OB Ch. 6, 9, 10, 11
In a addition to Chloasma, Linea nigra, and striae gravidarum - what is another possible sign of pregnancy that deals with the integumentary system?
Woman may also have itching and scratches ok the palms of hands due to increased estrogen
What measures can a pregnant woman take to relieve back pain?
Doing pelvic rock and to use proper body mechanics
GTPAL
Gravida Term Preterm Abortions Living
Gynecoid pelvis
"Female" pelvis has an inlet that is well rounded forward and backward and has a wide pubic arch. This pelvic type is ideal for childbirth.
Conception is a "blank" process:
"Sequential" Gamete formation, ovulation, fertilization, and implantation
Primagravida
A woman in her first pregnancy
Grand multigravida
A woman who has been pregnant many times
Multipara
A woman who has carried two or more pregnancies to viability
Multigravida
A woman who has had two or more pregnancies
Nullgravida
A woman who has never been and is not currently pregnant
Mrs. Smith asks the nurse to compute her expected due date. Based on the fact that her last menstrual period began on July 20, which due date with the nurse estimate? A. April 27 B. March 13 C. April 13 D. May 20
A.
When a woman is using a vaginal spermicide, which of the following actions should she be performing? A. Insert the product by applicator no more than 1 hour prior to coitus B. Use a douche within 6 hours after coitus C. Keep a feminine hygiene product available to use in case her supply of spermicide runs out D. Place the product near the vaginal orifice instead of further back for immediate contact with sperm
A.
Which of the following tasks is the most important task during the first trimester of pregnancy? A. Accepting the pregnancy B. Accepting a coming child C. Making plans for the baby D. Spending time with a significant other
A.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in preterm labor and is scheduled to undergo an amniocentesis. The nurse should evaluate which of the following tests to assess fetal lung maturity? A. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) B. Lecithin/ sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio C. Kleihauer-Bette test D. Indirect Coombs' test
A. AFP is a test to assess for fetal neural tube defect's or chromosome disorders. B. CORRECT: A test of the L/S ratio is done as a part of an amniocentesis to determine fetal lung maturity C. A kleihauer-bater test is used to verify that fetal blood is present during a percutaneous umbilical blood sampling procedure. D. And indirect Coombs' test detects Rh antibodies in the mothers blood.
Which of the following tasks is the most important task of the first trimester of pregnancy? A. Accepting the pregnancy B. Accepting a coming child C. Masking plans for the baby D. Sharing time with a significant other
A. Accepting the pregnancy Rationale: before a fetus moves, adjusting to pregnancy is a primary task; later, adjusting to having a baby becomes the primary task.
The nurse and an obstetrical clinic is teaching to client about using an IUD for contraception. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. An IUD should be replaced annually during a pelvic exam. B. I cannot get an IUD until after I've had a child. C. I should expect intermittent abdominal pain while the IUD is in place. D. A change in the string length of my IUD is expected.
A. An IUD will be replaced every 3 to 5 years depending upon the type of IUD used. B. Clients do not have to have given birth prior to the insertion of an IUD. C. Abdominal pain with an IUD can indicate a potential complication and should be reported to the provider. D. CORRECT: A change in the length of the string of an IUD can indicate expulsion and should be reported to the provider.
A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is pregnant and experiencing episodes of maternal hypotension. The client asks the nurse what causes these episodes. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? A. This is due to an increase in blood volume B. This is due to pressure from the uterus on the diaphragm C. This is due to the weight of the uterus on the vena cava D. This is due to the increased cardiac output
A. An increase in blood volume during pregnancy results in cardiac hypertrophy B. Pressure from the gravid uterus on the diaphragm might cause the client to experience shortness of breath C. CORRECT: maternal hypotension occurs when the client is lying in the supine position in the weight of the gravid uterus places pressure on the vena cava, decreasing venous blood flow to the heart D. An increase in cardiac output during pregnancy results in cardiac hypertrophy
Mrs. Smith asks the nurse to compute her expected due date. Based on the fact that her last menstrual flow began on July 20, which due date would the nurse estimate? A. April 27 B. March 13 C. April 13 D. May 20
A. April 27 Rationale: Naegele's rule is to count backward three months and add seven days from the first day of the last menstrual period to determine an expected due date.
A nurse is teaching a client who is pregnant about the amniocentesis procedure. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? A. You will lay on your right side during the procedure. B. You should not eat anything 24 hours prior to the procedure. C. You should empty your bladder prior to the procedure. D. The test is done to determine gestational age.
A. Assist the client into a supine position, place a wedge under her right hip to displace the uterus of the vena cava, and place a drape over the client, exposing only her abdomen. B. The client does not need to be NPO for 24 hours before the procedure. C. CORRECT: The clients bladder should be empty to avoid an inadvertent puncture during the procedure. D. Amniotic fluid is tested to identify fetal genetic defects. An amniocentesis does not determine gestational age.
A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and states that her last menstrual period was April 1. Which of the following is the clients estimated due date of delivery? A. January 8 B. January 15 C. February 8 D. February 15
A. CORRECT: April 1 -3 months +7 days and one year equals an estimated date of delivery of January 8 - Nagele's rule
A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is in the first trimester of pregnancy. The clients health record includes this data: G3 T1 P0 A1 L1. How should the nurse interpret this information? (Select all that apply.) A. Client has delivered one newborn at term B. Client has experienced no preterm labor. C. Client has been through active labor D. Client has had two prior pregnancies E. Client has one living child
A. CORRECT: T1 indicates the client has delivered one new born at term B. P0 indicates the client has had no preterm deliveries C. A1 indicates the client has had one miscarriage D. CORRECT: G3 indicates the client has had two prior pregnancies and the client is currently pregnant E. CORRECT: L1 indicates the client has one living child
Nurse is teaching a client who is at six weeks of gestation about coming to circumference of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply) A. Breast tenderness B. Urinary frequency C. Epistaxis D. Dysuria E. Epigastric pain
A. CORRECT: breast tenderness is a common discomfort occurring during the first trimester of pregnancy B. CORRECT: urinary frequency is a common discomfort occurring during the first trimester of pregnancy C. CORRECT: Epistaxes is a common discomfort occurring during the first trimester of pregnancy D. Dysuria is a complication that might occur during pregnancy. The nurse should instruct the client to report this finding to the provider E. Epigastic pain is a clinical finding a pregnancy induced hypertension. The nurse should instruct the client to report this finding to the provider
A nurse in a health clinic is reviewing contraceptive use with a group of adolescent clients. Which of the following statements by an adolescent reflects an understanding of teaching? A. A water-soluble lubricant should be used with condoms. B. A diaphragm should be removed two hours after intercourse. C. Oral contraceptives can worsen a case of acne. D. A contraceptive patch is replaced once a month.
A. CORRECT: condoms are used with water soluble lubricants. B. The diaphragm should be removed no sooner than six hours and no later than 24 hours after intercourse. C. Acne is reduced when taking oral contraceptives. D. Contraceptive patch is a replaced once a week.
In nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and is to undergo a contraction stress test (CST). Which of the following findings are indications for this procedure? (Select all that apply.) A. Decreased fetal movement B. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) C. Postmaturity D. Placenta previa E. Amniotic fluid emboli
A. CORRECT: decreased fetal movement is an indication for a CST. B. CORRECT: IUGR is an indication for a CST. C. CORRECT: postmaturity is an indication for a CST. D. Placenta Pravia is a contraindication of a CST. E. Amniotic fluid emboli are a complication of an amniocentesis.
A client who is at seven weeks of gestation is experiencing nausea and vomiting in the morning. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Eat crackers or plain toast before getting out of bed B. We can during the night to eat a snack C. Skip breakfast and eat lunch after nausea has subsided D. Eat a large evening meal
A. CORRECT: nausea and vomiting during the first trimester might be relieved by eating crackers or plain toast 30 to 60 minutes prior to rising in the morning B. Eating during the night can cause heartburn and does not relieve nausea and vomiting during the first trimester C. Instruct the client to avoid an empty stomach for prolonged periods to reduce nausea and vomiting D. Eating a large meal in the evening and cause heartburn and does not relieve morning nausea and vomiting
The nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant in reviewing signs of complications the client to ship promptly report to the provider. Which of the following complications should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Vaginal bleeding B. Swelling of the ankles C. Heartburn after eating D. Lightheadedness when lying on back
A. CORRECT: vaginal bleeding indicates a potential complication of the placenta such as placenta previa. the nurse should instruct the client to notify the provider immediately B. Swelling of the ankles is a common occurrence during pregnancy and can be relieved by sitting with the legs elevated C. Heartburn occurs during pregnancy due to pressure on the stomach by the enlarging uterus. It can be relieved by eating small meals D. Supine hypotension can be experienced by the client who feels lightheaded or faint when lying on her back. The nurse should instruct the client about the side lying position to remove pressure from the uterus on the vena cava
A nurse is reviewing findings of a clients biophysical profile (BPP). The nurse should expect which of the following variables to be included in the test? (Select all that apply) A. Fetal weight B. Fetal breathing movement C. Fetal tone D. Fetal position E. Amniotic fluid volume
A. Fetal weight is not one of the variables included in the BPP. B. CORRECT: fetal breathing movements are included in the BPP. C. CORRECT: fetal tone is included in the BPP. D. Fetal position is not included in the BPP. E. CORRECT: amniotic fluid volume is included in the BPP.
A woman during her first trimester questions how much longer she will have urinary frequency. Which should the nurse advice for regarding urinary frequency? A. It is a common complaint during the first trimester and again later in the third trimester. B. It is a common concern reported during the entire pregnancy. C. It will subside after the first trimester. D. It is a concern until the last trimester of pregnancy.
A. It is a common complaint during the first trimester and again later in the third trimester. Rationale: the weight of the growing uterus causes urinary frequency during the first trimester. After lightning occurs in the last trimester, urinary frequency reoccurs
A nurse is teaching a group of women who are pregnant about measures to relieve back ache during pregnancy. Which of the following measures should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) A. Avoid any lifting B. Perform Keagle exercises twice a day C. Perform pelvic rock exercise every day D. Use proper body mechanics E. Avoid constrictive clothing
A. Lifting may be done by using the legs rather than the back B. Keagle exercises are done to strengthen the perineal muscles and do not relieve backache C. CORRECT: The pelvic rock or tilt exercise stretches the muscles of the lower back and helps relieve lower back pain D. CORRECT: The use of proper body mechanics prevents back injury due to the incorrect use of muscles when lifting E. Avoiding constrictive clothing helps prevent urinary tract infections, vaginal infections, varicosities, and edema of the lower extremities
A nurse is reviewing the health record of a client who is pregnant. The provider indicated the client exhibits probable signs of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) A. Montgomery's glands B. Goodell's sign C. Ballotement D. Chadwick's sign E. Quickening
A. Montgomery's glands are a presumptive sign of pregnancy B. CORRECT: Goodell's sign is a probable sign of pregnancy C. CORRECT: Ballottment is a probable sign of pregnancy D. CORRECT: Chadwick's sign is a probable sign of pregnancy E. Quickening is a presumptive sign of pregnancy
The nurse is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about danger signs to report to her provider. The nurse determines the client understands the teaching when the client states the need to report which of the following? A. Reduced menstrual flow B. Breast tenderness C. Shortness of breath D. Headaches
A. Reduce menstrual flow is a common adverse effect of oral contraceptives and usually subsides after a few months of use. B. Breast tenderness is a common adverse effect of oral contraceptives and usually subsides after a few months of use. C. CORRECT: shortness of breath can indicate a pulmonary embolus or a myocardial infarction and should be reported to the provider immediately. D. Headaches are common adverse affects of oral contraceptives and usually subside after a few months of use.
Liz asks you why her nurse midwife is concerned whether her fetus his lungs are producing surfactant. Your best answer would be: A. Surfactant keeps lungs from collapsing at birth so it aids newborn breathing B. Surfactant is produced by the fetal liver so it's presence reveals liver maturity C. Surfactant is necessary for antibody production so it helps prevent infections D. Surfactant reveals mature kidney function as it is important for fetal growth
A. Surfactant, produced by the lining of the alveoli, keep lung alveoli from collapsing on expiration, aiding alveoli expansion of birth.
A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and undergoing a nonstress test. The client asks why the nurse is using an acoustic vibration device. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? A. It is used to stimulate uterine contractions. B. It will decrease the incidence of uterine contractions. C. It lullsthe fetus to sleep. D. It awakens a sleeping fetus.
A. The acoustic vibration does not stimulate the uterus B. The acoustic vibration has no effect on uterineon the uterine muscles C. The acoustic vibration stimulates a sleeping fetus D. CORRECT: The acoustic vibration device is activated for three seconds on the maternal abdomen over the fetal head to awaken a sleeping fetus.
A nurse in the clinic received a phone call from a client who believes she is pregnant and would like to be tested in the clinic to confirm her pregnancy. Which of the following information should the nurse provide to the client? A. You should wait until four weeks after conception to be tested B. You should be off any medications for 24 hours prior to the test C. You should be NPO for at least eight hours prior to the test D. You should collect urine from the first morning void
A. The production of hCG can be detected as early as 7 to 8 days after conception B. The nurse should not advise the client to stop taking medications in preparation for pregnancy tests. The nurse should review the clients medications to determine whether they can affect the results C. The nurse should not advise the client to remain NPO prior to the pregnancy test. Serum or blood tests are not affected by food or fluid intake D. CORRECT: urine pregnancy test should be done on a first voided morning specimen to provide the most accurate results
A client who is at eight weeks of gestation tells the nurse that she isn't sure she is happy about being pregnant. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? A. I will inform the provider that you were having these feelings B. It is normal to have these feelings during the first two months of pregnancy C. You should be happy that you were going to bring new life into the world D. I am going to make an appointment with The counselor for you to discuss these thoughts
A. This is A non-therapeutic response by the nurse and does not acknowledge the clients concerns B. CORRECT: feelings of ambivalence about pregnancy are normal during the first trimester C. This is a non-therapeutic response by the nurse and indicates disapproval D. This is a non-therapeutic response by the nurse and does not acknowledge to the clients feelings
A nurse is teaching a client about potential adverse effects of implantable progestins. Which of the following adverse affects should the nurse include? (Select all that apply) A. Tinnitus B. Irregular vaginal bleeding C. Weight gain D. Breast changes E. Gingival hyperplasia
A. Tonight is is not an adverse effect of implantable progestins. B. CORRECT: irregular vaginal bleeding is a potential adverse effect of implantable progestins. C. CORRECT: we gain is a potential adverse effect of implant of progestins. D. CORRECT: breast changes are a potential adverse effect of implantable progestins. E. Gingival hyperplasia is not a potential adverse effect of implantable progestins.
Lizzie scheduled to have an amniocentesis to test for fetal maturity. To help make sure the procedure is successful, what instruction would be best to give her before this procedure? A. Void immediately before the procedure to reduce the size of your bladder B. The x-ray used to reveal your fetus's position will have no long-term fetal defects C. The IV fluid used to dilate your uterus is isotonic saline so it will not hurt the fetus D. Your fetus will have less amniotic fluid for the rest of the pregnancy, but that's all right
A. Voiding before in amniocentesis helps to reduce bladder size so it doesn't obstruct a clear view of the uterus.
A nurse in the clinic is teaching a client about her new prescription of medroxyprogesterone. Which of the following information should the nurse include about the teaching? (Select all that apply.) A. Weight loss can occur. B. You are protected against STI's. C. You should increase your intake of calcium. D. You should avoid taking anabiotic's. E. Irregular vaginal spotting can occur.
A. Weight gain can occur when taking medroxyprogesterone. B. Medroxyprogesterone does not provide protection against STI's. C. CORRECT: clients should take calcium and vitamin D to prevent loss of bone density, which can occur when taking Medroxyprogesterone. D. Antibiotic's are not contraindicated when taking medroxyprogesterone. E. CORRECT: medroxyprogesterone can cause irregular vaginal bleeding.
A nurse in the clinic is teaching her client about her new prescription to medroxyprogesterone (depo-provera). Which of the following should be included in the teaching? A. Weight loss can occur B. You are protected against STI's C. You should be taking calcium also D. You should avoid taking antibiotics while using this contraceptive
C.
During a prephysical interview, The client reports that she and her husband are using the "rhythm method" of contraception. His method of family planning: A. Requires absence from sexual intercourse a week after menstruation B. Requires abstinence from sexual intercourse 3 to 4 days before ovulation and 3 to 4 days after ovulation C. Requires close monitoring of temperature and assessment of cervical mucus D. Combines abstinence from sexual intercourse two days before ovulation and 2 to 3 days after ovulation in addition to monitoring temperature
B.
Suppose Liz tells you she is worried her baby will be born with a congenital heart disease. What assessment of the umbilical cord at birth would be most important to help detect congenital heart defect's? A. Assessing whether the pH of the Wharton jelly is higher than 7.2 B. Assessing whether the umbilical cord has two arteries and one vein C. Measuring the length of the cord to be certain it is longer than 3 feet D. Determining the umbilical cord is neither green nor yellow stained
B. A normal umbilical cord has one vein and two arteries. Other patterns are associated with cardiac or chromosomal disorders.
Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate when preparing a woman for an amniocentesis? A. Inform her that a narcotic premedication will be given to prevent pain during needle insertion. B. Be certain she knows that there is a slight risk of complication, such as premature labor, from amniocentesis. C. Instruct her not to empty her bladder prior to the procedure. D. Suggest that she take a deep breath and hold it during needle insertion.
B. Be certain she knows that there is a slight risk of complication, such as premature labor, from amniocentesis. Rationale: amniocentesis carries a slight risk of beginning labor. The woman should not hold her breath because that depresses the diaphragm, shifts the contour of the uterus, and may shift the location of the placenta to the chosen needle insertion site. The bladder should be emptied to avoid accidental puncture.
Suppose Dana, 17 years old, tells you she wants to use a fertility awareness method of contraception. How should you best meet Dana's learning needs? A. You should teach her to record if she feels hot and whether she is perspiring heavily. B. You should teach her to assess whether her cervical mucus is thin and watery. C. You should teach her to monitor her emotions for sudden anger or crying. D. You should teach her to assess whether her breasts feel sensitive to cool air.
B. Cervical mucus is thin and watery at ovulation. Subjective sensations of warmth, breast tenderness, and emotional lability are not reliable indicators.
Lauren wasn't totally happy about learning that she was pregnant. What psychological task is important for the woman to complete during the first trimester of her pregnancy it? A. Accepting morning sickness nausea B. Accepting the fact that she is pregnant C. Appreciating the responsibility of having a baby D. Choosing a name for her baby
B. Ensuring safe passage for the fetus consist of accepting the pregnancy in the first trimester, accepting the baby coming in the second trimester, and preparing for parenthood in the third trimester.
Dana, 17 years old, wants to try female condoms as a reproductive planning method. If you were creating a relevant educational handout, it should include which of the following directives? A. The hormone the condom use stimulates may cause mild weight gain. B. Female condoms should be inserted before any penile penetration. C. Women should coat the condom with a spermicide before use. D. Female condoms, unlike male condoms, can be reused after being washed.
B. Female condoms should be inserted before any sexual contact, they should not be reused, and they already contain a spermicide.
Suppose Dana, 17 years old, chooses intramuscular injections of the MPA has her method of reproductive life planning. What instructions would you want members of your care team to give her with regard to this method? A. Encouraged Annette to limit cigarette smoking to know more than one pack per day. B. Encourage David to drink a glass of milk or take a calcium supplement daily. C. Teach Dana not to swim for longer than an hour at any one time. D. Teach Dana not to expose the injection site to direct sunlight.
B. Intramuscular injections (depot medroxyprogesterone acetate [DMPA]) are associated with osteoporosis, so recommending a high calcium intake is important.
A woman's diagonal conjugate measurement is 10.5 cm. You would interpret that her pelvis is which of the following? A. Adequate for childbearing B. Narrow anterior-posterior C. Narrow transversely D. Larger than normal
B. Narrow anterior-posterior Rationale: a typical diagonal conjugate measurement is 12.5 cm
You are reviewing sanders electronic health record. While doing so, you ask Sandra to clarify and confirm her surgical history. Why is it important to ask Sandra about past surgery during her pregnancy health history? A. Previous years of general anesthetics is a risk Factor for preterm labor B. Adhesions from surgery could potentially limit uterine growth C. Previous experience with surgery means that she will likely be comfortable in a hospital setting D. Abdominal incisions are associated with potential uterine rupture
B. Surgery such as for appendicitis can leave adhesions that then might interfere with uterine growth. Risks of uterine rupture and preterm labor or not hire in women with abdominal surgical history.
A male client is interested in learning more about a vasectomy. Which of the following with the nurse include in her teaching? A. He will no longer ejaculate B. He may notice increased scrotal swelling overtime C. He will need to continue contraceptive use at least 10 weeks after the procedure D. His testes will no longer produce sperm
C.
As a pregnant woman lies on the examining table, she grows very short of breath and dizzy. The nurse recognizes which as the probable cause? A. Her cerebral arteries are growing congested with blood B. The uterus requires more blood in a supine position C. Blood is trapped in the vena cava in the supine position D. Sympathetic nerve responses because dyspnea when the woman is in the lying position
C.
The term "reproductive life planning" best refers to the counseling of: A. Only adult married women B. Couples who are concerned about using contraception prior to their first pregnancy C. Couples with concerns related to conceiving, genetic abnormalities and child spacing needs D. Only couples with concerns about genetic defects in future children
C.
Which of the following suggestions would be the best technique to help a client relax during a pelvic examination? A. Bear down as if you have to move your bowels B. Take a deep breath and hold it C. Count backwards from 20 at a steady pace D. Tense your abdominal muscles so the uterus contracts less
C.
Blood volume normally increases during pregnancy. The extent of this increase is what percentage of prepregnancy volume? A. 1% to 10% B. 20% to 30% C. 30% to 50% D. 70% to 90%
C. 30% to 50% Rationale: to supply adequate blood for fetal circulation, blood volume increases 30% to 50%.
Liz is scheduled to have an ultrasound examination and you want to in sure that she understands and is prepared for this procedure to mitigate her anxiety. What instruction will you give her before her examination? A. Use the restroom immediately before the procedure to reduce your bladder size B. The intravenous fluid used to dilate your uterus does not hurt the fetus C. You will need to drink at least three glasses of water before the procedure D. You can have medicine for the pain of any contractions caused by the test
C. A full bladder improve the accuracy of the skin. There is no pain involved.
Which of the best following suggestions would be the best technique to help a client relax during a pelvic examination? A. Bear down as if you have to move your bowels B. Take a deep breath and hold it C. Count backwards from 20 at a steady pace D. Tense your abdominal muscles so the uterus contracts less
C. Count backwards from 20 at a steady pace Rationale: tensing abdominal muscles can make a pelvic exam painful. Suggesting a message to aid relaxation can reduce discomfort.
Dana, 17 years old, emails you to ask how it tubal ligation prevents pregnancy. To be certain she's fully informed, which would be your best answer? A. Sperm can no longer reach the over because fallopian tube's are blocked. B. Sperm cannot enter the uterus because the cervical entrance is blocked. C. Prostaglandins released from the cut fallopian tube's effectively kill sperm. D. The ovary no longer releases over because there is nowhere for them to go.
C. Fallopian tube's are the organs blocked in tubal ligation.
You are reviewing danger signs of pregnancy with Sandra. In the interest of safety, which of the following would you tell her to report if it should occur? A. Her uterus becomes palpable over the symphysis pubis before 12 weeks. B. Blue veins appear and can be readily observed on both of her breasts C. She gains more than 3 pounds a week beginning at 20 weeks D. She tends to lose her balance when she wears high-heeled shoes
C. Oh wait gain over 3 pounds a week during the second trimester would be a potential sign of just stational hypertension. The other list of changes do not constitute safety risks
Sandra feels healthy, so she asks why she needs to bother coming for prenatal care. What benefit should you citement responding to Sandra statement? A. Discovering any allergies can reduce the risk of preterm labor B. It allows for the collection of accurate epidemiologic and demographic data C. It provides time for education about pregnancy and birth D. It provides important time to interact with a prenatal group
C. Prenatal care is a prime time for health education; during this time, nurses playing important role in effective prenatal care. Ultimately, this promote safe pregnancy, labor, and birth. This is more important than collecting statistical data or promoting social interaction. Allergies are not correlated with preterm labor. Despite the patient's wishes, regular prenatal care should be strongly encouraged.
As a pregnant woman lies on the examining table, she grows very short of breath and dizzy.the nurse recognizes which as the probable cause? A. Her cerebral arteries are growing congested with blood. B. The uterus requires more blood in a supine position. C. What is trapped in the vena cava in a supine position. D. Sympathetic nerve responses it cost dyspnea when a woman lie supine
C. What is trapped in the vena cava in a supine position. Rationale: supine hypotension syndrome, or an interference with blood return to the heart, occurs when the weight of the fetus rests on the vena cava.
Beginning in early pregnancy, these membranes become so adherent, they seems as one at term. They have no nerve supply...
Chorionic membrane - the outermost fetal membrane Amniotic membrane or amnion - forms beneath the chorion. Offers support and produces fluid.
The term "reproductive life planning" best refers to the counseling of...
Couples with concerns related to conceiving, genetic abnormalities, and child spacing needs Rationale: reproductive Life planning is pertinent to any woman and man of childbearing age who is in or is planning to be in a sexual relationship. It refers to planning for both having and not having children. Although reproductive life planning can encompass preventing pregnancy is for genetic reasons, it is not limited to this purpose.
A fetus is able to maintain blood circulation in utero by the presence of circulatory shunts. The nurse understands that this is because the ductus arteriosus in utero shunts blood in which direction? A. Left to right heart atria B. Aorta to pulmonary Viena C. Right ventricles to the aorta D. Pulmonary artery to the aorta
D.
Liz, 18 years of age, asks how much longer her woman's nurse practitioner will refer to the baby inside her as an embryo. So your team members will use terms consistently you would want them to know the conceptus is classified as an embryo at what time? A. At the time of fertilization B. When the placenta forms C. From implantation until 20 weeks D. From implantation until 5 to 8 weeks
D. A future baby is an embryo during the period between implantation and 5 to 8 weeks. After that, a baby is termed a fetus.
Santa reports that the palms of her hands are always itchy and you noticed scratches on them when you perform a physical examination. Your plan of care should specify that this problem is most likely due to what factor in women who are pregnant? A. Anxiety or fear about the pregnancy B. A potential RH incompatibility C. Peripheral edema related to changes in fluid and electrolyte levels D. A common reaction to increasing estrogen levels
D. Palmer erythema commonly occurs from increasing estrogen levels. It is not a result of our Rh incompatibility, edema, or inside.
A fetus is able to maintain blood circulation in utero by the presence of circulatory shunts. The nurse understands this is because the ductus arteriosus in utero shunts blood in which direction? A. Left to right heart atria B. Aorta to the pulmonary veins C. Right ventricle to the aorta D. Pulmonary artery to the aorta
D. Pulmonary artery to the aorta Rationale: because the fetal lungs are not inflated, blood must be diverted past them. The ductus arteriosus helps to do this by shunting blood from the pulmonary artery to the aorta.
Sandra has not had a pelvic examination since she was in high school. Consequently, The nurse midwife has asked you to help make her more at ease during her first prenatal pelvic examination. What nursing action should you take? A. Have her take a deep breath and hold it as long as she can during the examination B. Tell her to pair down slightly as a speculum is inserted C. Encourage her to moan and I hope page tone because this will push the diaphragm down D. Teach her to breathe slowly and evenly while being examined
D. Relaxation is important to reduce pain with a pelvic exam. Holding a breath or pushing down on the diaphragm does not relax abdominal muscles.
Suppose Dana, 17 years old, chooses to use a COC as her family planning method? What is a danger sign of COC's you would ask her to report? A. A stuffy or runny nose B. Arthritis like symptoms C. Weight gain over 5 pounds D. Severe migraine headache
D. Severe migraine headache's are a contraindication to Combination oral contraceptives (COCs).
What is the most critical stage of pregnancy?
Embryonic stage (3 to 8 weeks)
A mail client is interested in learning more about having a vasectomy. Which of the following would you include in your teaching?
He will need to continue to use contraception until at least 10 weeks after the procedure. Rationale: vasectomy does not stop sperm production nor does it affect ejaculation. Usually there is no swelling of the scrotum, even immediately after the procedure, although occasionally a hematoma may form. Because residual sperm may be present in the vas deferens, birth-control should be used until the sperm count is negative.
When a woman uses a vaginal spermicide, which of the following actions should she be performing?
Insert the product by applicator no more than one hour prior to coitus Rationale: vaginal spermicides are most effective when placed far back in the vagina where seminal fluid and sperm tend to collect; because spermicides have a short half-life at body temperature, they should not be placed more than one hour before sexual relations. Feminine hygiene products are not effective substitutes for spermicides.
What is one of the few substances that does not cross the placenta from mother to fetus?
Insulin
Advantages of hormonal contraceptives
The pill is highly effective if taken correctly and consistenly
Parity
Number of pregnancies in which the fetus or fetuses reach viability (20 weeks)
During a pre-physical interview, the client reports that she and her husband are using the "rhythm method" of contraception. This method of family planning...
Requires abstinence from sexual intercourse 3 to 4 days before ovulation and 3 to 4 days after ovulation Rationale: abstinence during that time. Provide some degree of protection during the most fertile days of the cycle. Adding additional ways of determining when I'll be elation occurs, such as monitoring cervical mucus or basal temperature, would increase the accuracy of predicting ovulation
Important note about Vasectomies
Sterility is delayed until the proximal portion of the vas deferents is cleared of all remaining sperm (approximately 20 ejaculations)
Para
The number of pregnancies that have reached viability, regardless of whether the infants were born alive
Disadvantages of hormonal contraceptives
The pill increases risk of thrombosis, breast tenderness, scant or missed menstruation, stroke, nausea, headaches, and hormone-dependent cancers. Exacerbates conditions affected by fluid retention such as migraine, epilepsy, asthma, kidney, or heart disease. Anytime the woman has chest pain and shortness of breath, it needs to be reported
Gravida
a woman who is or had been pregnant
What hormone is responsible for nausea/vomiting in the first trimester?
hCG - encourage crackers or plain toast before getting out of bed
