with pre-approval from the athletic and strength and conditioning directors, outside organizations may be given access to facilities. However, it is important that criteria be established and documented rather than making decisions on a case-by-case basis. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 24, pg 648

Why are supersets used during resistance training? a. to increase post-potentiation activation b. to increase the difficulty of the training c. to allow for better recovery while working the opposing muscle group

ANSWER: c. to allow for better recovery while working the opposing muscle group EXPLANATION: Supersets involve the performance of two exercises for antagonistic muscles. As an example, an athlete may perform a bench press (chest muscles) followed by a cable row (back muscles). This allows for better recovery when working the opposing muscle. Performing supersets allows brief recovery and recruitment of muscles between sets, just like "push-pull" exercises. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 17, pg 450

During the preparation period, what are the typical goals of a resistance training program? a. to attain maximal aerobic power b. to increase speed, agility and speed-endurance c. to improve strength, power, hypertrophy or muscular endurance

ANSWER: c. to improve strength, power, hypertrophy or muscular endurance EXPLANATION: In outlining a periodized training plan, the starting point is usually the preparatory period, divided into the general preparatory phase and the specific preparatory phase. During the preparatory phases, the athlete is working on hypertrophy, muscular endurance, strength, and power. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 21, pg 589

An athlete is looking to improve the nutrient density of their diet. Which food group should be recommended in abundance to achieve this goal? a. grains and starches b. meats and poultry c. vegetables and protein-containing foods

ANSWER: c. vegetables and protein-containing foods EXPLANATION: Vegetables and protein-containing foods are among a small group of foods that are considered nutrient-dense. Though there is no standard definition for nutrient density, in general, choosing nutrient-dense foods means looking for foods based on the amount of nutrients they provide (such as vitamins, minerals, fiber, and plant-based compounds). Foods high in nutrient density include milk, vegetables, protein foods, and grains. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 9, pg 195

What is the goal of consuming fluids just before beginning exercise? a. to avoid dehydration during exercise b. to rehydrate before the next training session c. to replace lost fluids

ANSWER: to avoid dehydration during exercise EXPLANATION: Ideally, athletes should start exercise or training in a hydrated state, avoid losing more than 2% of body weight (due to sweat loss) during exercise, and rehydrate completely after exercise and before the next training session. They should rehydrate several hours before exercise to allow for fluid absorption and urine output. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 9, pg 198

Which of the following exercises are used to increase the rate at which force can be applied? a. the push press, the power clean, and the snatch b. the triceps pushdown, the lateral shoulder raise, and the push press c. the push jerk, the push press, and the upright row

ANSWER: a. the push press, the power clean, and the snatch EXPLANATION: Power is defined as the rate of doing work. Power = Work / Time, and the Power = Force x Velocity. The push press, power clean, and natch all require quick and forceful movements. All are an attempt to increase an athlete's power. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 15, pg 402-407