NUR 413 Exam 3 Questions

A client is admitted to the labor unit with contractions 1-2 minutes apart lasting 60-90 seconds. The client is apprehensive and irritable. This client is most likely in what phase of labor? 1. Active 2. Transition 3. Latent 4. Second

2

What is required for any women receiving oxytocin (Pitocin)? 1. CPR 2. Continuous electronic fetal monitoring 3. Administering oxygen by mask 4. Nonstress test

2

The nurse has just palpated contractions and compares the consistency to that of the forehead to estimate the firmness of the fundus. What would the intensity of these contractions be identified as? 1. Mild 2. Moderate 3. Strong 4. Weak

3

The nurse auscultates the FHR and determines a rate of 112 beats/min. Which action is appropriate? 1. Inform the maternal client that the rate is normal. 2. Reassess the FHR in 5 minutes because the rate is low. 3. Report the FHR to the doctor immediately. 4. Turn the maternal client on her side and administer oxygen.

1

The fetal heart rate baseline is 140 beats/min. When contractions begin, the fetal heart rate drops suddenly to 120, and rapidly returns to 140 before the end of the contraction. Which nursing intervention is best? 1. Assist the client to change position. 2. Apply oxygen to the client at 2 liters per nasal cannula. 3. Notify the operating room of the need for a cesarean birth. 4. Determine the color of the leaking amniotic fluid.

1

The laboring client presses the call light and reports that her water has just broken. What would the nurse's first action be? 1. Check fetal heart tones. 2. Encourage the mother to go for a walk. 3. Change bed linens. 4. Call the physician.

1

The laboring client's fetal heart rate baseline is 120 beats per minute. Accelerations are present to 135 beats/min. During contractions, the fetal heart rate gradually slows to 110, and is at 120 by the end of the contraction. What nursing action is best? 1. Document the fetal heart rate. 2. Apply oxygen via mask at 10 liters. 3. Prepare for imminent delivery. 4. Assist the client into Fowler's position.

1

The nurse administered oxytocin 20 units at the time of placental delivery. Why was this primarily done? 1. To contract the uterus and minimize bleeding 2. To decrease breast milk production 3. To decrease maternal blood pressure 4. To increase maternal blood pressure

1

A client is admitted to the birth setting in early labor. She is 3 cm dilated, -2 station, with intact membranes, and FHR of 150 bpm. Her membranes rupture spontaneously, and the FHR drops to 90 bpm with variable decelerations. What would the nurse's initial response be? 1. Perform a vaginal exam 2. Notify the physician 3. Place the client in a left lateral position 4. Administer oxygen at 2 L per nasal cannula

1

A laboring client's obstetrician has suggested amniotomy as a method for creating stronger contractions and facilitating birth. The client asks, "What are the advantages of doing this?" What should the nurse cite in response? 1. Contractions elicited are similar to those of spontaneous labor. 2. Amniotomy decreases the chances of a prolapsed cord. 3. Amniotomy reduces the pain of labor and makes it easier to manage. 4. The client will not need an episiotomy.

1

A nurse needs to evaluate the progress of a woman's labor. The nurse obtains the following data: cervical dilatation 6 cm; contractions mild in intensity, occurring every 5 minutes, with a duration of 30-40 seconds. Which clue in this data does not fit the pattern suggested by the rest of the clues? 1. Cervical dilatation 6 cm 2. Mild contraction intensity 3. Contraction frequency every 5 minutes 4. Contraction duration 30-40 seconds

1

A pregnant client is admitted to the emergency department with bleeding. The nurse realizes that the client might have placenta previa. Which signs would be suggestive of placenta previa? 1. Bright red vaginal bleeding 2. Sudden onset of vaginal bleeding 3. Firm and hard uterus 4. Change in the size of abdomen

1

A woman has been having contractions since 4 a.m. At 8 a.m., her cervix is dilated to 5 cm. Contractions are frequent, and mild to moderate in intensity. Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) has been ruled out. After giving the mother some sedation so she can rest, what would the nurse anticipate preparing for? 1. Oxytocin induction of labor 2. Amnioinfusion 3. Increased intravenous infusion 4. Cesarean section

1

After being in labor for several hours with no progress, a client is diagnosed with CPD (cephalopelvic disproportion), and must have a cesarean section. The client is worried that she will not be able to have any future children vaginally. After sharing this information with her care provider, the nurse would anticipate that the client would receive what type of incision? 1. Transverse 2. Infraumbilical midline 3. Classic 4. Vertical

1

At 32 weeks' gestation, a woman is scheduled for a second non-stress test (following one she had at 28 weeks' gestation). Which statement by the client would indicate an adequate understanding of this procedure? 1. "I can't get up and walk around during the test." 2. "I'll have an IV started before the test." 3. "I can still smoke before the test." 4. "I need to have a full bladder for this test."

1

How would the nurse best analyze the results from a client's sonogram that shows the fetal shoulder as the presenting part? 1. Breech, transverse 2. Breech, longitudinal 3. Breech, frank 4. Vertex, transverse

1

On assessment, a labor client is noted to have cardiovascular and respiratory collapse and is unresponsive. What should the nurse suspect? 1. An amniotic fluid embolus 2. Placental abruption 3. Placenta accreta4 . Retained placenta

1

The charge nurse is looking at the charts of laboring clients. Which client is in greatest need of further intervention? 1. Woman at 7 cm, fetal heart tones auscultated every 90 minutes 2. Woman at 10 cm and pushing, external fetal monitor applied 3. Woman with meconium-stained fluid, internal fetal scalp electrode in use 4. Woman in preterm labor, external monitor in place

1

The client has asked the nurse why her cervix has only changed from 1 to 2 cm in 3 hours of contractions occurring every 5 minutes. What is the nurse's best response to the client? 1. "Your cervix has also effaced, or thinned out, and that change in the cervix is also labor progress." 2. "When your perineal body thins out, your cervix will begin to dilate much faster than it is now." 3. "What did you expect? You've only had contractions for a few hours. Labor takes time." 4. "The hormones that cause labor to begin are just getting to be at levels that will change your cervix."

1

The client has been pushing for 3 hours, and the fetus is making a slow descent. The partner asks the nurse whether pushing for this long is normal. How should the nurse respond? 1. "Your baby is taking a little longer than average, but is making progress." 2. "First babies take a long time to be born. The next baby will be easier." 3. "The birth would go faster if you had taken prenatal classes and practiced." 4. "Every baby is different; there really are no norms for labor and birth."

1

The nurse has received end-of-shift reports in the high-risk maternity unit. Which client should the nurse see first? 1. The client at 26 weeks' gestation with placenta previa experiencing blood on toilet tissue after a bowel movement 2. The client at 30 weeks' gestation with placenta previa whose fetal monitor strip shows late decelerations 3. The client at 35 weeks' gestation with grade I abruptio placentae in labor who has a strong urge to push 4. The client at 37 weeks' gestation with pregnancy-induced hypertension whose membranes ruptured spontaneously

1

The nurse is preparing to assess the fetus of a laboring client. Which assessment should the nurse perform first? 1. Perform Leopold maneuvers to determine fetal position. 2. Count the fetal heart rate between, during, and for 30 seconds following a uterine contraction (UC). 3. Dry the maternal abdomen before using the Doppler. 4. The diaphragm should be cooled before using the Doppler.

1

The nurse is responding to phone calls. Whose call should the nurse return first? 1. A client at 37 weeks' gestation reports no fetal movement for 24 hours. 2. A client at 29 weeks' gestation reports increased fetal movement. 3. A client at 32 weeks' gestation reports decreased fetal movement X 2 days. 4. A client at 35 weeks' gestation reports decreased fetal movement X 4 hours.

1

The nurse is scheduling a client for an external cephalic version (ECV). Which finding in the client's chart requires immediate intervention? 1. Previous birth by cesarean 2. Frank breech ballotable 3. 37 weeks, complete breech 4. Failed ECV last week

1

The nurse knows that a contraindication to the induction of labor is which of the following? 1. Placenta previa 2. Isoimmunization 3. Diabetes mellitus 4. Premature rupture of membranes

1

To identify the duration of a contraction, the nurse would do which of the following? 1. Start timing from the beginning of one contraction to the completion of the same contraction. 2. Time between the beginning of one contraction and the beginning of the next contraction. 3. Palpate for the strength of the contraction at its peak. 4. Time from the beginning of the contraction to the peak of the same contraction.

1

Two hours ago, a client at 39 weeks' gestation was 3 cm dilated, 40% effaced, and +1 station. Frequency of contractions was every 5 minutes with duration 40 seconds and intensity 50 mmHg. The current assessment is 4 cm dilated, 40% effaced, and +1 station. Frequency of contractions is now every 3 minutes with 40-50 seconds' duration and intensity of 40 mmHg. What would the priority intervention be? 1. Begin oxytocin after assessing for CPD. 2. Give terbutaline to stop the preterm labor. 3. Start oxygen at 8 L/min. 4. Have the anesthesiologist give the client an epidural.

1

What is one of the most common initial signs of nonreassuring fetal status? 1. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid 2. Cyanosis 3. Dehydration 4. Arrest of descent

1

What is the most significant maternal risk factor for preterm birth? 1. Previous preterm birth 2. Smoking 3. Stress 4. Substance abuse

1

The labor nurse would not encourage a mother to bear down until the cervix is completely dilated, to prevent which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only for all correct choices and no incorrect choices. Select all that apply. 1. Maternal exhaustion 2. Cervical edema 3. Tearing and bruising of the cervix 4. Enhanced perineal thinning 5. Having to perform an episiotomy

1, 2, 3

The nurse is caring for a client who is having fetal tachycardia. The nurse knows that possible causes include which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Maternal dehydration 2. Maternal hyperthyroidism 3. Fetal hypoxia 4. Prematurity 5. Anesthesia or regional analgesia

1, 2, 3, 4

The nurse is presenting a class on preterm labor, its causes, and treatments to a group of newly pregnant couples. Which statements regarding preterm labor are true? Note: Credit will be given only of all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Antepartum hemorrhage can cause preterm labor. 2. Trauma can cause preterm labor. 3. Infection can cause preterm labor. 4. Magnesium sulfate is a drug used to stop contractions. 5. Sedatives and narcotics may be given to stop labor.

1, 2, 3, 4

What fetal factors require a cesarean birth? 1. Severe intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) 2. Fetal anomalies 3. Unfavorable fetal position or presentation 4. Preterm birth 5. Lack of maternal attachment

1, 2, 3, 4

Childbirth preparation offers several advantages including which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only for all correct choices and no incorrect choices. Select all that apply. 1. It helps a pregnant woman and her support person understand the choices in the birth setting. 2. It promotes awareness of available options. 3. It provides tools for a pregnant woman and her support person to use during labor and birth. 4. Women who receive continuous support during labor require more analgesia, and have more cesarean and instrument births. 5. Each method has been shown to shorten labor.

1, 2, 3, 5

For what common side effects of epidural anesthesia should the nurse watch? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Elevated maternal temperature 2. Urinary retention 3. Nausea 4. Long-term back pain 5. Local itching

1, 2, 3, 5

The nurse has completed the physical assessment of a client in early labor, and proceeds with the social assessment. A social history of the client would include which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Use of drugs and alcohol 2. Family violence or sexual assault 3. Current living situation 4. Type of insurance 5. Availability of resources

1, 2, 3, 5

The nurse is teaching a class on reading a fetal monitor to nursing students. The nurse explains that bradycardia is a fetal heart rate baseline below 110 and can be caused by which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Maternal hypotension 2. Prolonged umbilical cord compression 3. Fetal dysrhythmia 4. Central nervous system malformation 5. Late fetal asphyxia

1, 2, 3, 5

Upon assessing the FHR tracing, the nurse determines that there is fetal tachycardia. The fetal tachycardia would be caused by which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Early fetalhypoxia 2. Prolonged fetal stimulation 3. Fetal anemia 4. Fetal sleep cycle 5. Infection

1, 2, 3, 5

Premonitory signs of labor include which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only for all correct choices and no incorrect choices. Select all that apply. 1. Braxton Hicks contractions 2. Cervical softening and effacement 3. Weight gain 4. Rupture of membranes 5. Sudden loss of energy

1, 2, 4

Risk factors for tachysystole include which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Cocaine use 2. Placental abruption 3. Low-dose oxytocin titration regimens 4. Uterine rupture5. Smoking

1, 2, 4

The nurse is caring for a client in labor. Which signs and symptoms would indicate the client is progressing into the second stage of labor? Note: Credit will be given only for all correct choices and no incorrect choices. Select all that apply. 1. Bulging perineum 2. Increased bloody show 3. Spontaneous rupture of the membranes 4. Uncontrollable urge to push 5. Inability to breathe through contractions

1, 2, 4

The nurse is assessing a client before administering an analgesic. What are some of the factors the nurse should consider? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. The client is willing to receive medication after being advised about it. 2. The client's vital signs are stable. 3. The partner agrees to use of the medication. 4. The client has no known allergies to the medication. 5. The client is aware of the contraindications of the medication.

1, 2, 4, 5

The nurse is caring for a client who is showing a sinusoidal fetal heart rate pattern on the monitor. The nurse knows that possible causes for this pattern include which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Fetal anemia 2. Chronic fetal bleeding 3. Maternal hypotension 4. Twin-to-twin transfusion 5. Umbilical cord occlusion

1, 2, 4, 5

A client in labor is requesting pain medication. The nurse assesses her labor status first, focusing on which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Contraction pattern 2. Amount of cervical dilatation 3. When the labor began 4. Whether the membranes are intact or ruptured 5. Fetal presenting part

1, 2, 5

Fetal factors that possibly indicate electronic fetal monitoring include which of the following? 1. Meconium passage 2. Multiple gestation 3. Preeclampsia 4. Grand multiparity 5. Decreased fetal movement

1, 2, 5

The client presents to the labor and delivery unit stating that her water broke 2 hours ago. Indicators of normal labor include which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Fetal heart rate of 130 with average variability 2. Blood pressure of 130/80 3. Maternal pulse of 160 4. Protein of +1 in urine 5. Odorless, clear fluid on underwear

1, 2, 5

A client had an epidural inserted 2 hours ago. It is functioning well, the client is stable, and labor is progressing. Which parts of the nurse's assessment have the highest priority? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Assess blood pressure every hour. 2. Assess the pulse rate every hour. 3. Palpate the bladder. 4. Auscultate the lungs. 5. Assess the reflexes.

1, 3

Before performing Leopold maneuvers, what would the nurse do? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Have the client empty her bladder. 2. Place the client in Trendelenburg position. 3. Have the client lie on her back with her feet on the bed and knees bent. 4. Turn the client to her left side. 5. Have the client lie flat with her ankles crossed.

1, 3

Usually, the family is advised to arrive at the birth setting at the beginning of the active phase of labor or when which of the following occur? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Rupture of membranes (ROM) 2. Increased fetal movement 3. Decreased fetal movement 4. Any vaginal bleeding 5. Regular, frequent uterine contractions (UCs)

1, 3, 4, 5

When general anesthesia is necessary for a cesarean delivery, what should the nurse be prepared to do? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Administer an antacid to the client. 2. Place a wedge under her thigh. 3. Apply cricoid pressure during anesthesia intubation. 4. Preoxygenate for 3-5 minutes before anesthesia. 5. Place a Foley catheter in the client's bladder.

1, 3, 4, 5

The nurse is teaching a prenatal class about false labor. The nurse should teach clients that false labor most likely will include which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only for all correct choices and no incorrect choices. Select all that apply. 1. Contractions that do not intensify while walking 2. An increase in the intensity and frequency of contractions 3. Progressive cervical effacement and dilatation 4. Pain in the abdomen that does not radiate 5. Contractions are at regular intervals

1, 4

A client at 32 weeks' gestation is admitted with painless vaginal bleeding. Placenta previa has been confirmed by ultrasound. What should be included in the nursing plan? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. No vaginal exams 2. Encouraging activity 3. No intravenous access until labor begins 4. Evaluating fetal heart rate with an external monitor 5. Monitoring blood loss, pain, and uterine contractility

1, 4, 5

A client who is having false labor most likely would have which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only for all correct choices and no incorrect choices. Select all that apply. 1. Contractions that do not intensify while walking 2. An increase in the intensity and frequency of contractions 3. Progressive cervical effacement and dilatation 4. Pain in the abdomen that does not radiate 5. Contractions that lessen with rest and warm tub baths

1, 4, 5

The nurse is caring for a client in the transition phase of labor and notes that the fetal monitor tracing shows average short-term and long-term variability with a baseline of 142 beats per minute. What actions should the nurse take in this situation? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Provide caring labor support. 2. Administer oxygen via face mask. 3. Change the client's position. 4. Speed up the client's intravenous. 5. Reassure the client and her partner that she is doing fine.

1, 5

A client arrives in the labor and delivery unit and describes her contractions as occurring every 10-12 minutes, lasting 30 seconds. She is smiling and very excited about the possibility of being in labor. On exam, her cervix is dilated 2 cm, 100% effaced, and -2 station. What best describes this labor? 1. Second phase 2. Latent phase 3. Active phase 4. Transition phase

2

A client calls the labor and delivery unit and tells the nurse that she is 39 weeks pregnant and that over the last 4 or 5 days, she has noticed that although her breathing has become easier, she is having leg cramps, a slight amount of edema in her lower legs, and an increased amount of vaginal secretions. The nurse tells the client that she has experienced which of the following? 1. Engagement 2. Lightening 3. Molding 4. Braxton Hicks contractions

2

A client received epidural anesthesia during the first stage of labor. The epidural is discontinued immediately after delivery. This client is at increased risk for which problem during the fourth stage of labor? 1. Nausea 2. Bladder distention 3. Uterine atony 4. Hypertension

2

A client was admitted to the labor area at 5 cm with ruptured membranes about 14 hours ago. What assessment data would be most beneficial for the nurse to collect? 1. Blood pressure 2. Temperature 3. Pulse 4. Respiration

2

A laboring client has received an order for epidural anesthesia. In order to prevent the most common complication associated with this procedure, what would the nurse expect to do? 1. Observe fetal heart rate variability 2. Hydrate the vascular system with 500-1000 mL of intravenous fluids 3. Place the client in the semi-Fowler's position 4. Teach the client appropriate breathing techniques

2

A woman has been admitted for an external version. She has completed an ultrasound exam and is attached to the fetal monitor. Prior to the procedure, why will terbutaline be administered? 1. To provide analgesia 2. To relax the uterus 3. To induce labor 4. To prevent hemorrhage

2

A woman in labor asks the nurse to explain the electronic fetal heart rate monitor strip. The fetal heart rate baseline is 150 with accelerations to 165, variable decelerations to 140, and moderate long-term variability. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching? 1. "The most important part of fetal heart monitoring is the absence of variable decelerations." 2. "The most important part of fetal heart monitoring is the presence of variability." 3. "The most important part of fetal heart monitoring is the fetal heart rate baseline." 4. "The most important part of fetal heart monitoring is the depth of decelerations."

2

During the nursing assessment of a woman with ruptured membranes, the nurse suspects a prolapsed umbilical cord. What would the nurse's priority action be? 1. To help the fetal head descend faster 2. To use gravity and manipulation to relieve compression on the cord 3. To facilitate dilation of the cervix with prostaglandin gel 4. To prevent head compression

2

Four minutes after the birth of a baby, there is a sudden gush of blood from the mother's vagina, and about 8 inches of umbilical cord slides out. What action should the nurse take first? 1. Place the client in McRoberts position. 2. Watch for the emergence of the placenta. 3. Prepare for the delivery of an undiagnosed twin. 4. Place the client in a supine position.

2

Narcotic analgesia is administered to a laboring client at 10:00 a.m. The infant is delivered at 12:30 p.m. What would the nurse anticipate that the narcotic analgesia could do? 1. Be used in place of preoperative sedation 2. Result in neonatal respiratory depression 3. Prevent the need for anesthesia with an episiotomy 4. Enhance uterine contractions

2

The client at 40 weeks' gestation reports to the nurse that she has had increased pelvic pressure and increased urinary frequency. Which response by the nurse is best? 1. "Unless you have pain with urination, we don't need to worry about it." 2. "These symptoms usually mean the baby's head has descended further." 3. "Come in for an appointment today and we'll check everything out." 4. "This might indicate that the baby is no longer in a head-down position."

2

The client is in the second stage of labor. The fetal heart rate baseline is 170, with minimal variability present. The nurse performs fetal scalp stimulation. The client's partner asks why the nurse did that. What is the best response by the nurse? 1. "I stimulated the top of the fetus's head to wake him up a little." 2. "I stimulated the top of the fetus's head to try to get his heart rate to accelerate." 3. "I stimulated the top of the fetus's head to calm the fetus down before birth." 4. "I stimulated the top of the fetus's head to find out whether he is in distress."

2

The labor and delivery nurse is reviewing charts. The nurse should inform the supervisor about which client? 1. Client at 5 cm requesting labor epidural analgesia 2. Client whose cervix remains at 6 cm for 4 hours 3. Client who has developed nausea and vomiting 4. Client requesting her partner to stay with her

2

The laboring client brought a written birth plan indicating that she wanted to avoid pain medications and an epidural. She is now at 6 cm and states, "I can't stand this anymore! I need something for pain! How will an epidural affect my baby?" What is the nurse's best response? 1. "The narcotic in the epidural will make both you and the baby sleepy." 2. "It is unlikely that an epidural will decrease your baby's heart rate." 3. "Epidurals tend to cause low blood pressure in babies after birth." 4. "I can't get you an epidural, because of your birth plan."

2

The laboring client is having moderately strong contractions lasting 60 seconds every 3 minutes. The fetal head is presenting at a -2 station. The cervix is 6 cm and 100% effaced. The membranes spontaneously ruptured prior to admission, and clear fluid is leaking. Fetal heart tones are in the 140s with accelerations to 150. Which nursing action has the highest priority? 1. Encourage the husband to remain in the room. 2. Keep the client on bed rest at this time. 3. Apply an internal fetal scalp electrode. 4. Obtain a clean-catch urine specimen.

2

The nurse anticipates that the physician will most likely order a cervicovaginal fetal fibronectin test for which client? 1. The client at 34 weeks' gestation with gestational diabetes 2. The client at 32 weeks' gestation with regular uterine contractions 3. The client at 37 weeks' multi-fetal gestation 4. The client at 20 weeks' gestation with ruptured amniotic membranes

2

The nurse is working with a pregnant adolescent. The client asks the nurse how the baby's condition is determined during labor. The nurse's best response is that during labor, the nurse will do which of the following? 1. Check the client's cervix by doing a pelvic exam every 2 hours. 2. Assess the fetus's heart rate with an electronic fetal monitor. 3. Look at the color and amount of bloody show that the client has. 4. Verify that the client's contractions are strong but not too close together.

2

Which client requires immediate intervention by the labor and delivery nurse? 1. Client at 8 cm, systolic blood pressure has increased 35 mm Hg 2. Client who delivered 1 hour ago with WBC of 50,000 3. Client at 5 cm with a respiratory rate of 22 between contractions 4. Client in active labor with polyuria

2

A client has just arrived in the birthing unit. What steps would be most important for the nurse to perform to gain an understanding of the physical status of the client and her fetus? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Check for ruptured membranes and apply a fetal scalp electrode. 2. Auscultate the fetal heart rate between and during contractions. 3. Palpate contractions and resting uterine tone. 4. Assess the blood pressure, temperature, respiratory rate, and pulse rate. 5. Perform a vaginal exam for cervical dilation, and perform Leopold maneuvers.

2, 3

Nonreassuring fetal status often occurs with a tachysystole contraction pattern. Intrauterine resuscitation measures may become warranted and can include which of the following measures? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Position the woman on her right side. 2. Apply oxygen via face mask. 3. Call for anesthesia provider for support. 4. Increase intravenous fluids by at least 700 mL bolus. 5. Call the physician/CNM to the bedside.

2, 3, 4

The nurse is aware of the different breathing techniques that are used during labor. Why are breathing techniques used during labor? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. They are a form of anesthesia. 2. They are a source of relaxation. 3. They increase the ability to cope with contractions. 4. They are a source of distraction. 5. They increase a woman's pain threshold.

2, 3, 4, 5

Which of the following potential problems would the nurse consider when planning care for a client with a persistent occiput posterior position of the fetus? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Increased fetal mortality 2. Severe perineal lacerations 3. Ceasing of labor progress 4. Fetus born in posterior position 5. Intense back pain during labor

2, 3, 4, 5

The nurse determines that a client is carrying her fetus in the vertical (longitudinal) lie. The nurse's judgment should be questioned if the fetal presenting part is which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only for all correct choices and no incorrect choices. Select all that apply. 1. Sacrum 2. Left arm 3. Mentum 4. Left scapula 5. Right scapula

2, 4, 5

The primary care provider is performing a fetal scalp stimulation test. What result would the nurse hope to observe? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Spontaneous fetal movement 2. Fetal heart acceleration 3. Increase in fetal heart variability 4. Resolution of late . Reactivity associated with the stimulation

2, 5

A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit with a history of ruptured membranes for 2 hours. This is her sixth delivery; she is 40 years old, and smells of alcohol and cigarettes. What is this client at risk for? 1. Gestational diabetes 2. Placenta previa 3. Abruptio placentae 4. Placenta accreta

3

A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit with contractions that are 2 minutes apart, lasting 60 seconds. She reports that she had bloody show earlier that morning. A vaginal exam reveals that her cervix is 100 percent effaced and 8 cm dilated. The nurse knows that the client is in which phase of labor? 1. Active 2. Latent 3. Transition 4. Fourth

3

A client is consulting a certified nurse-midwife because she is hoping for a vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC) with this pregnancy. Which statement indicates that the client requires more information about VBAC?1. "I can try a vaginal birth because my uterine incision is a low segment transverse incision." 2. "The vertical scar on my skin doesn't mean that the scar on my uterus goes in the same direction." 3. "There is about a 90% chance of giving birth vaginally after a cesarean." 4. "Because my hospital has a surgery staff on call 24 hours a day, I can try a VBAC there."

3

A client who wishes to have an unmedicated birth is in the transition stage. She is very uncomfortable and turns frequently in the bed. Her partner has stepped out momentarily. How can the nurse be most helpful? 1. Talk to the client the entire time. 2. Turn on the television to distract the client. 3. Stand next to the bed with hands on the railing next to the client. 4. Sit silently in the room away from the bed.

3

A client's labor has progressed so rapidly that a precipitous birth is occurring. What should the nurse do? 1. Go to the nurse's station and immediately call the physician. 2. Run to the delivery room for an emergency birth pack. 3. Stay with the client and ask auxiliary personnel for assistance. 4. Hold back the infant's head forcibly until the physician arrives for the delivery.

3

A laboring client asks the nurse, "Why does the physician want to use an intrauterine pressure catheter (IUPC) during my labor?" The nurse would accurately explain that the best rationale for using an IUPC is which of the following? 1. The IUPC can be used throughout the birth process. 2. A tocodynamometer is invasive. 3. The IUPC provides more accurate data than does the tocodynamometer. 4. The tocodynamometer can be used only after the cervix is dilated 2 cm.

3

A laboring client's obstetrician has suggested amniotomy as a method for inducing labor. Which assessment(s) must be made just before the amniotomy is performed? 1. Maternal temperature, BP, and pulse 2. Estimation of fetal birth weight 3. Fetal presentation, position, and station 4. Biparietal diameter

3

A woman has been in labor for 16 hours. Her cervix is dilated to 3 cm and is 80% effaced. The fetal presenting part is not engaged. The nurse would suspect which of the following? 1. Breech malpresentation 2. Fetal demise 3. Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) 4. Abruptio placentae

3

After noting meconium-stained amniotic fluid and fetal heart rate decelerations, the physician diagnoses a depressed fetus. The appropriate nursing action at this time would be to do what? 1. Increase the mother's oxygen rate. 2. Turn the mother to the left lateral position. 3. Prepare the mother for a higher-risk delivery. 4. Increase the intravenous infusion rate.

3

During a non-stress test, the nurse notes that the fetal heart rate decelerates about 15 beats during a period of fetal movement. The decelerations occur twice during the test, and last 20 seconds each. The nurse realizes these results will be interpreted as which of the following? 1. A negative test 2. A reactive test 3. A nonreactive test 4. An equivocal test

3

If the physician indicates a shoulder dystocia during the delivery of a macrosomic fetus, how would the nurse assist? 1. Call a second physician to assist. 2. Prepare for an immediate cesarean delivery. 3. Assist the woman into McRoberts maneuver. 4. Utilize fundal pressure to push the fetus out.

3

Persistent early decelerations are noted. What would the nurse's first action be? 1. Turn the mother on her left side and give oxygen. 2. Check for prolapsed cord. 3. Do nothing. This is a benign pattern. 4. Prepare for immediate forceps or cesarean delivery.

3

The client at 30 weeks' gestation is admitted with painless late vaginal bleeding. The nurse understands that expectant management includes which of the following? 1. Limiting vaginal exams to only one per 24-hour period. 2. Evaluating the fetal heart rate with an internal monitor. 3. Monitoring for blood loss, pain, and uterine contractibility. 4. Assessing blood pressure every 2 hours.

3

The client at 39 weeks' gestation calls the clinic and reports increased bladder pressure but easier breathing and irregular, mild contractions. She also states that she just cleaned the entire house. Which statement should the nurse make? 1. "You shouldn't work so much at this point in pregnancy." 2. "What you are describing is not commonly experienced in the last weeks." 3. "Your body may be telling you it is going into labor soon." 4. "If the bladder pressure continues, come in to the clinic tomorrow."

3

The client demonstrates understanding of the implications for future pregnancies secondary to her classic uterine incision when she states which of the following? 1. "The next time I have a baby, I can try to deliver vaginally." 2. "The risk of rupturing my uterus is too high for me to have any more babies." 3. "Every time I have a baby, I will have to have a cesarean delivery." 4. "I can only have one more baby

3

The client in early labor asks the nurse what the contractions are like as labor progresses. What would the nurse respond? 1. "In normal labor, as the uterine contractions become stronger, they usually also become less frequent." 2. "In normal labor, as the uterine contractions become stronger, they usually also become less painful." 3. "In normal labor, as the uterine contractions become stronger, they usually also become longer in duration." 4. "In normal labor, as the uterine contractions become stronger, they usually also become shorter in duration."

3

The client vaginally delivers an infant that weighs 4750 g. Moderate shoulder dystocia occurred during the birth. During the initial assessment of this infant, what should the nurse look for? 1. Bell's palsy 2. Bradycardia 3. Erb palsy 4. Petechiae

3

The labor and delivery nurse is assigned to four clients in early labor. Which electronic fetal monitoring finding would require immediate intervention? 1. Early decelerations with each contraction 2. Variable decelerations that recover to the baseline 3. Late decelerations with minimal variability 4. Accelerations

3

The labor and delivery nurse is preparing a prenatal class about facilitating the progress of labor. Which of the following frequent responses to pain should the nurse indicate is most likely to impede progress in labor? 1. Increased pulse 2. Elevated blood pressure 3. Muscle tension 4. Increased respirations

3

The laboring client with meconium-stained amniotic fluid asks the nurse why the fetal monitor is necessary, as she finds the belt uncomfortable. Which response by the nurse is most important? 1. "The monitor is necessary so we can see how your labor is progressing." 2. "The monitor will prevent complications from the meconium in your fluid." 3. "The monitor helps us to see how the baby is tolerating labor." 4. "The monitor can be removed, and oxygen given instead."

3

The nurse educator is describing the different kinds of abruptio placentae to a group of students, explaining that in a complete abruptio placentae, which of the following occurs? 1. Separation begins at the periphery of the placenta. 2. The placenta separates centrally and blood is trapped between the placenta and the uterine wall. 3. There is massive vaginal bleeding in the presence of almost total separation. 4. Blood passes between the fetal membranes and the uterine wall, and escapes vaginally.

3

The nurse is admitting a client to the labor and delivery unit. Which aspect of the client's history requires notifying the physician? 1. Blood pressure 120/88 2. Father a carrier of sickle-cell trait 3. Dark red vaginal bleeding 4. History of domestic abuse

3

The nurse is analyzing several fetal heart rate patterns. The pattern that would be of most concern to the nurse would be which of the following? 1. Moderate variability 2. Early decelerations 3. Late decelerations 4. Accelerations

3

The nurse is aware that a fetus that is not in any stress would respond to a fetal scalp stimulation test by showing which change on the monitor strip? 1. Late decelerations 2. Early decelerations 3. Accelerations 4. Fetal dysrhythmia

3

The nurse is aware that labor and birth will most likely proceed normally when the fetus is in what position? 1. Right-acromion-dorsal-anterior 2. Right-sacrum-transverse 3. Occiput anterior 4. Posterior position

3

The nurse is preparing a client education handout on the differences between false labor and true labor. What information is most important for the nurse to include? 1. True labor contractions begin in the back and sweep toward the front. 2. False labor often feels like abdominal tightening, or "balling up." 3. True labor can be diagnosed only if cervical change occurs. 4. False labor contractions do not increase in intensity or duration.

3

The student nurse is to perform Leopold maneuvers on a laboring client. Which assessment requires intervention by the staff nurse? 1. The client is assisted into supine position, and the position of the fetus is assessed. 2. The upper portion of the uterus is palpated, then the middle section. 3. After determining where the back is located, the cervix is assessed. 4. Following voiding, the client's abdomen is palpated from top to bottom.

3

Two hours after an epidural infusion has begun, a client complains of itching on her face and neck. What should the nurse do? 1. Remove the epidural catheter and apply a Band-Aid to the injection site. 2. Offer the client a cool cloth and let her know the itching is temporary. 3. Recognize that this is a common side effect, and follow protocol for administration of Benadryl. 4. Call the anesthesia care provider to re-dose the epidural catheter.

3

What is the most significant cause of neonatal morbidity and mortality? 1. Amenorrhea 2. Posttraumatic stress disorder 3. Prematurity 4. Endometriosis

3

Which of the following is a major side effect of butorphanol tartrate (Stadol)? 1. Blurred vision 2. Agitation 3. Feelings of dysphoria 4. Drowsiness

3

Which of the following tests has become a widely accepted method of evaluating fetal status? 1. Contraction stress test (CST) 2. MSAFP test 3. Non-stress test (NST) 4. Nuchal translucency test

3

A standard ultrasound examination is performed during the second or third trimester and includes an evaluation of which of the following?Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.Select all that apply. 1. Confirm fetal heart activity. 2. Evaluate the cervix. 3. Determine fetal presentation. 4. Amniotic fluid volume. 5. Fetal number.

3, 4, 5

The nurse is caring for laboring clients. Which women are experiencing problems related to a critical factor of labor? Note: Credit will be given only for all correct choices and no incorrect choices. Select all that apply. 1. Woman at 7 cm, fetus in general flexion 2. Woman at 3 cm, fetus in longitudinal lie 3. Woman at 4 cm, fetus with transverse lie 4. Woman at 6 cm, fetus at -2 station, mild contractions 5. Woman at 5 cm, fetal presenting part is right shoulder

3, 4, 5

A client is having contractions that last 20-30 seconds and that are occurring every 8-20 minutes. The client is requesting something to help relieve the discomfort of contractions. What should the nurse suggest? 1. That a mild analgesic be administered 2. An epidural 3. A local anesthetic block 4. Nonpharmacologic methods of pain relief

4

A pregnant woman is having a nipple-stimulated contraction stress test. Which result indicates hyperstimulation? 1. The fetal heart rate decelerates when three contractions occur within a 10-minute period. 2. The fetal heart rate accelerates when contractions last up to 60 seconds. 3. There are more than five fetal movements in a 10-minute period. 4. There are more than three uterine contractions in a 6-minute period.

4

A woman at 28 weeks' gestation is asked to keep a fetal activity record and to bring the results with her to her next clinic visit. One week later, she calls the clinic and anxiously tells the nurse that she has not felt the baby move for more than 30 minutes. Which of the following would be the nurse's most appropriate initial comment? 1. "You need to come to the clinic right away for further evaluation." 2. "Have you been smoking?" 3. "When did you eat last?" 4. "Your baby might be asleep."

4

A woman is in labor. The fetus is in vertex position. When the client's membranes rupture, the nurse sees that the amniotic fluid is meconium-stained. What should the nurse do immediately? 1. Change the client's position in bed. 2. Notify the physician that birth is imminent. 3. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per minute. 4. Begin continuous fetal heart rate monitoring.

4

After several hours of labor, the electronic fetal monitor (EFM) shows repetitive variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate. The nurse would interpret the decelerations to be consistent with which of the following? 1. Breech presentation 2. Uteroplacental insufficiency 3. Compression of the fetal head 4. Umbilical cord compression

4

During a maternal assessment, the nurse determines the fetus to be in a left occiput anterior (LOA) position. Auscultation of the fetal heart rate should begin in what quadrant? 1. Right upper quadrant 2. Left upper quadrant 3. Right lower quadrant 4. Left lower quadrant

4

During the fourth stage of labor, the client's assessment includes a BP of 110/60, pulse 90, and the fundus is firm midline and halfway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus. What is the priority action of the nurse? 1. Turn the client onto her left side. 2. Place the bed in Trendelenburg position. 3. Massage the fundus. 4. Continue to monitor.

4

Prior to receiving lumbar epidural anesthesia, the nurse would anticipate placing the laboring client in which position? 1. On her right side in the center of the bed with her back curved 2. Lying prone with a pillow under her chest 3. On her left side with the bottom leg straight and the top leg slightly flexed 4. Sitting on the edge of the bed

4

The charge nurse has received the shift change report. Which client requires immediate intervention? 1. Woman at 6 cm undergoing induction of labor, strong contractions every 3 minutes 2. Woman at 4 cm whose fetus is in a longitudinal lie with a cephalic presentation 3. Woman at 10 cm and fetus at +2 station experiencing a strong expulsion urge 4. Woman at 3 cm screaming in fear because her mother died during childbirth

4

The client has stated that she wants to avoid an epidural and would like an unmedicated birth. Which nursing action is most important for this client? 1. Encourage the client to vocalize during contractions. 2. Perform vaginal exams only between contractions. 3. Provide a CD of soft music with sounds of nature. 4. Offer to teach the partner how to massage tense muscles.

4

The client is having fetal heart rate decelerations. An amnioinfusion has been ordered for the client to alleviate the decelerations. The nurse understands that the type of decelerations that will be alleviated by amnioinfusion is which of the following? 1. Early decelerations 2. Moderate decelerations 3. Late decelerations 4. Variable decelerations

4

The midwife performs a vaginal exam and determines that the fetal head is at a -2 station. What does this indicate to the nurse about the birth? 1. The birth is imminent. 2. The birth is likely to occur in 1-2 hours. 3. The birth will occur later in the shift. 4. The birth is difficult to predict.

4

The multiparous client at term has arrived to the labor and delivery unit in active labor with intact membranes. Leopold maneuvers indicate the fetus is in a transverse lie with a shoulder presentation. Which physician order is most important? 1. Artificially rupture membranes. 2. Apply internal fetal scalp electrode. 3. Monitor maternal blood pressure every 15 minutes 4. Alert surgical team of urgent cesarean.

4

The nurse admits into the labor area a client who is in preterm labor. What assessment finding would constitute a diagnosis of preterm labor? 1. Cervical effacement of 30% or more 2. Cervical change of 0.5 cm per hour 3. 2 contractions in 30 minutes 4. 8 contractions in 1 hour

4

The nurse has just palpated a laboring woman's contractions. The uterus cannot be indented during a contraction. What would the intensity of these contractions best be characterized as? 1. Weak 2. Mild 3. Moderate 4. Strong

4

The nurse has presented a session on pain relief options to a prenatal class. Which statement indicates that additional teaching is needed? 1. "An epidural can be continuous or can be given in one dose." 2. "A spinal is usually used for a cesarean birth." 3. "Pudendal blocks are effective when a vacuum is needed." 4. "Local anesthetics provide good labor pain relief."

4

The nurse is caring for a client in active labor. The membranes spontaneously rupture, with a large amount of clear amniotic fluid. Which nursing action is most important to undertake at this time? 1. Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid. 2. Perform Leopold maneuvers. 3. Obtain an order for pain medication. 4. Complete a sterile vaginal exam.

4

The nurse is caring for a laboring client. A cervical exam indicates 8 cm dilation. The client is restless, frequently changing position in an attempt to get comfortable. Which nursing action is most important? 1. Leave the client alone so she can rest. 2. Ask the family to take a coffee-and-snack break.3 . Encourage the client to have an epidural for pain. 4. Reassure the client that she will not be left alone.

4

The nurse is orienting a new graduate nurse to the labor and birth unit. Which statement indicates that teaching has been effective? 1. "When a client arrives in labor, a urine specimen is obtained by catheter to check for protein and ketones." 2. "When a client arrives in labor, she will be positioned supine to facilitate a normal blood pressure." 3. "When a client arrives in labor, her prenatal record is reviewed for indications of domestic abuse." 4. "When a client arrives in labor, a vaginal exam is performed unless birth appears to be imminent."

4

The nurse is preparing to assess a laboring client who has just arrived in the labor and birth unit. Which statement by the client indicates that additional education is needed? 1. "You are going to do a vaginal exam to see how dilated my cervix is." 2. "The reason for a pelvic exam is to determine how low in the pelvis my baby is." 3. "When you check my cervix, you will find out how thinned out it is." 4. "After you assess my pelvis, you will be able to tell when I will deliver."

4

The nurse is working in an outpatient clinic. Which client's indications most warrant fetal monitoring in the third trimester? 1. Gravida 4, para 3, 39 weeks, with a history of one spontaneous abortion at 8 weeks 2. Gravida 1, para 0, 40 weeks, with a history of endometriosis and a prior appendectomy 3. Gravida 3, para 2, with a history of gestational diabetes controlled by diet 4. Gravida 2, para 1, 36 weeks, with a history of history of preterm labor or cervical insufficiency

4

When comparing the anterior and posterior fontanelles of a newborn, the nurse knows that both are what? 1. Both are approximately the same size 2. Both close within 12 months of birth 3. Both are used in labor to identify station 4. Both allow for assessing the status of the newborn after birth

4

While caring for a client in labor, the nurse notices during a vaginal exam that the fetus's head has rotated internally. What would the nurse expect the next set of cardinal movements for a fetus in a vertex presentation to be? 1. Flexion, extension, restitution, external rotation, and expulsion 2. Expulsion, external rotation, and restitution 3. Restitution, flexion, external rotation, and expulsion 4. Extension, restitution, external rotation, and expulsion

4

Why is it important for the nurse to assess the bladder regularly and encourage the laboring client to void frequently? 1. A full bladder impedes oxygen flow to the fetus. 2. Frequent voiding prevents bruising of the bladder. 3. Frequent voiding encourages sphincter control. 4. A full bladder can impede fetal descent.

4

A woman who is 40 weeks pregnant calls the labor suite to ask whether she should be evaluated. Which statements by the client indicate she is likely in labor? Note: Credit will be given only for all correct choices and no incorrect choices.Select all that apply. 1. "The contractions are 5-20 minutes apart." 2. "I had pink discharge on the toilet paper." 3. "I have had cramping for the past 3-4 hours." 4. "The contractions start in my back and then go to my abdomen and are very intense." 5. "The contractions hurt more when I walk."

4, 5

During the initial intrapartal assessment of a client in early labor, the nurse performs a vaginal examination. The client's partner asks why this pelvic exam needs to be done. The nurse should explain that the purpose of the vaginal exam is to obtain information about which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Uterine contraction pattern 2. Fetal position 3. Presence of the mucous plug 4. Cervical dilation and effacement 5. Presenting part

4, 5

The client at 24 weeks' gestation is experiencing painless vaginal bleeding after intercourse. The physician has ordered a transvaginal ultrasound examination. Which statements by the client indicate an understanding of why this exam has been requested?Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.Select all that apply. 1. "This ultrasound will show the baby's gender." 2. "This ultrasound might cause the miscarriage of my baby." 3. "This ultrasound carries a risk of creating a uterine infection." 4. "This ultrasound can determine the location of my placenta." 5. "This ultrasound might detect whether the placenta is detaching prematurely."

4, 5