Nursing 8 Unit 3 Test

The client is diagnosed with a closed head injury and is in a coma. The nurse writes the client problem as "high risk for immobility complications." Which intervention would be included in the plan of care? 1. Position the client with the head of the bed elevated at intervals. 2. Perform active range-of-motion exercises every four (4) hours. 3. Turn the client every shift and massage bony prominences. 4. Explain all procedures to the client before performing them.

1 1. The head of the client's bed should be elevated to help the lungs expand and prevent stasis of secretions that could lead to pneumonia, a complication of immobility. 2. Active range-of-motion exercises require that the client participate in the activity. This is not possible because the client is in a coma.

The nurse is monitoring a client withincreased intracranial pressure (ICP). What indicators are the most critical for the nurse to monitor?Select all that apply. 1. Systolic blood pressure. 2. Urine output. 3. Breath sounds. 4. Cerebral perfusion pressure. 5. Level of pain.

1, 4 1. Systolic blood pressure. 4. Cerebral perfusion pressure. The nurse must monitor the systolic and diastolic blood pressure to obtain the mean arterial pressure (MAP), which represents the pressure needed for each cardiac cycle to perfusethe brain. The nurse must also monitor the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP), which is obtained from the ICP and the MAP. The nurse should also monitor urine output, respirations, and pain; however, crucial measurements needed to maintain CPP are ICP and MAP. When ICP equals MAP, there is no CPP.

Which of the following respiratory patterns indicates increasing intracranial pressure in the brain stem? 1. Slow, irregular respirations. 2. Rapid, shallow respirations. 3. Asymmetric chest excursion. 4. Nasal flaring.

1. Slow, irregular respirations Neural control of respiration takes place in the brain stem. Deterioration and pressure produce irregular respiratory patterns. Rapid, shallow respirations, asymmetric chest movements, and nasal flaring are more characteristic of respiratory distress or hypoxia.

The client is diagnosed with a closed head injury and is in a coma. The nurse writes the client problem as high risk for immobility complications. Which intervention would be included in the plan of care? 1. Position the client with the head of the bed elevated at intervals. 2. Performed active range of motion exercises every 4 hours. 3. Turn the client every shift and massage bony prominences. 4. Explain all procedures to the client before performing them.

1. The head of the clients bed should be elevated to help the lungs expand and prevent stasis of secretions that could lead to pneumonia, a complication of immobility.

A client is at risk for increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following would be the priority for the nurse to monitor? 1. Unequal pupil size. 2. Decreasing systolic blood pressure. 3. Tachycardia. 4. Decreasing body temperature.

1. Unequal pupil size.Increasing ICP causes unequal pupils as a result of pressure on the third cranial nerve. Increasing ICP causes an increase in the systolic pressure, which reflects the additional pressure needed to perfuse the brain. It increases the pressure on the vagus nerve, which produces bradycardia, and it causes an increase in body temperature from hypothalamic damage.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with an epidural hematoma. Which nursing interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply. 1. Maintain the head of the bed at 60 degrees of elevation. 2. Administer stool softeners daily. 3. Ensure that pulse oximeter reading is higher than 93%. 4. Perform deep nasal suction every two (2) hours. 5. Administer mild sedatives.

2,3,5 1. The head of the bed should be elevated no more than 30 degrees to help decrease cerebral edema by gravity. 2. Stool softeners are initiated to prevent the Valsalva maneuver, which increases intracranial pressure. 3. Oxygen saturation higher than 93% ensures oxygenation of the brain tissues; decreasing oxygen levels increase cerebral edema. 4. Noxious stimuli, such as suctioning, increase intracranial pressure and should be avoided. 5. Mild sedatives will reduce the client's agitation; strong narcotics would not be administered because they decrease the client's level of consciousness.

The 29-year-old client who was employed as a forklift operator sustains a traumatic brain injury secondary to a motor-vehicle accident. The client is being discharged from the rehabilitation unit after three (3) months and has cognitive deficits. Which goal would be most realistic for this client? 1. The client will return to work within six (6) months. 2. The client is able to focus and stay on task for 10 minutes. 3. The client will be able to dress self without assistance. 4. The client will regain bowel and bladder control.

2. "Cognitive" pertains to mental processes of comprehension, judgment, memory, and reasoning. Therefore, an appropriate goal would be for the client to stay on task for 10 minutes.

The client diagnosed with a closed head injury is admitted to the rehabilitation department. Which medication order would the nurse question? 1. A subcutaneous anticoagulant. 2. An intravenous osmotic diuretic. 3. An oral anticonvulsant. 4. An oral proton pump inhibitor.

2. An osmotic diuretic would be ordered in the acute phase to help decrease cerebral edema, but this medication would not be expected to be ordered in a rehabilitation unit.

The nurse administers mannitol (Osmitrol) to the client with increased intracranial pressure.Which parameter requires close monitoring? 1. Muscle relaxation. 2. Intake and output. 3. Widening of the pulse pressure. 4. Pupil dilation

2. Intake and output. After administering mannitol, the nurse closely monitors intake and output because mannitol promotes diuresis and is given primarily to pull water from the extracellular fluid of the edematous brain. Mannitol can cause hypokalemia and may lead to muscle contractions, not muscle relaxation. Signs and symptoms, such as widening pulse pressure and pupil dilation, should not occur because mannitol serves to decrease ICP.

A client receiving vent-assisted mode ventilation begins to experience cluster breathing after recent intracranial occipital bleeding. The nurse should: 1. Count the rate to be sure that ventilations are deep enough to be suffcient. 2. Notify the physician of the client's breathing pattern. 3. Increase the rate of ventilations. 4. Increase the tidal volume on the ventilator.

2. Notify the physician of the client's breathing pattern. Cluster breathing consists of clusters of irregular breaths followed by periods of apnea on a irregular basis. A lesion in the upper medulla or lower pons is usually the cause of cluster breathing. Because the client had a bleed in the occipital lobe, which is just superior and posterior to the pons and medulla, clinical manifestations that indicate a new lesion are monitored very closely in case another bleed ensues. The nurse should notify the physician immediately so that treatment can begin before respirations cease. The client is not obtaining sufficient oxygen and the depth of breathing is assisted by the ventilator. The health care provider will determine changes in the ventilator settings

Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate for a client with an increased intracranial pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg? 1. Give the client a warming blanket. 2. Administer low-dose barbiturates. 3. Encourage the client to hyperventilate. 4. Restrict fluids.

3. Encourage the client to hyperventilate. Normal ICP is 15 mm Hg or less or 15 to30 seconds or longer. Hyperventilation causes vasoconstriction, which reduces cerebrospinal fluid and blood volume, two important factors for reducing a sustained ICP of 20 mm Hg. A cooling blanket is used to control the elevation of temperature because a fever increases the metabolic rate, which in turn increases ICP. High doses of barbiturates may be used to reduce the increased cellular metabolic demands. Fluid volume and inotropic drugs are used to maintain cerebral perfusion by supporting the cardiac output and keeping the cerebral perfusion pressure greater than 80 mm Hg.

The nurse is caring for the following clients. Which client would the nurse assess first after receiving the shift report? 1. The 22-year-old male client diagnosed with a concussion who is complaining someone is waking him up every two (2) hours. 2. The 36-year-old female client admitted with complaints of left-sided weakness who is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan. 3. The 45-year-old client admitted with blunt trauma to the head after a motorcycle accident who has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 6. 4. The 62-year-old client diagnosed with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) who has expressive aphasia.

3. The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to determine a client's response to stimuli (eye-opening response, best verbal response, and best motor response) secondary to a neurological problem; scores range from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (intact neurological function). A client with a score of 6 should be assessed first by the nurse. 2. A diagnostic test, MRI, would be an expected test for a client with left-sided weakness and would not require immediate attention.

A client has delirium following a head injury.The client is disoriented and agitated. In which order from first to last should the nurse do the following as a part of a plan to care for this client?1. Request a prescription for haloperidol (Haldol)2. Maintain a quiet environment.3. Assure client's safety.4. Approach the client using short sentences.

4,3,2,1 4. Approach the client using short sentences. 3. Assure client's safety. 2. Maintain a quiet environment. 1. Request a prescription for haloperidol (Haldol) The first step in providing care for a client with delirium is to approach the client calmly, introduce oneself, and use short sentences when explaining the care given. The nurse should also assure the client's safety by protecting the client from injury.Maintaining a quiet and calm environment by removing extraneous noises will prevent overstimulation. Pharmacologic intervention is used only when other plans for care are not effective. When the underlying problems related to the head injury are resolved, the delirium likely will improve

The nurse is assessing a client for movement after halo traction placement for a C8 fracture. The nurse should document which of the following? 1. The client's shoulders shrug against downward pressure of the examiner's hands. 2. The client's arm pulls up from a resting position against resistance. 3. The client's arm straightens out from a flexed position against resistance. 4. The client's hand-grasp strength is equal.

4. The client's hand-grasp strength is equal. The correct motor function test for C8 is a hand-grasp check. The motor function check for C4 to C5 is shoulders shrugging against downward pressure of the examiner's hands. The motor function check for C5 to C6 is an arm pulling up from a resting position against resistance. The motor function check for C7 is an arm straightening out from a flexed position against resistance.

A patient 30 days postoperative after allogeneic hematpoietic stem cell transplant presents with adenovirus and Candida infection. The critical care nurse suspects which of the following? A) Acute graft-versus-host disease B) Chronic graft-versus-host disease C) Neutropenia D) Stem cell rejection

A

Which clinical manifestation do you interpret as representing neurogenic shock in a patient with acute spinal cord injury? A. Bradycardia B. Hypertension C. Neurogenic spasticity D. Bounding pedal pulses

A. Bradycardia Neurogenic shock results from loss of vasomotor tone caused by injury and is characterized by hypotension and bradycardia. Loss of sympathetic innervation causes peripheral vasodilation, venous pooling, and a decreased cardiac output.

A nurse is planning care for a client who suffered a spinal cord injury (SCI) involving a T12 fracture 1 week ago. The client has no muscle control of the lower limbs, bowel, or bladder. which of the following should be the nurses' greatest priority? a. prevention of further damage to the spinal cord b. prevention of contractures of the lower extremities c. prevention of skin breakdown of areas that lack sensation d. prevention of postural hypotension when placing the client in a wheelchair

A. prevention of further damage to the spinal cord Rationale: The greatest risk to the client during the acute phase of a SCI is further damage to the spinal cord. Therefore, when planning care, the priority should be the prevention of further damage to the spinal cord by administration of corticosteroids, minimizing movement of the client until spinal stabilization is accomplished through either traction or surgery, and adequate oxygenation of the client to decrease ischemia of the spinal cord.

A nurse in the critical care unit is completing an admission assessment of a client who has a gunshot wound to the head . Which of the following assessment findings are indicative of increased ICP? Select all that apply. A.Headache B. Dilated Pupils C. Tachycardia D. Decorticate posturing E. Hypotension

A.Headache B. Dilated Pupils D. Decorticate posturing

The nurse is caring for a renal transplant recipient in the postanesthesia care unit. Blood pressure is 125/70 mm Hg; heart rate is 115 beats/min; respiratory rate is 24 breaths/min; oxygen saturation (SpO2) is 95% on 3 L/min of oxygen via nasal cannula; temperature is 97.8° F; and the central venous pressure (CVP/RAP) is 2 mm Hg. What is the best action by the nurse? a.Administer fluid replacement therapy; monitor intake and output closely. b.Increase supplemental oxygen to 100% non-rebreather mask; notify physician. c.Apply thermal warming blanket; administer all fluids through warming device. d.Assess the patient for pain; administer pain medications as ordered.

ANS: A Fluid replacement therapy is a priority in a postoperative renal transplant patient; a CVP of 2 mm Hg and elevated heart rate indicate hypovolemia. An oxygen saturation of 95% on 3 L/min via cannula is an acceptable value. The patient is normothermic; application of active warming measures is not indicated. Although pain assessment is an important part of postoperative nursing care, it is not the priority in this scenario.

The nurse often assists with brain-death testing. Which patient might have confounding factors for this testing? a.Patient post motorcycle crash with C2-C3 fracture b.Patient with massive hemorrhagic stroke c.Patient with long-standing neuromuscular disease d.Patient with flail chest and paradoxical chest wall motion.

ANS: A High spinal cord injury is a confounding factor as it can yield absent responses to brainstem testing with preserved brain/brainstem function. The other scenarios would not have confounding factors.

The nurse assesses morning lab results for a postoperative day 1 liver transplant recipient. Lab results noted by the nurse include aspartate transaminase (AST) 365 U/L; alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 400 U/L; and serum glucose of 85 mg/dL. What is the best action by the nurse? a.Notify the provider of liver enzyme results. b.Treat hypoglycemia with 50 mL 5% dextrose. c.Repeat the liver enzyme results in 4 hours. d.Prepare to administer IV insulin infusion.

ANS: A Rejection is suspected with a rise in aspartate aminotransferase (AST), alanine aminotransferase (ALT), and bilirubin and warrants a liver biopsy. These values are very high, which warrants notifying the provider. Glucose of 85 mg/dL is considered within normal limits by most laboratories and would not require treatment with glucose or insulin to normalize. Repeating the enzyme results in 4 hours would be appropriate, but it is not the immediate priority.

The family of a critically ill patient has asked to discuss organ donation with the patient's nurse. When preparing to answer the family's questions, the nurse understands which concern(s) most often influence a family's decision to donate? (Select all that apply.) a.Donor disfigurement influences on funeral care b.Fear of inferior medical care provided to donor c.Age and location of all possible organ recipients d.Concern that donated organs will not be used e.Fear that the potential donor may not be deceased f.Concern over financial costs associated with donation

ANS: A, B, E, F Common fears and concerns that can influence a family's decision to donate include fear of disfigurement of the donor, fear of inferior medical care being provided to the donor in order to hasten the process, fear that the donor may not really be deceased, and concern that the family of the donor will assume the financial burden associated with the donation. The number of individuals awaiting transplant, along with the current UNOS registry system, ensures that all procured organs will be transplanted. The age and location of recipients are not disclosed by the OPO.

A patient being cared for in the ICU before organ donation shows increased PVCs on the cardiac monitor What medication does the nurse prepare to administer first a.Nitroprusside b.Esmolol c.Dobutamine d.Normal saline

ANS: B Esmolol is a beta blocker used to control tachycardia and decrease myocardial oxygen consumption from catecholamine release, and it protects heart muscle from ischemia. An increase in PVCs indicates increased cardiac irritability, perhaps from cellular ischemia. The other drugs would not be indicated.

For a male client with suspected increased intracranial pressure (ICP), a most appropriate respiratory goal is to: a. prevent respiratory alkalosis. b. lower arterial pH. c. promote carbon dioxide elimination. d. maintain partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) above 80 mm Hg

Answer C. The goal of treatment is to prevent acidosis by eliminating carbon dioxide. That is because an acid environment in the brain causes cerebral vessels to dilate and therefore increases ICP. Preventing respiratory alkalosis and lowering arterial pH may bring about acidosis, an undesirable condition in this case. It isn't necessary to maintain a PaO2 as high as 80 mm Hg; 60 mm Hg will adequately oxygenate most clients.

A female client has clear fluid leaking from the nose following a basilar skull fracture. The nurse assesses that this is cerebrospinal fluid if the fluid: a. Is clear and tests negative for glucose b. Is grossly bloody in appearance and has a pH of 6 c. Clumps together on the dressing and has a pH of 7 d. Separates into concentric rings and test positive of glucose

Answer D. Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the ears or nose may accompany basilar skull fracture. CSF can be distinguished from other body fluids because the drainage will separate into bloody and yellow concentric rings on dressing material, called a halo sign. The fluid also tests positive for glucose.

Goals of rehabilitation for the patient with an injury at the C6 level include (select all that apply) a. stand erect with leg brace b. feed self with hand devices c. drive an electric wheelchair d. assist with transfer activities e. drive adapted van from wheelchair

B, C, D, E

A nurse is caring for a client who has a closed head injury with ICP readings ranging from 16-20mm hg. which of the following actions should the nurse take to decrease the potential fro raising the clients ICP? Select all that apply. A. Suction the endotracheal tube frequently B. Decrease the noise level in the clients room C. Elevate the clients head on 2 pillows D. administer a stool softener E. Keep the client well hydrated

B. Decrease the noise level in the clients room C. Elevate the clients head on 2 pillows

A nurse is caring for a client who has increased ICP and a new prescription for mannitol. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor? A. Hyperglycemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypervolemia D. Oliguria

B. Hyponatremia

A nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury who reports a severe headache and is sweating profusely. vital signs include BP 220/110, apical heart rate of 54/min. Which of the following acctions should the nurse take first? a. notify the provider b. sit the client upright in bed c. check the client's urinary catheter for blockage d. administer antihypertensive medication

B. sit the client upright in bed Rationale: The greatest risk to the client is experiencing a cerebrovascular accident (stroke) secondary to elevated BP. The first action by the nurse is elevate the head of the bed until the client is in an upright position. this will lower the BP secondary to postural hypotension.

A nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury who reports a severe headache and is sweating profusely. vital signs include BP 220/110, apical heart rate of 54/min. Which of the following acctions should the nurse take first? a. notify the provider b. sit the client upright in bed c. check the client's urinary catheter for blockage d. administer antihypertensive medication

B. sit the client upright in bedRationale: The greatest risk to the client is experiencing a cerebrovascular accident (stroke) secondary to elevated BP. The first action by the nurse is elevate the head of the bed until the client is in an upright position. this will lower the BP secondary to postural hypotension.

A patient is admitted with a spinal cord injury at the C7 level. During assessment the nurse identifies the presence of spinal shock on finding a. paraplegia with flaccid paralysis b. tetraplegia with total sensory loss c. total hemiplegia with sensory and motor loss d. spastic tetraplegia with loss of pressure sensation

B. tetraplegia with total sensory loss Rationale: At the C7 level, spinal shock is manifested by tetraplegia and sensory loss. The neurologic loss may be temporary or permanent. Paraplegia with sensory loss would occur at the level of T1. A hemiplegia occurs with central (brain) lesions affecting motor neurons and spastic tetraplegia occurs when spinal shock resolves.

Two days following a spinal cord injury, a patient asks continually about the extent of impairment that will result from the injury. The best response by the nurse is, a. you will have more normal function when spinal shock resolves and the reflex arc returns b. the extent of your injury cannot be determined until the secondary injury to the cord is resolved c. when your condition is more stable, an MRI will be done that can reveal the extent of the cord damage d. because long-term rehabilitation can affect the return of function, it will be years before we can tell when the complete effect will be

B. the extent of your injury cannot be determined until the secondary injury to the cord is resolved Rationale: Until the edema and necrosis at the site of the injury are resolved in 72 hours to 1 week after the injury, it is not possible to determine how much cord damage is present from the initial injury, how much secondary injury occurred, or how much the cord was damaged by edema that extended above the level of the original injury. The return of reflexes signals only the end of spinal shock, and the reflexes may be inappropriate and excessive, causing spasms that complicate rehab.

The healthcare provider has ordered IV dopamine (Intropin) for a patient in the emergency department with a spinal cord injury. The nurse determines that the drug is having the desired effect when assessment findings include a. pulse rate of 68 b. respiratory rate of 24 c. BP of 106/82 d. temperature of 96.8

C. BP of 106/82 Rationale: Dopamine is a vasopressor that is used to maintain BP during states of hypotension that occur during neurogenic shock associated with spinal cord injury. Atropine would be used to treat bradycardia. The T reflects some degree of poikilothermism, but this is not treated with medications.

An initial incomplete spinal cord injury often results in complete cord damage because of a. edematous compression of the cord above the level of the injury b. continued trauma to the cord resulting from damage to stabilizing ligaments c. infarction and necrosis of the cord caused by edema, hemorrhage, and metabolites d. mecheanical transection of the cord by sharp vertebral bone fragments after the initial injury

C. Infarction and necrosis of the cord caused by edema, hemorrhage, and metabolites Rationale: The primary injury of the spinal cord rarely affects the entire cord, but the patho of secondary injury may result in damage that is the same as mechanical severance of the cord. Complete cord dissolution occurs through autodestruction of the cord by hemorrhage, edema, and the presence of metabolites and norepinephrine. resulting in anoxia and infarction of the cord. Edema resulting from the inflammatory response may increase the damage as it extends above and below the injury site.

A young adult is admitted to the hospital with a head injury and possible temporal skull fracture sustained in a motorcycle accident. On admission, the client was conscious but lethargic; vital signs included temperature 99 Pulse 100 bpm, respirations 18, and BP 140/70. The nurse should report which changes should they occur to the HCP? Select all that apply. A. Decreasing urinary output B. Decreasing SBP C. bradycardia D. widening pulse pressure E. tachycardia F. Increasing diastolic BP

C. bradycardia D. widening pulse pressure

A patient with a spinal cord injury has spinal shock. The nurse plans care for the patient based on the knowledge that a. rehabilitation measures cannot be initiated until spinal shock has resolved b. the patient will need continuous monitoring for hypotension, tachycardia, and hypoxemia c. resolution of spinal shock is manifested by spasticity, hyperreflexia, and reflex emptying of the bladder d. the patient will have complete loss of motor and sensory functions below the level of the injury, but autonomic functions are not affected

C. resolution of spinal shock is manifested by spasticity, hyperreflexia, and reflex emptying of the bladder Rationale: Spinal shock occurs in about half of all people with acute spinal cord injury. In spinal shock, the entire cord below the level of the lesion fails to function, resulting in a flaccid paralysis and hypomotility of most processes without any reflex activity. Return of reflex activity signals the end of spinal shock. Sympathetic function is impaired belwo the level of the injury because sympathetic nerves leave the spinal cord at the thoracic and lumbar areas, and cranial parasympathetic nerves predominate in control over respirations, heart, and all vessels and organ below the injury. Neurogenic shock results from loss of vascular tone caused by the injury and is manifested by hypotension, peripheral vasodilation, and decreased CO. Rehab activities are not contraindicated during spainl shock and should be instituted if the patient's cardiopulmonary status is stable.

Without surgical stabilization, immobilization and traction of the patient with a cervical spinal cord injury most frequently requires the use of a. kinetic beds b. hard cervical collars c. skeletal traction with skull tongs d. sternal-occipital-mandibular immobilizer (SOMI) brace

C. skeletal traction with skull tongs Rationale: Cervical injuries usually require skeletal traction with the use of Crutchfield, Vinke, or other types of skull tongs to immobilize the cervical vertebrae, even if fracture has not occurred. Hard cervical collars are used for minor injuries or for stabilization during emergency transport of the patient. Sandbags are also used temporarily to stabilize the neck during insertion of tongs or during diagnostic testing immediately following the injury. Special turning or kinetic beds may be used to turn and mobilize patients who are in cervical traction.

An unconscious patient receiving emergency care following an automobile crash accident has a possible spinal cord injury. What guidelines for emergency care will be followed?Select all that apply. 1. Immobilize the neck using rolled towels or a cervical collar. 2. The patient will be placed in a supine position 3. The patient will be placed on a ventilator. 4. The head of the bed will be elevated. 5. The patient's head will be secured with a belt or tape secured to the stretcher.

Correct Answer: 1,2,5 Rationale: In the emergency setting, all patients who have sustained a trauma to the head or spine, or are unconscious should be treated as though they have a spinal cord injury. Immobilizing the neck, maintaining a supine position and securing the patient's head to prevent movement are all basic guidelines of emergency care. Placement on the ventilator and raising the head of the bed will be considered after admittance to the hospital.

The nurse is educating a patient and the family about different types of stabilization devices. Which statement by the patient indicates that the patient understands the benefit of using a halo fixation device instead of Gardner-Wells tongs? 1. "I will have less pain if I use the halo device." 2. "The halo device will allow me to get out of bed." 3. "I am less likely to get an infection with the halo device." 4. "The halo device does not have to stay in place as long."

Correct Answer: 2 Rationale: A halo device will allow the patient to be mobile since it does not require weights like the Gardner-Wells tongs. The patient's pain level is not dependant on the type of stabilization device used. The patient does not have a great risk of infection with the Garnder-Wells tongs; both devices require pins to be inserted into the skull. The time required for stabilization is not dependant on the type of stabilization device used.

A patient with a spinal cord injury at the T1 level complains of a severe headache and an "anxious feeling." Which is the most appropriate initial reaction by the nurse? 1. Try to calm the patient and make the environment soothing. 2. Assess for a full bladder. 3. Notify the healthcare provider. 4. Prepare the patient for diagnostic radiography.

Correct Answer: 2 Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia occurs in patients with injury at level T6 or higher, and is a life-threatening situation that will require immediate intervention or the patient will die. The most common cause is an overextended bladder or bowel. Symptoms include hypertension, headache, diaphoresis, bradycardia, visual changes, anxiety, and nausea. A calm, soothing environment is fine, though not what the patient needs in this case. The nurse should recognize this as an emergency and proceed accordingly. Once the assessment has been completed, the findings will need to be communicated to the healthcare provider.

The patient is admitted with injuries that were sustained in a fall. During the nurse's first assessment upon admission, the findings are: blood pressure 90/60 (as compared to 136/66 in the emergency department), flaccid paralysis on the right, absent bowel sounds, zero urine output, and palpation of a distended bladder. These signs are consistent with which of the following? 1. paralysis 2. spinal shock 3. high cervical injury 4. temporary hypovolemia

Correct Answer: 2 Rationale: Spinal shock is common in acute spinal cord injuries. In addition to the signs and symptoms mentioned, the additional sign of absence of the cremasteric reflex is associated with spinal shock. Lack of respiratory effort is generally associated with high cervical injury. The findings describe paralysis that would be associated with spinal shock in an spinal injured patient. The likely cause of these findings is not hypovolemia, but rather spinal shock.

The nurse understands that when the spinal cord is injured, ischemia results and edema occurs. How should the nurse explain to the patient the reason that the extent of injury cannot be determined for several days to a week? 1. "Tissue repair does not begin for 72 hours." 2. "The edema extends the level of injury for two cord segments above and below the affected level." 3. "Neurons need time to regenerate so stating the injury early is not predictive of how the patient progresses." 4. "Necrosis of gray and white matter does not occur until days after the injury."

Correct Answer: 2 Rationale: Within 24 hours necrosis of both gray and white matter begins if ischemia has been prolonged and the function of nerves passing through the injured area is lost. Because the edema extends above and below the area affected, the extent of injury cannot be determined until after the edema is controlled. Neurons do not regenerate, and the edema is the factor that limits the ability to predict extent of injury.

A patient with a spinal cord injury (SCI) is admitted to the unit and placed in traction. Which of the following actions is the nurse responsible for when caring for this patient?Select all that apply. 1. modifying the traction weights as needed 2. assessing the patient's skin integrity 3. applying the traction upon admission 4. administering pain medication 5. providing passive range of motion

Correct Answer: 2,4,5 Rationale: The healthcare provider is responsible for initial applying of the traction device. The weights on the traction device must not be changed without the order of a healthcare provider. When caring for a patient in traction, the nurse is responsible for assessment and care of the skin due to the increased risk of skin breakdown. The patient in traction is likely to experience pain and the nurse is responsible for assessing this pain and administering the appropriate analgesic as ordered. Passive range of motion helps prevent contractures; this is often performed by a physical therapist or a nurse.

A patient has manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia. Which of these assessments would indicate a possible cause for this condition?Select all that apply. 1. hypertension 2. kinked catheter tubing 3. respiratory wheezes and stridor 4. diarrhea 5. fecal impaction

Correct Answer: 2,5 Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia can be caused by kinked catheter tubing allowing the bladder to become full, triggering massive vasoconstriction below the injury site, producing the manifestations of this process. Acute symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia, including a sustained elevated blood pressure, may indicate fecal impaction. The other answers will not cause autonomic dysreflexia.

The nurse is caring for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (IICP). The nurse realizes that some nursing actions are contraindicated with ICP. Which nursing action should be avoided? 1. Reposition the patient every two hours. 2. Position the patient with the head elevated 30 degrees. 3. Suction the airway every two hours per standing orders. 4. Provide continuous oxygen as ordered.

Correct Answer: 3 Rationale: Suctioning further increases intracranial pressure; therefore, suctioning should be done to maintain a patent airway but not as a matter of routine. Maintaining patient comfort by frequent repositioning as well as keeping the head elevated 30 degrees will help to prevent (or even reduce) IICP. Keeping the patient properly oxygenated may also help to control ICP.

Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate for preventing skin breakdown in a patient who has recently undergone a laminectomy? 1. Provide the patient with an air mattress. 2. Place pillows under patient to help patient turn. 3. Teach the patient to grasp the side rail to turn. 4. Use the log roll to turn the patient to the side.

Correct Answer: 4 Rationale: A patient who has undergone a laminectomy needs to be turned by log rolling to prevent pressure on the area of surgery. An air mattress will help prevent skin breakdown but the patient still needs to be turned frequently. Placing pillows under the patient can help take pressure off of one side but the patient still needs to change positions often. Teaching the patient to grasp the side rail will cause the spine to twist, which needs to be avoided.

A hospitalized patient with a C7 cord injury begins to yell "I can't feel my legs anymore." Which is the most appropriate action by the nurse? 1. Remind the patient of her injury and try to comfort her. 2. Call the healthcare provider and get an order for radiologic evaluation. 3. Prepare the patient for surgery, as her condition is worsening. 4. Explain to the patient that this could be a common, temporary problem.

Correct Answer: 4 Rationale: Spinal shock is a condition almost half the people with acute spinal injury experience. It is characterized by a temporary loss of reflex function below level of injury, and includes the following symptomatology: flaccid paralysis of skeletal muscles, loss of sensation below the injury, and possibly bowel and bladder dysfunction and loss of ability to perspire below the injury level. In this case, the nurse should explain to the patient what is happening.

When caring for a patient who had a C8 spinal cord injury 10 days ago and has a weak cough effort, bibasilar crackles, and decreased breath sounds, the initial intervention by the nurse should be to a. administer oxygen at 7 to 9 L/min with a face mask. b. place the hands on the epigastric area and push upward when the patient coughs. c. encourage the patient to use an incentive spirometer every 2 hours during the day. d. suction the patient's oral and pharyngeal airway.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: The nurse has identified that the cough effort is poor, so the initial action should be to use assisted coughing techniques to improve the ability to mobilize secretions. Administration of oxygen will improve oxygenation, but the data do not indicate hypoxemia, and oxygen will not help expel respiratory secretions. The use of the spirometer may improve respiratory status, but the patient's ability to take deep breaths is limited by the loss of intercostal muscle function. Suctioning may be needed if the patient is unable to expel secretions by coughing but should not be the nurse's first action.

A patient with a T1 spinal cord injury is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU). The nurse will teach the patient and family that a. use of the shoulders will be preserved. b. full function of the patient's arms will be retained. c. total loss of respiratory function may occur temporarily. d. elevations in heart rate are common with this type of injury.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: The patient with a T1 injury can expect to retain full motor and sensory function of the arms. Use of only the shoulders is associated with cervical spine injury. Total loss of respiratory function occurs with injuries above the C4 level and is permanent. Bradycardia is associated with injuries above the T6 level.

When caring for a patient who experienced a T1 spinal cord transsection 2 days ago, which collaborative and nursing actions will the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Endotracheal suctioning b. Continuous cardiac monitoring c. Avoidance of cool room temperature d. Nasogastric tube feeding e. Retention catheter care f. Administration of H2 receptor blockers

Correct Answer: B, C, E, F Rationale: The patient is at risk for bradycardia and poikilothermia caused by sympathetic nervous system dysfunction and should have continuous cardiac monitoring and maintenance of a relatively warm room temperature. Gastrointestinal (GI) motility is decreased initially and NG suctioning is indicated. To avoid bladder distension, a retention catheter is used during this acute phase. Stress ulcers are a common complication but can be avoided through the use of the H2 receptor blockers such as famotidine.

A patient with a neck fracture at the C5 level is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) following initial treatment in the emergency room. During initial assessment of the patient, the nurse recognizes the presence of spinal shock on finding a. hypotension, bradycardia, and warm extremities. b. involuntary, spastic movements of the arms and legs. c. the presence of hyperactive reflex activity below the level of the injury. d. flaccid paralysis and lack of sensation below the level of the injury.

Correct Answer: D Rationale: Clinical manifestations of spinal shock include decreased reflexes, loss of sensation, and flaccid paralysis below the area of injury. Hypotension, bradycardia, and warm extremities are evidence of neurogenic shock. Involuntary spastic movements and hyperactive reflexes are not seen in the patient at this stage of spinal cord injury.

The nurse discusses long-range goals with a patient with a C6 spinal cord injury. An appropriate patient outcome is a. transfers independently to a wheelchair. b. drives a car with powered hand controls. c. turns and repositions self independently when in bed. d. pushes a manual wheelchair on flat, smooth surfaces.

Correct Answer: D Rationale: The patient with a C6 injury will be able to use the hands to push a wheelchair on flat, smooth surfaces. Because flexion of the thumb and fingers is minimal, the patient will not be able to grasp a wheelchair during transfer, drive a car with powered hand controls, or turn independently in bed.

A client recovering from a head injury is arousable and participating in care. The nurse determines that the client understands measures to prevent elevations in intracranial pressure if the nurse observes the client doing which of the following activities? A. blowing the nose B. isometric exercises C. coughing vigorously D. exhaling during repositioning

D. exhaling during repositioning Activities that increase intra-throacic and intra-abdominal pressures cause indirect elevation of the ICP. Exhaling during activities such as repositioning or pulling up in bed opens the glottis, which prevents intra-thoracic pressure from rising

A patient is admitted to the hospital with a CD4 spinal cord injury after a motorcycle collision. The patient's BP is 83/49, and his pulse is 39 beats/min, and he remains orally intubated. The nurse identifies this pathophysiologic response as caused by a. increased vasomotor tone after injury b. a temporary loss of sensation and flaccid paralysis below the level of injury c. loss of parasympathetic nervous system innervation resulting in vasoconstriction d. loss of sympathetic nervous system innervation resulting in peripheral vasodilation

D. loss of sympathetic nervous system innervation resulting in peripheral vasodilation

A nurse is caring for a client who experienced a cervical spine injury 24 hours ago. which of the following types of prescribed medications should the nurse clarify with the provider? a. glucocorticoids b. plasma expanders c. H2 antagonists d. muscle relaxants

D. muscle relaxants Rationale: The client will still be in spinal shock 24 hours following the injury. the client will not experience muscle spasms until after the spinal shock has resolved, making muscle relaxants unnecessary at this time.

Following a T2 spinal cord injury, the patient develops paralytic ileus. While this condition is present, the nurse anticipates that the patient will need a. IV fluids b. tube feedings c. parenteral nutrition d. nasogastric suctioning

D. nasogastric suctioning Rationale: During the first 2 to 3 days after a spinal cord injury, paralytic ileus may occur, and NG suction must be used to remove secretions and gas from the GI tract until peristalsis resumes. IV fluids are used to maintain fluid balance but do not specifically relate to paralytic ileus. Tube feedings would be used only for patients who had difficulty swallowing and not until peristalsis is returned; PN would be used only if the paralytic ileus was unusally prolonged.

In counseling patient with spinal cord lesions regarding sexual function, the nurse advises a male patient with a complete lower motor neuron lesion that he a. is most likely to have reflexogenic erections and may experience orgasm if ejaculation occurs b. may have uncontrolled reflex erections, but that orgasm and ejaculation are usually not possible c. has a lesion with the greatest possibility of successful psychogenic erection with ejaculation and orgasm d. will probably be unable to have either psychogenic or reflexogenic erections with no ejaculation or orgasm

D. will probably be unable to have either psychogenic or reflexogenic erections with no ejaculation or orgasm Rationale: Most patients with a complete lower motor neuron lesion are unable to have either psychogenic or reflexogenic erections, and alterative methods of obtaining sexual satisfaction may be suggested. Patients with incomplete lower motor neuron lesions have the highest possibility of successful psychogenic erections with ejaculation, whereas patients with incomplete upper motor neuron lesions are more likey to experience reflexogeic erections with ejaculation. Patients with complete upper motor neuron lesions usually only have reflex sexual function with rare ejaculation.

A nurse is caring for a client who experienced a cervical spine injury 3 months ago. Which of the following types of bladder management methods should the nurse use for this client? a. condom catheter b. intermittent urinary catheterization c. crede's method d. indwelling urinary catheter

a. condom catheter Rationale: a client who has a cervical spinal cord injury will also have a upper motor neuron injury, which is manifested by a spastic bladder. because the bladder will empty on its own, a condom catheter is an appropriate method and is noninvasive.B & C are for flaccid bladder.

A patient who received a bone marrow transplant for treatment of leukemia develops a skin rash 10 days after the transplant. The nurse recognizes this reaction as an indication that the: a.donor T cells are attacking the patient's skin cells. b. patient's antibodies are rejecting the donor bone marrow. c. patient is experiencing a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. d. patient will need treatment to prevent hyperacute rejection.

a. donor T cells are attacking the patient's skin cells. The patient's history and symptoms indicate that the patient is experiencing graft-versus-host disease, in which the donated T cells attack the patient's tissues. The history and symptoms are not consistent with rejection or delayed hypersensitivity.

When evaluating an ABG from a client with a subdural hematoma, the nurse notes the PaCO2 is 30 mm Hg. Which of the following responses best describes this result? a.) Appropriate; lowering carbon dioxide (CO2) reduces intracranial pressure (ICP). b.) Emergent; the client is poorly oxygenated. c.) Normal d.) Significant; the client has alveolar hypoventilation.

a.) Appropriate; lowering carbon dioxide (CO2) reduces intracranial pressure (ICP). Rationale:A normal PaCO2 value is 35 to 45 mm Hg. CO2 has vasodilating properties; therefore, lowering PaCO2 through hyperventilation will lower ICP caused by dilated cerebral vessels. Oxygenation is evaluated through PaO2 and oxygen saturation. Alveolar hypoventilation would be reflected in an increased PaCO2.

A client is admitted to the ER for head trauma is diagnosed with an epidural hematoma. The underlying cause of epidural hematoma is usually related to which of the following conditions? a.) Laceration of the middle meningeal artery b.) Rupture of the carotid artery c.) Thromboembolism from a carotid artery d.) Venous bleeding from the arachnoid space

a.) Laceration of the middle meningeal artery Rationale:Epidural hematoma or extradural hematoma is usually caused by laceration of the middle meningeal artery. An embolic stroke is a thromboembolism from a carotid artery that ruptures. Venous bleeding from the arachnoid space is usually observed with subdural hematoma

A patient is admitted to the emergency department with a spinal cord injury at the level of T2. Which of the following findings is of most concern to the nurse? a. SpO2 of 92% b. HR of 42 beats/min c. BP of 88/60 d. loss of motor and sensory function in arms and legs

b. HR of 42 beats/min Rationale: Neurogenic shock associated with cord injuries above the level of T6 greatly decrease the effect of the sympathetic nervous system, and bradycardia and hypotension occur. A heart rate of 42 is not adequate to meet oxygen needs of the body, and while low, the BP is not at a critical point. The O2 sat is ok, and the motor and sensory loss are expected.

A patient is admitted with a subacute subdural hematoma. The nurse realizes this patient will most likely be treated with: a.) Emergency craniotomy. b.) Elective draining of the hematoma. c.) Burr holes to remove the hematoma. d.) Removal of the affected cranial lobe.

b.) Elective draining of the hematoma.

A patient with a C7 spinal cord injury undergoing rehabilitation tells the nurse he must have the flu because he has a bad headache and nausea. The initial action of the nurse is to a. call the physician b. check the patient's temperature c. take the patient's BP d. elevate the HOB to 90 degrees

c. Take the patient's BP

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with epidural hematoma. Which nursing interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply. 1. Maintain the head of the bed at 60 degrees. 2. Administer stool softeners daily. 3. Ensure that pulse oximeter reading is higher than 93 percent. 4. Perform deep Nasal suction every 2 hours. 5. Administer mild sedative.

correct answers 2, 3, 5. Stool softeners are initiated to prevent the Bell sell the maneuver which increaseS ICP. oxygen saturation higher the 93 percent ensures oxygenation of the brain tissues. decreasing oxygen levels increase cerebral edema.mild sedative will reduce the clans agitation. Strong narcotics would not be administered because they decrease the clients loc.