NURS401 Ch48: Kidney Disorders

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What is used to decrease potassium level seen in acute renal failure?

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate The elevated potassium levels may be reduced by administering cation-exchange resins (sodium polystyrene sulfonate [Kayexalate]) orally or by retention enema. Kayexalate works by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestinal tract.

What is a characteristic of the intrarenal category of acute renal failure?

Increased BUN

BUN

blood urea nitrogen; indicates health of kidney

A nurse cares for an acutely ill client. The nurse understands that the most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain in an acutely ill client is:

weight

A client diagnosed with acute kidney injury (AKI) has a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. The nurse anticipates administering:

sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)

furosemide

Loop diuretic Uses: edema/fluid retention, renal failure, HF SE: hypokalemia, ototoxicity

polycystic kidney disease

a genetic disorder characterized by the growth of numerous fluid-filled cysts in the kidneys

A client who suffered hypovolemic shock during a cardiac incident has developed acute kidney injury. Which is the best nursing rationale for this complication?

Decrease in the blood flow through the kidneys

A client is in end-stage chronic renal failure and is being added to the transplant list. The nurse explains to the client how donors are found for clients needing kidneys. Which statement is accurate?

Donors are selected from compatible living or deceased donors.

The client with polycystic kidney disease asks the nurse, "Will my kidneys ever function normally again?" The best response by the nurse is:

"As the disease progresses, you will most likely require renal replacement therapy."

serum potassium level

3.5-5 mEq/L

A nurse is assessing a client with acute renal failure. What medications should the nurse identify as a nephrotoxic drug? Select all that apply.

Gentamycin Tobramycin Neomycin

Which of the following causes should the nurse suspect in a client diagnosed with intrarenal failure?

Glomerulonephritis

Which nursing assessment finding indicates that the client who has undergone renal transplant has not met expected outcomes?

Fever

A patient with chronic kidney failure experiences decreased levels of erythropoietin. What serious complication related to those levels should the nurse assess for when caring for this client?

anemia

oliguria

Decreased urine output

Prerenal azotemia

Due to decreased blood flow to kidneys; common cause of acute renal failure; increased BUN

A patient has stage 3 chronic kidney failure. What would the nurse expect the patient's glomerular filtration rate (GFR) to be?

A GFR of 30-59 mL/min/1.73 m2 Stage 3 of chronic kidney disease is defined as having a GFR of 30-59 mL/min/1.73 m2

The nurse is providing discharge instructions to the client with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

"I should drink as much as possible to keep my kidneys working." Dietary management of acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis includes restrictions of protein, sodium, potassium, and fluids.

A client with end-stage renal disease is scheduled to undergo a kidney transplant using a sibling donated kidney. The client asks if immunosuppressive drugs can be avoided. Which is the best response by the nurse?

"Even a perfect match does not guarantee organ success."

After teaching a group of students about how to perform peritoneal dialysis, which statement would indicate to the instructor that the students need additional teaching?

"It is appropriate to warm the dialysate in a microwave."

A client with newly diagnosed renal cancer is questioning why detection was delayed. Which is the best response by the nurse?

"Very few symptoms are associated with renal cancer." Renal cancers rarely cause symptoms in the early stage. Tumors can become quite large before causing symptoms. Painless, gross hematuria is often the first symptom in renal cancer and does not present until later stages of the disease. Adenocarcinomas are the most common renal cancer (about 80%),whereas squamous cell renal cancers are rare. It is not therapeutic to place doubt or blame for delayed diagnosis.

The nurse weighs a patient daily and measures urinary output every hour. The nurse notices a weight gain of 1.5 kg in a 74-kg patient over 48 hours. The nurse is aware that this weight gain is equivalent to the retention of:

1,500 mL of fluid

A client with chronic kidney disease weighs 209 lbs (95 kg) and is prescribed 1.2 grams of protein per kg per day. Which amount of protein will the client ingest per day?

114g

Sevelamer hydrochloride (Renagel) has been prescribed for a client with chronic renal failure. The physician has prescribed Renagel 800 mg orally three times per day with meals to treat the client's hyperphosphatemia. The medication is available in 400 mg tablets. How many tablets per day will the nurse administer to the client?

6

Erythropoietin

A hormone produced and released by the kidney that stimulates the production of red blood cells by the bone marrow.

A history of infection specifically caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococci is associated with which disorder?

Acute glomerulonephritis Acute glomerulonephritis is also associated with varicella zoster virus, hepatitis B, and Epstein-Barr virus. Acute renal failure is associated with hypoperfusion to the kidney, parenchymal damage to the glomeruli or tubules, and obstruction at a point distal to the kidney. Chronic renal failure may be caused by systemic disease, hereditary lesions, toxic agents, infections, and medications. Nephrotic syndrome is caused by disorders such as chronic glomerulonephritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, multiple myeloma, and renal vein thrombosis.

The nurse is reviewing the potassium level of a patient with kidney disease. The results of the test are 6.5 mEq/L, and the nurse observes peaked T waves on the ECG. What priority intervention does the nurse anticipate the physician will order to reduce the potassium level?

Administration of sodium polystyrene sulfonate [Kayexalate]) The elevated potassium levels may be reduced by administering cation-exchange resins (sodium polystyrene sulfonate [Kayexalate]) orally or by retention enema. Kayexalate works by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestinal tract.

A client with a history of chronic renal failure receives hemodialysis treatments three times per week through an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the left arm. Which intervention should the nurse include in the care plan?

Assess the AV fistula for a bruit and thrill.

Which of the following is a term used to describe excessive nitrogenous waste in the blood, as seen in acute glomerulonephritis?

Azotemia The primary presenting features of acute glomerulonephritis are hematuria, edema, azotemia (excessive nitrogenous wastes in the blood), and proteinuria (>3 to 5 g/day). Bacteremia is excessive bacteria in the blood.

The presence of prerenal azotemia is a probable indicator for hospitalization for CAP. Which of the following is an initial laboratory result that would alert a nurse to this condition?

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)-to-creatinine ratio (BUN:Cr) >20. The normal BUN:Cr ratio is less than 15. Prerenal azotemia is caused by hypoperfusion of the kidneys due to a nonrenal cause. Over time, higher than normal blood levels of urea or other nitrogen-containing compounds will develop.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a medical history of untreated CKD that has progressed to ESKD. Which of the following serum values and associated signs and symptoms will the nurse expect the patient to exhibit? Select all that apply.

Calcium 7.5 mg/dL; hypotension and irritability Potassium 6.4 mEq/L; dysrhythmias and abdominal distention Phosphate 5.0 mg/dL; tachycardia and nausea and emesis Decreased calcium, increased potassium, and increased phosphate levels are associated with ESKD, along with the signs and symptoms associated with these serum values. Decreased magnesium and chloride levels are not associated with ESKD.

The client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to find?

Cola-colored urine Clinical manifestations of acute glomerulonephritis include cola-colored urine, hematuria, edema, azotemia, and proteinuria.

A client who agreed to become an organ donor is pronounced dead. What is the most important factor in selecting a transplant recipient?

Compatible blood and tissue types

Methylprednisolone

Corticosteroid

A client with chronic kidney disease becomes confused and reports abdominal cramping, racing heart rate, and numbness of the extremities. The nurse relates these symptoms to which lab value?

Hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia is the life-threatening effect of renal failure. The client can become apathetic; confused; and have abdominal cramping, dysrhythmias, nausea, muscle weakness, and numbness of the extremities. Symptoms of hypocalcemia are muscle twitching, irritability, and tetany. Elevation in urea levels can result in azotemia, which can be exhibited in fluid and electrolyte and/or acid-base imbalance. Elevation of WBCs is not indicated.

A client is diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease. Which of the following would the nurse most likely assess?

Hypertension Hypertension is present in approximately 75% of clients with polycystic kidney disease at the time of diagnosis. Pain from retroperitoneal bleeding, lumbar discomfort, and abdominal pain also may be noted based on the size and effects of the cysts. Fever would suggest an infection. Periorbital edema is noted with acute glomerulonephritis.

The nurse is caring for a patient after kidney surgery. What major danger should the nurse closely monitor for?

Hypovolemic shock caused by hemorrhage If bleeding goes undetected or is not detected promptly, the patient may lose significant amounts of blood and may experience hypoxemia. In addition to hypovolemic shock due to hemorrhage, this type of blood loss may precipitate a myocardial infarction or transient ischemic attack.

A client recovering from hepatitis B develops acute nephrotic syndrome. Which treatment will the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client?

Methylprednisolone

The nurse helps a client to correctly perform peritoneal dialysis at home. The nurse must educate the client about the procedure. Which educational information should the nurse provide to the client?

Keep the dialysis supplies in a clean area, away from children and pets

The nurse cares for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI). The client is experiencing an increase in the serum concentration of urea and creatinine. The nurse determines the client is experiencing which phase of AKI?

Oliguria The oliguria period is accompanied by an increase in the serum concentration of substances usually excreted by the kidneys (urea, creatinine, uric acid, organic acids, and the intracellular cations [potassium and magnesium]). The initiation periods begins with the initial insult and ends when oliguria develops. The diuresis period is marked by a gradual increase in urine output. The recovery period signals the improvement of renal function and may take 6 to 12 months.

A nurse is reviewing the history of a client who is suspected of having glomerulonephritis. Which of the following would the nurse consider significant?

Recent history of streptococcal infection Glomerulonephritis can occur as a result of infections from group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infections, bacterial endocarditis, or viral infections such as hepatitis B or C or human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). A history of hyperparathyroidism or osteoporosis would place the client at risk for developing renal calculi. A history of pyelonephritis would increase the client's risk for chronic pyelonephritis.

A client with renal failure is undergoing continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. Which nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for this client?

Risk for infection The peritoneal dialysis catheter and regular exchanges of the dialysis bag provide a direct portal for bacteria to enter the body. If the client experiences repeated peritoneal infections, continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis may no longer be effective in clearing waste products. Impaired urinary elimination, Toileting self-care deficit, and Activity intolerance may be pertinent but are secondary to the risk of infection.

Which of the following would a nurse classify as a prerenal cause of acute renal failure?

Septic shock Prerenal causes of acute renal failure include hypovolemic shock, cardiogenic shock secondary to congestive heart failure, septic shock, anaphylaxis, dehydration, renal artery thrombosis or stenosis, cardiac arrest, and lethal dysrhythmias. Ureteral stricture and prostatic hypertrophy would be classified as postrenal causes. Polycystic disease is classified as an intrarenal cause of acute renal failure.

A client is admitted with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. His blood pressure on admission is 74/30 mm Hg. The client is oliguric and his blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels are elevated. The physician will most likely write an order for which treatment?

Start IV fluids with a normal saline solution bolus followed by a maintenance dose.

A client has undergone a renal transplant and returns to the health care agency for a follow-up evaluation. Which finding would lead the nurse to suspect that the client is experiencing rejection?

Tenderness over transplant site Signs and symptoms of transplant rejection include abdominal pain, hypertension, weight gain, oliguria, edema, fever, increased serum creatinine levels, and swelling or tenderness over the transplanted kidney site.

The nurse is providing supportive care to a client receiving hemodialysis in the management of acute kidney injury. Which statement from the nurse best reflects the ability of the kidneys to recover from acute kidney injury?

The kidneys can improve over a period of months.

Which of the following is the most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain?

The most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain in an acutely ill patient is weight, as accurate intake and output and assessment of insensible losses may be difficult. Urine output, caloric intake, and body temperature would not be the most reliable indicator of fluid loss or gain.

A patient is placed on hemodialysis for the first time. The patient complains of a headache with nausea and begins to vomit, and the nurse observes a decreased level of consciousness. What does the nurse determine has happened?

The patient is experiencing a cerebral fluid shift. Dialysis disequilibrium results from cerebral fluid shifts. Signs and symptoms include headache, nausea and vomiting, restlessness, decreased level of consciousness, and seizures. It is rare and more likely to occur in AKI or when BUN levels are very high (exceeding 150 mg/dL).

A nurse assesses a client shortly after living donor kidney transplant surgery. Which postoperative finding must the nurse report to the physician immediately?

Urine output of 20 ml/hour Because kidney transplantation carries the risk of transplant rejection, infection, and other serious complications, the nurse should monitor the client's urinary function closely. A decrease from the normal urine output of 30 ml/hour is significant and warrants immediate physician notification. A serum potassium level of 4.9 mEq/L, a serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L, and a temperature of 99.2° F are normal assessment findings.

A client admitted with a gunshot wound to the abdomen is transferred to the intensive care unit after an exploratory laparotomy. IV fluid is being infused at 150 mL/hour. Which assessment finding suggests that the client is experiencing acute renal failure (ARF)?

Urine output of 250 ml/24 hours

A male client has doubts about performing peritoneal dialysis at home. He informs the nurse about his existing upper respiratory infection. Which of the following suggestions can the nurse offer to the client while performing an at-home peritoneal dialysis?

Wear a mask when performing exchanges. The nurse should advise the client to wear a mask while performing exchanges. This prevents contamination of the dialysis catheter and tubing, and is usually advised to clients with upper respiratory infection. Auscultation of the lungs will not prevent contamination of the catheter or tubing. The client may also be advised to perform deep-breathing exercises to promote optimal lung expansion, but this will not prevent contamination. Clients with a fistula or graft in the arm should be advised against carrying heavy items.

Because of difficulties with hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis is initiated to treat a client's uremia. Which finding during this procedure signals a significant problem?

White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3 An increased WBC count indicates infection, probably resulting from peritonitis, which may have been caused by insertion of the peritoneal catheter into the peritoneal cavity. Peritonitis can cause the peritoneal membrane to lose its ability to filter solutes; therefore, peritoneal dialysis would no longer be a treatment option for this client. Hyperglycemia (evidenced by a blood glucose level of 200 mg/dl) occurs during peritoneal dialysis because of the high glucose content of the dialysate; it's readily treatable with sliding-scale insulin. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L can be treated by adding potassium to the dialysate solution. An HCT of 35% is lower than normal. However, in this client, the value isn't abnormally low because of the daily blood samplings. A lower HCT is common in clients with chronic renal failure because of the lack of erythropoietin.

Diet modifications are part of nutritional therapy for the management of ARF. Select the high-potassium food that should be restricted.

citrus fruits

Rejection of a transplanted kidney within 24 hours after transplant is termed

hyperacute rejection. Hyperacute rejection may require removal of the transplanted kidney. Acute rejection occurs within 3 to 14 days of transplantation. Chronic rejection occurs after many years. The term simple is not used in the categorization of types of rejection of kidney transplants.

Based on the pathophysiologic changes that occur as renal failure progresses, the nurse identifies the following indicators associated with the disease. Select all that apply.

hyperkalemia, anemia, and hypocalcemia Hyperkalemia is due to decreased potassium excretion and excessive potassium intake. Metabolic acidosis results from decreased acid secretion by the kidney. A damaged glomerular membrane causes excess protein loss.

A client with chronic kidney disease reports generalized bone pain and tenderness. Which assessment finding would alert the nurse to an increased potential for the development of spontaneous bone fractures?

hyperphosphatemia (->hypocalcemia)

peritonitis

inflammation of the peritoneum (membrane lining the abdominal cavity and surrounding the organs within it)

Renal calculi

kidney stones

One of the roles of the nurse in caring for clients with chronic kidney disease is to help them learn to minimize and manage potential complications. This would include:

restricting sources of potassium. kidney disease can cause hyperkalemia due to decreased renal excretion

acute nephrotic syndrome

type of renal failure with glomerular inflammation

A client with chronic renal failure (CRF) is receiving a hemodialysis treatment. After hemodialysis, the nurse knows that the client is most likely to experience:

weight loss. Because CRF causes loss of renal function, the client with this disorder retains fluid. Hemodialysis removes this fluid, causing weight loss. Hematuria is unlikely to follow hemodialysis because the client with CRF usually forms little or no urine. Hemodialysis doesn't increase urine output because it doesn't correct the loss of kidney function, which severely decreases urine production in this disorder. By removing fluids, hemodialysis decreases rather than increases the blood pressure.

As renal failure progresses and the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) falls, which of the following changes occur?

Hyperphosphatemia Changes include hyperphosphatemia due to its decreased renal excretion, hypocalcemia and decreased vitamin D activation, hyperkalemia due to decreased potassium excretion, and metabolic acidosis from decreased acid secretion by the kidney and inability to regenerate bicarbonate.

What is a characteristic of the intrarenal category of acute kidney injury (AKI)?

Increased BUN The intrarenal category of acute kidney injury (AKI) encompasses an increased BUN, increased creatinine, a low-normal specific gravity of urine, and increased urine sodium. Intrarenal AKI is the result of actual parenchymal damage to the glomeruli or kidney tubules. Acute tubular necrosis (ATN), AKI in which there is damage to the kidney tubules, is the most common type of intrinsic AKI. Characteristics of ATN are intratubular obstruction, tubular back leak (abnormal reabsorption of filtrate and decreased urine flow through the tubule), vasoconstriction, and changes in glomerular permeability. These processes result in a decrease of GFR, progressive azotemia, and fluid and electrolyte imbalances.

A group of students are reviewing the phases of acute renal failure. The students demonstrate understanding of the material when they identify which of the following as occurring during the second phase?

Oliguria During the second phase, the oliguric phase, oliguria occurs. Diuresis occurs during the third or diuretic phase. Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) occurs during the first, or initiation, phase in which reduced blood flow to the nephrons leads to ATN. Restoration of glomerular function, if it occurs, occurs during the fourth, or recovery, phase.

The nurse is administering calcium acetate (PhosLo) to a patient with end-stage renal disease. When is the best time for the nurse to administer this medication?

With food Hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia are treated with medications that bind dietary phosphorus in the GI tract. Binders such as calcium carbonate (Os-Cal) or calcium acetate (PhosLo) are prescribed, but there is a risk of hypercalcemia. The nurse administers phosphate binders with food for them to be effective.

A patient has been diagnosed with postrenal failure. The nurse reviews the patient's electronic health record and notes a possible cause. Which of the following is the possible cause?

Renal calculi Postrenal ARF is the result of an obstruction that develops anywhere from the collecting ducts of the kidney to the urethra. This results from ureteral blockage, such as from bilateral renal calculi or benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH).

The nurse treats a client with end-stage kidney disease (ESKD). The nurse is concerned that the client is developing renal osteodystrophy. Upon review of the client's laboratory values, it is noted the client has had a calcium level of 11 mg/dL for the past 3 days and the phosphate level is 5.5 mg/dL. The nurse anticipates the administration of which medication?

Sevelamer hydrochloride Hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia are treated with medications that bind dietary phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract. Binders such as calcium carbonate or calcium acetate are prescribed, but there is a risk of hypercalcemia. If calcium is high or the calcium-phosphorus product exceeds 55 mg/dL, a polymeric phosphate binder such as sevelamer hydrochloride may be prescribed. This medication binds dietary phosphorus in the intestinal tract; one to four tablets should be administered with food to be effective. Magnesium-based antacids are avoided to prevent magnesium toxicity.

A nurse receives her client care assignment. Following the report, she should give priority assessment to the client:

who, following a kidney transplant, has returned from hemodialysis with a sodium level of 110 mEq/L and a potassium level of 2.0 mEq/L. A sodium level of 110 mEq/L and a potassium level of 2.0 mEq/L in a client immediately following dialysis should be the priority assessment. Pinkish mucus discharge in the appliance bag is a normal finding for a client who's had an ileal conduit, as are a sodium level of 135 mEq/L and a potassium level of 3.7 mEq/L in a client who's had a kidney transplant. Although the nurse should further assess mild pain from urolithiasis, this is an expected finding and not a priority in relation to the client with abnormal sodium and potassium levels.

The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease. The patient has gained 4 kg in the past 3 days. In milliliters, how much fluid retention does this equal? Enter your response as a whole number.

4000

When assessing the impact of medications on the etiology of acute renal failure, the nurse recognizes which of the following as the drug that is not nephrotoxic?

Penicillin

Which of the following occurs late in chronic glomerulonephritis?

Peripheral neuropathy Peripheral neuropathy with diminished deep tendon reflexes and neurosensory changes occur late in the disease. The patient becomes confused and demonstrates a limited attention span. An additional late finding includes evidence of pericarditis with or without a pericardial friction rub. The first indication of disease may be a sudden, severe nosebleed, a stroke, or a seizure.

A client with chronic renal failure (CRF) has developed faulty red blood cell (RBC) production. The nurse should monitor this client for:

fatigue and weakness. RBCs carry oxygen throughout the body. Decreased RBC production diminishes cellular oxygen, leading to fatigue and weakness. Nausea and vomiting may occur in CRF but don't result from faulty RBC production. Dyspnea and cyanosis are associated with fluid excess, not CRF. Thrush, which signals fungal infection, and circumoral pallor, which reflects decreased oxygenation, aren't signs of CRF.

The nurse is caring for a patient in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI). What does the nurse know would be the daily urine output?

less than 400mL The oliguria period is accompanied by an increase in the serum concentration of substances usually excreted by the kidneys (urea, creatinine, uric acid, organic acids, and the intracellular cations [potassium and magnesium]). The minimum amount of urine needed to rid the body of normal metabolic waste products is 400 mL. In this phase, uremic symptoms first appear and life-threatening conditions such as hyperkalemia develop.

A nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of risk for ineffective breathing pattern related to incisional pain and restricted positioning for a client who has had a nephrectomy. Which of the following would be most appropriate for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care?

Encourage use of incentive spirometer every 2 hours.


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