NURSING INTERVENTION ATI

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a young adult female client who has been prescribed lisinopril (Zestril). Which of the following instructions should the nurse plan to include? (Select all that apply) 1. "Report the development of a persistent dry cough." 2. "Monitor your blood pressure on a regular basis." 3. "Notify your doctor immediately if you become pregnant." 4. "Check your weight at the same time every day." 5. "Make sure your diet contains a lot of potassium-rich foods."

1. "Report the development of a persistent dry cough." 2. "Monitor your blood pressure on a regular basis." 3. "Notify your doctor immediately if you become pregnant." The development of a chronic dry cough is a common problem with the use of ACE inhibitors and is believed to be related to the accumulation of bradykinin. It is important that all clients be instructed to report the development of this side effect. Hypotension is a common side effect of lisinopril, so the client should be instructed in how to monitor their blood pressure on a regular basis. Lisinopril is a known teratogenic agent and may cause serious harm to a developing fetus, subsequently lisinopril should not be taken by a woman who is pregnant or lactating.

A nurse on a medical unit is planning the shift assignments. The nurse can delegate collection of which of the following to an assistive personnel? (Select all that apply) 1. Sputum specimen 2. Stool for blood 3. Arterial blood gas 4. Urinalysis 5. Wound culture

1. Sputum specimen 2. Stool for blood 4. Urinalysis

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing delusions. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? 1. Interact with the client as if the content of the delusion were true. 2. Acknowledge the feelings the client is experiencing regarding the delusion. 3. Explain to the client that the delusional material is not possible. 4. Explore the meaning of the delusion to the client.

2. Acknowledge the feelings the client is experiencing regarding the delusion. A delusion is a fixed false belief held by a client that is based on an incorrect perception of reality. The nurse should acknowledge and empathize with the client's feelings without validating the truth of the delusion.

A nurse is preparing to administer ofloxacin otic drops (Floxain) to an adult client. Which of the following acitons should the nurse take? 1. Hold the dropper against the ear canal and drip the medication slowly down the canal. 2. Apply gentle pressure with a finger to the tragus of the ear. 3. Chill the medication prior to administration. 4. Straighten the external auditory canal by pulling it down and back.

2. Apply gentle pressure with a finger to the tragus of the ear. Applying gentle pressure with a finger to the tragus of the ear after administration will facilitate movement of the fluid down the ear canal.

A nurse is reinforcing client teaching regarding appropriate dietary choices for celiac disease. Which of the following menu choices selected by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? 1. Hamburger on a white flour bun 2. Baked chicken and potato chips 3. Bacon, lettuce, and tomato sandwich on rye toast 4. Beef and barley soup with rice crackers

2. Baked chicken and potato chips This is an appropriate choice for a client with celiac disease, a malabsorption condition in which the client is unable to properly digest any food containing gluten. The client must eliminate all sources of gluten from the diet including barley, rye, oats, and wheat.

The nurse is reinforcing teaching regarding diet to a client after a myocardial infarction. The nurse evaluates the reinforcement as effective if the client selects which of the following options? 1. Barbecued beef, baked beans, potato chips and a tossed salad 2. Baked turkey, mashed potatoes, squash and salad 3. Bread, fried fish patty, potato salad and cole slaw 4. Grilled pork chops, biscuits and brown gravy, sliced tomato

2. Baked turkey, mashed potatoes, squash and salad Low sodium, low fat diet is a usual cardiac diet.

A nurse is talking to the parents of an 8-month-old who will be hospitalized after surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse explain to the parents will help prepare the infant for the hospital? 1. Buy a new toy and give it to the infant at the hospital. 2. Bring the infant's favorite blanket to the hospital. 3. Purchase new loose-fitting, soft pajamas for the child. 4. Read the child a story about hospitalization.

2. Bring the infant's favorite blanket to the hospital. Infants of this age have separation anxiety and often need a transitional object, such as a blanket or toy, that brings them comfort. The transitional object is especially important when the child is in unfamiliar surroundings, or the parent is not there to provide comfort. Having the object will help to provide the infant with a sense of security.

Which of the following is a leadership style that encourages active member participation and feedback? 1. Laissez-faire 2. Democratic 3. Open-door 4. Autocratic

2. Democratic Democratic leadership encourages participation and cohesiveness in a group.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a seizure disorder and has had adverse reactions to several other anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs). The client has a new prescription for lamotrigine (Lamictal). The nurse reinforces which of the following about lamotrigine? 1. Lamotrigine is much more potent when used alone. 2. Lamotrigine is better tolerated than other AEDs with fewer drug interactions. 3. Lamotrigine is safer to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. 4. Lamotrigine is far less toxic to the kidneys.

2. Lamotrigine is better tolerated than other AEDs with fewer drug interactions. Lamotrigine is one of the newer anticonvulsant medications and is typically used along with another medication. As a class, the newer anticonvulsants are much better tolerated than the older medications. They are associated with fewer adverse effects and can be safely used with other medication.

A nurse is teaching to a pregnant client who is to undergo an ultrasound immediately prior to an amniocentesis. The nurse explains that the reason for the ultrasound is to determine which of the following? 1. Gestational age of the fetus 2. Location of the fetus and placenta 3. Amount of amniotic fluid 4. Degree of fetal lung maturity

2. Location of the fetus and placenta Amniocentesis is a diagnostic procedure performed by inserting a hollow needle through the abdominal wall into the uterus and withdrawing a small amount of amniotic fluid from the sac surrounding the fetus. The exact location of the fetus and placenta are determined by ultrasound immediately prior to the procedure. The needle is guided by use of ultrasound in order to prevent accidental needle injuries to the fetus.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client diagnosed with osteoarthritis. The nurse explains that strategies to slow the degenerative process in the joints include which of the following? 1. Participating in exercises such as jogging and running 2. Maintaining an appropriate body mass index (BMI) 3. Applying heat to sore or inflamed joints twice a day 4. Taking steroid medications daily as prescribed

2. Maintaining an appropriate body mass index (BMI) Osteoarthritis is the degeneration of the cartilage in the joints caused by prolonged wear and tear of the joint surfaces. Osteoarthritis most commonly affects the weight-bearing joints of the hips, knees, and spine. Maintaining a healthy, appropriate weight for height, or participating in a weight reduction program if the client is overweight, reduces the stress on the involved joints and slows the disease process.

A nurse is reviewing the admission history and physical of a client who has a history of anorexia nervosa who is 60 inches tall and weighs 36.3 kg (80 lb). The client admits to recent use of diuretics and laxatives to lose weight. The nurse should give immediate attention to which of the following findings? 1. Body mass index (BMI) of 15.6 2. Potassium of 2.8 mEq/L 3. Hemoglobin (Hgb) of 11g/dL 4. Sodium of 135 mEq/L

2. Potassium of 2.8 mEq/L This potassium level indicates hypokalemia and places the client at the greatest risk for injury related to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias.

A nurse is speaking to the partner of an older adult client who resides in an long-term care facility. The partner reports that she has had to speak louder than usual for his spouse to be able to hear him. The client has also stopped actively participating in social activities and group conversations. The nurse should recognize that these findings are likely due to which of the following? 1. Mastoiditis 2. Presbycusis 3. Presbyopia 4. Otomycosis

2. Presbycusis The human ear develops age-related changes in its ability to hear, usually beginning with higher-pitched sounds, and then progressing to the lower-pitched sounds. With human speech, many of the consonants are high tones, such as the letters p, t, s, k, and ch. It becomes very difficult for the older client to understand normal conversation, particularly in noisy environments. These manifestations also indicate a slow onset consistent with presbycusis.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client who wants to increase daily intake of omega-3 type fatty acids. Which of the following foods should the nurse suggest the client increase? 1. Blueberries 2. Soybean oil 3. Citrus fruits 4. Green tea

2. Soybean oil Soybean oil is a good source of the omega-3 fatty acids.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client who is scheduled for an intravenous urography. Which of the following should the nurse include in her teaching? 1. Omit your daily dose of aspirin 2. Take a laxative the evening before the procedure 3. Expect to be drowsy for 24 hr following the procedure 4. Eat a fat-free dinner

2. Take a laxative the evening before the procedure An intravenous urography is a radiologic examination which uses an intravenous injection of dye to visualize the kidneys, renal pelvis, ureters, and bladder. The dye travels through the blood stream and collects in the kidneys and urinary tract, making these areas opaque. This allows the examiner to view and assess the anatomy and function of the kidneys and lower urinary tract. Stool or gas in the bowel may make it difficult to visualize the renal system, so typically the bowel is cleansed the day before.

A nurse is collecting data regarding the pain level of a 4-year-old client on the second postoperative day. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? 1. Ask the client what number the pain is on a scale from 1 to 10. 2. Tell the client to point to a face on a FACES Pain Rating Scale. 3. Have the parent report the pain level for the client. 4. Request an assistive personnel to evaluate the client's pain level.

2. Tell the client to point to a face on a FACES Pain Rating Scale. The FACES Pain Rating Scale is an age appropriate pain assessment tool for a 4-year-old client.

The nurse is caring for an older adult client with constipation. Which nursing intervention is appropriate 1. Request that the provider prescribe a routine stool softener 2. Promote active range of motion activities 3. Add fluid and fiber to the diet 4. Institute a bowel hygiene program

3. Add fluid and fiber to the diet The most effective treatment for constipation problems in older adults is adding fiber and fluids to the diet.

A nurse is caring for a new mother who is breastfeeding her term newborn. The newborn weighed 3.4 kg (7.5 lb) at birth, and weighs 3 kg (6.6 lb) on the second day of life. The mother expresses concern about the weight loss and asks the nurse, "Do you think I have enough milk?" Which of the following is the appropriate response? 1."If you are not making enough milk you may need to switch to formula and bottle-feed your baby." 2. "It is common for new mothers to worry that they are not making enough milk for their baby." 3. "A healthy newborn may lose 10% of his birth weight before starting to gain weight." 4. "Your newborn will need to remain in the hospital so his weight can be monitored."

3. "A healthy newborn may lose 10% of his birth weight before starting to gain weight." This newborn has lost less than 10% of the recorded birth weight. A healthy newborn may lose up to 10% of his body weight before beginning to gain weight. This response gives the mother the information that she needs about normal weight loss in the newborn while also reassuring her that the weight loss is not related to her ability to produce milk for the infant.

A nurse is collecting data from a client in the health clinic who is reporting epigastric pain. Which of the following statements made by the client are consistent with peptic ulcer disease? 1. "The pain is worse after I eat a meal high in fat." 2. "My pain is relieved by having a bowel movement." 3. "I feel so much better after eating." 4. "I have a burning sensation in my chest if I rest after eating."

3. "I feel so much better after eating." A client who has peptic ulcer disease usually experiences pain when the stomach is empty, 2 to 3 hr after meals or in the middle of the night. It is usually relieved by eating, sometimes called the "pain-food-relief" pattern. This finding is consistent with peptic ulcer disease.

A nurse is caring for a client who has undergone a cataract removal of the left eye with placement of an intraocular lens implant. Which of the following statements by the client indicates tot he nurse that additional education is needed? 1. "Even though my vision is improved, I will still need glasses." 2. "If there is drainage around my eye, I should wipe it away with a clean, damp washcloth." 3. "I may have pain for a day or two, but keeping the operated eye patched will help." 4. "My vision may be blurry for a couple weeks until my eye has completely healed."

3. "I may have pain for a day or two, but keeping the operated eye patched will help." The client should not keep the operated eye patched.

A nurse is caring for a client who has been newly diagnosed with chronic open angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements made by the client indicates an understanding of the diagnosis? 1. "When my vision improves, I will be able to stop taking the eye drops." 2. "If I forget to take my eye drops, I should wait until the next time they are due." 3. "I should call the clinic before taking any over-the-counter medications." 4. "Every two years I will need to have my vision checked by an eye doctor."

3. "I should call the clinic before taking any over-the-counter medications." Taking over-the-counter (OTC) medications that dilate the pupil could cause the client who has chronic open angle glaucoma to experience an increase in intraocular pressure. A client who has glaucoma should always check with the provider before using OTC medications.

A nurse is completing discharge teaching with a client who has chronic open angle glaucoma. The client has been prescribed pilocarpine (Pilocar) ophthalmic eye drops. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in her teaching? 1. "I'll use the eye drops once daily at bedtime." 2. "This medication will increase my tear production so my eyes won't feel so dry." 3. "I should wait an hour or so before driving after using my medication." 4. "Since these drops go right into my eyes, I won't have side effects in other parts of my body."

3. "I should wait an hour or so before driving after using my medication." Clients who use pilocarpine experience blurred vision for 1 to 2 hr after use, and should be instructed not to drive until their vision clears.

A nurse is performing a non-stress test (NST) for a pregnant client. After 20 min, the client reported having felt four fetal movements. The nurse notes that each fetal movement was accompanied by an increase in the fetal heart rate (FHR) of 10 to 15 beats per minute (bpm) lasting approximately 15-20 seconds before returning to the baseline FHR of 130-135/min. The nurse interprets this NST as indicating which of the following? 1. Impaired perfusion of the placenta 2. Neurological immaturity of the fetus 3. A healthy fetal response to activity 4. Poor response of the fetus to movement

3. A healthy fetal response to activity A healthy fetal response to activity MY ANSWER The non-stress test (NST) is a non-invasive procedure done to evaluate fetal maturity and determine how well a fetus responds to stress. A healthy fetus will respond to activity with a short acceleration in the FHR of approximately 10 to 15/min lasting approximately 15 to 20 seconds before returning to a healthy baseline FHR (ranging from 120 to 160 bpm). This is a reassuring test result.

A nurse is selecting a toy for a hospitalized 6-month-old infant. Which of the following toys is developmentally appropriate for this infant? 1. A set of colorful stacking rings of different sizes 2. A colorful crib mobile that plays music 3. A soft toy that squeaks or crackles when squeezed 4. A wooden farm animal puzzle with large pieces

3. A soft toy that squeaks or crackles when squeezed Toys for a 6-month-old infant should be light, soft, and easy to handle. The most popular toys for infants this age include toys that respond to manipulation.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a new mother regarding the purpose of administering vitamin K (Aquamephyton) to her newborn following delivery. The nurse explains that the purpose of administering vitamin K is to prevent which of the following? 1. Infection 2. Potassium deficiency 3. Bleeding 4. Hyperbilirubinemia

3. Bleeding A newborn is unable to manufacture vitamin K, which is necessary for blood clotting, without intestinal flora. Vitamin K also promotes production of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver. Vitamin K is usually produced by day 8; therefore, it is routinely given to newborns to prevent bleeding problems.

A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. When performing assisted range of motion on the client's joints, the nurse is likely to note the presence of which of the following? 1. Heberden's nodules 2. Tophi 3. Boutonniere deformity 4. Osteoma

3. Boutonniere deformity Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic, inflammatory autoimmune disorder which primarily affects the synovium (lining of the joints). Boutonniere deformity is a manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis in which a finger is flexed or bent inward towards the palm at the lowest joint (most proximal) and then extended outward away from the palm at the furthest joint (most distal). This deformity arises due to the loss of collagen (connective tissue) in the joints.

A nurse is reviewing a client's admission laboratory findings, which indicate the client is hyponatremic. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse anticipate will also be below the expected reference range? 1. Magnesium 2. Calcium 3. Chloride 4. Potassium

3. Chloride Hyponatremia refers to a decrease in the level of sodium, an electrolyte. The loss of sodium, a positively charged ion results in the loss of chloride, a negatively charged ion since these electrolytes have an electrical attraction to each other.

A pregnant client tells the nurse she has constipation. What is the appropriate nursing recommendation for this client? 1. Regular use of a laxative 2. Maintenance of good posture 3. Increased cellulose and fluid in the diet 4. Regular use of glycerine suppositories

3. Increased cellulose and fluid in the diet Increasing fiber and fluid, along with regular exercise are simple and effective ways to deal with constipation.

A nurse is evaluating the morning laboratory reports of a client who has bipolar disorders. The laboratory report indicates a serum lithium level of 2 mEq/L. In responding to this report, which of the following actions should the nurse anticipate? 1. Continuing the medication as prescribed 2. Increasing the lithium dose because the level is sub-therapeutic 3. Monitoring the client for signs of lithium toxicity 4. May need a decreased dose since the level is at the upper limit of the expected reference range.

3. Monitoring the client for signs of lithium toxicity This level indicates lithium toxicity. Lithium has a very narrow therapeutic range and should be kept below 1.5 mEq/L so serum lithium levels must be monitored at regular intervals. Even at slightly elevated levels, clients may exhibit signs of overdose or toxicity including gastrointestinal distress, muscle twitching, hyperreflexia, nystagmus, and confusion. Higher levels may cause seizures and eventually death.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client who is to start a new prescription for fluoxetine (Prozac). Which of the following information should the nurse include? 1. Avoid foods that contain tyramine. 2. Expect to take this medication until your symptoms are relieved. 3. Mood improvement may be delayed for one to three weeks. 4. Return to the clinic monthly to have a blood level drawn.

3. Mood improvement may be delayed for one to three weeks. Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor antidepressant, selectively blocks reuptake of the monoamine neurotransmitter serotonin in the synaptic space, thereby intensifying the effects of serotonin. The therapeutic response may not be experienced for 1 to 3 weeks and full therapeutic effects may take 2 to 3 months.

The nurse is caring for a client in a long term care facility. To improve the nutritional status of the client, which nursing intervention should the nurse recommend adding to the plan of care? 1. Allow the resident to eat what he/she wants 2. Provide all soft, bland foods 3. Serve small, frequent meals 4. Remove noxious odors from the environment

3. Serve small, frequent meals Small, frequent meals are more easily tolerated by older adults than three large meals, and will probably be more effective in improving nutritional status.

A nurse is caring for a client with second and third degree burns who is prescribed a high calorie, high protein diet. Which of the following is the appropriate meal for the practical/vocational nurse to assist the client in selecting? 1. Macaroni and cheese, flavored gelatin salad, spinach and pears 3. Turkey and cheese sandwich, scalloped potatoes, and a banana 3. Fried chicken, french fries, corn and a brownie 4. Beef brisket, tomatoes, tossed salad, and vanilla pudding

3. Turkey and cheese sandwich, scalloped potatoes, and a banana This meal (turkey, cheese, potatoes, banana) has high quality protein and large quantities of carbohydrates.

During a routine well child check-up, a nurse is reinforcing teaching to a parent who reports having difficulty getting a preschool-age child to go to bed. Which of the following statements indicates to the nurse that the parent understands how to foster a consistent bedtime for the preschooler? 1. "I will allow my child to cry himself to sleep each night." 2. "I will let my child fall asleep with me, and then move him to his own bed." 3. "I will make sure the room is dark when placing my child in bed." 4. "I will encourage my child to fall sleep with his favorite toy."

4. "I will encourage my child to fall sleep with his favorite toy." Transitional objects, such as a blanket or toy, will provide a sense of comfort and allow the child to fall asleep more quickly.

A nurse is talking with an older adult client who is recovering from a cerebrovascular accident. The client states "I feel like less of a man. My wife says she is thankful I am alive but I'm sure this is not how she expected us to spend our retirement years." Which of the following is an appropriate response? 1. "I agree with your wife, and you should be thankful that you are alive." 2. "After an experience like this, everyone has feelings like these." 3. "Are you worried that your wife might leave you?" 4. "In what ways do you feel like you are less of a man?"

4. "In what ways do you feel like you are less of a man?" The nurse uses therapeutic communication skills to encourage the client to verbalize his feelings. This response is an open-ended question that encourages the client to state his concerns in more detail.

A client phones the clinic and tells the nurse that a family member has been diagnosed with ringworm (tinea corporis). The client asks the nurse if ringworm is contagious. Which of the following would be an appropriate response by the nurse? 1. "Ringworm is a protozoal infection associated with poor sanitation or drinking from streams." 2. "Ringworm is a parasitic infection that is contracted by ingestion of the worm's eggs." 3. "Ringworm is a bacterial infection contracted from eating undercooked or contaminated meat." 4. "Ringworm is a fungal skin infection that is contagious with direct, skin-to-skin contact."

4. "Ringworm is a fungal skin infection that is contagious with direct, skin-to-skin contact." Ringworm is a common fungal infection caused by micro-organisms known as dermatophytes. These organisms survive by consuming the dead outer layers of skin on humans and animals.

A nurse is caring for a client who has agoraphobia and has been prescribed alprazolam (Xanax). Which of the following should the nurse reinforce in the discharge teaching? 1. This medication has a low risk for physical dependence. 2. Discontinue the medication immediately if pregnancy is suspected. 3. Drinking alcohol may decrease the effectiveness of the medication. 4. A common side effect is drowsiness, which will decrease with continued use.

4. A common side effect is drowsiness, which will decrease with continued use. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine used to treat anxiety disorders. Like all benzodiazepines, the most common side effects reported for alprazolam are central nervous system depressant effects, such as drowsiness.

A nurse is caring for a client following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) and is receiving continuous bladder irrigation (CBI). The nurse notes that the client has had no output for the last 2 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? 1. Obtain the client's pain level and medicate as prescribed. 2. Clamp the tubing distal to the catheter. 3. Decrease the rate of flow for the irrigation solution. 4. Check the catheter for signs of obstruction.

4. Check the catheter for signs of obstruction. Following a TURP, clots may form in the bladder which will obstruct the flow of urine. It is important to check the client to determine if the CBI system is patent and draining. If the nurse determines that there is an obstruction to urine flow, this must be cleared in order to continue the bladder irrigation.

A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed a potassium wasting diuretic medication. Which recommendation should the nurse make for change in diet? 1. Increase consumption of citrus fruits and strawberries 2. Decrease amount of fluids containing caffeine 3. Avoid milk and milk products 4. Encourage oranges, bananas and whole grain breads

4. Encourage oranges, bananas and whole grain breads Whole grain breads, bananas and oranges are good sources of potassium to replace loss with diuretic use

A nurse is planning care for a client who is newly diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. The nurse determines that which of the following is the highest priority concern when providing care to this client? 1. Impaired verbal communication 2. Impaired vision 3. Fatigue and muscle weakness 4. Ineffective breathing pattern

4. Ineffective breathing pattern Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a chronic neuromuscular disease characterized by varying degrees of muscular weakness. MG is caused by a defect in the transmission of nerve impulses due to the body's inability to use the neurotransmitter acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. The classic manifestation of MG is muscle weakness that increases during periods of activity and improves after a period of rest. Typically involved muscles are those that control eye movement, facial expression, chewing, swallowing, and talking. Since the muscles that control breathing may also be involved using the airway, breathing, circulation (ABC) priority setting framework, this would represent the highest priority in the client's care.

A nurse is caring for a client who is Hindu and adheres strictly to the traditional dietary laws of this religion. The client has no other dietary restrictions. Which of the following foods would be appropriate for the nurse to order for the client? 1. Cheese omelet 2. A hamburger 3. A bologna sandwich 4. Steamed vegetables

4. Steamed vegetables Steamed vegetables would abide with the client's dietary practices and would be appropriate for the nurse to order.

A 12-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department (ED) by the parents and an x-ray reveals a fractured clavicle. Which of the following leads the nurse to suspect that the child has been physically abused? 1. The child begins to cry when examined by the nurse practitioner. 2. The parents do not make eye contact with the nurse. 3. The child was brought to the ED 2 hr after the injury occurred. 4. The parents report that the child fell climbing out of the crib.

4. The parents report that the child fell climbing out of the crib. Climbing out a crib is a skill that is usually not seen until after 18 months. A developmentally unlikely explanation of an injury should the nurse suspect that the child has been abused.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client who is prescribed olanzapine (Zyprexa). Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to expect? 1. Excessive salivation. 2. Insomnia 3. Diarrhea 4. Weight gain

4. Weight gain Olanzapine is an atypical antipsychotic medication used in the treatment of schizophrenia. A common side effect is increased appetite and significant weight gain.

A nurse is assisting with a parenting class and is approached by the parent of a toddler who asks what to do when the toddler throws a tantrum. The nurse should advise the parent to handle temper tantrums by 1. placing the child in time-out for 3 minutes. 2. distracting the child with a toy. 3. calmly telling the child to stop. 4. appearing to ignore them.

4. appearing to ignore them. Temper tantrums are an immature expression of frustration typically manifested by both verbal (screaming and/or crying) and physical (flailing of the arms and legs, often on the floor) outbursts. Temper tantrums tend to be self-limiting and it is important that the parent remain calm. These outbursts are most effectively dealt with by ignoring the behavior. Once the child loses their audience, the tantrum usually stops. Most children will outgrow temper tantrums by the age of four once they have learned more appropriate and verbal methods of expressing their emotions.