NU 325 - GU Exam (02/13/23)

Failure to maintain irrigation during a TURP may cause:

large clots to form

What is important to know about a 24 hour urinalysis?

a jug is used for collection and labeled with the start time, first void must be discarded, then ALL other urine is collected, jug must be kept on ice

By the age of 65, GFR is about:

65 mL/min

What is normal BUN level?

7-18mg/dL

What is normal serum pH?

7.35-7.45

Which type of diuretic would likely be given with a K+ supplement?

Loop

_______ are used to treat hypertension, edema r/t CHF or renal insufficiency.

Loop Diuretics

_______ block Na+ reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle. A low sodium diet, daily weights, monitoring of K+ may be required. May cause hypokalemia.

Loop Diuretics

What is a normal PSA level?

0.2-4.0 mg/ml

What is normal serum creatinine level?

0.6-1.2mg/dL

_______ is enlargement of the prostate gland.

BPH

80-90% of UTIs are cause by

E. coli

How is prostate cancer diagnosed?

digital rectal exam

Which type of diuretic does not promote the secretion of K+ into the urine?

Potassium-sparing

What surgery may be completed for BPH?

TURP

Cloudy and murky urine may indicate:

UTI and kidney stones

_______ is an x-ray study of the bladder and urethra, performed while the client is urinating.

Voiding Cystourethography

The nurse recognizes that test results that most likely indicate a urinary tract infection include:

WBC 50

What are the types of indwelling catheters?

foley and triple lumen

There is a ________% survival rate after 5 years of having (and treating) testicular cancer.

95

GFR decreases by ____ per year.

1%

If PSA levels are >____, is indicative of prostate cancer.

10

Which of the following signs or symptoms is most commonly seen in patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

weak urine stream

How may suprapubic catheter bags be cleaned?

with soap and water for reuse

A physician should perform a testicular exam how often?

yearly

What are the clinical manifestations of BPH?

urinary hesitancy, nocturia, urinary retention

_______ are the most common type of renal calculi, caused by calcium oxalate

Calcium stones

Which type of diuretic are HCTZ and Diuril examples of?

Thiazide

What is iatrogenic incontinence?

involuntary loss of urine due to extrinsic medical factors, but mainly from medications

A patient is suspected to have prostate cancer related to observed clinical symptoms. What definitive test can the nurse assist with to confirm a diagnosis of prostate cancer?

prostate biopsy

The most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain in an acutely ill client is:

weight

Which of the following urine characteristics would the nurse anticipate when caring for a client whose lab work reveals a high urine specific gravity related to dehydration?

dark amber urine

What does turbid mean?

dark, gross, cloudy, yellow/ gray urine, with sediment floating in it

What is urge incontinence?

described as instability or overactivity, sudden intense urge to urinate followed by an involuntary loss of urine

How may bladder spasms be treated?

detrol LA

A client is admitted with nephrolithiasis. What symptoms does the nurse expect the client to experience?

difficulty starting a urine stream, suprapubic pain, elevated temp, hematuria

Nursing management of the client with a urinary tract infection should include:

discouraging caffeine intake

What position should a female patient receiving a catheter be placed in?

dorsal recumbent or lateral sims

Blue and green urine may be caused by:

dye used for kidney and bladder function tests, Amitriptyline, Indocin, diprivan, UTI's due to pseudomonas

What are some clinical manifestations for BPH?

dysuria, frequency, straining during urination, nocturia, reduction in urine stream, hesitancy, post-void dribbling, stone formation, UTI, reduced kidney function, hematuria

What are the common s/sxs of UTI?

dysuria, urgency, burning sensation, frequency with small amounts of urine, cloudy urine, foul smelling urine, hematuria, pelvic pain

What are some pre-procedure tasks for cystoscopy?

enema, NPO status, sedatives given, teach deep breathing, monitor for postural hypotension

When the kidneys don't get enough oxygen, they send out a distress signal in the form of ___________.

erythropoetin

Which substance stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells?

erythropoietin

How often should you empty a catheter bag?

every 8 hours + as needed

How often should a suprapubic catheter be replaced?

every month

How often should DRE be done to detect for prostate cancer or BPH?

every year after 40

A gerontologic nurse is assessing a client who has numerous comorbid health problems. What assessment finding(s) should prompt the nurse to suspect a UTI?

fever, new onset of confusion

What type of sample is preferred for urine dipstick tests?

first thing in the morning, strained specimen

If BUN is elevated, but creatinine is normal, check:

for dehydration

Which of the following urine or urination changes is most likely seen in patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) ?

frequency

What are the s/sxs of hydronephrosis?

frequency, retention, incontinence, N/V, renal failure, elevated BUN/Creatinine, groin pain

Proteinuria (or foamy urine) may indicate:

glomerulonephritis

What type of irrigation is used during a TURP?

glycine

What position is a patient placed in for a cystoscopy?

lithotomy

What type of diet should a pt with BPH be on?

low fat diet, avoid alcohol and coffee

A renal diet consists of:

low sodium, phosphorus, protein, limited Ca+, K+, limited fluid intake

Prostate cancer may spread to what other areas of the body?

lymph and bones

Prostate cancer may spread to _______ and _______.

lymph nodes; bones

What are the risk factors for renal tumors?

male, estrogen therapy, tobacco use, occupational exposure, obesity, polycystic kidney disease

What are the clinical manifestations for testicular cancer?

mass/ lump on the testicle and painless enlargement of the testis, heaviness in the scrotum, back ache, abd. pain, weight loss

What is important to know about high protein diets?

may be hard on your kidneys, important to stay very hydrated, elevates BUN

Which of the following age groups is most frequently affected by benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) ?

men over 50

What are post-operative interventions for a renal angiography?

monitor vitals until they're stable, assess peripheral pulses before and after (mark them before procedure), assess color and temperature of the involved extremity, monitor I&Os

What is an important primary precaution to teach men about testicular cancer?

monthly testicular self exam starting in adolescence

It is important to do what with the catheter periodically to prevent necrosis and relieve pressure on the urethra?

move it from one side of bed to the other

What are the types of upper urinary tract infections?

nephritis (pyelonephritis, glomerulonephritis), renal abscesses

What may cause low BUN levels?

occurs in severe hepatic damage, malnutrition, and over hydration

What is functional incontinence?

occurs when lower urinary tract function is intact but physical or mental impairment may keep patient from making it to the toilet

How often should you change the catheter tubing?

once a week

Which finding is an early indicator of bladder cancer?

painless hematuria

If a patient has renal calculi for the first time, they will be asked to:

pee over a strainer to catch any pieces of stones that may be sent off to identify

A client has experienced occasional urinary incontinence in the weeks since their prostatectomy. In order to promote continence, the nurse should encourage which of the following?

pelvic floor exercises

A female client is undergoing a bladder training program as treatment for urinary incontinence. Which technique would be the most appropriate for the nurse to suggest?

performing Kegel exercises

The nurse is conducting a history and assessment related to a client's incontinence. Which element should the nurse include in the assessment before beginning a bladder training program?

physical and environmental conditions

What are s/sxs of glomerulonephritis?

pink or cola-colored urine, foamy urine, increased BUN, fluid retention, edema, swelling in the face, swelling of hands, feet, or abdomen, fatigue, anemia, flank pain

What color should TURP drainage be?

pink, glycine irrigation rate may be adjusted to maintain this color

A client has developed urinary incontinence after having a urinary catheter in place for a few weeks. What is the initial nursing intervention the nurse should use to start the client with bladder training?

place client on a timed voiding schedule

What is a TURP?

transurethral resection of the prostate, used to relieve enlarged prostate symptoms by removing excess tissues

Which catheter will be used for TURP?

triple lumen foley

What are some causes of pyelnephritis?

upwards spread of bacteria from the bladder or systemic sources reaching the kidneys via the bloodstream

The nurse is giving discharge instructions to the client with uric acid renal calculi. Which statement by the client indicates the client understands the prescribed diet?

"I should limit my intake of meat and fish."

A client comes to the clinic reporting urinary symptoms. Which statement would most likely alert the nurse to suspect benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

"I've had trouble getting started when I urinate, often straining to do so."

Up to ____ weeks of antibiotic treatment may be used to ensure that acute pyelonephritis does not become chronic pyelonephritis.

6

A client with urinary tract infection is prescribed phenazopyridine (Pyridium). Which of the following instructions would the nurse give the client?

"this medication will relieve your pain"

Prostate cancer is most common in men ages ____ and older.

65

____________mL of retained urine post-void is considered urinary retention.

100+

With a urine culture and sensitivity, anything greater than ____ is indicative of an infection.

100,000

What is the most common age for testicular cancer?

15-35

What are some interventions for glomerulonephritis?

24 hour urine, check specific gravity, osmolality, maintain bed rest, restrict fluids, reduce protein and sodium, increase calories, monitor daily weights

All specimens must be taken to the lab within ___ and be placed in the refrigerator.

30 minutes

How much urine is needed for a urinalysis?

30mL

What is the normal WBC count?

4.55-10.0 billion cells/L

What are the risk factors for bladder tumors?

55+ years old, male, tobacco use, caucasian, chronic infections, bladder stones, high urinary pH, high cholesterol

________ should be obtained before any antibiotic therapy is started.

A culture and sensitivity

What are the two types of catheters?

urethral; suprapubic

________ is enlargement of the kidneys with interstitial filtrates. A follow-up urine culture must be completed after the prescription is completely taken. May be characterized by lower back pain, groin pain, fever, chills, leukocytes, bacteriuria, pyuria, N/V, HA, malaise, painful urination.

Acute pyelonephritis

Which clinical feature is most commonly seen in patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia BPH)?

urgency

_______ may cause retrograde ejaculation, meaning that semen will back flow into the bladder. This may cause infections.

Alpha blockers

____ is a lab test that assesses renal function. It is the product of blood that carries protein to the cells throughout the body, after the cells use the protein, the waste products are returned to the blood as urea.

BUN

_____ levels indicate the extent of renal clearance.

BUN

What diagnostic tests would you order for BPH?

BUN, Creatnine, electrolytes, WBC, UA, PSA

Cysts caused by polycystic kidney disease that occur in the blood vessels or brain may cause a ___________.

Berry Aneurysm

Cystoscopy is the main diagnosing technique for what type of tumor?

Bladder

_____ may be used to treat glomerulonephritis when it is caused by inflammatory diseases (vasculitis)

Corticosteroids

What are risk factors for testicular cancer?

Cryptorchidism, family history of testicular cancer, HIV/AIDS

_____ are renal calculi that form in relation to hereditary disorders, cause patient to excrete too much of the amino acid, cysteine urea

Cystine stones

______ is used to see the inside of the bladder and urethra to investigate bladder s/sxs. May be used to diagnose bladder and urinary tract diseases or an enlarged prostate.

Cystoscopy

What does the pneumonic DIAPPERS stand for?

Delirium Infection Atrophic vaginitis Pharmacologic agents Psychological factors (depression) Excessive urine formation Restricted physical activity Stool impaction

_______ BUN is indicative of kidney dysfunction, dehydration, high protein diet, urinary tract obstructions, tissue breakdown, increased protein catabolism, HF, and fluid volume changes.

Elevated

An adult client has been hospitalized with pyelonephritis. The nurse's review of the client's intake and output records reveals that the client has been consuming between 3 L and 3.5 L of oral fluid each day since admission. How should the nurse best respond to this finding?

Encourage the client to continue this pattern of fluid intake.

______ is used to treat BPH and is usually given 0.4 mg once daily. This is an alpha blocker that relaxes the bladder neck muscles.

Flomax

_______ catheters are made to stay in place due to the balloon at the tip of it.

Foley

______ is inflammation of the glomeruli, or tiny filters, in the kidneys. May be an antigen antibody reaction that damages the glomeruli.

Glomerulonephritis

A nurse is teaching a 53-year-old man about prostate cancer, given the fact that the client has a family history of the disease. What information should the nurse provide to best facilitate the early identification of prostate cancer?

Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done as recommended.

______ is the progressive enlargement of renal pelvis and calyces by obstruction of the upper urinary tract, the kidney swells because of urine buildip.

Hydronephrosis

_______ is a urinary diversion in which the ureters are transported to a section of the ileum and brought out the abdominal wall. What doesn't come out in the ileum, comes out in the rectum. This is the most common urinary diversion.

Ileal Conduit

_______ catheters are catheters with a closed drainage system to reduce contamination.

Indwelling

______ is when a radioactive substance is given via IV to the patient which is then followed by fluoroscope and x-ray film.

Intravenous Pyelogram

Which type of diuretic is the first choice for immediate diuresis?

Loop

Which type of diuretic works on the Loop of Henle?

Loop

____ is an x-ray of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder. This is the cheap and easy way to look at stones.

KUB

What is overflow incontinence?

Leakage due to inability of the bladder to empty itself correctly, constant dribbling

______, or an ESWL, is a non-invasive procedure used to break up stones in the calyx of the kidney, high energy shock waves are passed through the body to break the stones up to be passed easily.

Lithotripsy

For which type of diuretic is this true: an increased dose=increased urinary output?

Loop

Which type of diuretic can be given PO or IV?

Loop

Which type of diuretic has arrhythmias and muscle cramps as side effects?

Loop

Which type of diuretic is Lasix (or Furosemide) an example of?

Loop

Which of the following would a nurse include in a teaching plan for a client with benign prostatic hyperplasia who is not yet a candidate for surgery?

Maintaining optimal bladder emptying

_______ is a percutaneous procedure that is used to treat larger stones (>2cm), which involves entering the kidney through a small incision in the back

Nephrolithotomy

___________ is where a catheter is inserted into the renal pelvis via incision in the flank. It may be irrigated per doctor's order. These should NEVER be clamped.

Nephrostomy tubes

What are some bladder irritants?

Nutri-sweet, caffeine, coffee, alcohol

You should avoid what while taking Alpha blockers?

OTC cold medications and antihistamines

Serum _____ will be elevated if prostate cancer is present.

PSA (prostate specific antigen)

Which lab is indicative of prostate cancer if elevated?

PSA > 10

How is a clean catch, or midstream, urine sample collected?

Patient is sent to bathroom with a cup or urinalysis kit, they are to clean perineal area, start urinating, stop the flow, place cup under stream and continue urinating

______ may be used for glomerulonephritis when it is a streptococcal infection

Penicillin

____ is virtually the only cause of increased creatinine levels.

Renal impairment

______ is a disorder characterized by multiple kidney cysts. it may lead to reduced kidney function or failure. It may also cause cysts in the blood vessels, brain, heart, liver.

Polycystic Kidney Disease

________ decrease Na+ reabsorption, K+ excretion in the distal tubule, they are weak when used alone, and they are usually given with a K+ losing diuretic.

Potassium-Sparing Diuretic

Which type of diuretic is weak when used alone?

Potassium-sparing

Which type of diuretic works on the collecting duct of the distal convoluted tubule?

Potassium-sparing

With which diuretic are K+ supplements contraindicated?

Potassium-sparing

A 57 year old male with complaints of deep pain felt in the lower abdomen, back and pelvis. He came to the doctor when he noticed blood in his urine. He also states that his urine stream is decreased, and he feels like he must go to the bathroom all the time. These symptoms may be indicative of:

Prostate cancer

______ is the most common cancer in men other than nonmelanoma skin cancer.

Prostate cancer

_______ is a bacterial infection of the renal pelvis, tubules, and interstitial tissue of one or both kidneys.

Pyelonephritis

Which antispasmodic (urinary analgesic) medication may be used in tx of UTIs?

Pyridium (Phenazopyridine)

The nurse is reviewing the results of a urinalysis on a client with acute pyelonephritis. Which of the following would the nurse most likely expect to find?

Pyuria

A nurse is reviewing the history of a client who is suspected of having glomerulonephritis. Which of the following would the nurse consider significant?

Recent history of streptococcal infection

_______ evaluates renal blood flow for suspected trauma. It provides an image of renal arteries; the femoral artery is usually the entry point. This procedure is like a large IV threaded through the femoral and iliac arteries, into the aorta or renal artery, then a contrast agent is injected.

Renal angiogrpahy

_______ is a test used to determine level of renal function and evaluate the severity of kidney disease. It is the end product of skeletal muscle metabolism that is filtered at the glomerulus, passes through the tubules, and is then excreted.

Serum creatinine

What is true about extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL)?

Stones are shattered into smaller particles that are passed from the urinary tract. ESWL is a high-energy blast of pressure.

_______ catheters are urethral catheters that must be inserted with aseptic technique. They may also be known as an in-and-out catheter. There is no balloon on this catheter.

Straight

__________ catheters are used for one time use, usually to obtain a urine specimen or residual emptying.

Straight

_____ are renal calculi that form in response to infection (such as a UTI)

Struvite stones

____ are the medications of choice for UTIs unless the client is allergic.

Sulfonamides

______ catheters are inserted through an incision above the pubis bone. These may be used if there is a urethral obstruction, injury, or mass, BPH, or prostate cancer.

Suprapubic

Which type of diuretic can lead to mild hypokalemia?

Thiazide

Which type of diuretic works on the proximal portion of the distal convoluted tubule?

Thiazide

_______ block reabsorption of na+, HRO, Cl, and Bicarb in the distal convoluted tubule, this is not the diuretic of choice for immediate diuresis. May cause hypokalemia.

Thiazide diuretics

Which type of diuretic is given PO only?

Thiazide, Potassium-sparing

Which antimicrobials are common for treatment of UTIs?

Trimethoprim (Bactrim), Sulfamethoxazole (Septra), Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin), Fluoroquinolones (Ciprofloxacine, Levofloxacin)

What are some complications that may be caused by the symptoms of BPH?

UTI, bladder distention, obstruction, pyelonephritis, sepsis, anemia

Bloody urine, or hematuria, may be a sign of:

UTI, kidney or bladder stones, tumors and cysts, long distance running

____ is the end product of protein metabolism

Urea

______ are renal calculi that form when a patient is dehydrated, loses too many fluids, has gout, or is on a high protein diet.

Uric acid stones

______ can be used to screen patients for kidney and urinary tract diseases, may detect metabolic or systemic diseases and presence of RBCs, WBCs, and microorganisms.

Urinalysis/ Urine Culture and Sensitivty

______ are the second most common infections in the body. They can be classified as complicated or uncomplicated.

Urinary tract infections

______ are very common in patients who have catheters in.

Urinary tract infections

__________ are urine tests in which you are looking for albumin, glucose, etc. changes. Must be gathered first thing in the morning.

Urine dipstick tests

_______ is sepsis that complicates a urinary tract or prostate infection. It is a severe illness that occurs when an infection occurs in the urinary tract but travels into the bloodstream.

Urosepsis

When should self-testicular exams begin?

adolescence

What ethnicity is most likely to be diagnosed with prostate cancer?

african american

What are risk factors for prostate cancer?

african american, male, female in family with breast cancer, family history

When is a triple lumen catheter commonly used?

after a TURP procedure

Medical management of BPH includes pharmacologic therapy. Which of the following medications would the nurse expect the health care provider to prescribe for this diagnosis?

alpha-adrenergic blocker

What are the characteristics of normal urine?

amber, yellow, clear pH: 5-8 SG: 1.010-1.025 No glucose, protein, nitrites, ketones

A client has a decreased secretion of erythropoietin from the kidneys due to end-stage kidney disease. The nurse explains that the decrease in erythropoietin will have what effect?

anemia from the decrease in maturation of red blood cells

The nurse is employed in a urologist's office. Which classification of medication is anticipated for clients having difficulty with urinary incontinence?

anticholinergic

After undergoing renal arteriogram, in which the left groin was accessed, a client complains of left calf pain. Which intervention should the nurse perform first?

assess peripheral pulses in the left leg

What are the most common clinical manifestations of testicular cancer?

backache, painless testicular enlargement, heaviness in the scrotum, lump in testis, abdominal pain, weight loss, elevated AFP and Beta HCG

UTIs may be caused by:

bacteria, fungus, virus, parasites

Catheter drainage bags must be kept:

below the level of the patient's bladder in order to prevent back flow

What are some possible causes of glomerulonephritis?

beta hemolytic streptococcal infection, autoimmune diseases, vasculitis

What are some common complications with Foley catheter insertion?

bladder spasm, infection, urethral strictures, necrosis, may lead to pyelonephritis, asepsis

A patient is having a problem with retention of urine in the bladder. Which of the following diagnostic tests measures the amount of residual urine in the bladder?

bladder ultrasonography

Dark amber urine may be caused by:

bleeding in the urinary tract, dehydration, urinary tract problems, or diet.

What is the most common sign of prostate cancer?

blood in semen

PSA (Prostate specific antigen)

blood test to detect prostate cancer

In regards to a DRE, histologic exam, and blood work for prostate cancer diagnosis, which order should they be completed in?

blood work, DRE, confirmed by histologic exam

What is the main clinical manifestation of prostate cancer?

urinary obstruction, difficulty urinating, decreased urinary stream, rectal discomfort, sexual dysfunction issues, hematuria, back ache, hip pain, bone pain

What is stress incontinence, a.k.a. Outlet incontinence?

urine leaks when you exert pressure by sneezing, laughing, coughing, exercising, lifting heavy objects

Tea colored, or dark brown, urine may indicate:

usage of antimalarial drugs; Flagyl, nitrofurantoin; live and kidney disorders

What are some causes of hydronephrosis?

calculi, tumor, clots, inflammation, narrowing of ureterovesical junction, prostate enlargement

The nurse is to check residual af urine amounts for a client experiencing urinary retention. Which of the following would be most important?

catheterize the client immediately after the client voids

Which objective symptom of a UTI is most common in older adults, especially those with dementia?

change in cognitive functioning

A urinalysis may be collected through:

clean catch, straight catheter, foley catheter

What are s/sxs infection r/t catheterization?

cloudy urine, hematuria, fever, chills, anorexia, malaise, drainage around meatus, and inflammation

When caring for the patient with acute glomerulonephritis, which of the following assessment findings should the nurse anticipate?

cola-colored urine

Most uncomplicated UTIs are ______ acquired.

community

Which is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult?

constipation

The nurse is assessing a client's new stoma and observes that the stoma color is now dark purple. The appropriate nursing intervention is to

contact the physician

What are the types of lower urinary tract infections?

cystitis (bladder), prostatitis, urethritis

What diagnostic test may be used to obtain a urine specimen from each kidney to evaluate their individual function?

cystoscopy

What are the possible risks of cystoscopy?

hemorrhage, infection, pain

If AFP (Alpha-fetoprotein) levels are _____, it is indicative of testicular cancer.

high

If CA-125 is ______, there is likely a cancer in the body.

high

If HCG (Human Chorionic Gonadotropin levels are _____, it is indicative of testicular cancer.

high

If LDH (Lactate Dehydrogenase) is _____ it is indicative of cancer.

high

What is the best way to tell the difference between BPH and prostate cancer?

histologic exam

Diagnosis of prostate cancer is confirmed by a _______________.

histologic examination

What is reflex incontinence?

hyper-reflexia of the muscles from altered spinal cord activity

A client is diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease. Which symptom would the nurse most likely assess?

hypertension

Low levels of testosterone is called _________.

hypogonadism

What are the s/sxs of urosepsis?

hypotension, tachypnea, tachycardia, fever, hypothermia, chills, may progress to shock

Which type of incontinence refers to the involuntary loss of urine due to extrinsic medical factors, particularly medications?

iatrogenic

The kidneys are responsible for the conversion of _____ to ______ in order for Ca+ to be absorbed.

inactivated vitamin D; activated vitamin D

What are post-procedure nursing interventions for cystoscopy?

increase fluids, monitor I&Os, may have leg cramps, hematuria, voiding discomfort, tea-colored urine

What are the signs of shock?

increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, increased respiratory rate

Which of the following would the nurse expect to find when reviewing the laboratory test results of a client with renal failure?

increased serum creatnine level

BPH is most common in what ages?

increases steadily with age after 50

What are the risks of cystoscopies?

infection, bleeding, pain

What allergies would be very important to note with patients getting a catheter?

iodine, latex

How can you reduce possible hemorrhaging during a TURP?

keep tension on the foley balloon

What are some teaching points for patients with incontinence?

kegels, decrease fluids after 6pm, pee Q2 hours, perineal pads, avoid diuretics after 4pm, avoid bladder irritants, avoid constipation, weight reduction, monitor for skin breakdown

What are s/sxs of polycystic kidney disease?

kidneys enlarge over time, lumbar, abd pain, hematuria, hypertension, palpable masses, recurrent UTIs, HA

Orange urine may be caused by:

problems with liver or bile ducts, dehydration

What is the difference in prostate cancer and BPH?

prostate cancer will be nodular in DRE, whereas with BPH the prostate is enlarged, feels boggy for sure way to tell difference is a biopsy

What is possible treatment of testicular cancer?

radical inguinal orchiectomy- removal of testicle retroperitoneal lymph node dissection- removal of the testical + lymph nodes in perineal area radiation/ chemo

What surgical management may be done for prostate cancer?

radical prostatectomy

The nurse is reviewing a patient's laboratory results. What findings does the nurse assess that are consistent with acute glomerulonephritis?

red blood cells in the urine, proteinuria

Catheters can be used for:

relieve urinary tract obstruction, assist w post op drainage, obtain accurate I&Os, promote urinary drainage in pts w bladder dysfunction or urine retention, and prevent leakage with stage 3 or 4 pressure ulcers

Red urine may be caused by:

rhubarb, beets, blackberry consumption, or Rifampin, Pyridium

Chronic pyelonephritis may lead to:

scarring of the kidneys, end stage renal disease

Testicular cancer risk is highest for adolescents and men younger than age 35. To specifically address testicular cancer risk, a nurse should modify client teaching for male clients to include:

self testicular examination

Which lab is the most sensitive indicator of renal function?

serum creatinine

What are some foods high in purine that should be avoided if patient has Uric Acid stones?

shellfish, anchovies, asparagus, mushrooms, organ meats

What are foods high in oxalate?

strawberries, spinach, rhubarb, chocolate, tea, peanuts, wheat bran

A patient informs the nurse that every time she sneezes or coughs, she urinates in her pants. What type of incontinence does the nurse recognize the patient is experiencing?

stress incontinence

What position should a male patient receiving a catheter be placed in?

supine with thighs shoulder width apart

A 28 year old male patient presents with heaviness in his scrotum, a backache, abdominal pain and weight loss. Lab tests were ordered and the AFP and Beta HCG came back elevated. What may be going on?

testicular cancer

When should Flomax be taken?

the evening due to orthostatic hypotension and fatigue

A client with bladder cancer had his bladder removed and an ileal conduit created for urine diversion. While changing this client's pouch, the nurse observes that the area around the stoma is red, weeping, and painful. What should the nurse conclude?

the pouch faceplate doesn't fit the stoma

The normal urinary tract is sterile above what point?

the urethra

What is the problem with Foley catheters?

they are overused in clinical practice for convenience of the nurse or providers