NVLE TIMED Questions

Which of the following drugs is not approved for use in food animals? A. Sulfas B. Tetracyclines C. Chloramphenicol D. Ionophores E. Penicillins

C. Chloramphenicol The correct answer is chloramphenicol. One of the potential side effects of chloramphenicol in people is a non-reversible aplastic anemia; therefore its use is not allowed in food animals. All others are acceptable classes of drugs (some with strict limited use) in food animals.

What is the causative agent of Johne's disease? Mycobacterium pseudotuberculosis Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis Mycobacterium leprae Mycobacterium tuberculosis Mycobacterium bovis

The correct answer is Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis. This disease is known to affect cattle, goats, and sheep, as well as many exotic hoofstock. Infection usually occurs when the animals are young but clinical signs do not show up until they are stressed, often at 2 to 3 years of age. Clinical signs are essentially chronic intermittent diarrhea and weight loss.

Which cranial nerve is most responsible for tear production? 5 2 7 3

The correct answer is CN VII. The lacrimal nerve from cranial nerve VII innervates the lacrimal gland, which is located within the orbit. It is responsible for production of much of the aqueous portion of the tear film. For this reason, if an animal has signs of facial nerve problems, tear production should be checked.

Which of these is the usual intermediate host of Onchocerca cervicalis? Tabanidae Culicoides Stomoxys Musca autumnalis

The correct answer is Culicoides. When Culicoides gnats bite a horse, they can ingest the L3 larvae of Onchocerca. Stomoxys calcitrans is the intermediate host of Habronema, the stomach worm. Musca autumnalis is the vector of Thelazia, the eye worm. Tabanidae flies vector equine infectious anemia and Trypanosoma evansi.

Dilated cardiomyopathy is an inherited disease that most commonly occurs in which breed? Golden Retriever Labrador Retriever Doberman Pinscher German Shepherd Dog

The correct answer is Doberman Pinscher. Dobermans and Great Danes are commonly affected with DCM.

What is the growth medium of choice for Mycoplasma bovis? MacConkey agar Blood agar Hayflick's agar Chocolate agar

The correct answer is Hayflick's agar. Mycoplasma bovis does not grow well on the other choices provided. Additionally, you will want to grow it in a microaerophilic environment.

You are about to receive an offer from a veterinary hospital for employment. Which of the following is the most common pay package offered as a percentage of gross production, including wages (whether base or percent production) and benefits? 17-19% 31-33% 20-25% 26-30%

20-25% Most general practice veterinarians are paid a total compensation between 20-25% including pay and benefits. For example, a veterinarian may be paid 19% of his production and receive health benefits and dues paid with other perks, or may receive a higher production pay such as 23% and no benefits. Some veterinarians choose to have a set salary and benefits. There are many acceptable offers but the most common offer is between 20-25% total production.

You have a 20 kg dog with a PCV of 15%. You wish to raise his PCV to 25%. How much fresh whole blood should you administer? 40 ml 400 ml 100 ml 200 ml

400 mL The correct answer is 400ml. To raise the PCV 1% you need to give 2ml/kg of fresh whole blood. So, 40 ml will raise the dog's PCV by 1%, but since we need to raise it by 10%, you will need 400ml or fresh whole blood.

Which joint listed would be most likely to have an osteochondrosis dissecans (OCD) lesion in the dog? A. Elbow B. Temporomandibular C. Coxofemoral D. Carpal

A. Elbow The correct answer is elbow, which is a more common place to have an OCD lesion, and you will usually see them on the medial aspect of the humeral condyles. OCD rarely occurs in the coxofemoral, temporomandibular, or carpal joints. Other places that OCD lesions can more commonly be seen are the caudal aspect of the humeral head in the shoulder, the trochlear ridge of the talus (tarsocrural joint), and the femoral condyle in the stifle.

After a recent change in feed, numerous chickens in a flock have developed inappetence, ruffled feathers, and dark colored diarrhea. You perform a necropsy on a deceased chicken and find the middle and distal small intestine to be thickened and distended containing dark brown necrotic material; the intestinal mucosa has a diptheritic membrane. Which of the following treatment/management strategies is appropriate? Add penicillin to drinking water Add fishmeal, barley, and rye to the feed Vaccinate breeders and progeny Dissolve copper sulfate and vinegar into the water

Add penicillin to drinking water The disease described is necrotic enteritis which is caused by Clostridium perfringens. C. perfringens A and C can cause acute enterotoxemia with sudden onset explosive mortality due to necrosis of the mucosa of the small intestine. Diagnosis is made based on clinical signs and necropsy findings and is confirmed by finding large numbers of short, thick, gram positive rods in mucosal scrapings. The disease should be distinguished from Eimeria brunetti and from ulcerative enteritis caused by C. colinum. C. perfringens is nearly ubiquitous and usually only causes disease when intestinal microecology is disturbed (due to changes in feed or damage from other pathogens or toxins). This can be treated by addition of antibiotics to feed (virginiamycin, bacitracin, lincomycin) or water (bacitracin, penicillin, lincomycin). Avoiding drastic changes in feed and minimizing levels of fishmeal, wheat, barley, or rye in the diet can also aid in preventing necrotic enteritis.

A 3-year old female goat is displaying signs of decreased activity with right sided ptosis and drooling. On examination, you notice a decreased palpebral reflex on the right side. The goat has a temperature of 104F (40 C). What is the most important and appropriate therapy for the goat's suspected condition? Administer 1 mg of Selenium and 500 units of Vitamin E once and then add supplementation to the feed Administer procaine penicillin, 40,000 units per kg every six hours Administer Thiamine 10 mg/kg every six hours Administer levamisole 8 mg/kg once

Administer procaine penicillin, 40,000 units per kg every six hours The key to answering this question is the unilateral nature of the clinical signs which are most typical of Listeriosis in goats in contrast to other common neurologic conditions such as Polioencephalomalacia (thiamine or Vitamin B1 deficiency). This infection is most common in goats fed silage (although that information was not provided in this question). Thiamine administration would not be inappropriate but is not the most critical therapy for Listeriosis. The signs in this goat are not suggestive of white muscle disease which is caused by selenium deficiency. They are also not suggestive of lungworms or roundworms which might be treated with levamisole.

As an international consultant, you are called to examine a group of feeder pigs on a farm in West Africa. The pigs have high fever, inappetence, and hemorrhages in the skin of the ears. Several have died acutely, and you find petechial hemorrhages on internal organs. The clinical signs and lesions look like classical swine fever or erysipelas, but there is one other disease you need to rule out which also has similar signs. What is this other disease? African swine fever Swine influenza Swine dysentery Porcine parvovirus Leptospirosis

African Swine Fever ASF acts in a similar manner to classical swine fever. It is highly virulent, carried by bush pigs and warthogs, and can also be transmitted by soft ticks.

Which of the following best describes Type III hypersensitivity? An immediate hypersensitivity reaction involving the interaction of IgE and mast cell degranulation A delayed hypersensitivity reaction involving antigen presenting cells, antigen and T lymphocytes An immediate hypersensitivity reaction involving the interaction of IgG to antigens on body tissues An immune complex hypersensitivity involving the interaction of circulating antigen-antibody complexes in blood vessel walls causing neutrophil emigration and tissue damage

An immune complex hypersensitivity involving the interaction of circulating antigen-antibody complexes in blood vessel walls causing neutrophil emigration and tissue damage There are four types of hypersensitivity reactions. Type III is characterized by antigen-antibody complexes. Type I is the immediate hypersensitivity reaction mediated by IgE, whereas Type II involves IgG and body tissues (i.e. RBCs). The delayed hypersensitivity reaction (IV) involves the presentation of antigen through antigen presenting cells to lymphocytes.

An adult chameleon was purchased by an owner one year ago and presents to your clinic with signs of anorexia, decreased activity, and lameness of its left rear leg. The majority of the new owner's chameleon's diet is cat food with occasional insects. The chameleon's enclosure is temperature-regulated and has multiple features on which to climb and hide. Given the history and clinical presentation, which of the following answers is the correct diagnosis? Hepatic lipidosis Salmonella Articular gout Metabolic bone disease

Articular gout The correct answer is articular gout. The key to this question is to note the feeding of cat food. Cat food is too high in protein for reptiles. Reptiles have an inability to process large amounts of protein, thus uric acid may subsequently deposit in the joints. Furthermore, chameleons are primarily insectivorous so the diet is inappropriate. Therefore, this is the most reasonable answer for this presentation in a captive chameleon on a sub-optimal diet. Cat food would not be expected to cause metabolic bone disease or hepatic lipidosis.

A 5-month-old pit bull puppy presents for a small area of hair loss. The lesion is well-demarcated, and the dog is not pruritic. Upon examination, you notice mild crusting around the lesion. You perform skin cytology and no bacteria or yeast is observed. Skin scrape reveals a few cigar-shaped mites. What is your next step? Benign neglect and monitor the lesions Initiate therapy with Lyme sulfur dips Initiate therapy with Amitraz dips Initiate therapy with Ivermectin

Benign neglect and monitor the lesions Localized, juvenile onset demodicosis usually resolves without treatment as the immune system develops. Because this patient only has a small area of alopecia and few mites, starting therapy with Ivermectin and Amitraz dips is pre-mature. Both these therapies have marked side effects. Ivermectin causes neurological signs, and Amitraz can cause allergic reactions, hypothermia, bradycardia, and hyperglycemia (especially in small puppies). Lyme sulfur dips are not effective against follicular Demodex mites (as found in dogs). Demodex gatoi is found in cats and is a superficial mite that can be treated with Lyme sulfur.

What is a good way to assess daily changes in hydration status of a patient that is in the hospital for several days or longer? Heart rate Body weight Respiratory rate Scleral color

Body weight is a good way to assess hydration of a patient. It is especially helpful when monitoring hydration status of hospitalized patients that are weighed daily. Tacky or dry mucus membranes and increased skin tenting are clinical signs of dehydration. Heart rate is often increased when patients are dehydrated, but increased heart rate can also be from other causes, such as stress in the hospital environment or pain. Another good way is monitoring hydration status via central venous pressure. It is useful in assessing the venous return of blood to the heart and in monitoring fluid therapy. It is performed by placing a long catheter into the jugular vein and into the cranial vena cava or right atrium and subsequently attaching the catheter to a measuring device (pressure transducer or water monometer).

A 1-year old female guinea pig presents for respiratory distress and weight loss. The guinea pig is housed in a 4x6 foot enclosure lined with newspaper. The guinea pig shares a cage with a 2-year old female rabbit that appears healthy. What is the most likely etiology? Mycoplasma pulmonis Pasteurella multocida Bordetella bronchiseptica Sendai virus Teflon toxicity

Bordetella bronchiseptica Many rabbits are inapparent carriers of Bordetella bronchiseptica. However, Bordetella causes primary respiratory disease in guinea pigs; therefore, guinea pigs and rabbits should not be housed together. Clinical signs of bordetella in guinea pigs include respiratory distress, weight loss, and sudden death. Pasteurella multocida causes respiratory disease ("snuffles") in rabbits but not guinea pigs. Mycoplasma pulmonis and Sendai virus are part of a complex of organisms that cause respiratory disease in rats. Teflon toxicity causes respiratory disease in birds but has not been reported to affect guinea pigs.

Young turkeys on a large new farm are showing stunting, poor feathering, and short thick bowed legs. Histologically they have chondrodysplasia. The most likely cause of this is_______? Vitamin E deficiency Choline deficiency Copper deficiency Selenium deficiency Magnesium deficiency

Choline deficiency This occurs in both chicks and young turkeys, but turkeys have a particularly high choline requirement. The clinical signs described should lead you to suspect this deficiency.

You examine a 4-year old Holstein dairy cow which freshened 2 weeks ago. She has a history of abrupt cessation of lactation and loss of interest in feed. T=105F, HR=90 and RR=30. The cow has an arched back and is treading and swishing her tail frequently. On rectal exam you find an enlarged and painful left kidney. You catch urine in a cup after stimulating her to urinate. Which description of the urine best fits what you would expect to find in this cow? Cloudy and bloody Crystals present Hemoglobinuria Amyloid casts Ketonuria

Cloudy and bloody This cow is likely to have acute pyelonephritis. It is most commonly ascending and associated with E. coli, other coliforms, or Corynebacterium renale. You could also use ultrasound to confirm the diagnosis, but finding neutrophils, RBCs and bacteria with these signs is indicative of acute pyelonephritis.

A 4-year old cat is not eating and has a 104.2F (40.1 C) temperature. The abdomen is mildly distended and abdominocentesis reveals a serosanguinous fluid. On examination you note a string anchored under the base of the tongue. Which of the following tests can help you confirm your clinical suspicion? Compare the glucose of peripheral blood to the glucose of the abdominal effusion Check a neutrophil count, and evaluate for signs of neutrophil toxicity Check for leukocytes in the ascites using a urine dipstick A temperature of 104.2F confirms your suspicion, given the physical exam findings

Compare the glucose of peripheral blood to the glucose of the abdominal effusion Based on the clinical exam you should be concerned that this patient may have an intestinal perforation and a septic abdomen secondary to a linear foreign body. If the glucose of the abdominal effusion is 20 mg/dl or more points lower than that of peripheral blood, this helps to confirm sepsis. This is due to the bacteria consuming the glucose in the abdominal fluid. Another way of confirming sepsis is to do a fluid cytology, and, if bacteria are seen, this is strongly suggestive. Upper GI perforations tend to have lower counts of bacteria and can sometimes be more difficult to confirm. Lower GI perforations have higher bacterial counts and bacteria are more readily seen.

Which of the following signs is strictly associated with central vestibular disease? A. Circling toward the side of the lesion B. Non-positional horizontal nystagmus C. Head tilt toward the side of the lesion D. Positional, vertical nystagmus

D. Positional, vertical Nystagmus The correct answer is positional, vertical nystagmus. Positional and vertical nystagmus only occur with central vestibular disease. Circling, head tilt, and horizontal nystagmus all occur with either central or peripheral vestibular disease.

A 9-month old foal presents with difficulty walking. You immediately note that the foal appears to have a flexural deformity of the right forelimb consisting of an increased dorsal hoof wall angle of 80 degrees such that the heel does not contact the ground. The coronary band is prominent. You take radiographs which confirm a broken forward hoof-pastern angle. What is the most appropriate treatment for this type of flexural limb deformity? Desmotomy of the accessory ligament of the deep digital flexor tendon Superior check ligament desmotomy Lateral digital extensor tenectomy Transection of the insertion of the semitendinosus

Desmotomy of the accessory ligament of the deep digital flexor tendon This case describes a severe flexural deformity of the distal interphalangeal joint, also known as "clubfoot". This is typically a congenital condition in young horses although it can be acquired. A genetic component is suspected. Mild cases can sometimes be managed conservatively with NSAIDs, farriery, exercise and nutritional changes. Severe cases often require surgery; the surgical procedure of choice is desmotomy of the accessory ligament of the deep digital flexor tendon (also known as inferior check ligament desmotomy). The accessory ligament of the deep digital flexor tendon (inferior check ligament) runs from the palmar surface of the proximal metacarpus to the deep flexor tendon in the mid-metacarpal region. The superior check ligament originates above the knee and attaches to the superficial flexor tendon, and its primary purpose is to support the tendon. Superior check ligament surgery is used to treat a bowed tendon. Lateral digital extensor tenectomy is a procedure used to treat stringhalt. Transection of the insertion of the semitendinosus is used to treat fibrotic myopathy.

When working to control porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS) virus in a herd, what is the proper order for the different steps needed to achieve this goal? Close -> Diagnose -> Homogenize Diagnose -> Homogenize -> Close Diagnose -> Close -> Homogenize Close -> Homogenize -> Diagnose Homogenize -> Close -> Diagnose Homogenize -> Diagnose -> Close

Diagnose -> Close -> Homogenize The correct answer is Diagnose -> Close -> Homogenize. The first part in any control program is to have the correct diagnosis. Once the correct diagnosis is confirmed then the next step is to close the herd to new introductions. By closing the herd we minimize the introduction of new susceptible animals which can then be exposed to the virus. This is like adding new wood to a fire. The final stage is to homogenize the herd. Here the goal is to get all animals on the farm to be exposed to the virus at the same time. The PRRS virus does not appear to move very quickly within a herd (low contagiousness). By having a homogenous population we prevent having susceptible animals left in the population and thus the virus is likely to die out on its own (no new hosts available).

Which of the following is required for chinchilla health? A warm (90 degree) basking spot Dust baths Vitamin C Monthly dental adjustments Cedar shavings

Dust baths Chinchillas require dust baths every 1-2 days in order to maintain coat health. The dust bath should not be left in the enclosure at all times since frequent bathing may cause conjunctivitis. Chinchillas are heat-intolerant, and the enclosure should not be kept at temperatures above 80 degrees Fahrenheit. Cedar shavings should be avoided as bedding, since they can cause respiratory irritation. Chinchillas do not require supplemental Vitamin C. Healthy chinchillas do not require dental adjustments, although dental disease is a common problem in chinchillas.

A 5-day old dairy calf has decreased appetite and is depressed. On physical exam, you note that she has a temperature of 104F (40 C), HR 120, scleral injection, and one eye has cloudy material in the anterior chamber. Pending lab results, you make a tentative diagnosis of what condition? Failure of passive transfer (FPT) and sepsis, with hypopyon Pinkeye caused by Moraxella bovis Malignant catarrhal fever (MCF) Chlamydia psittaci ocular infection and sepsis Bovine viral diarrhea (BVD)

Failure of passive transfer (FPT) and sepsis, with hypopyon The history of a neonate with these signs and an elevated temperature, scleral injection and hypopyon are indicative of bacterial sepsis, a result of FPT.

A goat dairy is experiencing diarrhea 2 to 3 weeks after weaning at 6 weeks of age. You find numerous Eimeria oocysts in the feces. In addition to improving sanitation in the kid pens and decreasing exposure to Eimeria, which of the following can also be recommended? Treat all kids at weaning with tetracyclines for 5 days Treat all kids for 5 days with Ivermectin at weaning Feed coccidiostat preventative to kids starting at weaning Vaccinate against Eimeria caprina

Feed coccidiostat preventative to kids starting at weaning Amprolium and other preventive drugs can be effectively used to suppress clinical coccidiosis. There is no vaccine.

A 6-month old feedlot steer, which entered the feedlot 4 weeks ago, has lost weight and is now showing an enlarged left flank as shown in the image below. On exam, you find the left side of the abdomen to be gas-filled under moderate pressure, and the rumen to be otherwise poorly filled and with poor motility. Based on percussion and auscultation, the animal also appears to have chronic bronchopneumonia. What is the most likely cause of the rumen malfunction? Frothy bloat Left displaced abomasum Free gas bloat, failure to eructate Type 3 vagal indigestion Cecal dilation

Free gas bloat, failure to eructate This is sometimes called Type 1 vagal indigestion, or free gas bloat. It is frequently associated with swollen mediastinal lymph nodes caused by pneumonia. The signals to or from dorsal rumen receptors, which detect gas pressure and open the cardia, are compromised such that eructation does not occur normally and free gas bloat occurs. This in turn causes the calf to feel full and it eats poorly and loses weight. One needs to treat the pneumonia and perhaps create a temporary rumen fistula to allow the escape of gas until eructation returns to normal.

While performing a necropsy on a 9-year old Thoroughbred mare, you notice the pictured parasite within the stomach. What is your diagnosis? Gasterophilus intestinalis Onchocerca Parascaris equorum Strongyloides westeri

Gasterophilus are not worms but rather bot fly larvae and are also known as the stomach bot. There are several species, G. nasalis, G. haemorrhoidalis, and G. intestinalis. While they may appear disgusting, they typically do not cause any clinical signs. It has been reported that bot fly infestation can lead to stomach rupture, but this is extremely rare.

You have diagnosed a 6-month old male neutered Yorkshire Terrier with a portosystemic shunt. His bile acids were greater than 100 umol/L fasting and post-feeding. Which of the following abnormalities would you NOT expect to find on bloodwork and urinalysis? Hyperglycemia Ammonium biurate crystaluria Increased ALT Microcytosis Hypoproteinemia

Hyperglycemia Hypoproteinemia is secondary to a decreased production of albumin by the liver. Blood glucose is usually low in shunt patients. Liver enzymes are usually high, but can be normal. Ammonium biurate crystals and stones form due to the increased amount of ammonium in the blood and urine. Microcytosis occurs, the pathogenesis is unknown, but it is thought that iron deficiency is not involved.

A 5-year old domestic medium haired female cat presents to you for poor appetite and vomiting over several days. On physical exam, you note pale, icteric mucous membranes, mild generalized lymphadenopathy, and hepatosplenomegaly. HR-230 bpm, RR-44 bpm, T-103.8F. Bloodwork reveals: HCT-11% (25-47) Retic- 340,000/ul (10,500-51,000) WBC-19,000/ul (5,500-14,540) Platelets-120,000/ul (220,000-539,000) A chemistry panel is pending but you order a blood transfusion right away. Unfortunately, the cat's condition rapidly declines and the cat dies. Post-mortem exam reveals generalized icterus and splenomegaly (see image). Which of the following was the cat most likely suffering from? Pancreatitis Toxic hepatocellular necrosis Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia Biliary obstruction

IMHA The only answer choice that readily explains the acute presentation and severe regenerative anemia is immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA). The icterus could be caused by any of the choices but in this case, is apparently prehepatic due to hemolysis. Keep in mind that in cats, IMHA usually occurs secondary to an underlying infectious or inflammatory disease, although primary idiopathic IMHA does occur as well.

You visit a cage layer operation where there is a complaint of decreased egg production in 45-week old white leghorn hens. Daily mortality numbers in the poultry house are normal. On examination you note that some of the birds are coughing/sneezing, along with decreased egg production, there is an increased percentage of eggs that have wrinkled shells. This combination of findings is most consistent with which of the following infections? Infectious bronchitis Pasteurella multocida infection Newcastle disease Infectious laryngotracheitis Avian encephalomyelitis

Infectious bronchitis Infectious bronchitis virus (IBV) is a coronavirus that causes respiratory disease in chickens, causing symptoms such as coughing, sneezing, tracheal rales, conjunctivitis, and sometimes facial swelling. It commonly causes misshapen eggs that have thin, pale, and wrinkled shells.

A 3-year old indoor/outdoor domestic short hair cat presents with a history of lethargy and decreased appetite. T= 103.1 F/ 39.5 C, P= 200 bpm, R= 36. On exam you note a swelling over the bridge of the nose and on fundic exam see some dark circular lesions in the retinas. The disease you suspect in this cat may have been transmitted by which of the following? Puncture wound from contaminated soil Inhalation of spores from pigeon droppings Ingestion of oocyts from raw meat Scratch from another cat

Inhalation of spores from pigeon droppings Cryptococcus is a genus of encapsulated yeast that is often associated with or found in pigeon droppings and eucalyptus trees. The spores are most often inhaled from the environment where these are present. Cats with cryptococcus will often develop a swelling over the bridge of the nose and lesions in the retinas. Sporothrix is a fungus found in the soil ("rose grower's disease") and is introduced into the body via a puncture from a thorn or through an open wound or cut when exposed to contaminated soil. Toxoplasmosis may be transmitted through ingestion of raw meat.

Ceftiofur and Cephalexin are antimicrobials that gain their antimicrobial effects by which mechanism? Interfere with cell wall synthesis of susceptible bacteria Interfere with DNA gyrase resulting in abnormal DNA replication in susceptible bacteria Interfere with the 50s ribosomal subunit resulting in abnormal protein synthesis in susceptible bacteria Interfere with the 30s ribosomal subunit resulting in abnormal protein synthesis in susceptible bacteria

Interfere with cell wall synthesis of susceptible bacteria Ceftiofur and Cephalexin are 3rd and 1st generation bactericidal cephalosporins in the beta-lactam class that inhibit cell wall synthesis, resulting in lysis of susceptible bacteria. The penicillins fall under the class of beta-lactam antimicrobials as well.

You are presented with a 6-month old colt with a 5-day history of lethargy, intermittent diarrhea, weight loss, and ventral edema. A quick check of the PCV and TP reveal a PCV of 30% (28-42%) and TP of 3.2 g/dl (6.8-8.2 g/dl). Abdominal ultrasound (see image) demonstrates thickening of the small intestinal wall. What is the most likely diagnosis based on signalment, history and clinical findings? Salmonella infection Intermittent jejunal intussusception Lawsonia intracellularis infection Clostridium difficile enteritis

Lawsonia intracellularis infection Although not as commonly as in pigs, L. intracellularis can infect horses (and other species). Similar to pigs, the infection usually involves weanling age horses and causes thickening of the small intestine and hypoproteinemia. The low protein is commonly observed as ventral edema clinically. Both Clostridium and Salmonella can cause diarrhea at any age but are not as commonly associated with ventral edema. Intussusceptions do occur but also typically result in colic.

A 7-year-old female Springer Spaniel presents with a nodular intradermal/subcutaneous mass, approximately 10 cm in diameter, on the lateral surface of the elbow. A fine needle aspirate was collected and smears made (see image, 50X objective). What is the most likely differential? Round cell tumor Epithelial tumor Bacterial granuloma Fungal granuloma Mesenchymal tumor

Mesenchymal Tumor There are moderate numbers of mildly pleomorphic spindle shaped cells, loosely arranged with some features suggestive of a whirling pattern. Individual cells have a moderate nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio, single oval nuclei that are approximately two RBCs in diameter, coarsely stippled chromatin, and a single medium sized nucleolus. They have moderate amounts of wispy basophilic, sometimes finely vacuolated, cytoplasm forming swirling tails. This morphology is consistent with a mesenchymal or spindle-cell tumor. Coupled with the clinical information, this is most likely a soft tissue sarcoma such as a fibrosarcoma, hemangiopericytoma, or peripheral nerve sheath tumor.

A 4 year old Ayrshire cow presents with a two day history of depression, anorexia, fever, conscious proprioceptive deficits, circling, right sided head tilt, and head-pressing. A neurologic exam identified cranial nerve deficits. Particularly, the right ear is drooping, the right eye appears "dropped", and she is drooling from the right side of her mouth. What is the most likely diagnosis? Perennial ryegrass staggers Listeriosis Mycoplasma bovis Polioencephalomalacia

Listeria monocytogenes may cause an acute meningoencephalitis with microabscesses in the area of the brainstem and cranial nerve roots. However, there are other clinical forms of listeriosis that may be seen, such as abortion and septicemia of neonates. Usually, only individual animals are affected and not the herd. The animals commonly become infected after consuming spoiled silage. In general, the clinical signs seen are associated with dysfunction of the caudal brain stem, cerebellar peduncles, or spinal cord. Mycoplasma bovis will not result in central nervous system disease, especially in such a short time span (can cause otitis media-interna). Polioencephalomalacia does not result in cranial nerve signs and is caused by a thiamine deficiency. Ingestion of perennial ryegrass (grows between June and September in northern hemisphere) will cause ataxia and tremors as a result of activating GABA receptors when it is infected with an endophytic fungus.

A 6-month old lamb presents with a left-sided head tilt and spontaneous horizontal nystagmus with the fast phase directed towards the right side, and changes with the position of the head. Ventral strabismus is present on the left side and there is drooping of the left upper eyelid and left ear (see image). Which of the following is the most appropriate differential diagnosis list with most likely conditions listed first? Brain tumor, Mycoplasma mycoides bacteremia Facial nerve neuritis, salt poisoning, Rabies, polioencephalomalacia Listeriosis, Otitis media

Listeriosis, Otitis media Based on the presentation, there is a vestibular lesion as well as a facial nerve lesion. This can occur commonly with middle ear lesions or brainstem disease. Unilateral peripheral vestibular lesions are commonly associated with otitis media and ascending bacterial infection via the eustachian tube. Sheep typically present with a head tilt towards the affected side. There may be evidence of otitis externa and purulent aural discharge in some cases, but rupture of the tympanic membrane is not a common route of infection. Pasteurella, Streptococcus, and Arcanobacterium have been isolated from infected lesions. Middle ear trauma can also occur. This is usually treated effectively with procaine penicillin if disease is recognized early. Listerosis is a bacterial infection that may or may not be associated with ingestion of contaminated silage. It usually presents as a bacterial infection limited to one side of the brainstem and involving a few cranial nerves. Affected sheep may have unilateral weakness, drooping ear and eyelid, and deviated muzzle. If recognized early, it can be effectively treated with antibiotics (penicillin). This animal is young, making brain tumor unlikely. (It is also rare in ruminants). Mycoplasma mycoides subsp mycoides is a problem of young goat kids, not lambs. The clinical signs are typically polyarthtitis rather than CNS. Salt toxicity can develop in sheep if a high percentage of mineral supplement is used and water supply is limited. Signs include salivation, increased thirst, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, ataxia, blindness, and seizures. Facial nerve neuritis (due to virus) is not recognized in sheep. Rabies is usually associated with livestock exhibiting dysphagia, paresis, and paresthesia. Polioencephalomalacia usually causes clinical signs that include sta

A rancher in the Rocky Mountains has found that many of the beef calves born this season are deformed with cleft palates, arthrogryposis, and crooked spines. The pregnant cows were grazing on pastures that have had a large amount of several species of the plant pictured. What is the problem that caused these congenital anomalies? Oleander Tansy ragwort Larkspur Locoweed Lupine

Lupine Some lupines contain alkaloids called sparteine and anagyrine. Cows eating lupine during early gestation often give birth to calves with cleft palates, crooked legs and distorted/malformed spines. Six of the poisonous species implicated in "crooked calf disease" are silky lupine (L. sericeus), tailcup lupine (L. caudatus), velvet lupine (L. leucophyllus), silvery lupine (L. argenteus), lunara lupine (L. formosus), and yellow lupine (L. sulphureus).

The lesion associated with this horse's source of colic is pictured below. The lesion causing the pathology seen in the intestine has been separated and is seen to the left of the image. What is the most common signalment for this cause of colic. Horses less than 1 year of age Mid- to older (15-20 years of age) geldings Any age stallions Adolescent (3-5 years of age) mares

Mid- to older (15-20 years of age) geldings You must first identify the cause of colic as being a strangulating lipoma. The lipoma is to the left and has been untangled from the intestine where it was strangulating part of the small intestine (notice the normal colored small intestinal serosa as compared to the dark purple section). There is a strong association with strangulating lipomas occurring in older horses, especially geldings. Thus, mid-to older age geldings is the best answer.

You need to perform emergency splenectomy to remove a mass in the spleen. You want to choose anesthetic agents that do not cause the spleen to enlarge/engorge. With that in mind, which of the following options is the best combination? Xylazine and thiopental A mixture of thiopental and propofol Acepromazine and propofol Morphine followed by diazepam and ketamine Acepromazine followed by diazepam and ketamine

Morphine followed by diazepam and ketamine Acepromazine can cause splenic enlargement and sequestration of red blood cells in the spleen. This is often striking and evident on radiographic or sonographic exams of animals sedated with acepromazine. Thiopental is a thiobarbiturate which induces splenic engorgement; this makes surgical manipulation and removal of the spleen more difficult. Xylazine, diazepam, ketamine, propofol, and opioids such as morphine do not increase the size of the spleen.

What is the average percent of gross production paid to an equine practitioner that is paid exclusively on a percent production basis? 40 12 35 25 18

Most equine practitioners should earn 25-30% of their gross intake; the average is about 26%. The national board examination will ask a few basic practice management questions that you should be prepared for.

The presence of yellow-white nodules (granulomas), containing acid-fast bacilli on the intestine, liver, and spleen of aged chickens is typical of what agent? Mycoplasma gallisepticum Esherichia coli Mycobacterium avium subspecies avium Lymphoid leukosis virus Marek's disease virus

Mycobacterium avium subspecies avium Acid-fast bacteria are Mycobacterium species. M. avium causes these yellowish granulomas on the intestines, liver, and spleen.

You have a 6-year old female spayed Cocker Spaniel with immune mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA), and would like to start her on azathioprine and prednisone. Which one of the following is NOT a reported possible side effect of azathioprine? Acute pancreatitis Hepatotoxicity Nephrotoxicity Bone marrow suppression Gastrointestinal upset

Nephrotoxicity is not a reported side effect of azathioprine. All others on this list have been reported as side effects or have been associated with the use of azathioprine. GI upset is the most common of the 4 listed, although it is still relatively infrequent. The other 3 listed side effects are uncommon, but can be life-threatening, so they must be discussed with the owner before starting treatment.

A 3-year old Holstein dairy cow, 3 weeks post partum, is presented with the complaint that she has dropped in milk production over the last several days. You perform a physical exam and the only abnormality you note is a large amount of ketone bodies in the milk and urine. You decide to administer glucose IV and insulin SQ. What else should this cow be administered? IM tetracycline Oral propylene glycol SQ bovine somatotropin IV calcium gluconate IM parathyroid hormone

Oral propylene glycol The oral propylene glycol will serve as a precursor for glucose production, and will help with the demands of lactation that are causing increased fat mobilization and ketosis. A fourth treatment that is sometimes used is corticosteroids, as they decrease milk production and increase gluconeogenesis.

You are examining a group of 20 yearling beef heifers in a late summer in Alberta, Canada that has been cooler and wetter than normal. The heifers have been experiencing poor growth and diarrhea. The farmer reports that the cows have developed a frequent, non-productive cough after exertion in the past week. You examine the cows and find their vital parameters to be within normal limits with the exception of several mildly tachypneic cows. There is no ocular or nasal discharge seen. You auscult occasional crackles in many of the cows. Fecal examination reveals Dictyocaulus viviparus L3 in three of six samples. You treat the cows with ivermectin and see cessation of coughing and diarrhea within a few days. Which of the following would be the best way to prevent this problem next year now that there is a known risk? Control of snails Control of earthworms Control of ticks Persistent use of anthelmintics 2 to 3 tim

Persistent use of anthelmintics 2 to 3 times during the grazing season Based on the presentation and diagnostic findings, this is a case of Dictyocaulus viviparus, the bovine lungworm and cause of verminous bronchitis. Although the worm is more common in Europe, cases can be seen worldwide including in North America, particularly when weather conditions permit (cooler, moist summers). Dictyocaulus often affects younger cattle more severely. Signs include cough and frequently tachypnea. The diagnosis is frequently suggested by the seasonal incidence although confirmation with fecal examination (Baermann) is important to achieve a definitive diagnosis. Treatment with an anthelmintic of clinically affected animals is usually effective. Dictyocaulus has a direct life cycle and does not require a snail, earthworm, or tick for transmission. There are 2 main methods of prevention. A strategic anthelmintic program entails administration of an anthelmintic such as ivermectin at 3, 8, and 13 weeks post-turnout. There are approximately 28 days of residual activity against lungworm. Vaccination is used in some areas (mainly Europe) and involves an attenuated oral vaccine of 1,000 irradiated L3 Dictyocaulus viviparous at 6 and 2 weeks pre-turnout.

An owner suspects that he has trichomoniasis in his cattle herd. What clinical signs can you tell him to look for? Cows will have metritis Abortion The bulls will have a thick preputial discharge Poor calving percentage

Poor calving percentage The correct answer is that they are usually asymptomatic, but by the time calving occurs there is likely to be a poor calving percentage. Neither the cow nor bull appear to be remarkably clinically affected. Rarely, one may see a very mild discharge from the cow after early embryonic death, and if there is a pyometra at the time of pregnancy check one could be suspicious. Abortion is not the correct answer because cows don't really abort anything, they just return to heat at an extended interval after being bred.

A practice you recently interviewed with told you they will offer you a number of ancillary benefits if you work full time. This may include: Professional membership dues Holidays off Percentage of gross production or salary Vacation allowance Health insurance

Professional membership dues An ancillary benefit is an additional benefit not part of the expected core offer. Examples of these benefits include membership dues, continuing education allowance, DEA license dues, moving expenses, gym memberships, etc. In this question, a vacation allowance, holidays off, salary, and health insurance are all expected benefits in a core offer for a full-time employee at a veterinary clinic.

You are called to a goat dairy in Mississippi and asked to perform a postmortem on several 3- to 5-month old kids, which are pale. You note that the abomasum contains many Haemonchus contortus. Other animals of various ages appear anemic (pale, rapid HR, and weak). The owner has been treating all her goats with fenbendazole at two-month intervals for several years now. What is the explanation for this anemia likely to be? Resistant parasites Copper deficiency anemia Hypobiotic larvae Vitamin B12 deficiency Iron deficiency anemia

Resistant parasites Haemonchus is a blood sucker and causes anemia. Haemonchus, Ostertagia, and some other trichostrongyles can become resistant to anthelmintics. In addition, some anthelmintics are not as effective against hypobiotic larvae. You should recommend several management changes and use a new anthelmintic such as ivermectin.

A 7-year old female spayed Cocker Spaniel presents for a 3 day history of progressive lethargy and anorexia. Her physical exam shows that she is weak, has pale mucous membranes, and is breathing rapidly. You draw a blood sample and notice its light red appearance. The blood smear is shown in the picture below. The smaller arrow is pointing to which type of cell? Spherocyte Reticulocyte Schistocyte Platelet Normal erythrocyte

Spherocytes are smaller, rounder, more fragile red blood cells that have lost their biconcave shape after a portion of their cell membrane has been removed by the immune system. Compared to normal red blood cells, they appear smaller, are more spherical, and have no central pallor. The presence of spherocytes is highly supportive of an autoimmune mediated hemolytic anemia, which is what the Cocker Spaniel in the question is described to have. The larger arrow is pointing to a nucleated red blood cell, which is an immature form of an erythrocyte that has not lost its nucleus yet. The presence of nucleated red blood cells and reticulocytes in circulation is often associated with regenerative anemias. Reticulocytes are erythrocytes that have lost their nucleus, but have not fully matured to a normal erythrocyte yet. They are generally slightly larger and slightly more basophilic than a mature erythrocyte. There are several present in the picture. Schistocytes are fragments of red blood cells that form due to mechanic shearing of erythrocytes. They are commonly found in patients with immune mediated hemolytic anemia, hemangiosarcoma, and patients with disseminated intravascular coagulation, or DIC. Platelets appear as small, light purple cells with no nucleus. They are generally round in shape but have whispy, irregular margins. There are several platelets throughout the picture as well

You are examining a 7 year old Thoroughbred gelding for severe bilateral epistaxis. After the epistaxis has decreased, endoscopy of the pharynx reveals blood from the left guttural pouch opening (see image). What is the most appropriate treatment for hemorrhage from guttural pouch mycosis? Lavage guttural pouch with antifungals Pass endoscope into affected guttural pouch and cauterize involved vasculature Tie off the left common carotid artery Surgical occlusion of involved arteries (i.e. internal or external carotid artery) under general anesthesia

Surgical occlusion of involved arteries (i.e. internal or external carotid artery) under general anesthesia Guttural pouch mycosis has several different clinical presentations. In some horses, epistaxis is observed, while in others, cranial nerve deficits such as dysphagia may be observed. When hemorrhage is present, the disease is advanced and more aggressive therapy must be pursued. In this case, surgical occlusion of the involved arteries is necessary (i.e. embolization coils or balloons). If you lavaged the guttural pouch in this case, you may exacerbate the bleeding. Passage of the endoscope may also disrupt the clot and cause further hemorrhage. Furthermore, cauterization of the vessels involved using an endoscope is not possible. Tying off the left common carotid artery seems like a good idea, but because of the circular blood flow in the brain, hemorrhage will continue.

What is the permanent dental formula for a dog? 2(I3/3 C1/1 P2/4 M3/3) 2(I3/3 C1/1 P4/4 M2/3) 2(I3/3 C1/1 P3/4 M1/3) 2(I3/3 C1/1 P3/2 M1/1)

The correct answer is 2(I3/3 C1/1 P4/4 M2/3). Remember the dog has 42 teeth total.

How many chambers are there in a snake's heart? 4 2 3 1

The correct answer is 3. All reptiles have 3 chambered hearts except for crocodilians which have 4 chambers. Reptiles have 2 atria and a single ventricle with an incomplete septum. Fish have 2 chambered hearts. Amphibians and reptiles have 3 chambers. Birds and mammals have 4 chambered hearts.

What is the causative agent of woody tongue in cattle? Actinomyces bovis Arcanobacterium pyogenes Actinobacillus lignieresii Pasteurella multocida

The correct answer is Actinobacillus lignieresii. This bacterium is gram-negative and is a normal inhabitant of the rumen and mouth of many cattle; however, when allowed access to soft tissues through a lesion, usually associated with scabrous feeds, it may cause a granulomatous abscessation. A bovis causes lumpy jaw.

You are called to a farm that is experiencing sudden death in a group of pigs that are scheduled to go to market in 10 days. Upon performing a necropsy, you find large amounts of blood in the small intestine and spiral colon. The blood is red and clotted. There is no gross thickening of the intestinal mucosa. Your diagnosis is which of the following? Hemorrhagic bowel syndrome Acute ileitis Stomach ulcer Intestinal torsion Erysipelas rhusiopathiae

The correct answer is Acute ileitis or proliferative hemorrhagic enteropathy or PHE caused by Lawsonia intracellularis. The name PHE can be deceiving as its acute nature does not always allow for gross evidence of proliferation. Lesion location in the small intestines as well as indications of red clotted blood is almost pathognomonic for the condition. Hemorrhagic bowel syndrome and intestinal torsion are not associated with intraluminal coagulated blood on necropsy. Digested blood is a sequelae to stomach ulcers. Erysipelas does not cause enteric pathology.

Which of the following is the causative agent of infectious coryza in chickens? Avibacterium paragallinarum Pasteurella multocida Clostridium perfringens Paragonimus kellicotti

The correct answer is Avibacterium paragallinarum. This is a gram negative, pleomorphic, microaerophilic rod. Clinical signs include respiratory disease. In particular, you will see nasal discharge, sneezing, and swelling of the face underneath the eyes. Older birds seem to be more susceptible. Diagnosis is based on isolating the organism or inoculation of a healthy bird and then evaluating for development of clinical signs. Swelling of the face and wattle must be differentiated from fowl cholera, which is caused by Pasteurella multocida. This condition is treated with antibiotics. Additionally, turkey coryza is caused by bordetella avium.

Which of the following is not a differential diagnosis for pigs that are sneezing, showing nasal discharge, and dyspnea? Inclusion body rhinitis Mycoplasma pneumonia Atrophic rhinitis Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome Pseudorabie

The correct answer is Mycoplasma pneumonia. Mycoplasma (aka Enzootic) pneumonia is characterized by a dry cough and retarded growth. All the other diseases listed are characterized by sneezing, nasal discharge, and dyspnea.

A 5-month old Thoroughbred filly is presented to you with enlargement of the right tarsocrural joint of 5 days duration. Upon examination, the filly has a very subtle lameness of the right hind limb and there is diffuse swelling of the joint. The filly appears otherwise alert and healthy. Sterile collection of synovial fluid from the affected joint reveals the following results: Total Protein- 3.0 gm/dL Total nucleated cell count- 760 cells/mcL Cytology- 85% mononuclear cells, 15% neutrophils After reviewing the synovial fluid analysis, you perform a series of radiographs on the tarsocrural joint (see image). What is the most likely diagnosis in this filly, based on the clinical signs, synovial fluid analysis, and radiographic findings? Lysis of the trochlear ridge of the right talus from chronic septic arthritis Mild collapse of the right central tarsal bone as a result of incomplete ossification of the tarsal bon

The correct answer is OCD of the lateral trochlear ridge. Horses with OCD are typically presented for veterinary examination between the ages of 4 months to 2 years of age with clinical signs of effusion and/or lameness. However, lameness is not always evident. Analysis of the synovial fluid can be normal or demonstrate evidence of mild inflammation. Normal synovial fluid analysis values are: Total Protein < 2.5 gm/dL, Total Nucleated Cell Count < 500 cells/mcL, Cytology primarily (> 90%) mononuclear cells. In regard to the other possible answers, incomplete ossification of the tarsal bones can occur and result in crushing of the small tarsal bones; however, radiographs in this case do not support this finding. As well, septic arthritis can cause lysis of bone, but the patient is typically very lame and has evidence of severe inflammation within the joint (i.e. > 20,000 cells/mcL in synovial fluid).

The newly weaned piglets of a swine farm are presented for snorting, sneezing, ocular discharge, and epistaxis. Necropsy of one affected animal showed atrophy of the nasal turbinates. The owner reports that he has never seen this happen in his herd before, but he also recently acquired several new sows with unknown histories. Which of the following would you most likely find if you were to culture the nasal passages of the affected pigs? Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae or Arcanobacterium pyogenes Pasteurella multocida or Bordetella bronchiseptica Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae or swine influenza virus Haemophilus parasuis or Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

The correct answer is Pasteurella multocida or Bordetella bronchiseptica. The piglets most likely have atrophic rhinitis which typically causes the clinical signs described. Facial deformity is rare but upward or lateral deviation of the snout may be seen. All pigs more than one week old are susceptible to showing clinical signs of the disease, but there may be unaffected carriers as well. It is an old disease that used to be found in herds and can be vaccinated against with bacterin vaccines. Antibiotics are used to treat the disease; however, if the problem is severe throughout the herd, depopulation and restocking the herd is also an option. All of today's large suppliers of genetic stock are free of atrophic rhinitis.

Which of these animals is most likely to develop primary glaucoma during their life? Intact male Himalayan cat Female spayed Cocker Spaniel Female Appaloosa horse Male castrated West Highland White Terrier Intact female German Shepherd

The correct answer is a female spayed Cocker Spaniel. Primary glaucoma is rare in cats and horses. In dogs, it is seen in purebreds mainly and primarily in Cockers, Basset hounds, Beagles, and Samoyeds.

The most common underlying pathology causing feline hyperthyroidism is ______. Lymphocytic thyroiditis Thyroid carcinoma Goiter Adenomatous hyperplasia

The correct answer is adenomatous hyperplasia. Adenomatous hyperplasia is the cause for about 70-75% of cases of feline hyperthyroidism. Lymphocytic thyroiditis is responsible for primary hypothyroidism in dogs. Thyroid carcinoma occurs in about 1-3% of cases. Goiter is defined as an enlargement of the thyroid gland, and can be secondary to adenomatous hyperplasia, adenoma, or carcinoma.

Which of the following cells is the primary target for porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS) virus infection? Type II pneumocytes Alveolar macrophages Ciliary epithelium Type I pneumocytes

The correct answer is alveolar macrophages. PRRS virus has a high affinity for macrophages especially those in the lung. This is part of the reason the porcine immune system is compromised when infected with PRRS making them more susceptible to other pathogens.

Which of these is considered a hepatic leakage enzyme in the dog? Aspartate aminotransferase Bile acids Alkaline phosphatase Bilirubin

The correct answer is aspartate aminotransferase (AST). The hepatic leakage enzymes are AST and ALT, meaning that damage to hepatocytes causes leakage of these enzymes and subsequent elevations of serum levels. ALP and GGT are hepatic enzymes induced by cholestasis. Bilirubin is a breakdown product of hemoglobin and is processed by the liver. Bile acids are products of the liver but are not enzymes.

Albuterol is a drug commonly used in the treatment of cough in cats. What is its mechanism of action? Phosphodiesterase inhibition Beta antagonist Alpha agonist Alpha antagonist Beta agonis

The correct answer is beta agonist. The predominant action of albuterol is as a Beta-2-agonist or sympathomimetic. This results in relaxation of bronchial, uterine, and vascular smooth muscle. If you picked phosphodiesterase inhibitor, you may have been thinking of aminophylline, which is another drug sometimes used in the treatment of cough.

Where do nephrosplenic entrapments occur in the horse? Between the spleen and the right body wall Between the cecum and the left kidney Between the spleen and the left kidney Between the cecum and the right kidney

The correct answer is between the spleen and left kidney. The nephrosplenic ligament runs from the left kidney to the spleen, and a neprhosplenic entrapment occurs when a portion of the large colon is looped over the spleen, becoming trapped between the spleen and the left kidney".

Which of these is the best measure of liver function in the dog from a routine chemistry panel? Creatinine Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

The correct answer is blood urea nitrogen (BUN). ALT and ALP are liver enzymes and can indicate ongoing damage to the liver or cholestasis but do not tell you anything about liver function. Creatinine is produced by muscle and cleared by the kidney so it tells you nothing about liver function. Urea is produced by the liver and is one measure of liver function; it will be low in cases of liver failure. Other tests of liver function on a routine chemistry panel are cholesterol, glucose, bilirubin, and albumin. Bile acids also test liver function but are not on a routine chemistry panel. It is important to realize that in cases of end-stage liver failure, the liver function parameters will be affected, while frequently, liver enzymes will be normal.

Changes in the diets of cats to prevent struvite urolithiasis have resulted in an increased prevalence of what disease? Urinary tract infections Cysteine urolithiasis Calcium oxalate urolithiasis Urate urolithiasis

The correct answer is calcium oxalate urolithiasis. Struvites are soluble at low pH. Acidifying diets have resulted in an increased prevalence of calcium oxalate urolithiasis.

Which of the following is approved for use in food animals in the USA? Clenbuterol Ceftiofur Chloramphenicol Dimetridazole

The correct answer is ceftiofur, which is a third generation cephalosporin approved for treating acute respiratory disease in cattle. Extra label use is now prohibited. Many of you may know this drug as Naxcel. All others listed are illegal for use in food animals in the USA.

A 4 year old Doberman Pinscher presents for slowly progressive ataxia and paresis of all four limbs. The owners note that the ataxia is sporadic. On physical exam, the dog has hyperreflexive spinal reflexes in all four limbs, delayed conscious proprioception in all four limbs, and neck pain on ventroflexion. What is the most likely diagnosis? Canine degenerative myelopathy Hansen's Type 2 degenerative disc disease between C1-C5 Cervical spondylopathy Vertebral fracture between C1-C5

The correct answer is cervical spondylopathy. The signalment and clinical signs are most helpful in answering this question. Doberman Pinschers, Great Danes, and Thoroughbred horses are predisposed to cervical spondylopathy, which is a cervical vertebra malformation that causes cervical myelopathy in dogs and horses. The malformation is usually stenosis or wedging of the vertebral canal, vertebral malalignment, or vertebral instability. This disease usually manifests as ataxia and paresis of all four limbs and UMN signs of all four limbs.

What is the treatment of choice for toxoplasmosis in a cat? Gentamicin Clindamycin Doxycycline Ampicillin

The correct answer is clindamycin. A combination of sulphonamides and pyrimethamine may work but you need to watch out for myelosuppression.

In adult horses, tetanus usually occurs from ______________? Ingestion of preformed tetanus toxin Ingestion of clostridial spores Preformed tetanus toxin entering a puncture wound Inhalation of clostridial spores Clostridial spores entering a deep puncture wound

The correct answer is clostridial spores entering a deep puncture wound. The spore is found in the soil and in feces and requires entry through a deep wound to find an anaerobic environment. They then form their toxin and release it, where it is picked up by nerves and travels to the spinal cord.

A 3 month old Arabian colt is presented for 3 episodes of pneumonia; the first episode of pneumonia was observed at 7 weeks of age. Each episode of pneumonia is responsive to oral antimicrobials, but when these are discontinued, evidence of respiratory disease occurs several days later. A complete blood count reveals that the foal is persistently lymphopenic. What condition should you suspect? Viral pneumonia Combined immunodeficiency IgM Deficiency Leukocyte adhesion disorder

The correct answer is combined immunodeficiency. Any Arabian foal with persistent infection should be suspected of having this heritable immunodeficiency of B and T lymphocytes. Typically, foals with CID do not demonstrate evidence of repeated infection until maternal antibodies begin to wane. There is no treatment for this disease.

A necropsy of an aborted bovine fetus shows enlarged lymph nodes and spleen, destructive lesions to the thymus, and evidence of chronic granulomatous infection. What is the most likely cause of this abortion? Tritrichomonas foetus Epizootic bovine abortion Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis Brucellosis

The correct answer is epizootic bovine abortion (EBA), also called foothill abortion. This is an important disease of heifers and newly introduced cows in California foothills. The lesions are consistent with this diagnosis. The etiologic agent of EBA has yet to be identified, however we know that the vector is a tick, Ornithodoros coriaceus. T. foetus is involved with early embryonic death. Brucellosis abortions are pretty rare since it has virtually been eradicated from the U.S., but lesions include autolysis, placentitis, and bronchopneumonia. IBR causes rapid fetal death, therefore there is essentially no time for fetal response, so you are likely to see autolysis and focal necrosis of the organs.

A 2-year old Holstein heifer presents for depression and decreased milk production over the previous week. On physical exam, it is noted her posterior shape is "papple" and she is slightly dehydrated. T=100.2 (37.9 C), P=62, R=28. She does not have episcleral injection. Rumen contractions are not present. Xiphoid pain response is negative and you are able to hear a monotone ping in the rumen on the left side from the 11th rib to the hip. On ballottement and rectal exam a large fluid-filled rumen is palpable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Failure of omasal transport Left displaced abomasum (LDA) Grain overload (rumen acidosis) Abomasal torsion or volvulus

The correct answer is failure of omasal transport, a form of vagal indigestion, which leads to an accumulation of fluid and some dorsal gas in the rumen, lack of motility, and inappetance. TRP is a common cause of vagal indigestion; the negative grunt test for xiphoid pain is the result of chronicity and formed adhesions that are no longer acutely painful. It is difficult to clinically distinguish between omasal transport failure and pyloric outflow failure, except that the latter usually has more profound acid-base and electrolyte disturbances, and the cow will appear sicker as a result. Abomasal torsion can be immediately ruled out because there is no abomasal ping on the right. In addition, if it were a right displaced abomasum, the cow would be showing more signs of distress and systemic disease such as episcleral injection and an elevated heart rate. Left displaced abomasum can be ruled out because the ping is monotone (LDA ping is variable in pitch) and the ping extends all the way back to the hip. Further, the large fluid filled rumen is rectally palpable, whereas a cow with LDA would have an empty rumen. Grain overload (rumen acidosis) would have a large fluid filled rumen, but the cow would be very sick with scleral injection and rapid heart rate.

Which of these is considered a hepatic enzyme induced by cholestasis in the dog? Bilirubin Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) Creatinine

The correct answer is gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT). The hepatic leakage enzymes are AST and ALT, meaning that damage to hepatocytes causes leakage of these enzymes and subsequent elevations of serum levels. ALP and GGT are hepatic enzymes produced by the bile duct epithelium that have increased synthesis when there is cholestasis. Bilirubin is a product of the liver and is not an enzyme. Creatinine is a product produced by muscle, usually used to evaluate renal function and GFR.

In treating a dehydrated 24-year old stallion Paint horse with renal disease, which antibiotic would be the most contraindicated? Ampicillin Amikacin Fluconazole Gentamicin

The correct answer is gentamicin. Of the potential choices, this aminoglycoside is known to be the one most likely to cause nephrotoxicity. Patients on this antibiotic should have their renal values carefully monitored (BUN, creatinine, etc.) and make sure they are well hydrated.

What is the ideal incision site for a foreign body gastrotomy? Just proximal to the pylorus Along the greater curvature Halfway between the greater and lesser curvature of the stomach There is no preferred site Along the lesser curvature

The correct answer is halfway between the greater and lesser curvature. At this site, you avoid any major bleeding and retain good blood supply from both sides to help with the healing of your incision. Cutting along the greater and lesser curvature is not recommended due to the need to avoid blood vessels. Cutting along the pylorus has a risk of disturbing the sphincter and causing the formation of a pyloric stricture. Additionally, this does not provide a good view inside the stomach.

A horse presents to you in respiratory distress. You perform blood gas analysis and get the following results: PaCO2- 60 mmHg, PaO2- 75 mmHg, pH 7.255, Base excess= -1.8. How would you describe this horse's status? Hyperventilation, respiratory acidosis Hypoventilation, respiratory alkalosis Hypoventilation, respiratory acidosis Hyperventilation, respiratory alkalosis

The correct answer is hypoventilation, respiratory acidosis. Hypoventilation is defined by the PaCO2. Normal is about 40 (35-45). This horse has an elevated PaCO2 indicating he is under-ventilating and not blowing off sufficient CO2. This increase in CO2 causes a respiratory acidosis because CO2 is an acid that interacts with carbonic anhydrase to form carbonic acid. This is why the horse's pH is low (normal pH is about 7.4). The relatively normal base excess indicates there is minimal metabolic component to this horse's acidosis.

How soon after administration of tetanus antitoxin in a horse is there protection against tetanus? 6 Months Immediately 14 Days 7 Days 28 Days

The correct answer is immediately. Administration of 1500 IU results in immediate protection that will last for approximately 2-3 weeks. Administration of tetanus toxoid will provide protective titers 14 days after the second dose, when given 3-6 weeks apart.

You are examining a 12-year old spayed female Border Collie. You note that her pupillary light reflex is slow and incomplete. Her menace and palpebral responses are normal. You see that the iris-pupil margin is somewhat irregular. Fundic exam is shown in the image. What is the most likely cause of the slow PLR? Both eyes are similarly affected. Uveal neoplasia Cranial nerve III deficits Progressive retinal atrophy Iris atrophy

The correct answer is iris atrophy. This is a normal canine fundus in the picture. Iris atrophy is a normal aging change seen in almost all dogs over 10 years old. It leads to scalloping of the iris margin and sometimes a moth-eaten stroma. It can cause absent or incomplete PLRs, dyscoria, or anisocoria. Progressive retinal atrophy is less likely, especially with a normal fundic exam. It would be weird to have bilateral CN III deficits. This is not how uveal neoplasia usually manifests.

What is the first line of treatment for ventricular tachycardia in cattle? Propranolol Quinidine Lidocaine Diltiazem

The correct answer is lidocaine. If there is no response with lidocaine then propranolol and quinidine may be used.

Meibomian glands produce which portion of the tear film? Immunoglobulins Mucous Lipid Aqueous

The correct answer is lipid. There are three layers of the tear film. The mucous portion lies against the cornea and keeps the tear film adhered to it. This is made by conjunctival goblet cells. The aqueous portion has nutritional and immunologic factors and is in the middle. It is produced by the lacrimal gland and the gland of the 3rd eyelid. The lipid portion of the tear film is the most outer part, and it allows for even spreading and prevents evaporation of tears. It is produced by the meibomian glands.

A 3-year old Miniature Poodle presents for an acute, painful swelling on the left ventral neck. You perform a fine needle aspirate and draw back a stringy, blood-tinged fluid with few cells. What is the most likely diagnosis? Mast cell tumor Mucocele Abscess Reactive lymph node

The correct answer is mucocele. 2-4 year old poodles are the classic signalment for this condition. The usual presentation is a mass that may be painful and may produce saliva on aspiration. An abscess, mast cell tumor, or reactive lymph node would all be more cellular.

Which of the following is not believed to be a cause of physitis in young horses? Conformational defects Growth plate compression Malnutrition Abnormal hoof growth Osteochondrosis

The correct answer is osteochondrosis. Physitis in young horses involves swelling around growth plates in long bones. Physitis is sometimes thought to be a component of osteochondrosis, but the other answer choices have been suggested to be causes of physitis.

In the treatment of an aural hematoma in a dog what is the best way to close the dead space created after drainage? Placement of mattress sutures at a 60 degree angle from blood vessels Placement of mattress sutures parallel to blood vessels Placement of mattress sutures at a 45 degree angle from blood vessels Placement of mattress sutures perpendicular to blood vessels

The correct answer is placement of mattress sutures parallel to blood vessels. This minimizes the possibility of occluding blood vessels.

A herd of pigs is presented for a sudden onset of respiratory distress with open mouthed breathing and frothy, pink, oral and nasal discharge. The pigs are lethargic, anorexic, and have a temperature of 106.0F (41.1 C). Pigs less than 6 months of age are mainly affected, but a few adults are showing clinical signs as well. What is the most likely diagnosis? Swine influenza Pleuropneumonia Mycoplasma pneumonia Atrophic rhinitis

The correct answer is pleuropneumonia. Pleuropneumonia in pigs is caused by Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae, a gram negative coccobacillus. The clinical signs described in the question are typical of pleuropneumonia. The disease has a rapid onset and primarily affects young pigs. The pneumonia is characterized by fibrinonecrotic and hemorrhagic lung lesions. Concurrent infections with Mycoplasma, Pasteurella, porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome virus, or swine influenza virus are common. Atrophic rhinitis is characterized by sneezing, coughing, lacrimation, and occurs most commonly in pigs 3-8 weeks of age. Mycoplasma pneumonia or enzootic pneumonia is characterized by a persistent dry cough. Swine influenza can be differentiated from pleuropneumonia because swine influenza affects pigs of all ages in the herd and does not result in discharge of blood-tinged oral and nasal froth.

When treating a foal with uroperitoneum, which of these fluids or fluid additives would be least appropriate? Bicarbonate Potassium Insulin Dextrose Saline

The correct answer is potassium. Animals with uroperitoneum are usually hyperkalemic and additional potassium in intravenous fluids would be contraindicated.

You are examining a dog for lameness and on radiographs; you find hypertrophic osteopathy of the metacarpal bones. What is the likely cause of this lesion? Bone tumor Vitamin D deficiency Trauma Ca deficiency Pulmonary neoplasia

The correct answer is pulmonary neoplasia. Hypertrophic osteopathy is visible as periosteal proliferation in the diaphyses of affected bones. Usually the metacarpal and metatarsal bones are affected first, and it may progress to the long bones. Lameness, pain, and swelling are usually evident. Joints are unaffected. The cause is usually primary or metastatic pulmonary neoplasia, although other diseases in the thorax including bronchopneumonia, Spirocerca infection, or congestive heart failure, may also be associated. Less commonly, abdominal neoplasia may be seen with this condition.

Which of these is a correct description of how lactulose works in the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy? It kills ammonia producing bacteria in the colon. It slows down the passage of food, leading to more gradual uptake of ammonia. It causes decreased colonic pH, preventing ammonia absorption. It acts centrally to decrease the neuromodulatory effects of ammonia.

The correct answer is that it decreases colonic pH preventing absorption of ammonia. Lactulose is an easily fermented carbohydrate that is metabolized to an acid in the gut. This lowers colonic pH, which keeps ammonia in its ionized form, NH4+, rather than as NH3. The ionized form is not absorbed and is excreted. Lactulose also acts through a number of other mechanisms. It is a cathartic and causes decreased intestinal transit time, leading to decreased absorption of ammonia. It also prevents ammonia formation through a process known as catabolite repression. Finally, it is a carbohydrate source which can be used by colonic flora as an alternative to protein, preventing ammonia formation.

You check blood gases on a cat in the intensive care unit with renal disease. They read as: PaCO2= 28 (28-34 mmHg) pH= 7.23 (7.25-7.4) PaO2=100 (90-100 mmHg) Base excess= -8 (-5 to +2 mmol/L) HCO3 = 12 (16-20 mmol/L) What can you conclude? The cat has primary metabolic alkalosis with compensatory respiratory acidosis The cat has a mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis The cat has primary respiratory acidosis with compensatory metabolic alkalosis The cat has primary metabolic acidosis with compensatory respiratory alkalosis The cat has primary respiratory alkalosis with compensatory metabolic acidosis

The correct answer is that the cat has primary metabolic acidosis with compensatory respiratory alkalosis. The low pH tells you the cat is acidemic so the primary disorder must be an acidosis because compensatory mechanisms will never overshoot the primary abnormality. In this case, the negative base excess or low HCO3 tells us there is a metabolic acidosis (renal disease can cause this). The low PaCO2 tells us there is a respiratory alkalosis or hyperventilation. The primary abnormality must be the metabolic acidosis. The respiratory alkalosis can then be interpreted as compensatory.

When administering xylazine to a horse with acute colic, which of the following answers is not true? The drug can inhibit intestinal motility, a factor that should be considered when giving repeated doses to a horse with colic The drug can transiently decrease cardiac output and can potentially cause collapse in a horse with acute colic and significant hypovolemia The drug can result in incoordination and muscle weakness at higher doses in horses The drug causes peripheral vasoconstriction which can result in laminitis in some horses with acute colic The drug is a potent analgesic and can dampen signs of abdominal pain in horses with acute colic

The correct answer is that xylazine causes peripheral vasoconstriction and laminitis. Xylazine does have a number of side effects, but laminitis is not one of them. At higher doses it can cause a horse to be incoordinated and also decreases motility of the intestinal tract. Decreasing intestinal motility is a concern in a horse with some forms of colic, such as a pelvic flexure impaction. Xylazine also does decrease cardiac output and is a good analgesic.

Ivermectin is used to treat Onchocerca microfilariae. What is used to treat the adult helminths? Organophosphates There is no effective treatment against the adults Fenbendazole Piperazine Ivermectin

The correct answer is there is no effective treatment against the adults. Treatment with ivermectin is only effective against the microfilariae of Onchocerca. Other drugs are ineffective against the adult helminths.

Why are horses more predisposed to gastric ulceration as compared to other species? They constantly secrete gastric fluid They are easily stressed They are hind gut fermentors They have an underdeveloped gastric wall They are predisposed to gastric reflux disease

The correct answer is they constantly secrete gastric fluid. This is unique to equids, as many other species only secrete gastric fluids in response to consumption of food items.

You arrive at a ranch that has had a die-off of 12 beef cows. You walk out and notice that they do not display rigor mortis. You also note that they have fresh, non-coagulated blood coming out of their nose and mouth. The owner wants to know if he can use the meat. What will you do next? Obtain some vitreous humor for analysis Obtain a liver biopsy for analysis Perform a necropsy on site on one of the animals to determine if it is safe for the owner to use the meat Obtain a biopsy of the spleen for analysis Tell the owner that he may use the meat as long as he cooks it thoroughly

The correct answer is to obtain vitreous humor for analysis. The clinical signs are those of anthrax. The last thing you want to do is open up the body and expose the organism to oxygen. If you do, the anthrax will sporulate and be extremely resistant in the environment and now you will have contaminated the area. Therefore, you should not do anything to the body that will involve cutting into it such as biopsies or using it for meat. The next step is to submit vitreous humor or blood from an ear scrape to confirm your tentative diagnosis. You will also need to report this to state authorities.

A horse presents to you with a corneal ulcer. You are concerned because it appears to be infected. You perform cytology and find gram negative rods. What is the most appropriate treatment for this infection? Topical tobramycin Systemic penicillin Topical cefazolin Topical natamycin

The correct answer is topical tobramycin. Tobramycin is an aminoglycoside and would be effective against most gram negative organisms, including Pseudomonas, which are the most common cause of bacterial keratitis. Cefazolin would be useful topically for a gram + infection. Systemic antibiotics would not penetrate to the site at levels that would be effective. Natamycin is an antifungal drug and would not be useful in this case of bacterial keratitis.

A 7 month old male Labrador Retriever presents for lethargy, a distended abdomen, and exercise intolerance. Your physical exam reveals a 4/6 systolic murmur heard best at the right mid thorax. Thoracic radiographs show severe cardiomegaly with marked right atrial enlargement and right ventricular enlargement. The caudal vena cava is enlarged, and part of the abdomen in the film shows loss of serosal detail and hepatomegaly. What is your most likely diagnosis? Hepatocellular carcinoma Hemangiosarcoma Tricuspid dysplasia Pulmonic stenosis

The correct answer is tricuspid dysplasia. Tricuspid dysplasia is similar to mitral valve dysplasia in the irregular valve leaflets, chordae tendinae, or papillary muscles of the valve. Labrador Retrievers, German Shepherd Dogs, and other large breed males are predisposed to the disease. Signs of right heart failure, such as ascites and hepatomegaly occur in advanced disease. The prognosis for these animals is guarded to poor depending on the severity of the regurgitation. Pulmonic stenosis causes a pressure overload of the right heart and causes concentric hypertrophy, which may or may not be detectable by radiography. The murmur with PS is heard better at the left heart base. Hemangiosarcoma and hepatocellular carcinoma are less likely in a 7 month old puppy.

Which of the following can be caused by the aberrant migration of microfilaria in horses with Onchocerciasis? Laminitis Otitis externa Uveitis Diarrhea Vomiting

The correct answer is uveitis. Onchocerciasis in horses is caused by Onchocerca cervicalis. The helminth is vectored by Culicoides. The adults live in the ligamentum nuchae and the microfilariae migrate down to the ventrum. Aberrant migration to the eye, causing uveitis, is not uncommon.

A cockatiel owner is concerned about her bird developing a vitamin deficiency. Which vitamin deficiency in birds is associated with blunted choanal papillae and poor feather quality? Vitamin A Vitamin C Vitamin D Vitamin B12

The correct answer is vitamin A. Clinical signs also consist of gastrointestinal malabsorption and sinusitis or rhinitis. Treatment is based on proper nutrition.

You are called to examine a 7 month old colt that reared up and subsequently flipped over backwards and hit his head on the cement drive this morning while being put out to pasture. Based on the neurologic deficits observed in the image, you suspect trauma to what structure? Fracture to the basilar bones (basisphenoid/basioccipital) Fracture to the hyoid bone Fracture to the frontal bone Fracture to the occipital bone

The image demonstrates a left head tilt, dropping of the left ear and deviation of the muzzle to the right. These clinical signs are suggestive of cranial nerve VII and VIII injury, which are located in close proximity to the basilar bones. The most likely fracture resulting in these lesions is fracture of the basilar bones, a common form of traumatic nerve injury in the foal.

A 10-year old feline domestic shorthair presents for symmetrical truncal alopecia. On physical examination you note that the alopecia appears non-inflammatory. Skin cytology reveals no infectious organisms or inflammatory cells. You further inquire about how the cat has been doing at home. The owner explains that the cat is extremely active and is eating more but seems to be losing weight. You are highly suspicious of an endocrine disease. What is the best diagnostic and treatment plan based on the most likely differential? ACTH stimulation test and initiate treatment with trilostane Thyroid panel and supplementation with liothyronine every 8 hours Thyroid panel and supplementation with levothyroxine every 24 hours Thyroid panel and change to a low iodine diet ACTH stimulation test and initiate treatment with mitotane

Thyroid panel and change to a low iodine diet Based on the history and physical examination findings this patient most likely has hyperthyroidism. Hyperthyroidism is the most common endocrinopathy of cats. Patients with hyperthyroidism exhibit signs of an accelerated basal metabolic rate including hyperactivity, polyphagia, and tachycardia. Some cats will experience polydipsia, polyuria, and gastrointestinal signs (diarrhea, vomiting). The cutaneous signs that this cat is demonstrating are non-specific but are suggestive of an endocrinopathy. There are multiple treatments for hyperthyroidism including surgical thyroid excision, radioactive iodine treatment, anti-thyroid drugs (methimazole), and low iodine prescription diets. Levothyroxine (T4) and liothyronine (T3) are treatments for hypothyroidism. Cats seldom experience hypothyroidism; if they do, it is usually congenital in onset. An ACTH stimulation test is used to support a diagnosis of hypercortisolism. Feline hypercortisolism is a rare disease. Cats with hypercortisolism usually present due to unregulated diabetes mellitus. They present with polyuria, polydipsia, fragile skin, alopecia, and weight loss. They are usually not hyperactive.

A 14 year-old indoor/outdoor female spayed domestic short hair presents to your clinic with weight loss and lethargy. On physical examination the cat is cachexic with an unkempt coat. No other abnormalities are noted on exam. You perform a complete blood count, biochemistry profile, urinalysis and total T4. The only significant abnormality on the laboratory work is 2+ protein in the urine. What is your next diagnostic step? Fecal test Urine culture and sensitivity Renal biopsy Chest radiographs and abdominal ultrasound Urine protein: creatinine ratio and Retroviral test

Urine protein: creatinine ratio and Retroviral test This cat likely has protein-losing nephropathy (PLN). PLN is less common in cats than in dogs but does occur, especially in conjunction with Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV) infections. With a quiet urine sediment and elevated protein level your next step should be a urine protein:creatinine ratio (UPC) to determine if the proteinuria is real. With any sick indoor/outdoor cat a retroviral test to determine FeLV/FIV status is indicated. Other causes of PLN include glomerulonephritis, amyloidosis, and inflammatory conditions such as pyelonephritis. None of the other diagnostic options are wrong, but you would first want to confirm the proteinuria before pursuing a work-up for that specific finding.